set 2 praxis practice test
Place the phonemes below in the order of typical acquisition. /p/ /θ/ /k/ /ʒ/
/p/forward slash p forward is first because this phoneme is developed between ages 1 and 3. /k/forward slash k forward slash is second because this is developed by age 3 1/2. /θ/forward slash omega forward slash is third because this is developed between ages 3 and 8. /ʒ/forward slash ezh forward slash is last because this is developed between ages 6 and 8.
A 65-year-old patient is transferred from another facility with a diagnosis of aphasia. The patient's symptoms, however, appear more consistent with apraxia. Which of the following tasks for the patient is most appropriate when assessing verbal apraxia of speech? A.Repeating words of increasing length B.Recalling three common items C.Performing voluntary oral movements D.Following two-step commands
Correct Answer: A Option (A) is correct. Inability to repeat two-syllable words is a clear indicator of apraxia of speech.
Management of which one of the following examination observations alone will produce the best improvement in the pneumonia risk of an adult patient with chronic dysphagia? A.Poor oral bolus control and containment B.Poor oral hygiene and dependence for oral care C.Delayed onset of the pharyngeal stage of swallowing D.Impaired distension of the upper esophageal sphincter
Correct Answer: B Option (B) is correct. Studies have identified poor oral hygiene (including presence of decayed teeth) and dependency for oral care as significant independent predictors of pneumonia in people with chronic dysphagia.
Which of the following formants typically characterizes a high vowel? A.High-frequency second formant (F2) B.High-frequency first formant (F1) C.Low-frequency first formant (F1) D.Low-frequency second formant (F2)
Correct Answer: C Option (C) is correct. The F1 is inversely associated with tongue height, such that high vowels tend to have low F1 frequencies.
The head lift exercise published by Shaker et al. (2002) was designed to produce which of the following changes in swallow biomechanics? A.Increase in laryngeal closure duration B.Strengthening of the base of the tongue C.Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UESU E S) opening D.Prolonged relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle
Correct Answer: C Option (C) is correct. The results of Shaker et al. (2002) demonstrated a significant (p<.01p left angle bracket period zero one) increase in the opening duration of the UESU E S.
A 62-year-old male presents to an outpatient SLP following an extended stay at a rehabilitation facility. He had a left-hemisphere stroke three months ago and currently has moderate Broca's aphasia and severe apraxia of speech. It is difficult for him to participate in conversation because of the combination of his word-finding deficits and apraxia of speech. The patient's normal speech pattern consists of one- to two-word phrases, at times including paraphasias. He is able to write but often misspells words. During evaluation, the SLP finds the patient is able to initiate communication, recognize and categorize picture symbols, and comprehend familiar words and phrases. In general, his communication is fragmented and inefficient, but he will try anything to get his message across. Which of the following AAC treatment strategies would be most appropriate for the patient to start with? A.Accessing stored messages in a speech-generating device B.Learning sign language C.Answering multiple-choice questions and writing answers D.Using a 20-item picture board to convey essential wants and needs
Option (A) is correct. Accessing stored messages with a device can ease the burden of communication and assist the patient in answering simple questions.
An SLP uses evidence-based practice by integrating the perspectives and values of the client, patient, or caregivers into the treatment plan. Which of the following best reflects simultaneous incorporation of the host culture's perspectives and values and maintenance of the native culture's perspectives and values? A.Acculturation B.Assimilation C.Enculturation D.Ethnocentrism
Option (A) is correct. Acculturation is the incorporation of the host culture's perspective and the native culture's perspective and values.
To compensate for the effects of normal aging on cognitive functions, older adults will naturally demonstrate A.greater amounts of bilateral activation of prefrontal brain regions B.significant reduction in the activation of the hippocampus C.increased activation in areas of the cortex responsible for visual-spatial processing D.an increase in semantic abilities that do not rely on long-term memory abilities
Option (A) is correct. Alterations in the prefrontal areas in particular are some of the changes seen in normal aging, in part to compensate for reduced frontal activation.
Which of the following techniques is most effective when treating phonation in a patient with spastic dysarthria? A.Completing head and neck relaxation exercises B.Engaging in lip-stretching exercises C.Providing instruction in phonetic placement D.Working on pitch-range exercises
Option (A) is correct. Head and neck relaxation exercises assist in reducing hyperadduction of the vocal folds.
Which of the following signs of dysphagia is the most common oral-stage observation when assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease? A.Repeated nonpropulsive lingual movements B.Eating quickly and impulsively C.Spilling liquids out of mouth because of poor labial seal D.Holding food in mouth because of poor sensation
Option (A) is correct. Lingual festination is very characteristic of patients with PD and does not manifest in many other disorders.
