steves review exam 1-7
1,000
10 millisieverts is equivalent to how many milliRems -.1 -1,000 -100 -1 -10,000
b. 6.76 μCi
250 kBq = how many μCi? a. 0.25 μCi b. 6.76 μCi c. 9.25 μCi d. 9.250 μCi
d. I, II, III, or IV
4 mCi of Tl-201 thallous chloride is the prescribed unit dose. According to the NRC, which of the following dose calibrator measurements verifies that a dosage within acceptable limits has been dispensed into a syringe? I. 3.5 mCi II. 4.0 mCi III. 4.3 mCi IV. 4.5 mCi a. II only b. II or III only c. I, II, or III only d. I, II, III, or IV
a. 6
50 mCi Tc99m MAA are available at 0700. How many lung perfusion imaging studies can be performed if the administered dose is 5 mCi and one patient is injected every hour starting an 0730? a. 6 b. 7 c. 10 d. 20
d. unit of blood released for clinical use
A biohazard warning label would be found on all of the following EXCEPT: a. a contaminated sharps container b. refrigerator containing potentially infectious material c. receptacle for contaminated laundry d. unit of blood released for clinical use
b. First pass radionuclide angiography
A cardiac shunt would be best demonstrated with which of the following nuclear medicine techniques? a. Equilibrium gated ventriculogram b. First pass radionuclide angiography c. myocardial infarct imaging d. myocardial perfusion imaging
cephalic
A common antecubital vein used for intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical is the -cephalic -radio -brachial -ulnar
the voltage should be increased
-the voltage should be increased -the voltage should be decreased -the window should be whitened -the window should be moved
E. Having a nitroglycerin drip
A contraindication for performing a myocardial perfusion resting study is A. Fasting for 4-12 hr before the study B. Drinking cold water before the study C. Having a normal sinus rhythm D. Being NPO for 4-12 hr before study E. Having a nitroglycerin drip
B. 75uCi 137Cs
A dose calibrator accuracy test may be performed with which of the following radioactive sources A. 100mCi Tc99m B. 75uCi 137Cs C. 60uCi 99mTc D. 25uCi 137Cs E. 75uCi 99mTc
c. human serum albumin
A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with which of the following Tc99m-labeled tracers? a. pentetate b. medronate c. human serum albumin d. pyrophosphate e. macro aggregated albumin
c. Properly set pulse height analyzer PHA and window width.
A higher or lower sensitivity is affected by all of the following except: a. Thickness of camera Crystal. b. Collimator design. c. Properly set pulse height analyzer PHA and window width. d. Instrument deadtime.
d. discard the eluate
An eluate of Tc 99m pertechnetate is assayed for Mo99 contamination with the following results: Mo99: 45 uCi Tc 99m: 275 Mci On the basis of this assay, the technologist should: a. Wait for the Mo99 to decay acceptable level b. Use the eluate only for studies requiring other than Tc 99 labeled agents c. Use the eluate for all is the next 12 hours d. discard the eluate
D. 8%
An energy resolution test is performed on a scintillation spectrometer using 137 Cs. If the full width at half maximum is deterred to be 53keV and the photopeak energy is 662keV what is the percentage energy resolution of the instrument A. .08% B. 12.5% C. 1.3% D. 8% E. 25%
D. 12hr
An eluate of 99m Tc Pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination immediately after elution. If the 99Mo breakthrough is determined to be .035 uCi 99Mo/mCi 99mTc and the shelf life of the eluate is 12 hr for how many hours after elution can the 99mTc Pertechnetate be administered to patients? A. 6hr B. 8hr C. 18hr D. 12hr E. 24hr
1400
And eluate of Tc 99m pertechnenate is assayed for Mo 99 contamination at 0600 with the following results: Mo99 15.5 uCi Tc99m 250 mCi At 1000, the eluate is used to prepare a Tc 99 labeled compound with a shelf life of 8 hours. what is the latest time that the Tc99m compound may be administer to the patients -1400 -1500 -1700 -1800
a. Fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation after a particular route of administration
Bioavailability refers to what, concerning pharmacology? a. Fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation after a particular route of administration b. fraction of a drug that is excreted from the body c. fraction of a drug that is delivered to the body based on weight d. fraction of a drug that reaches the heart
d. removing attenuating materials from the patient
Before tracer administration, all of the following preparations are required for a 27 year old woman referred for total body bone imaging EXCEPT: a. explaining the procedure to the patient b. answering the patient's questions c. ruling out pregnancy d. removing attenuating materials from the patient
a. Fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation after a particular route of a ministration
Bioavailability refers to what concerning pharmacology? a. Fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation after a particular route of a ministration b. fraction of a drug that is excreted from the body c. fraction of the drug that is delivered to the body on the basis of weight d. fraction of a drug that reaches the heart e. addresses access to medication across the world
b. too large
Boiling a 99mTc sulfur colloid preparation for too long will result in colloidal particles that are: a. Too small b. too large c. optimal size d. chemically unstable
c. the instrument should be repaired or replaced
Co-57 C: 80.6 μCi M: 71 μCi Cs-137 C: 62.3 μCi M: 55.9 μCi based on the results of the dose calibrator accuracy test, what statement is true? a. the wrong radionuclides were used b. insufficient radioactivity was used c. the instrument should be repaired or replaced d. the instrument accurately measures radionuclides of different energies
c. inadequate uniformity correction
Concentric ring artifacts in a reconstructed SPECT image may be caused by: a. Improper collimation b. large statistical fluctuations in project data c. inadequate uniformity correction d. too few angles of reconstruction
d. sincalide
Consumption of a fatty meal may have the same effect on the hepatobiliary system as which of the following compounds? a. cimetidine b. furosemide c. morphine d. sincalide
b. cleansing the area with lukewarm water and detergent
Contamination on the surface of the skin is best removed by: a. Flushing the area with hot water b. cleansing the area with lukewarm water and detergent c. scrubbing the area with a stiff brush d. rubbing the area with an abrasive cleaner
C) Uniformity correction
Correction tables are used for: A) COR correction B) Detector misalignment correction C) Uniformity correction D) Linearity correction
rhinorrhea
Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which of the following conditions is suspected -rhinorrhea -hydrocephalus -CSF shunt patency -blockage of CSF flow
c. prone acquisition
Diaphragmatic attenuation may be reduced by: a. 360° acquisition b. Supine acquisition c. prone acquisition d. delayed imaging
D) blood glucose above 200 mg/dL
Dobutamine is contraindicated for stress testing in patients with all of the following conditions except... A) severe aortic stenosis B) unstable angina C) EF below 15% D) blood glucose above 200 mg/dL
d. daily
Dose calibrator constancy should be performed: a. Monthly b. quarterly c. weekly d. daily
b. liquid phase In-111 DTPA solid phase Tc-99m sulfur colloid
Dual isotopes gastric emptying studies use which of the following radiopharmaceuticals for each phase of gastric emptying?