Answer the question below by clicking on the correct response. Question: Clinician:"What do you have there?"Child:"I had a big bus."Clinician:"Is that right?"Child:"Uh, I have a big bus."Clinician:"Now, is that right?"Child:"Yeah." What language-stimulation technique is the clinician using in the above exchange? A.Self-evaluation B.Rephrasing C.Reauditorization D.Parallel talking
Option (A) is correct. The clinician is using prompts to have the child self-evaluate his or her own statements.
An SLP receives a referral from an audiologist for a 72-year-old woman who demonstrates a moderate to severe bilateral sensorineural hearing loss preventing her from participating in social activities. Which of the following best identifies the SLP's role? A.Training in speech reading B.Prescribing hearing aids C.Performing an auditory evaluation D.Using auditory integration training
Option (A) is correct. Providing speech-reading therapy is a primary role for SLPs as it enhances the overall communicative competency for the client.
in Bloom and Lahey's model, morphology is considered A.form B.content C.use D.semantics
Option (A) is correct. The Bloom and Lahey model classifies morphology as form.
Which of the following activities is a principal component of the Lidcombe Program for childhood stuttering? A.Teaching caregivers to provide feedback to their child about the child's fluent and stuttered speech B.Teaching caregivers to support their child's communication attempts but to avoid acknowledging the child's fluency performance C.Teaching children to describe their emotional state to their caregiver when stuttering is anticipated on an upcoming word D.Teaching children to present nonverbal cues to their caregivers when stuttering is anticipated on an upcoming word
Option (A) is correct. The Lidcombe Program is considered a direct therapy approach in which primary caregivers explicitly provide feedback on the child's level of fluency. All other options are part of indirect therapy approaches.
An SLP working with a 45-year-old patient with acquired expressive communication deficits is emphasizing reengagement by focusing on realistic short-term goals of the patient's choice. The SLP is primarily using which of the following approaches to therapy? A.Life Participation Approach to Aphasia (LPAAL P A A) B.Visual Action Therapy (VATV A T) C.Supported Communication Intervention (SCIS C I) D.Prompts for Reconstructing Oral Muscular Phonetic Targets (PROMPTP R O M P T)
Option (A) is correct. The Life Participation Approach to Aphasia (LPAAL P A A) has the overriding philosophy to maximize clients' re-engagement in life and bases all decision making on the life concerns identified by the clients and their families.
An SLP works with a patient who has severe dysphagia. The patient is on a pureed diet and honey-thick liquids. During treatment, the patient becomes tearful and expresses frustration. The patient says, "I feel like I'm not making any progress and I'm never going to eat normal food again. I hate this diet, and I hate doing therapy. I just want to give up." The SLP responds by saying, "What you're feeling is normal, and I understand. You're doing everything you can right now to get better, and giving up isn't the answer." The SLP reaches across the table and places a comforting hand on the patient's arm and has a caring facial expression. Which of the following principles of counseling is the SLP primarily demonstrating? A.Showing congruence B.Having unconditional positive regard C.Offering the patient sympathy D.Providing emotional support
Option (A) is correct. The SLP is demonstrating congruence by using words and body language that match.
Which of the following is an example of deaffrication? A."Chew" is pronounced /ʃu/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash. B."Round" is pronounced /waʋnd/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash. C."Dog" is pronounced /dɔd/forward slash d open o d forward slash. D."Van" is pronounced /fæn/forward slash f ash n forward slash.
Option (A) is correct. The affricate "chC H" is made into a fricative "shS H"; thus it is deaffricated.
An SLP is working with a 30-month-old child who is at the one-word production level. The goal of treatment is to facilitate growth in play as a precursor to the acquisition of two-word semantic relationships. To achieve the goal, the SLP can best begin by facilitating A.the use of pretend play, such as brushing a doll's hair or feeding a doll with a bottle B.the purposeful exploration of toys C.exploration, by mouthing of toys D.mean-end behaviors, such as pulling a string to get a toy
Option (A) is correct. The child needs to be encouraged to proceed to the two-word production stage, and the use of pretend play will encourage action/object two-word phrases such as "Feed baby" and "Brush hair." All of the other answer choices involve behaviors that do not necessarily promote linguistic behaviors.