a. With the collimator on
Extrinsic quality control on a camera means quality control is done: a. With the collimator on b. without the collimator on c. inside the camera d. outside the camera
c. incorrect acquisition matrix
Extrinsic uniformity is performed daily on acetylation camera with a CO 57th sheet source and low energy all purpose parallel whole collimator. From the data shown here: All of the following may have caused the decrease sensitivity on June 5 except: a. Incorrect photo peak/window setting b. incorrect collimator c. incorrect acquisition matrix d. a cracked Crystal
b. hyperthyroidism
Fever, dehydration, and slightly elevated white cell count are all symptoms of: a. Non-toxic goiter b. hyperthyroidism c. hypothyroidism d. benign thyroid goiter
d. myocardial perfusion patency
Functional cardiac studies may be performed to evaluate wall-motion abnormalities caused by all of the following except: a. Aneurysms b. myocardial infarction c. myocardial ischemia d. myocardial perfusion patency
D. Rule out ureteropelvic obstruction
Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to A. Rule out transplant rejection B. Increase blood flow to the kidneys C. Enhance tracer uptake in an abnormal kidney D. Rule out ureteropelvic obstruction E. Decrease blood flow to the kidneys
C) Proportional
Gas amplification is a phenomenon associated associated with instruments that operate in the _________ region of the gas curve for radiation detectors. A) Recombination B) Ionization C) Proportional D) Continuous Discharge
facilitate an absorption of vitamin B 12
Historically, the function of the intrinsic factor administered during the schillings test was to: -Increase urine output -facilitate an absorption of vitamin B 12 -relieve patient anxiety -saturate the bodies vitamin B 12 for storage sites
A) The pulses are larger
How do the sizes of the pulses produced by the collection of ions in the proportional region compare to those produced by an instrument that operates in the ionization region of the gas curve for radiation detectors? A) The pulses are larger B) The pulses are smaller C) The pulses are the same size D) The pulses are in resonance
b. the gland appears smaller
How does moving a pinhole further away affect the image? a. the gland appears larger b. the gland appears smaller c. right and left are reversed d. there is no change in size or orientation
b. weekly
How frequently should linearity and spatial resolution test be performed on a scintillation camera? a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. quarterly
b. 3 years
How long do you keep survey records? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. as long as the facility's license is in effect
b. 10-15 minutes
How long do you wait after injecting Tc-99m sulfur colloid for liver SPECT? a. immediately b. 10-15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes d. 1-2 hours
b. 3-5 million
How many counts for a daily flood? a. 1-2 million b. 3-5 million c. 6-10 million d. 20-30 million
d. 1009 µCi
How many microcuries must be placed in each I-123 sodium iodide capsule to provide approx. 220 uCi at the time of calibration 29 hr following preparation (DF for 1 hr = 0.9488)? a. 264 µCi b. 704 µCi c. 800 µCi d. 1009 µCi
C. 491520 bytes
How much memory will be needed for a gated equilibrium cardiac function examination that is acquired in 30 frames with a 128x128 byte mode matrix A. 3840 bytes B. 16384 bytes C. 491520 bytes D. 546 bytes E. 256 bytes
Daily
How often must dose calibrator constancy be performed -Daily -Monthly -Weekly -Annually -Hourly
a. on a reasonable schedule
How often must wipe tests be performed? a. on a reasonable schedule b. every day radiopharmaceuticals are used c. weekly d. only if contamination occurs
Daily
How often should a uniformity flood be acquired on a scintillation camera -Weekly -Daily -Monthly -Quarterly -Hourly
b. quarterly
How often should dose calibrator linearity testing be performed? a. annually b. quarterly c. monthly d. daily
b. liver
Hydrolysis of reduced 99mTc during kit preparation is demonstrated on clinical images by radioactivity concentrated in the: a. Kidneys b. liver c. lungs d. thyroid
c. instant thin layer chromatography
ITLC refers to: a. Instant transverse light chromatography b. Instant tomographic layer chromatography c. instant thin layer chromatography d. instant thin light chromatography
c. II, III, or IV only
IV materials labeled with which expiration dates may be used on aug 10, 2005? I. july 31, 2005 II. aug 31, 2005 III. sept 30, 2005 IV. oct 1, 2006 a. IV only b. III or IV only c. II, III, or IV only d. I, II, III, or IV
b. 0.159 mL
If 0.02 μg/kg of CCK is needed for a HIDA, what value needs to be drawn for a 175 pound patient with a solution of 10 μg/ml available to draw from? a. 0.115 mL b. 0.159 mL c. 0.175 mL d. 0.192 mL
b. 91%
If 375 mCi Tc-99m are present on the column of a generator and after elution, 342 mCi are assayed in the elution vial, the approximate elution efficiency is: a. 110% b. 91% c. 33% d. 11%
c. 0.6 mCi
If 4 mCi of Tc99m sulfur colloid is administered intravenously, approximately how much activity will be concentrated in the spleen of a normal subject (biodistribution is 80, 15, and 5% to different parts of the body)? a. 4 mCi b. 3.2 mCi c. 0.6 mCi d. 0.2 militaries
A. 20mL
If 633 mCi are expected to be equated from a wet column generator, what volume evacuated vial should be use to obtain an eluate concentration of approximately 30mCi/mL A. 20mL B. 10mL C. 15mL D. 5mL E. 25mL
b. 58 MBq 172 pounds ——> = 78kg 78kg x 740kBq = 57270kBq 57270kBq / 1000 = 58mBq
If 740kBq of a radiopharmaceutical is to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity in MBq should be administered to a patient who weighs 172 pounds a. 9.5 MBq b. 58 MBq c. 78 MBq d. 280 MBq
b. clear excess tracer from the the blood
Following administration of a bone imaging tracer, the patient is instructed to drink fluids to: a. Decrease radiation exposure to the bones b. clear excess tracer from the the blood c. enhance visualization of the kidneys and bladder d. remove tracer from normal bone tissue
A) 3.12 mm²
For SPECT acquisition, a reasonable choice for pixel size would be: A) 3.12 mm² B) 1/3 FWHM of detector resolution or smaller C) Equal to 3 FWHM D) Equal to 2 FWHM
E. Results of previous bone imaging procedures
For a patient undergoing bone imaging which of the following information from medical history is relevant to the interpretation of the bone image? A. Splenectomy 5 years ago B. Abdominal surgery 10 days ago C. radiation therapy to the breast 6mnths ago D. Gallbladder surgery a year ago E. Results of previous bone imaging procedures
d. rule out possible causes of the patients symptoms
For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a CXR is required to: a. determine cardiac size b. rule out PE c. rule out previous lung surgery d. rule out possible causes of the patients symptoms
D) 24-hr delayed imaging
For the detection of liver hemangioma, all of the following imaging is routinely performed except: A) blood flow images B) immediate blood pool images C) delayed imaging as late as 3 hours following tracer administration D) 24-hr delayed imaging
C) Necrotic tissue
For the majority of studies, "cold" spots are areas on the image display that indicate: A) Increased activity B) Mistuned PMTs C) Necrotic tissue D) Nonlinearity
c. hyperglycemia reduces tumor uptake of the tracer
For what reason is a patient's blood glucose level checked prior to F-18 FDG administration? a. FDG tends to increase blood glucose levels that they already be elevated b. the blood glucose levels may need to be increased to ensure a good tracer uptake c. hyperglycemia reduces tumor uptake of the tracer d. FDG administration is contraindicated in diabetic patients
a. evaluate temporomandibular joint pain
For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone imaging ("spot" views) be most appropriate? a. evaluate temporomandibular joint pain b. evaluate paget's disease c. rule out skeletal metastases d. with history of child abuse, rule out occult fractures e. rule out kidney stones
A) rule out avascular necrosis of the right femoral head
For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone imaging ("spot" views) be most appropriate? A) rule out avascular necrosis of the right femoral head B) rule out bone metastases C) determine extent of Paget's disease D) history of child abuse; rule out occult fractures
gastric emptying
For which of the following procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally? -gastric emptying -gastrointestinal bleeding -salivary gland imaging -vesicoureteral reflux imaging
A) The employer is not required to post any violations of the regulations involving radiological working conditions
Form X or NRC Form 3 includes all of the following except: A) The employer is not required to post any violations of the regulations involving radiological working conditions B) The worker is required to become familiar with the regulations and operating procedures for the work engaged in C) The worker and employer must abide by the state and federal regulations D) The employer will make available to the worker a copy of all applicable state and federal regulations, licenses, and operating procedures pertaining to the work
b. 6.25%
Four HVLs reduce the amount of incident radiation exposure to what? a. 12.5% b. 6.25% c. 3.125% d. none of the above
86.1%
On the basis of the chromatography results shown here what is the percentage radiochemical purity of the 99mTc Mertiatide preparation? Origin Solvent Front System 1: 107.5uCi 99mTc Mertiatide + HR-Tc 9.2uCi 99mTc Pertechnetate System 2: 8.4uCi HR-Tc 132.6uCi 99mTc Mertiatide + Hr-Tc -13.9% -96.2% -92.1% -94.0% -86.1%
b. polycythemia vera
P-32 sodium phosphate may be used to treat which of the following conditions? a. liver metastases b. polycythemia vera c. rheumatoid arthritis d. malignant effusions
b. Auto gain stabilization
Photomultiplier tube drift is associated with which of the following: a. Auto voltage stabilization b. Auto gain stabilization c. energy correction d. linearity correction
d. I-131 tositumomab
Lugol's solution may be given to the patient for therapy with what radiopharmaceutical? a. Sm-153 lexidronam b. Sr-89 chloride c. I-131 sodium chloride d. I-131 tositumomab
d. hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder
Proper placement of a urine collection bag includes: a. placing it across the patient's lower legs to keep it near the level of the bladder b. placing it on the stretcher near the patients feet so that it is out of the FOV c. hanging it from an IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder d. hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder
C) holding the RP as close to the eye as possible
Methods to decrease personal radiation exposure when preparing patient doses for injection include all of the following except: A) working as quickly as possible B) preparing all necessary materials in advance C) holding the RP as close to the eye as possible D) using syringe shields