Questions 117-119 refer to the following information. An 82-year-old female patient is admitted to a skilled nursing facility following an acute hospital stay. Her diagnoses include urinary tract infection, frequent falls with subsequent hip fracture, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). No surgery was required for the hip fracture. Before admission to the hospital, she was living independently and able to complete all activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) on her own. She is referred to the facility SLP for cognitive screening because she has difficulty carrying over new information, confusion regarding weight-bearing status, and difficulty processing directions. The SLP administers the Montreal Cognitive Assessment, and the patient scores 17/30. The patient's main deficits are in the areas of short-term memory, executive functioning, and planning. After the patient is appropriately treated both medically and therapeutically, cognitive deficits remain and the interdisciplinary team does not recommend that the patient return home independently. The patient's family is frustrated with this recommendation and seeks input from other sources. Answer the question below by clicking on the correct response. Question: Which of the following treatment procedures is most appropriate for the patient? A.Engaging in spaced retrieval B.Naming divergent items C.Following specific directions D.Completing word searches
Option (A) is correct. The patient's goal is to return to prior level of function (PLOFP L O F). The patient was able to live independently before her admission, so spaced retrieval techniques will help her to return to her previous level of memory ability or at least teach her compensatory strategies to assist with her memory loss, since she does not yet have a diagnosis of dementia.
An SLP provides home practice for a patient with aphasia as part of discharge plans. The patient is approximately six-months post left-hemisphere stroke that resulted in aphasia. Verbal output has improved significantly since the stroke; however, the patient is still very concerned that written expression is moderately impaired at the single-word level. The homework assignment is to implement copy-and-recall treatment to improve written expression, which involves practicing writing target words (from photographs) and then copying those words multiple times. However, during a follow-up phone call, the SLP determines that the patient is struggling to write the assigned target words because the patient "can't think of the correct letters." Although a model is provided on the back of each target photograph, the patient wants to find a way to practice without looking at the answer. The SLP's best course of action is to suggest that the patient A.try anagramming the words using letter tiles to form the target word B.practice writing the alphabet in order multiple times before beginning the homework again C.use a cell phone voice-to-text application as a compensatory strategy D.use drawing to convey messages instead of using written expression
Option (A) is correct. This approach would give the client the best access to completing the homework. The letter tiles would provide a support for the client to complete the homework and are a regular part of this treatment approach.
Which of the following sounds are typically mastered by the time a child turns 3? A./k/ and /g/forward slash k forward slash and forward slash g forward slash B./p/ and /b/forward slash p forward slash and forward slash b forward slash C./l/ and /s/forward slash l forward slash and forward slash s forward slash D./ch/ and /sh/forward slash c h forward slash and forward slash s h forward slash
Option (B) is correct. /p/ and /b/forward slash p forward slash and forward slash b forward slash should be mastered by age 3 in a typically developing child.
Children with semantic-pragmatic language disorders often have difficulty learning deictic words because such terms A.require an understanding of indirect directives B.take the perspective of the communication partner C.refer to object permanence D.have many alternate forms
Option (B) is correct. Deictic terms are words whose meaning shifts depending on the point of view of the speaker; difficulties with such terms is a core feature of semantic-pragmatic language disorders.
An 82-year-old female patient is admitted to a skilled nursing facility following an acute hospital stay. Her diagnoses include urinary tract infection, frequent falls with subsequent hip fracture, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). No surgery was required for the hip fracture. Before admission to the hospital, she was living independently and able to complete all activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) on her own. She is referred to the facility SLP for cognitive screening because she has difficulty carrying over new information, confusion regarding weight-bearing status, and difficulty processing directions. The SLP administers the Montreal Cognitive Assessment, and the patient scores 17/30. The patient's main deficits are in the areas of short-term memory, executive functioning, and planning. After the patient is appropriately treated both medically and therapeutically, cognitive deficits remain and the interdisciplinary team does not recommend that the patient return home independently. The patient's family is frustrated with this recommendation and seeks input from other sources. Which of the following diagnoses is most appropriate for this patient? A.Cognitive communication deficit B.Other symbolic dysfunction C.Age-related cognitive decline D.Mild cognitive impairment
Option (B) is correct. A neurologist can evaluate and diagnose for dementia and other neurodegenerative diseases that this patient may have. It is accepted practice that SLPs will refer to neurology when a dementia diagnosis is suspected, as dementia is a neurological disorder.