c. The eluate may be administered to patients
Mo-99 breakthrough done at 0600Mo-99: 10 μCiTc-99m: 416 mCiWhich of the following statements about this elution at 1700 is true? a. The eluate should not be used to label compounds with Tc-99m b. The eluate does not contain sufficient Tc-99m activity c. The eluate may be administered to patients d. The eluate must not be administered to patients
a. Sphincter of Oddi to contract
Morphine is administered during hepatobiliary imaging to cause the: a. Sphincter of Oddi to contract b. gallbladder to empty completely c. cystic duct to open d. tracer to be diverted to the common bile duct
multiplying the respiration rate by four
Pulse rates may be determined by all of the following methods except -multiplying the respiration rate by four -using a pulse oximeter -listening to the heart with a stethoscope -analyzing the electrocardiogram
b. 35%
Right lung: 175326 Left lung: 325672(net counts) What is the percentage perfusion to the right lung? a. 30% b. 35% c. 54% d. 65%
c. when the container gives only a background readings with a survey meter
Sharps container reads 50 hR/Hr when is placed in storage. It contains only Tc99m waste. According to the NRC regulations, when can a container be disposed of as nonradioactive hazard waste? a. When the exposure rate drops to 1/10 of the original exposure rate b. when exposure rate drops to 1/100 of the original exposure rate c. when the container gives only a background readings with a survey meter d. when the container gives gives only a background readings with a wipe test
c. liver dysfunction
Significant visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m sulfur colloid liver/spleen image is most likely due to... a. Improper colloid particles that are too large b. insufficient circulation time of the radiopharmaceutical c. liver dysfunction d. overactive bone marrow
e.) hot, dry skin
Signs/Symptoms that a patient is going into anaphylactic shock include all of the following except: a.) skin splotches b.) pallor c.) restlessness d.) tachycardia e.) hot, dry skin
c. linearity
Sources of intrinsic nonuniformity include all of the following except: a. Mistuned PMTs b. regional variations in Z pulse amplitude c. linearity d. spatial distortion
b. bone palliation therapy
Sr 89 and Sm 153 are used for which indications? a. Cardiac imaging b. bone palliation therapy c. bone scan to assess metastasis d. liver/spleen metastasis disease
a. bone pain
Sr-89 chloride is used to that what condition? a. bone pain b. polycythemia vera c. rheumatoid arthritis d. malignant effusions
b. blood clearance of excess tracer
Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit: a. maximum tracer uptake in the skeleton b. blood clearance of excess tracer c. tracer clearance from sites of infiltration d. tracer clearance from normal bone tissue e. tracer clearance from the kidneys
Thyroid imaging
Static frame mode acquisition is the most appropriate type of image acquisition for which of the following procedures? -First phase of a three phase bone scan -Thyroid imaging -Left ventricular ejection fraction imaging -Renal function imaging -Bone imaging
2 hours
Static renal imaging is performed about how long after the administration of Tc 99m succimer? -Immediately -30 minutes -2 hours -8 hours
c. Tc99m succimer
Static renal parenchyma imaging would be best performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals? a. Tc99m Mertiatide b. Tc99m pentetate c. Tc99m succimer d. Tc99m gluceptate
a. does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium
Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with Tc99m sestamibi requires two administrations of tracers, because the tracer: a. does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium b. rapidly washes out of the myocardium after administration c. has too short a half-life to permit delated imaging d. must be administered immediately after its preparation e. has a fast biological half-life
B. An increased heart rate
Tachycardia is demonstrated on a EKG strip as A. A large P-R interval B. An increased heart rate C. A normal QRS heart rhythm D. A decreased heart rateE. A flat line
III Only
Tc 99m Medronate image of the region shown would best demonstrate which of the following structures? I. Iliac crest II. Distal Femur III. Ischium IV. Thoracic vertebrae 10-12 III only I and III only III and IV only I, III, and IV only
c. 90%
Tc-99m radiopharmaceuticals should have what radiochemical impurity percentage in order to be administered to patients? a. 98% b. 95% c. 90% d. 88%
c. framing rate
Temporal resolution is related to which of the following acquisition parameters? a. percentage energy window b. matrix size c. framing rate d. collimator
b. MUGA
Temporal smoothing can be done on which of the following scans? a. WB bone b. MUGA c. liver SPECT d. thyroid
spleen
The Cr 51 red cell sequestration study is performed to identify abnormal destruction of red blood cells by the -bone marrow -heart -liver -spleen
D. The ERPF will be lower than it should
If 99mTC radioactivity in the circulation from a previous NM test occurs in a renal scan in the plasma draw A. The ERPF will be higher than it should B. It is impossible to predict what will happen to ERPF C. The ERPF will not be effected D. The ERPF will be lower than it should E. The ERPF cannot be determined
C. 0900
If 99mTc Exametazime is prepared at 0900 to label white blood cells it should be used no later than what time A. 1300 B. 1100 C. 0900 D. 1500 E. 1700
b.) 10-15 min
If Tc99m sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be best visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered? a.) 20-30 min b.) 10-15 min c.) 45 min- hr d.) anytime up to 24 hr e.) anytime up to 48 hr
A. 210mCi/mL
If a 1.2Ci of 99mTc are eluted from a generator in a 5.7mL volume what is the concentration of the eluate? A. 210mCi/mL B. 475mCi/mL C. 32.4 MBq/mL D. 5.7GBq/mL E. 7.5GBq/mL
d. 1:10,000
If a 1:50 dilution of a solution with a tracer concentration of 50 uCi/mL is prepared, followed by a 1:200 dilution of the 1:50 dilution, what is the final dilution? a. 1:20 b 1:50 c. 1:100 d. 1:10,000
b. 925 µCi
If a 20 microcuries 123I dose is needed on Monday morning 8/15/09, at 0800 CST, what amount of 123I should be sent from Atlanta at 0800 Friday morning, 8/12/09, for the right amount to be available Monday morning? a. 878 µCi b. 925 µCi c. 988 µCi d. 1088 µCi
328-400keV
If a 20% window is set around a centerline of 364keV what energies will be accepted into the pulse height analyzer -291-437keV -328-400keV -344-384keV -354-374keV -364-384keV
c. 12.5 mCi 290 uCi/kg x1 mCi/1000 uCi = .29mCi/kg 95 pounds / 2.2 = 48.2 48.2 kg x .29 mCi/kg= 12.5 mCi
If a 290 uCi/kg dose is needed, approximately how many military should I 95 pound patient receive? a. 5.8 mCi b. 11.5 mCi c. 12.5 mCi d. 20 mCi
E. 64kB
If a 99mTc Medronate bone image and 111In Tagged White Blood cell image are acquired simultaneously with a 128x128 word mode matrix how much computer memory is required to store the images? A. 32kB B. 16kB C. 256kB D. 128kB E. 64kB
.15 cycles/pixel
If a Butterworth filter is applied to an image and the order of the filter remains constant which of the following cutoff frequencies (the frequency at which the filter magnitude drops below .5) will result in the smoothest image -.50 cycles/pixel -.42 cycles/pixel -.33 cycles/pixel -.15 cycles/pixel -.12 cycles.pixel
E. 16kB
If a Ga67 static image is acquired into a 128x128 byte mode matrix using the photopeak at 93, 185, and 300keV how much computer memory is required to store the image A.256kB B. 64kB C. 32kB D. 128kB E. 16kB
c. 0600 Tuesday
If a Mo-99/Tc-99m generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the maximum Tc-99m activity could next be eluted at what time? a. 1200 Monday b. 1800 Monday c. 0600 Tuesday d. 0600 Wednesday
a. Will be decreased
If a Mo99/Tc99m generator is eluated at 0700 and again at 1300, the next days Tc99m yield at 0700: a. Will be decreased b. will be unaffected c. will be increased d. cannot be predicted
d. the exposure from the x-ray exam must not be included in the occupational exposure record
If a NMT needs a diagnostic x-ray, how should this exposure be included in his/her occupational exposure record? a. the tech should wear his/her film badge during the x-ray exam b. the RSO will estimate probable exposure and add it to the tech's permanent record c. the RSO will provide a separate dosimeter to be worn during the x-ray exam d. the exposure from the x-ray exam must not be included in the occupational exposure record
C. 2
If a PLES transmission phantom is used, how many images must be acquired to asses linearity over the entire field of view of a scintillation camera A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5 E. 4
b. ~1.11 mL
If a concentration equals 25 mCi/mL at 0700 but a dose of 30 mCi needs to be drawn at 0200, what volume needs to be drawn if the DF is 0.985 for 1 hr? a. ~1.52 mL b. ~1.11 mL c. ~0.77 mL d. ~0.52 mL
D.66hr
If a dose calibrator linearity test begins by assaying 50mCi of 99mTc Pertechnetate, for how long should the test be carried out A.24hr B.48hr C.72hr D.66hr E.96hr
c. contact the generator manufacture
If a new generator is eluted several times and each time the amount of aluminum in the eluate exceeds the USP limit, the technology should: a. Increase dilution volume b. use the eluate for patient's c. contact the generator manufacture d. prepare kits with an additional oxidation agent
C. Decreased tracer activity in the lung apices
If a patient is injected with 99mTc MAA while in a upright position which of the following is most likely to be seen on the perfusion lung images. A. Increased tracer activity in the lung apices B. Increased tracer activity in the lung bases C. Decreased tracer activity in the lung apices D. Decreased tracer activity throughout both lungs E. The heart
d. NRC and referring physician
If a patient receives 20mCi of I 131 Sodium Iodide instead of a prescribed dose of 15mCi fro therapy of hyperthyroidism which of the following individuals/agencies must be notified a. NRC b. NRC and FDA c. referring physician d. NRC and referring physician
proceed with examination
If a patient scheduled for F 18 FDG imaging has a measure blood glucose level of 100 mg/dl. Which of the following actions should be should the technologist perform next? -Reschedule the patient for a later time -administer insulin to lower the patient's blood glucose level -administer glucose to raise the patient's blood glucose level -proceed with examination
c. Remove the spill with some absorbent material and cover any residual activity with a lead plate or lead apron.
If a patient who is having a bone scan urinates on the floor next to a camera, what would be the best course of action to reduce radiation exposure? a. Let the radioactive urine decay to background. b. Move the camera away from the spill. c. Remove the spill with some absorbent material and cover any residual activity with a lead plate or lead apron. d. Notify the referring physician of a medical event.
b. 4.6 mCi
If a physician prescribes an RPH according to the patient's body weight, approx. how much activity should a 185-lb patient receive if 55 uCi/kg is prescribed? a. 1.6 mCi b. 4.6 mCi c. 9.6 mCi d. 46 mCi
d. infiltration of the tracer
If a plasma volume has been determines to be 15 L, which of the following has most likely occurred? a. completion of a satisfactory study b. over hydration of the patient c. leakage of tracer from the circulation d. infiltration of the tracer
b. 4.2 mr/hr
If a point source produces an exposure rate of 30 mr/hr at 15 cm, what is the exposure rate at 40 cm? a. 0.2 mr/hr b. 4.2 mr/hr c. 11.2 mr/hr d. 22 mr/hr
B. 5ft
If a point source produces an exposure rate of 50mR/hr at a distance of 1 foot at what distance from the source will the exposure rate be reduced to 2mR/hr A. 5.5 ft B. 5ft C. 10ft D. 25ft E. 50ft
c. 4.4 ml
If a radiopharmaceutical kit must be reconstituted with 30 mCi contained in 5 ml and the eluate has an activity of 350 mCi in 7 ml, how many ml of saline must be added? a. 0.1 ml b. 0.6 ml c. 4.4 ml d. 4.9 ml
c. 6 half lives
If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3 mr/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to background (0.05 mr/hr) a. 4 half lives b. 5 half lives c. 6 half lives d. 7 half lives
c.) some particles may be smaller than 10 um
On the basis of the USP criteria, which of the following statements about the particle size of MAA preparations is true? a.) no particles should exceed 90 um in diameter b.) all particles have the same diameter c.) some particles may be smaller than 10 um d.) up to 10% of the particles may exceed 150 um in diameter e.) up to 25% of the particles may exceed 150 um in diameter
c. 3.6 mrem
If the ambient exposure rate in a hot lab is determined to be 1.2mR/hr, what will be the radiation dose to a technologist as a result of 3hr of work in the lab? a. 0.06 mrem b. 0.4 mrem c. 3.6 mrem d. 40 mrem
100 uCi/mL
If the concentration of a 1:2000 dilution is 0.05 uCi/mL, what is the tracer concentration of the original solution? -0.00025 uCi/mL -10 uCi/mL -25 uCi/mL -100 uCi/mL
To one quarter of the original exposure rate
If the distance between a radiation point source and a survey meter is doubled the measured radiation exposure rate is reduced -To half of the original exposure rate -Unpredictably -To one eighth of the original exposure rate -To one quarter of the original exposure rate -To one ninth of the original exposure rate
c. 10.4 mR
If the exposure rate is 25 mR/hr and the person being exposed is present for 25 min, what is his/her total exposure? a. 25 mR b. 12.5 mR c. 10.4 mR d. 5.2 mR
D. .012uCi/mCi
If the following measurements were obtained from an assay of Tc99m Eluate 99Mo, 8uCi Tc 99m, 652mCi Then the 99Mo concentration in 1mCi of 99mTc A. 81.5uCi/mCi B. 8.0uCi/mCi C. .000012uCi/mCi D. .012uCi/mCi E. .0012uCi/mCi
b. morphine
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 minutes during hepatobiliary imaging, what may be administered? a. cimetidine b. morphine c. dobutamine d. furosemide
B. Morphine
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60min during Hepatobiliary imaging which of the following may be administered A. Cimetidine B. Morphine C. Dobutamine D. Furosemide E. Adenosine
D. 2600, 6500
If the hematocrit is 40% and a plasma volume determination performed with 125I Human Serum Albumin is 3900mL what are the derived red cell and whole blood volumes in milliliters Red Cell Volume (mL), Whole Blood Volume (mL) A. 1560, 2340 B. 2340, 6240 C.5850, 9750 D. 2600, 6500 E. 6500, 2340
c. use a correction factor to determine true activities
If the results of a dose calibrator linearity test demonstrate that the measured values exceed the values by 12-15%, the tech should: a. replace the instrument b. have the instrument repaired c. use a correction factor to determine true activities d. use the actual dose calibrator activity readings
c. the tracer contained unbound free tech
If the tracer concentration is visualized in the stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation is that: a. There is pathology in those areas b. the patient did not drink sufficient fluids c. the tracer contained unbound free tech d. the patient was imaged too soon to allow adequate blood clearance of the tracer
c. 0944
If the tracer for an ERPF determination using the blood sampling method is administered at 0900, at what time should the blood sample be collected? a. 0915 b. 0935 c. 0944 d. 1000
C. 2mCi
If the usual adult dosage of 99mTc MAA is 4mCi a patient who has had a right pneumonectomy should recieve what dosage A. 1mCi B. 3mCi C. 2mCi D. 5mCi E. 4mCi
b. radiopharmaceutical contained excess free TcO4
If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findings is that the: a. patient was imaged too soon after tracer administration b. radiopharmaceutical contained excess free TcO4 c. patients renal function is compromised d. incorrect radiopharmaceutical was administered
b. anterior and right lateral
If visualized, the gallbladder fossa may be seen on what view(s) of a liver/spleen image? a. Anterior and posterior b. anterior and right lateral b. anterior only d. right lateral only
D. Scanning for a longer time
Image noise can be decreased during dedicated PET imaging by A. Decreasing the distance between the patient and the detectors B. Using 2 D mode C. Decrease the dosage activity D. Scanning for a longer time E. Using 4D mode
d. drawing regions of interest
Images acquired during a gastric-emptying study are primarily used for: a. demonstrating exit of the tracer from the stomach b. assessing normal biodistribution of the tracer c. measuring the size of the stomach d. drawing regions of interest
b. "caution: radioactive materials"
Imaging rooms should be posted with what signs? a. no posting required b. "caution: radioactive materials" c. "caution: radiation area" d. "caution: high radiation area"
b. patient chart indicates DNR
In a hospital setting, CPR cannot legally be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest when the: a. The patient has an infectious disease b. patient chart indicates DNR c. the patient is hallucinating d. the patient's chart indicates terminal illness
20 to 30 minutes
In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur at a maximum of how long after tracer administration? -10 to 15 minutes -20 to 30 minutes -45 to 60 minutes -1 to 2 hours
c. 30 minutes
In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur no longer than how many minutes following tracer administration? a. 5 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 60 minutes
c.) spleen
In a normal hepatobiliary study, which of the following structures will not be visualized? a.) liver b.) common bile duct c.) spleen d.) gallbladder e.) intestines
b. 3 to 5 min
In a normal kidney, the maximum amount of tracer should be concentrated in the kidney how many minutes after administration of 99mTc mertiatide? a. 1 to 2 min b. 3 to 5 min c. 8 to 10 min d. 30 to 35 min
a. Decrease
In a normally functioning system, an increase in circulating thyroid hormone will cause TSH secretion to: a. Decrease b. increase c. remain the same d. vary unpredictably
c. perfusion defects normal ventilation
In a patient with pulmonary embolism, the perfusion and xenon ventilation lung images will demonstrate the following findings:
a. Prevent additional tagging once the cells are re-injected into the patient
In a red cell volume determination, it is necessary to add ascorbic acid to the labeled red cells to: a. Prevent additional tagging once the cells are re-injected into the patient b. remove the CR 51 not tagged to the red cells c. suspend the cells homogeneously d. prevent coagulation of the whole blood sample
b. carbon dioxide
In a xenon administration unit, the purpose of soda lime is to absorb: a. Bacteria b. carbon dioxide c. moisture d. xenon
b. no stable forms of the radioisotope are in the sample
In practice, carrier-free specific activity means that: a. The sample contains no chemical contaminants b. no stable forms of the radioisotope are in the sample c. all nuclei in the sample will always remain radioactive d. only stable forms of an isotope are present
d.) maximum tumor uptake
In preparation for F18 flurodeoxyglucose imaging patients are required to fast to: a.) prevent hypoglycemic episodes b.) enhance cardiac uptake c.) eliminate the need for laxatives d.) maximum tumor uptake e.) prevent brown fat deposits
b. minimize tracer uptake in GI tract
In preparation for a Tl-201 stress test, patients are instructed to fast to: a. prevent GI upset during exercise b. minimize tracer uptake in GI tract c. enhance myocardial tracer uptake d. standardize test conditions among patients
b. minimize tracer uptake in the G.I. tract
In preparation for a stress test, patients are instructed to fast to: a. Prevent gastrointestinal upset during exercise b. minimize tracer uptake in the G.I. tract c. enhance myocardial tracer uptake d. standardized test conditions among patients
d.) avoid stimulating the gallbladder
In preparation for hepatabiliary imaging, patients are required to fast to: a.) prevent renal uptake of the tracer b.) enhance liver uptake of the tracer c.) minimize the risk of radioactive emesis d.) avoid stimulating the gallbladder e.) avoid gastric interference
a. Transaxial
In processing a myocardial perfusion study, a slice from which body axis is used to identify the degree to which the heart points to the left and is used to construct slices in the three opposing cardiac planes? a. Transaxial b. horizontal long axis c. vertical long axis d. short axis
d. horizontal and vertical lines
Linearity correction involves: a. Diagonal lines b. horizontal lines c. vertical lines d. horizontal and vertical lines
C.22. 1inch
Of the following needles which size is the most likely to cause coring of the rubber closure of a medication vialGauge. Length A. 16. 1.5inch B. 25. 3/4inch C.22. 1inch D.27. 3/8 inch E.10. 1.0inch
A. 3mL
Of the following syringes which size would be best for withdrawing 1mL of radiopharmaceutical from a multi dose vial A. 3mL B. 1mL C. 5mL D. 20mL E. 10mL
b. trapping and shielding requirement
Of the following, the biggest disadvantage of 133 Xe for performing lung ventilation studies is its: a. Rapid lung clearance b. trapping and shielding requirement c. high cost d. unavailability
Gray matter
On the basis of blood flow, which of the following is visualized has an area of high tracer concentration on the brain image performed with Tc 99m exametazime? -Gray matter -White matter -pineal body -medulla oblongata
B) kidneys
Very increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images? A) colon B) kidneys C) lungs D) spleen
b. 6.3 mL
What approximate volume of 99mTc pertechnetate should be added to the medronate kit to prepare 180 mCi of 99mTc medronate? a. 0.6 mL b. 6.3 mL c. 7.5 mL d. 10.4 mL
b. epiphyseal plates
What area would not normally appear as an area of increased activity on the bone image of an adult? a. Anterior iliac crest b. epiphyseal plates c. sacroiliac joints d. nasopharyngeal area
d. radiographic upper G.I. series
What diagnostic test should not be performed immediately before liver/spleen imaging with Tc99m sulfur colloid? a. Gallbladder examination with ultrasound b. chest radiograph c. thyroid uptake with I 123 sodium iodide d. radiographic upper G.I. series
D. 147-171keV
What energies will be accepted by a 15% window placed around a centerline of 159keV A. 135-183keV B. 144-174keV C. 151-167keV D. 147-171keV E. 159-189keV
d. 12 million mrad
What is 120 Sv in millirads (quality factor [QF]) = 1? a. 8.3×10^ -8 mrad b. 120,000 mrad c. 1.2 million mrad d. 12 million mrad
a. Tl
What is added to NaI crystals to allow them to scintillate at room temperature? a. Tl b. Xe c. Ce d. Ag
a. I 131 sodium iodide 15 mCi is prescribed for therapy, but 19 mCi are administered
What is considered to be a medical event according to the NRC? a. I 131 sodium iodide 15 mCi is prescribed for therapy, but 19 mCi are administered b. Tc99m DTPA for renal function imaging is requested by referring physician, but Tc 99 MAG3 is prescribed by the nuclear medicine physician c. a second dose of Tc99m MAA is administered after the first inadvertent infiltrated d. myocardial perfusion dose is given to a therapy patient by mistake
d. framing rate is not a relevant consideration for this study
What is the appropriate framing rate for a renal function study? a. 0.1 seconds/frame for 260 frames b. 20 seconds/frame for 78 frames c. 2 minutes/frame for 13 frames d. framing rate is not a relevant consideration for this study
D. 14.9mCi/mL
What is the approximate final concentration of the 99mTc Sulfur Colloid if 125mCi are prepared using the following reagents A. 33.8mCi/mL B. 15.8mCi/mL C. 21.3mCi/mL D. 14.9mCi/mL E. 38.3mCi/mL
9.4mCi/mL
What is the concentration of 99mTc Succimer if 1.5mL succimer reagent and 30mCi 99mTc Pertechnetate (concentration is 18mCi/mL) are mixed to prepare the radiopharmaceutical) -20mCi/mL -9.4mCi/mL -14.3mCi/mL -17.6mCi/mL -18mCi/mL
c
What is the correct method to calculate gallbladder ejection fraction?