Mr. Lewis, a fourth-grade teacher, has referred a 9-year-old student to the school speech-language pathologist (SLP) because he is concerned that the student's speech is interfering with spelling performance. The SLP observes that the student substitutes the voiceless labiodental fricative for the voiceless interdental fricative in the word-final position and that the student reverses /s/ and /k/forward slash s forward slash and forward slash k forward slash in words such as "ask." Which of the following areas needs to be considered first? A.Auditory discrimination B.Dialectal differences C.Disordered phonological system D.Dyslexia
Option (B) is correct. An f/"th"f forward slash t h substitution as well as the reversal of "sk"s k in "ask" are common characteristics of a dialectal difference.
During an examination of his oral mechanism, an adult male is asked to pucker his lips and then to spread them into a wide smile. This ability depends on the bilateral integrity of which of the following cranial nerves? A.CN Vroman numeral 5? B.CN VIIroman numeral 7? C.CN IXroman numeral 9? D.CN XIIroman numeral 12?
Option (B) is correct. CN VIIroman numeral 7 (the facial nerve) is the major nerve innervating the described physiological action of the lips.
As part of a study, the speech of several subjects with Wilson's disease is evaluated using an acoustic analysis system. The same subjects are assessed again, but with a different system from another manufacturer. Which of the following can be assessed by comparing the two data sets? A.Content validity B.Concurrent validity C.Test-retest reliability D.Interjudge reliability
Option (B) is correct. Concurrent validity refers to the extent to which the results of a particular test, or measurement, correspond to those of a previously established measurement for the same construct.
A 6-year-old child who is a bilingual English-Spanish speaker produced the following statements during a speech-language assessment. I cutted the finger. I played with her yesterday. She eated too much candy. You like ice cream? Maria is going? Father is happy. Buy a new car. Based on the sample, the speech-language pathologist should begin remediation by focusing on A.adjectives and imperatives B.irregular verbs C.prepositional phrases D.conjunctions and embedding
Option (B) is correct. Given the language sample, the child incorrectly recognizes the past tense forms of irregular verbs.
An SLP administers a language test to all kindergarten children in a particular school and finds that 40 percent fall below the tenth percentile of the normative sample. Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this finding? A.Forty percent of the kindergarten children in the school have language disorders. B.The school's kindergarten population differs from the standardization population in the language skills measured. C.The SLP administered the test incorrectly. D.The standardization population is not representative of the nation as a whole.
Option (B) is correct. If disparities exist between examinees and the norm group in terms of skills and experiences, the conclusions based on the examinees' test performance may be misleading.
Following placement of a tracheostomy tube, a patient recovering from cardiothoracic surgery is successfully weaned from mechanical ventilation. A day later the SLP receives a consult to assess patient candidacy for using a one-way tracheostomy valve. Which of the following observations is the most important contraindication for safe and successful patient tolerance of the one-way valve? A.Oxygen saturation below 95% B.Ability of patient to pass air to the oral cavity while exhaling with the tube cannula occluded by the SLP C.Patient ability to expectorate lung secretions without suctioning D.Patient tolerance of the deflated cuff
Option (B) is correct. Inability to pass air to the oral cavity with expiratory occlusion represents an upper-airway obstruction, which is a contraindication for use of a one-way tracheostomy valve.
Sensorineural hearing loss resulting from Ménière's disease causes A.a sudden hearing loss without warning B.fluctuating levels of hearing loss C.complete hearing loss at all frequencies D.bilateral progressive hearing loss
Option (B) is correct. Ménière's disease is a disorder of the inner ear and causes fluctuating hearing loss.
The commonly used chin-down posture was initially developed to eliminate thin-liquid aspiration in people with delayed pharyngeal stage onset after having a stroke, and when its efficacy was investigated, it was found to be 50% effective. For whom is the chin-down posture ineffective at eliminating thin-liquid aspiration? A.People who have cricopharyngeal dysfunction B.People who aspirate residue from the pyriform sinuses C.People who have impaired lingual function D.People who aspirate residue from the valleculae
Option (B) is correct. Shanahan et al. (1993) found that 50 percent of people with stroke- and swallowing-related aspiration due to delayed onset of the pharyngeal response continued to aspirate from the pyriform sinuses using the chin-down posture. Moreover, Eisenhuber et al. (2002) found that people with a pyriform sinus residue with a height that was less than 50 percent of the pyriform sinus height aspirated significantly more than those with less or no pyriform sinus residue.