D. The image will be sharper
What is the effect of changing the order of a Butterworth filter from 3 to 5 A. The image will be smoother B. The star artifact will be eliminated C. The image with appear unchanged D. The image will be sharper E. The image will be enlarged
c. The USP states that the aluminum concentration in Tc99m and eluate is not to exceed 10 µg/mL of eluate
What is the limit for aluminum contamination in Tc99m eluate? a. The eluate sample is compared to a standard solution with an aluminum concentration of zero b. The test for aluminum breakthrough needs to be performed only after the generator has been eluted 10-12 times c. The USP states that the aluminum concentration in Tc99m and eluate is not to exceed 10 µg/mL of eluate d. Excessively increased aluminum concentration indicates that the elution volume exceeds the capacity of the generator
a. Faster tracer clearance from the G.I. system
What is the main advantage of using Tc99m Tetrofosmin over Tc99m Sestamibi for myocardial imaging? a. Faster tracer clearance from the G.I. system b. one day stress rest protocol can be used c. higher activities may be administered d. stress and rest images can be obtained with one tracer dose
c. + -10%
What is the maximum percentage difference that is acceptable for most regulatory agencies for all four dose calibrator QC checks? a. + -5% b. + -7% c. + -10% d. + -15%
c. 6.0 mR/hr
What is the measured exposure rate shown in the diagram of the GM meter depicted here? a. 0.06 mR/hr b. 0.6 mR/hr c. 6.0 mR/hr d. 60 mR/hr
a. 0.17 mr/hr
What is the measured exposure rate shown on the diagram of the GM meter depicted here? a. 0.17 mr/hr b. 1.7 mr/hr c. 17 mr/hr d. 170 mr/hr
c. 10 min
What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000g for 5 min, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500g a. 2 min b. 2.5 min c. 10 min d. 12.5 min
c. 10 to 90 µm
What is the range of particle size, in micrometers, of the majority of particles in 99mTc macroaggregated albumin (MAA)? a. 150 to 250 µm b. 100 to 150 µm c. 10 to 90 µm d. 1 to 40 µm
B. 12%
What is the standard maximum acceptable % energy resolution measured with 137Cs for a NaITl scintillation detector A. 8% B. 12% C. 20% D. 22% E. 25%
10 MBq
What is the total activity of 8 mL of Tc 99m elute that has a concentration of 2 MBq/mL? -4 MBq -6 MBq -10 MBq -16 MBq
c. tungsten
What material is recommended for shielding positrons? a. lead b. plastic lined lead c. tungsten d. steel
b. sensitive but not specific
What phrase describes the sensitivity and specificity of bone imaging? a. Sensitive and specific b. sensitive but not specific c. not sensitive but specific d. neither sensitive or specific
c. Tc-99m sulfur colloid
What radiopharm for gastric emptying? a. Tc-99m MDP b. Tc-99m disida (disofenin) c. Tc-99m sulfur colloid d. Tc-99m MAA
d. Tc-99m mertiatide (MAG3)
What radiopharmaceutical is used for ERPF renal imaging? a. Tc-99m penetate b. Tc-99m disofenin c. Tc-99m medronate d. Tc-99m mertiatide (MAG3)
c. TcO4
What radiopharmaceutical is used for Meckels imaging? a. Ga-67 citrate b. Tc-99m penetate c. TcO4 d. Tc-99m sulfur colloid
d. Tc-99m DTPA
What radiopharmaceutical is used to assess vesicoureteral reflux by the indirect method? a. TcO4 b. Tc-99m sulfur colloid c. Tc-99m MAA d. Tc-99m Pentetate DTPA
c. 3.0 mL
What volume of Tc99m pertechnetate must be added to the kit to prepare the maximum amount of Tc99m disofenin from one kit? a. 8.0 mL b. 4.0 mL c. 3.0 mL d. 2.5 mL
a. replace the crystal
What will the service engineer do to repair the non uniformity seen on this image? a. replace the crystal b. replace a PMT c. repair the collimator d. replace the x,y localization board
c. methylene blue stabilizer
When Tc-99m exametazime is used to label WBCs, which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation? a. TcO4 b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. methylene blue stabilizer d. ACD solution
Random events increase
When a high activity of a radionuclide is used for a PET scan, image quality is degraded because -Dead time decreases -Random events increase -Attenuation increases -Noise increases -Specificity decreases
B. Decontaminating imaging equipment with an antiseptic
When a technologist cares for a patient who is not known to have a communicable disease, all of the following infection control measures should be implemented except A. Wearing gloves when collecting blood sample B. Decontaminating imaging equipment with an antiseptic C. Handwashing before and after the nuclear medicine examination D. Using a needle recapping device E. Maintaining aseptic technique when administering the radiopharmaceutical
Outer side of the syringe barrel
When assembling a needle and syringe for a intravenous administration, all of the following areas must remain sterile except the -Luer lock -Syringe tip -Needle shaft -Needle tip -Outer side of the syringe barrel
c. over the lung or liver fields
When imaging to determine LeVeen shunt patency, the camera initially is positioned anteriorly over the abdomen, and delayed images can be done: a. Over the brain b. over the chest or abdomen c. over the lung or liver fields d. over the sacroiliac area
d. Tc99m (IV)
When labeling 99mTc (VII), in what state is the 99mTc changed to make it more reactive? a. Tc99m (VIII) b. Tc99m (VI) c. Tc99m (V) d. Tc99m (IV)
b. Plexiglass.
Which absorber would be the best to use to shield strontium-89? a. Cardboard. b. Plexiglass. c. Lead. d. No shielding is required
B) Tc99m pyrophosphate
Which agent is preferred for acute myocardial infarction imaging? A) Tl 201 Cl B) Tc99m pyrophosphate C) Tc99m Sestamibi D) Tc99m Tetrofosmin
C. Red blood cells
Which of the following 99mTc labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding A. Human serum albumin B. Lidofenin C. Red blood cells D. Sulfur colloid E. Macroaggregated albumin
b. exametazime
Which of the following Tc99m labeled agents is approved for performing brain imaging? a. apcitide b. exametazime c. succimer d. tetrofosmin
B) dipyridamole
Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing has the longest plasma half-life? A) adenosine B) dipyridamole C) dobutamine D) nitroglycerin
Sincalide and Tc 99m disofenin
Which of the following agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction? -Sincalide and Tc 99m disofenin -sincalide and Tc 99m sulfur colloid -morphine and Tc 99m Lidofenin -morphine and Tc 99m Mertiatide
d. Grave danger: high radiation area
Which of the following area posting signs would not normally be found in a hospital? a. Caution: radioactive materials b. Caution: radiation area c. Caution: high radiation area d. Grave danger: high radiation area
c.) median basilic vein
Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first-pass study? a.) axillary vein b.) cephalic vein c.) median basilic vein d.) dorsal vein e.) carotid vein
D. 99mTc Pertechnetate
Which of the following components in 99mTc Medronate preparation is a radiochemical impurity? A. Aluminum B. 99Mo C. .09% NaCl D. 99mTc Pertechnetate E. Ascorbic Acid
E. Radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder
Which of the following events is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study A. The peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is elognated B. Radioactivity is taken up into the renal cortex C. Mechanical blockages in the renal collecting system are cleared D. The peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened E. Radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder
a. surface: 56 mr/hr 1m: 3.5 mr/hr
Which of the following exposure rates indicate a yellow III package? a. surface: 56 mr/hr 1m: 3.5 mr/hr b. surface: 22 mr/hr 1m: 0.9 mr/hr c. surface: 1.5 mr/hr 1m: 1.0 mr/hr d. surface: 0.5 mr/hr 1m: 0.0 mr/hr
a. Amplitude image
Which of the following functional images represents the magnitude of ventricular contraction? a. Amplitude image b. paradox image c. phase image d. stroke volume image
c. stomach and thyroid uptake
Which of the following image findings is most consistent with chromatography results of a 99mTc Oxidronate sample demonstrating 65% radiochemical purity? a. Well defined bone uptake b. lung uptake c. stomach and thyroid uptake d. gastrointestinal tract activity
a. Activity.
Which of the following indicates the amount of radioactive substance present in a sample or source? a. Activity. b. Exposure. c. Absorbed dose. d. Dose equivalent.