A 59-year-old male patient with laryngeal cancer presents to an SLP before a laryngectomy. The SLP completes the evaluation and takes time to counsel the patient regarding what to expect during and after the procedure. Which of the following reasons best identifies the importance of a patient meeting with an SLP prior to surgery? A.Exploring alternatives to surgical intervention B.Being educated regarding artificial forms of speech C.Completing therapeutic exercises before the procedure D.Gaining a better understanding of the prognosis
Option (B) is correct. The SLP is equipped with specialized knowledge regarding various forms of voice prosthetics and can assist the patient in choosing which is right for him.
How many continuing education hours are required across a three-year certification renewal period to maintain a Certificate of Clinical Competence in Speech-Language Pathology? A.10 contact hours B.20 contact hours C.30 contact hours D.40 contact hours
Option (C) is correct. ASHA Certification Maintenance Standards require that all certificate holders (CCC-A and CCC-SLP) must accumulate 30 Certification Maintenance Hours (CMHs) of professional development during each three-year certification maintenance interval in order to maintain their ASHA Certificates of Clinical Competence.
During an examination of the oral peripheral mechanism of an adult who has had a right hemisphere stroke in the territory of the middle cerebral artery, testing for lingual motor function reveals protrusion of the tongue to the left of midline. Which of the following is true? A.The patient has a lesion affecting the left hypoglossal nucleus. B.The patient exhibits unilateral left lingual weakness. C.Left vocal fold paralysis should be expected because of the site of the lesion. D.The right hypoglossal nerve is damaged.
Option (B) is correct. The right side of the tongue is stronger and forces (or pushes) the tongue to the left. The imbalance in strength causes the tongue to deviate from midline to the left upon protrusion, hence left lingual weakness.
An SLP tries to elicit correct production of the target sound /s/forward slash s forward slash. Which of the following words provides the best coarticulatory conditions to meet the SLP's goal? A.Spoon B.Sea C.Sob D.Soup
Option (B) is correct. The target sound /s/forward slash s forward slash and the vowel /i/forward slash i forward slash that follows it both require lip spreading. The vowel /i/forward slash i forward slash is high and front.
Which of the following structures is a relay center for sensory information? A.The reticular formation B.The thalamus C.The putamen D.The hippocampus
Option (B) is correct. The thalamus is the major relay system for sensory information.
A 7-month-old infant presents to an SLP for a swallow evaluation prompted by parental concerns related to the child coughing and choking frequently when swallowing thin liquids. The parents have attempted to feed the child small amounts of pureed foods, but the child spits them out. Which of the following developmental milestones is a typically developing 7 month old most likely to demonstrate during a swallow evaluation? A.Showing the ability to manipulate food B.Creating vertical jaw movements C.Using the rooting reflex when food is seen D.Engaging tongue elevation patterns
Option (B) is correct. Using jaw movements to initiate chewing begins to emerge around 5 to 7 months, and it would be appropriate for the SLP to assess whether the child has begun to use this skill.
Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for an SLP to try in an effort to minimize the perception of mild nasal emission in a patient? A.Increasing fundamental frequency B.Using light articulatory contacts C.Reducing mouth opening D.Increasing rate of speech
Option (B) is correct. Using light articulatory contacts can help decrease perception of nasal emissions.
SLPs often have a responsibility to communicate with the parents of children with severe disabilities. According to mourning theory, when are parents normally most receptive to information and advice provided by professionals regarding their child? A.When the parents are working through their feelings about the child's disabilities B.When the parents fully realize the extent of the child's disabilities and the limitations of treatment and education C.When the parents have acquired greater confidence in their capacity to care for the child and greater motivation to cope with the child's disabilities D.When the parents are making decisions regarding future care and protection of the child
Option (C) is correct. According to mourning theory, a grieving person is most receptive to new information about the source of grief after having just entered the recovery stage.
Early intentional communication typically emerges in the months leading up to a child's first birthday. Which of the following communicative functions typically emerges first in this period? A.Requesting B.Commenting C.Protesting D.Greeting
Option (C) is correct. Early intentional communication develops around 8 to 10 months of age, and the first function that emerges is protesting.
Which of the following speech-sampling contexts best assesses hyponasality? A.Producing sentences with oral sonorants B.Counting in numerical order from 60 to 70 C.Saying single words with nasal consonants D.Repeating words with oral-pressure consonants
Option (C) is correct. Hyponasality (too little nasal resonance) is most easily detected during the production of nasal consonants.
Which of the following is an example of a reversible passive? A.The balloon was broken by the pin. B.The kite was flown by Ben Franklin. C.Jared was bullied by Michael. D.The girl put her doll by her friend.
Option (C) is correct. In reversible passive constructions, participants can fit into either role.
Which of the following best describes the speech reception threshold (SRT)? A.It is the intensity level at which spondee words are recognized at or near 100% of the time. B.It is the lowest intensity level at which spondee words can be detected and recognized as speech. C.It is the intensity level at which spondee words are recognized at least 50% of the time. D.It is the lowest intensity level at which spondee words can be discriminated from one another.
Option (C) is correct. It includes the use of spondee words and recognition 50% of the time. Recognition 100% of the time is unrealistic and the reference to the lowest intensity level is too vague.
Patient is a 77-year-old female with a left hemisphere stroke. Sensorimotor clinical examination revealed right lower facial droop, impaired oral sensation, absence of dentition, need for frequent prompts to engage the patient in evaluation procedures, and aphasia. Bedside swallow evaluation with pureed food and nectar-thick liquids revealed food remnants in right lateral sulcus, drooling from the right oral cavity, and intermittent cough that was not present before the swallow evaluation. Prior medical history includes COPDC O P D, diabetes, and congestive heart failure. Patient does not want an instrumental examination. Based on the data above, which of the following is most likely to lead to a clinically significant dysphagia-related adverse event? A.Impaired oral sensorimotor function B.Prior medical history C.Impaired level of alertness D.Aphasia
Option (C) is correct. It is extremely important that the patient is alert and as upright as possible when addressing swallowing and trying out different foods.
A 6-year-old child has difficulty producing both regular and irregular plural forms. Intervention for this problem would best target language at the level of A.syntax B.phonology C.morphology D.semantics
Option (C) is correct. Regular and irregular plural forms are morphological markers.
Which of the following statements best indicates a screening tool with high sensitivity? A.The majority of the children who passed the screening were found to have a communication disorder. B.Many of the children who passed the screening did not have a communication disorder. C.All of the children who failed the screening were found to have a communication disorder. D.Most of the children who failed the screening did not have a communication disorder.
Option (C) is correct. Sensitivity is the success rate in identifying all of the children who truly have a disorder.
A speech and language assessment was conducted on a 6-year-old child. Results indicated normal receptive, expressive, and pragmatic language skills. The child used stopping, fronting, deaffrication, and final consonant deletion. The SLP will likely find which of the following to be the most useful in planning for the child's treatment program? A.Mean length of utterance B.Diadochokinetic rate C.Stimulability information D.Literacy information
Option (C) is correct. Stimulability information is a core feature of a comprehensive assessment for speech sound disorders and shows the level of readiness for therapy.
Which of the following strategies to treat compensatory articulation errors is most appropriate for a child with hypernasality and glottal stop substitutions following surgery for velopharyngeal insufficiency? A.Using oral motor exercises B.Using a straw to elicit /s/forward slash s forward slash C.Using tactile cues to elicit phonemes D.Using negative practice
Option (C) is correct. Tactile cues are used to elicit correct articulation placement.
An SLP designs a series of treatment activities for Jake, a 4 year old who presents with severely delayed phonological development. During one of the activities, the SLP asks Jake to say various word pairs in which two phonologically dissimilar target sounds are contrasted (for example, "chip" and "rip"). Which of the following choices best describes the treatment approach that is being used? A.Multiple-oppositions approach B.Minimal-pairs approach C.Maximal-oppositions approach D.Metaphonological approach
Option (C) is correct. The maximal-oppositions approach contrasts two errored sounds differing across place, manner, and voicing to gain the greatest amount of generalization.
Over the past six weeks, the general education teacher implemented evidence-based classroom and teaching modifications for a student struggling in a language arts class. Careful observation has not shown an increase in the student's performance. The teacher informs the student's parents of plans to refer the student to the speech-language pathologist at school. The teacher then makes an official referral to the local educational agency. Which of the following choices is the maximum time allowed by IDEAI D E A from the official referral for eligibility determination to completion of the evaluation? A.14 days B.30 days C.60 days D.120 days
Option (C) is correct. The official referral begins the formal process of determining eligibility for special education services. Once a referral is provided, the school must obtain consent from the parent(s) or legal guardian(s) to begin the evaluation phase of the referral process. IDEAI D E A requires that students referred for special education services receive an evaluation within 60 days of the referral date.
When assessing the ability of a student with cerebral palsy to access an augmentative and alternative communication device, which of the following physical factors must be evaluated first? A.Upper extremity range of motion B.Lower extremity strength C.Trunk stability and control D.Fine motor dexterity
Option (C) is correct. Trunk stability will guide the clinician in making an appropriate recommendation for the type of device a client can access as it influences more distal movements.