99mTc Pertechnetate, Thiosulfate mixture and acid
Which of the following ingredients in a sulfur colloid kit are combined and heated -99mTc Pertechnetate and Thiosulfate mixture -Thiosulfate mixture and acid -99mTc Pertechnetate, Thiosulfate mixture, acid and buffer -99mTc Pertechnetate, Thiosulfate mixture and acid -Thiosulfate mixture, acid, buffer
D) One gives an instant reading and one does not
The difference between a direct and wipe check radiation survey is that: A) There is no difference B) One is qualitative and one is not C) One is quantitative and one is not D) One gives an instant reading and one does not
a. Do not use the dose and the call the radiopharmacy for a replacement dose
The prescribed unit dose range for a radiopharmaceutical is 5-8 mCi. The unit dose assayed in a dose calibrator is 19.2 mCi. What should the technologist do? a. Do not use the dose and the call the radiopharmacy for a replacement dose b. administer the unit dose to the patient c. question whether the right radiopharmaceutical has been prepared d. delay the radiopharmaceutical administration until the unit dose has decayed
one or both lungs
The region(s) of interest for detection of a left to right cardiac shunt is (are) drawn around which of the following structures? -superior vena cava -one or both lungs -left ventricle -right ventricle and great vessels
d. locate the written directive for the therapy in the patient's medical record
To confirm a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine therapeutic procedure, the technologist should: a. Confirm with a nuclear medicine physician b. ask the patient why he/she came into nuclear medicine c. telephone the referring physician for confirmation d. locate the written directive for the therapy in the patient's medical record
c. osteomyelitis
Three- or four-phase bone imaging in particularly useful when which of the following conditions is suspected? a. skeletal metastases. b. osteoporosis c. osteomyelitis d. stress fracture e. compound fracture
e.) the peritoneal cavity
To determine the patency of a LeVeen shunt, the radiopharmaceutical is administered into: a.) a vein b.) a circle of Willis c.) the intrathecal space d.) the shunt tubing e.) the peritoneal cavity
D. Pinhole or parallel hole
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which f the following collimators A. Flat field B. Pinhole C. Parallel hole D. Pinhole or parallel hole E. Slant hole
Tc 99m pertechnetate or I 123 sodium iodide
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals? -Tc 99 pertechnetate -I 123 sodium iodide -Tc 99m sestamibi -Tc 99m pertechnetate or I 123 sodium iodide
B. Indefinitly
To comply with NRC regulations personnel radiation exposure records must be maintained A. For 3 years B. Indefinitly C. For 5 years D. For 5 years E. For 7 years
C. 1m from the surface
To determine the transportation index for a package containing radioactive material, the package must be monitored at: A. The surface of the package B. 6in from the surface C. 1m from the surface D. 2m from the surface E. 3m from the surface
E. A glass of cold water
To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestamibi a technologist should give what before imaging A. A fatty meal B. Dobutamine C. Dextrose intravenously D. Adenosine E. A glass of cold water
c. Subtract the baseline counts from the thyroid counts collected at a later time
To prepare a patient for a thyroid uptake, the tech performs a baseline thyroid count and measures radioactivity in the neck that is twice background counts. What action should be taken? a. Cancel the exam: this is a contraindication of ever performing it in this patient b. Administer I 131 sodium iodide instead of I 123 sodium iodide for the uptake c. Subtract the baseline counts from the thyroid counts collected at a later time d. calculate a thyroid uptake using only the baseline counts
B) 511 keV
Total combined energy of the two annihilation photos originating from an annihilation reaction is: A) 500 keV B) 511 keV C) 1 MeV D) 1.02 MeV
d. talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply
Upon completion of an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint. The most appropriate action for the technologist would be to: a. have the patient stand and walk around the room b. check vital signs c. have the patient lie down again d. talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply e. ask the patient if they have a family history of syncope
b. detector malfunction
Upon performing a blank scan, your final image has a diagonal line through the middle. What is the likely explanation? a. Perfect blank scan b. detector malfunction c. an artifact in the field of view d. unexplained phenomenon
b. lung fields
Twenty-four-hour images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux? a. Lower esophagus b. lung fields c. stomach d. upper small intestine
c. Acquire SPECT studies using me October 29 value
The following center of rotation values were obtained on a SPECT camera On October 29, the most appropriate action for technologies is to: a. Transfer any SPECT studies to a different computer terminal for processing b. Arrange for camera service c. Acquire SPECT studies using me October 29 value d. Acquire SPECT studies using the October 22 value
4982
The following data were collected for a plasma value determination: Net standard counts 839,621 CPM Standard dilution factor 15 Net plasma counts 2528 CPM/mL The calculated plasma volume in milliliters is: -2214 -3321 -4516 -4982
B. II, III, I
The following studies are ordered for a patient: I. GFR determination Tc 99m pentetate II. Schilling test 57 cobalt 0.5 uCi III. Thyroid uptake I 123 sodium iodide In which order should the studies be performed so that they do not interfere with one another and so they can be accomplished in the shortest amount of time? A. I, II, III B. II, III, I C. II, I, II D. III, II, I
A) Tc99m MAA
The following studies are ordered for the next day: total-body bone image, Meckels diverticulum localization, and a hepatobiliary study. Which of the following RPs is not needed? A) Tc99m MAA B) Tc99m mebrofenin C) Tc99m medronate D) Tc99m pertechnetate
I, II, III
The following studies our order for a patient: I. ERPF determination II. Total body bone imaging III. Indium 111 pentetreotide imaging In which order should the studies be performed so they do not interfere with one another and so that they can be accomplished in the shortest amount of time? -I, II, III -I, III, II -II, I, III -III, II, I
A) IgG
The major antibody class found in normal human serum is: A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgD
c.) US Pharmacopia
The maximum allowable limit of Al+3 in Tc99m eluate is set by the: a.) Nuclear Regulatory Commission b.) Environmental Protection Agency c.) US Pharmacopia d.) US Department of Transportation e.) US Department of Energy
A. Wash hands both before and after patient contact
The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is for the technologist to A. Wash hands both before and after patient contact B. Wear gloves, mask and hospital gown at all times C. Stay home when ill D. Maintain distance from each patient E. Always wear a face mask
d. align the center of the computer matrix with the mechanical axis of rotation
The most important purpose of center of rotation offset correction is to: a. Eliminate the effects of detector tilt in the reconstructed images b. minimize count sensitivity variations from one area of the crystal to another c. ensure that all pixels are uniformly sized over the entire field of view d. align the center of the computer matrix with the mechanical axis of rotation
A) The numbers of ions produced in the gas
The output pulse-height of a gaseous detector is, in most cases, dependent upon what? A) The numbers of ions produced in the gas B) The quantity of radiation that passes through the gas C) The volume of gas in the detector D) The pressure of the gas in the tube
Tc99m MAA or Tc99m sulfer colloid
The patency of a Levine shunt may be demonstrated with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals? -Tc99m disofenin or Tc99m sulfur colloid -Tc99m MAA or Tc99m sulfer colloid -Tc99m pentetate or Tc99m pertechnetate -Tc99m albumin or Tc99m labeled red blood cells
d.) Tc99m pertechnetate
The patency of ventriculoperitoneal shunts may be assessed with which of the following tracers? a.) In111 chloride b.) Tc99m MAA c.) Tc99m bicisate d.) Tc99m pertechnetate e.) Tc99m pentetate
C) Line of response
The path between the two detectors in PET is referred to as: A) Line of origination B) Line of action C) Line of response D) Line of flight
c. 35
The percentage ejection fraction calculated from the following data Diastole: 2750 cpm Systole: 1775 cpm is: a. 61 b. 55 c. 35 d. 22
A. 25%
The percentage left ventricular ejection fraction calculated from the net counts per minute shown hereEnd Diastole: 2875End Systole: 2162Is approximately A. 25% B. 13% C. 33% D. 100% E. 75%
E. Prepare another vial of 99mTc Medronate
Upon visual inspection a vial of 99mTc Medronate appears to be white and slightly turbid. Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next? A. Prepare unit doses from the vial B. Adjust the pH of the preparation C. Add a diluent to the vial D. Filter the preparation with a membrane filter E. Prepare another vial of 99mTc Medronate
Prepare unit doses from the vial
Upon visualization a vial of 99mTc MAA has a white slightly cloudy appearance. Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next -Prepare another vial of 99mTc MAA -Prepare unit doses from the vial -Filter the preparation -Adjust the pH of the preparation -Add appropriate diluent
A. 234cpm/uCi