An 81-year-old female presents to a rehabilitation hospital following a severe L MCA stroke. The patient has poststroke right-sided weakness, right neglect, and suspected nonfluent aphasia. Receptive language appears to be mildly impacted. The patient has a complex medical history, including TBI following a car accident two years ago, obesity, diabetes, seizure disorder, congestive heart failure, and hypertension. Socially, the patient has lived alone for the past three years following her husband's death. Since her car accident she mainly watches TV at home and leaves her house only for dialysis. She has meals on wheels and home health aides to assist her with showering. Because of her TBI, her behavior is often variable and erratic. The highest level of education she attained was seventh grade. She stayed home to take care of her children and did not have a career. Which of the following tasks is most appropriate to include when assessing the patient's phrase length? A.Completing divergent naming tasks B.Maintaining a conversation with a known partner C.Responding to open-ended questions D.Repeating sentences of varying lengths
Option (C) is correct. When an SLP assesses phrase length, it is important to task the patient with open-ended questions to assess the patient's ability to spontaneously produce speech.
Which of the following assessment descriptions represents an s/z ratio that is indicative of a vocal pathology? A.1.0 B.1.1 C.1.3 D.1.5
Option (D) is correct. An s/zs slash z ratio greater than 1.4 is indicative of possible laryngeal pathology. An s/zs slash z ratio greater than 1 means the client prolonged the /s/forward slash s forward slash phoneme longer than the /z/forward slash z forward slash phoneme. In other words the client was able to produce a longer sound when the vocal folds were not involved, and sound prolongation was less when the vocal folds were involved.
Alan, a 62-year-old, right-handed African American male, sustained a traumatic brain injury mostly affecting his right hemisphere and bi-lateral frontal lobes. Alan was hospitalized for 24 days before being discharged to an inpatient brain injury rehabilitation program. His spouse attends his initial evaluation sessions. The SLP reports impairments in memory, poor awareness of deficits, and some changes in his communication skills. The SLP already has current information about Alan's performance on a standardized language battery suggesting minimal impairments. Therefore, the SLP completes an evaluation of Alan's functional communication skills. The SLP's assessment involves testing his functional use of humor, facial expressions, nonverbal communication strategies, and understanding functional written materials. The SLP hopes to use this information to determine the impact of Alan's impairments on his daily life. The SLP determines that Alan would benefit from an external memory aid, specifically a memory notebook. The SLP wants to be sure that Alan can learn to use the aid but is concerned that because of his memory impairment, he will struggle to retain the basic information about how to use the aid. The SLP discourages Alan from guessing and intervenes with support before Alan can make a mistake when using the device. Answer the question below by clicking on the correct response. Question: Alan's performance profile reveals which impairment typical to right hemisphere dysfunction? A.Aprosodia B.Unilateral spatial neglect C.Hyperresponsiveness D.Anosognosia
Option (D) is correct. Anosognosia, the reduced awareness of deficits, is common after right hemisphere disorder.
An SLP plans to give Cody, an 8-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, tangible reinforcement in conjunction with the use of manual signs during an object labeling task. At first, reinforcement will be presented every time Cody produces a sign correctly. After several sessions, however, reinforcement will be given after every third instance of correct labeling. Which of the following choices best describes the SLP's reinforcement schedule? A.Fixed-ratio schedule followed by variable-ratio schedule B.Fixed-ratio schedule followed by continuous schedule C.Continuous-ratio schedule followed by fixed-interval schedule D.Continuous-ratio schedule followed by fixed-ratio schedule
Option (D) is correct. At first the desired behavior is reinforced every time it occurs followed by a fixed ratio of every third time.
Esophageal and tracheoesophageal (TEPT E P) techniques for producing alaryngeal voice are similar in that both A.redirect expiratory airflow from the lungs to the esophagus B.result in a vocal fundamental frequency similar to that of laryngeal phonation C.require the speaker to occlude the stoma with either a thumb or a valve D.depend on adequate vibration of the pharyngoesophageal (P EP E) segment
Option (D) is correct. Both esophageal speech and tracheoesophageal speech require vibration of the P EP E segment. Esophageal speech uses air from stomach/lower esophagus to upper esophagus/pharynx, where it vibrates the wall. TEPT E P speech requires the patient to cover the stoma to redirect air and initiate vibration. Fundamental frequency is different than that of laryngeal phonation (e.g.for example, variability and prosody).