Using a 125uCi source, 30500cpm were collected during a camera sensitivity determination. If the background count is 1200cpm, what is the sensitivity of the instrument? A. 234cpm/uCi B. 244cpm/uCi C. 29,300cpm D. 3,662,500cpm E. 300,500cpm
c. 24 hrs
after a Tc-99m spill, decontamination measures have not been able to remove all of the spilled material. if the current exposure rate is 32 mr/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to 2 mr/hr? a. 16 hrs b. 18 hrs c. 24 hrs d. 30 hrs
a. sulfur colloid
all of the following Tc-99m labels radiopharmaceuticals can be used for R to L shunt except: a. sulfur colloid b. DTPA c. mibi d. myoview
d. dose calibrator make and model
all of the following information needs to appear on the Mo-99 concentration record EXCEPT: a. ratio of Mo-99 to Tc-99m activities b. time and date of measurement c. name of person making measurement d. dose calibrator make and model
b. kBq/ml
all of the following units are expressions of radiopharm specific activity EXCEPT: a. μCi/mg b. kBq/ml c. Ci/g d. MBq/mole
d. superior sagittal sinus
appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase on a cerebral blood flow study? a. anterior cerebral arteries b. carotid arteries c. nasopharynx d. superior sagittal sinus
c. 60%
capsule: 0900 216789 cpm bckg: 0900 92 cpm thyroid: 1500 94954 cpm thigh: 1500 521 cpm what is the patients thyroid uptake at 1500 if a I-123 capsule is given to the patient? a. 32% b. 44% c. 60% d. 87%
d. the activity of the source is above 2 mCi
coincidence loss is less likely to occur when using a well counter is the: a. energy of the radionuclide is below 50 keV b. energy of the radionuclide is love 300 keV c. the activity of the source is below 1 μCi d. the activity of the source is above 2 mCi
c. patient supine, camera anterior
correct positioning for imaging transplanted kidney a. patient upright, camera anterior b. patient upright, camera posterior c. patient supine, camera anterior d. patient supine, camera posterior
c. activity prematurely returning to the lungs
data derived from a cardiac first pass and ROI drawn over the lung are used to generate the pulmonary time activity curve shown. what does the arrow indicate? a. first pass of activity through the lungs b. second pass of activity through the lungs c. activity prematurely returning to the lungs d. activity returning from the systemic circulation
thyroid uptake 24 hours after handling the solution
Which of the following monitoring techniques should be employed to rule out internal contamination after handling a radioiodine solution? -thyroid uptake 24 hours after handling the solution -urine counts 2 to 4 hours after handling the solution -plasma counts 24 hours after handling the solution -pocket dosimeter readings
Theophylline
Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24 to 36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole? -Water -aspirin -insuline -theophylline
a. dubutamine
Which pharmacologic stress agent is a contraindication for sever aortic stenosis? a. dubutamine b. adenosine c. dipyridamole d. esmolol
d. both adenosine and dipyridamole
Which pharmacologic stress agent(s) should not be administered to patients with asthma or bronchospastic disease? a. Adenosine b. dipyridamole c. dobutamine d. both adenosine and dipyridamole
c. dipyridamole
Which pharmacologic stress agents directly affects adenosine receptor sites on cell membranes? a. dubutamine b. adenosine c. dipyridamole d. esmolol
c. TcO4
Which radiopharmaceutical is used to label RBCs? a. Tc-99m albumin b. Tc-99m exametazime c. TcO4 d. Tc-99m PYP
b. Tc-99m exametazime
Which radiopharmaceutical is used to label WBCs? a. Tc-99m bicisate b. Tc-99m exametazime c. TcO4 d. Tc-99m sestamibi
d. flat field
Which type of collimator should be used for organ counting during a red cell sequestration study? a. low energy high sensitivity b. high energy low resolution c. pinhole d. flat field
a. P wave
Which wave of the ECG is used to trigger the scintillation camera to acquire counts? a. P wave b. R wave c. T wave d. U wave
a. heparin
during a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patients AC vein. to maintain the latency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing? a. heparin b. normal saline c. ACD solution d. bacteriostatic water
d. kidneys
during a red cell sequestration study, counts are obtained from all of the following organs EXCEPT: a. liver b. spleen c. heart d. kidneys
D) Wipe check with a SCA/MCA-type meter
You suspect that a low-level β emitter has been spilled on a countertop. Which of the following survey techniques would be best? A) Pancake probe G-M-type meter B) Scintillation probe-type meter C) Wipe check with a G-M-type meter D) Wipe check with a SCA/MCA-type meter
c. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Yttrium-90 ibritumomab tiuxetan is used for therapy of which type of cancer? a. Breast b. prostate c. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma d. liver
b. rituximab
Yttrium-90 ibritumomab tiuxetan is used in conjunction with which chemotherapeutic agent? a. interferon b. rituximab c. cyclosporine d. methotrexate
d. 30.1 mCi
a 1.15 correction factor must be used when a 5 ml syringe containing 25 mCi is measured in a particular dose calibrator. if a unit dose reads 26.2 mCi, what is the true activity? a. 22.7 mCi b. 25.1 mCi c. 27.4 mCi d. 30.1 mCi
b. 268.0-327.6 μCi
a Cs-137 source was calibrated to contain 325.8 μCi 35 days ago. what is the accepted standard range if the source is measured today? a. 238.2-357 μCi b. 268.0-327.6 μCi c. 271.5-331.9 μCi d. 280.3-342.7 μCi
b. pernicious anemia
a Schilling test may be ordered or a patient with suspected: a. hemolytic anemia b. pernicious anemia c. iron deficiency anemia d. lymphocytic anemia
c. 10
a cardiac stress test requires how many electrodes on the patients body? a. 3 b. 6 c. 10 d. 12
a. 172.6 mCi/ml
a dry column generator is eluted with 5 ml of saline and the eluate containing 863 mCi is collected into a 10 ml evacuated vial. What is the concentration of the eluate? a. 172.6 mCi/ml b. 86.3 mCi/ml c. 57.5 mCi/ml d. 57.9 mCi/ml
c. 0.69 ml
a tech needs 1 mCi of In-111 chloride at 0900 on may 18. the label on the radiopharm vial contains the following information: total activity: 3 mCi total volume: 3 ml assay: 1200 may 21 what volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on may 19? a. 2.1 ml b. 1.4 ml c. 0.69 ml d. 0.48 ml
d. 1.9 ml
a unit dose of Ga-67 citrate for 0800 July 9 contains 5 mCi in 2.6 ml. if 3 mCi are needed at 0800 July 10, what volume should be in the syringe? a. 0.7 ml b. 1.1 ml c. 1.5 ml d. 1.9 ml
b. 20 mCi F-18 FDG
a written directive is required for all of the following radiopharms EXCEPT: a. 25 mCi I-131 NaI b. 20 mCi F-18 FDG c. 15 mCi P-32 NaPO4 d. 10 mCi Sr-89 Cl
c. 0.69 mL
a. 0.57 mL b. 0.63 mL c. 0.69 mL d. 1.0 mL
a. immediately
how do you wait to image after TcO4 injection for Meckels? a. immediately b. 15-20 mins c. 1 hr d. 2-3 hrs
c. 2-3 hrs
how long after tracer administration do you image for a bone scan? a. 30 min b. 1 hr c. 2-3 hrs d. 24 hrs
c. 48-72 hrs
how long after tracer administration should you do I-131 NaI WB imaging? a. 12 hrs b. 18-24 hrs c. 48-72 hrs d. 96+ hrs
b. 3 years
how long do you keep Mo-99 concentration records? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years
a. 3 years
how long should records of written directives be kept? a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. indefinitely
c. lower border of liver and spleen at top of FOV
how should you initially position for a GI bleed? a. xiphoid in the middle of FOV b. symphysis pubis in middle of FOV c. lower border of liver and spleen at top of FOV d. lower esophagus at top of FOV
a. telephone notification no later than the following calendar day
how soon after a medical event must the NRC be notified? a. telephone notification no later than the following calendar day b. telephone notification within 72 hrs c. written report within 5 regular work days d. written report within 30 calendar days
b. isotonic saline
if Tc-99m eluate needs diluted to prepare other Tc-99m tabled products, what is the correct product to dilute it? a. sterile saline containing 0.2% thiosulfate b. isotonic saline c. bacteriostatic saline d. distilled water
a. 74%
if a 2.5 Ci Mo-99/Tc-99m generator is estimated to contain 268 mCi of Tc-99m, but 198 mCi are eluted, what is the efficiency of the generator? a. 74% b. 26% c. 11% d. 8%
d. 182.4 μCi
if a Cs-137 source is calibrated to contain 200 μCi June 1, 1998 what is the expected activity June 1, 2002? (1 year decay factor 0.977; 2 year decay factor 0.955) a. 195.4 μCi b. 191.0 μCi c. 186.6 μCi d. 182.4 μCi
c. the tracer was not infiltrated
in performing cisternography, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain: a. the site of tracer administration b. the slow rate of CSF c. the tracer was not infiltrated d. the spinal cord was not damaged during tracer administration
a. 0.75
in quantitating gamma camera uniformity, the CFOV is defined as the UFOV times: a. 0.75 b. 0.5 c. 0.33 d. 0.25
a. In-111 DTPA
in the case of insulinoma, what radiopharm may cause hypoglycemia? a. In-111 DTPA b. Tc-99m sestamibi c. Ga-67 citrate d. F-18 FDG
a. Number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles
is it safe to block a portion of pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected PE because: a. Number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles b. particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum c. particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages d. albumin is denatured before it is made into particles
c. Tc-99m sestamibi
parathyroid adenoma concentrates what radiopharmaceutical? a. I-123 NaI b. TcO4 c. Tc-99m sestamibi d. TcO4 or sestamibi
a. Tc-99m MAA