Which of the following is used to improve the performance of struggling students who receive scientifically based instruction in a general education classroom? A.Discrepancy formula model B.Early intervention C.Multitier intervention model D.Response to Intervention
Option (D) is correct. Response to Intervention is an approach used to identify and support students with learning and behavior needs. Students are given interventions at tiered levels of difficulty to assess whether further or different interventions are needed.
Which of the following instruments is often used to document stages of recovery after traumatic brain injury (TBIT B I) ? A.Glasgow Coma Scale B.Scale of Executive Function C.Sequenced Inventory of Communication Development D.Rancho Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function
Option (D) is correct. The Rancho Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function is the only truly "scaled" instrument developed specifically for rehabilitation documentation following TBIT B I.
Which of the following muscles is responsible for changing vocal pitch? A.Posterior cricoarytenoid B.Thyroarytenoid C.Lateral cricoarytenoid D.Cricothyroid
Option (D) is correct. The cricothyroid is responsible for changes in vocal fold pitch as it tenses the vocal folds.
Infants with cleft lip and palate are susceptible to middle ear disease because which of the following muscles is commonly impaired? A.The superior constrictor muscle B.The levator veli palatini muscle C.The palatopharyngeus muscle D.The tensor veli palatini muscle
Option (D) is correct. The tensor veli palatini muscle when contracted opens the auditory tube, equalizing middle ear pressure. When the tensor is not functioning properly, the auditory tube is not opened, pressure is not equalized, and fluid may accumulate in the middle ear. The tensor veli palatini travels around the hamulus of the sphenoid bone, where it has a fanlike appearance, and becomes the palatine aponeurosis, extending from the hard palate to the free border of the soft palate.
According to empirical research with people who stutter, which TWO of the following are true regarding the age of symptom onset for most cases? A.It is usually earlier for girls than for boys. B.It is similar for girls and boys. C.It most often occurs in the range of 2 to 5 years old. D.It most often occurs in the range of 6 to 9 years old.
Options (A) and (C) are correct. Research findings indicate that the age of onset for stuttering symptoms is somewhat earlier for girls than for boys, and in most cases, symptom onset occurs in the preschool years.
Which THREE of the following are included in a pragmatic language assessment during conversation? A.New topic initiation B.Speech intelligibility C.Discourse cohesion D.Repair strategies E.Type-token ratio
Options (A),(C) and (D) are correct. Initiating new topics is an important piece when conversing with another person. A pragmatic assessment would analyze this area of conversation. Discourse cohesion shows a child's understanding of not interrupting and responding when appropriate. Using repair strategies will provide the assessor with data related to the child's ability to respond based on what the conversational partner said.
An SLP assesses a 3-year-old child with poor intelligibility. The SLP attempts to determine whether the child has a severe phonological disorder or childhood apraxia of speech (CASC A S). Which TWO of the following characteristics are primarily indicative of CASC A S? A.Presenting with decreased strength and muscle coordination B.Displaying inconsistencies in articulation performance C.Making the same errors independent of length of speech utterance D.Speaking with a disrupted rate, rhythm, and stress of speech
Options (B) and (D) are correct. Children with CASC A S struggle to make consistent productions of speech sounds. Children with CASC A S speak with a rate, rhythm, and stress of speech that can be disrupted, and sometimes they can appear to be groping for placement.
An SLP must assess receptive language and expressive language in a developing language learner. Which of the following standardized assessments is best for each task? For each row, select all that apply. Some rows may be empty.
The correct responses are, in order, receptive language, receptive language and expressive language, receptive language and expressive language. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test—Revised is used to assess receptive language skills. However, the Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals—Preschool and the Preschool Language Scales can be used to asses both receptive and expressive language skills.
For a patient with potential pharyngeal phase dysphagia and pooling of secretions following open-heart surgery with suspected recurrent laryngeal nerve damage, which of the following instrumental examinations for swallowing provides the most direct view for evaluating the patient based on history and suspected difficulties? A.Upper gastrointestinal (GIG I) series B.Fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEESF E E S) C.Videofluoroscopic swallowing study (VFSS) D.Videostroboscopic examination of vocal folds
ption (B) is correct. Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage during open-heart surgery would only involve the left vocal fold. This swallowing instrumental examination allows for both assessment for pharyngeal phase dysphagia, by presenting foods and liquids during the assessment procedure, and a direct view of the functioning of both vocal folds, as well as determining the pooling of secretions.
For a patient's use of consonant cluster reduction, the SLPS L P would most appropriately recommend intervention, including words such as A.knight B.laugh C.stop D.wish
ption (C) is correct. The /st/forward slash s t forward slash in "stop" is the only cluster occurring in the word choices.