patient a: renal patient b: WB bone patient c: meckel's patient d: HIDA the tech should order/prep all of the following radiopharms EXCEPT a. Tc-99m MAA b. Tc-99m mebrofenin c. Tc-99m MDP d. Tc-99m MAG3
b. administer oral potassium iodide
patient prep for I-131 therapy for thyroid ca includes all the following EXCEPT: a. r/o pregnancy b. administer oral potassium iodide c. review isolation requirements d. discontinue breast feeding
c. discontinuation of pain meds
patient prep for Sr-89 Cl therapy includes all the following EXCEPT: a. NM bone imaging b. CBC c. discontinuation of pain meds d. renal function study
c. propylthiouracil
patient prep for thyroid uptake may include discontinue of antithyroid. which of the following is an antithyroid drug? a. synthroid b. potassium perchlorate c. propylthiouracil d. thyroxine
b. salivary glands, stomach, bladder
post total thyroidectomy, WB iodine imaging shows uptake where? a. liver, lungs, bones b. salivary glands, stomach, bladder c. liver, salivary glands, stomach, lungs d. bladder, liver, brain
d. 25.5 mCi
prescribed adult dose of TcO4 for labeled RBCs is 925 MBq +/- 10%. which dose calibrator reading would verify that the prescribed activity was dispensed? a. 21 mCi b. 28 mCi c. 20 mCi d. 25.5 mCi
a. IV
proper route of administration for Ga-67 for infection: a. IV b. IM c. PO d. INH
b. LV and LA
tilt the detector toward the patients feet for an LAO MUGA to separate what structures? a. LV and aorta b. LV and LA c. LA and RA d. LV and RV
a. 10,000 counts
to assue a max error of 2% at the 95% confidence level, all samples that are measured in a well counter should be counted for a time interval that produces at least: a. 10,000 counts b. 5000 counts c. 1000 cpm d. 500 cpm
b. 0.33 cm
to perform pixel calibration, two capillary sources are placed on the camera surface 15 cm apart. from an image acquired using a 128 x 128 matrix, an activity profile is generated on the computer. if the profile shows that there are 45 pixels between the two activity peals, what is the pixel size? a. 0.02 cm b. 0.33 cm c. 3 cm d. 42 cm
b. Co-57, Tc-99m, I-123
the following dose calibrator constancy test results were obtained with a Co-57 reference source Co-57 M: 56.6 μCi C: 57.8 μCi Tc-99m M:59.2 μCi C: 58.7 μCi I-123 M: 46.9 μCi C: 51.7 μCi Tl-201 M: 47.9 μCi C: 53.5 μCi which of the following measured values fall within the limits according to the standard of practice? a. Co-57, Tc-99m, I-123, Tl-201 b. Co-57, Tc-99m, I-123 c. Tc-99m, I-123, Tl-201 d. Co-57, Tc-99m
c. AP whole body
what areas should be imaged after In-111 Octreotide administration? a. AP chest b. AP abdomen c. AP whole body d. AP & lats head and neck
d. lymphoscintigraphy
what exam do you use filtered sulfur colloid? a. gastroesophageal reflux b. GE c. LeVeen shunt patency d. lymphoscintigraphy
d. 50 rem
what is the annual occupational dose limit to any organ or tissue other than the eye? a. 50 mSv b. 5 mSv c. 15 rem d. 50 rem
d. 36.5 mCi/ml
what is the final sulfur colloid concentration if the max activity is prepped with the following reagents: ----sulfur colloid kit---- syringe I 1.6 ml acidsyringe II 1.6 ml buffermax activity to be added 400 mCiTc-99m volume 1-3 ml ----TcO4---- concentration 75.5 mCi/mltotal volume 15 ml a. 75.5 mCi/ml b. 47 mCi/ml c. 42.7 mCi/ml d. 36.5 mCi/ml
b. perform a battery check on the counter
what is the first step in performing a room survey with an end-window GM counter? a. measure the room background b. perform a battery check on the counter c. measure each area designated on the survey diagram d. perform a wipe test on each designated area
a. 50 keV
what is the full width half max (FWHM) a. 50 keV b. 680 keV c. 7500 cpm d. 15,000 cpm
b. 50 mr/hr
what is the max exposure rate that can be measured with the GM meter shown below? a. 5 mr/hr b. 50 mr/hr c. 500 mr/hr d. 5000 mr/hr
d. Subcutaneous injection
what is the proper route of administration for lymphoscintigraphy? a. IV b. PO c. intrathecal d. Subcutaneous injection
d. 2.0 ml
what is the volume contained in the syringe? a. 1.4 ml b. 1.6 ml c. 1.8 ml d. 2.0 ml
c. Gallbladder
what isn't present on a HIDA with cystic duct obstruction? a. common hepatic duct b. Common bile duct c. Gallbladder d. small bowel
b. inject PYP 15-30 mins before TcO4
what order do you inject the reagents for in vivo RBC labeling? a. inject PYP and TcO4 at the same time b. inject PYP 15-30 mins before TcO4 c. inject PYP 2-3 hrs before TcO4 d. inject TcO4 15-30 mins before PYP
a. V, II, IV, I, III
what order should the following steps be performed to calculate the yield of a Mo-99/Tc-99m generator? I. measure the amount of Tc-99m activity eluted from generator II. determine the amount of Mo-99 activity present on the generator at a given time t III. calculate the fraction of Tc-99m eluted compared with the Tc-99m activity present on the generator column IV. determine how much Tc-99m activity has formed by Mo-99 decay at a given time t V. determine the elapsed time from calibration to t a. V, II, IV, I, III b. II, V, I, IV, III c. IV, II, V, III, I d. I, V, II, IV, III
c. orthogonal hole
what phantom was used? a. 4 quadrant bar b. Hine-Duley c. orthogonal hole d. parallel line equal space
c. Tc-99m, Tl-201, I-123
what radionuclide settings should be used to perform constancy on a dose calibrator? a. I-123, I-125, I-131 b. I-125, Co-57, Cs-137 c. Tc-99m, Tl-201, I-123 d. Co-57, Cs-137, I-131
c. Mo-99
what radionuclidic impurity must be determined after the first elution of a generator? a. Al 3+ b. free tech c. Mo-99 d. a & c
a. Tc-99m DTPA
what radiopharm do you use to measure GFR? a. Tc-99m DTPA b. Tc-99m DMSA (succimer) c. Tc-99m gluceptate d. Tc-99m MAG3
a. bicisate
what radiopharm does NOT require heating during prep? a. bicisate b. MAG3 c. sestamibi d. sulfur colloid
b. TcO4 or Tc-99m sulfur colloid
what radiopharm for radionuclide cystography? a. Tc-99m DTPA or Tc-99m MDP b. TcO4 or Tc-99m sulfur colloid c. TcO4 or Tc-99m MAG3 d. Tc-99m gluceptate or Tc-99m sulfur colloid
c. Tc-99m DTPA
what radiopharm should be prepped for a renal to determine GFR? a. Tc-99m gluceptate b. Tc-99m MAG3 c. Tc-99m DTPA d. Tc-99m DMSA
a. Tc-99m sestamibi
what tracer is excreted through hepatobiliary system? a. Tc-99m sestamibi b. Tc-99m exametazime c. Tc-99m MDP d. Tl-201 thallous chloride
c. Tc-99m DTPA
what tracer is the best for cardiac first pass rest and stress? a. TcO4 b. Tc-99m MDP c. Tc-99m DTPA d. Tc-99m sestamibi
a. stress: mibi rest: Tl-201
what tracers for rest and stress for dual-radionuclide MPI? a. stress: mibi rest: Tl-201 b. stress: Tl-201 rest: mibi c. stress: mibi rest: tc-99m teboroxime d. stress: mibi rest: tc-99m labeled RBCs
b. only if a unit dose was not manipulated after preparation and calibration
when can a decay factor be used to calibrate a unit dose in place of measuring it in a dose calibrator? a. a dose calibrator must be used to measure every dosage b. only if a unit dose was not manipulated after preparation and calibration c. only if the dose contains Tc-99m d. only if the dose contains less than 1 mCi
c. 320 keV
when counting cr-51 RBC samples in a well counter, what should the window be? a. 81 keV b. 159 keV c. 320 keV d. 511 keV
c. 15°
when giving an IV injection, the needle should be inserted into the vein at an angle of: a. 90° b. 45° c. 15° d. 5°
c. another individual may receive an exposure greater than 0.1 rem from the patient
when must written instructions be provided to a patient who has received radionuclide therapy? a. the patient is a female of child-bearing age b. patient resides with children younger than 18 years of age c. another individual may receive an exposure greater than 0.1 rem from the patient d. every patient must receive instructions, regardless of dosage
d. flat field
when performing a radioiodide thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator: a. low energy, high sensitivity parallel hole b. converging c. straight bore d. flat field
b. 0.20
when performing radiochromatography on a radiopharm sample, the locations of the radiochemical components on the chromatography strip are shown here. what is the R(f) value of hydrolyzed-reduced Tc-99m if the solvent front is 12.6 cm from the origin hydrolyzed-reduced Tc-99m 2.5 cmTcO4 12.6 cmTc-99m labeled radipharm 0 cm a. 0 b. 0.20 c. 0.25 d. 4.8
b. 0.63 sec
when the HR is 95 bpm, what is the length of an average R-R interval a. 0.5 sec b. 0.63 sec c. 1 sec d. 1.6 sec
c. imaging rooms that can be negatively pressurized
where can radioactive xenon gas be administered? a. any room that can be closed off with doors b. rooms that have xenon alarm systems c. imaging rooms that can be negatively pressurized d. rooms where a GM meter is available to use
c. dorsal veins on the top of each foot
where do you inject for radionuclidic venography? a. AC of either arm b. either femoral vein c. dorsal veins on the top of each foot d. either basilic vein
c. unused I-123 NaI capsules
which of the following can't be disposed of in the sewage system? a. disposable diaper of a child who received Ga-67 b. feces from a patient who received I-131 therapy c. unused I-123 NaI capsules d. urine from a renal test
a. attenuation
which of the following conditions is seen on a bone scan as a photopenic area? a. attenuation b. tracer infiltration c. acute MI d. osteomyelitis
c.
which of the following diagrams is labeled correctly for the horizontal long axis of the LV myocardium?
c. surface: 35 mr/hr 1m: 1.0 mr/hr
which of the following exposure rates indicates a yellow II? a. surface: 65 mr/hr 1m: 5.5 mr/hr b. surface: 52 mr/hr 1m: 2.2 mr/hr c. surface: 35 mr/hr 1m: 1.0 mr/hr d. surface: 0.5 mr/hr 1m: no detectable
a. DOT
which of the following federal agencies regulates the packaging and transport of radioactive materials? a. DOT b. EPA c. FDA d. NRC
d. ramp
which of the following filters is a high-pass filter? a. butterworth b. hanning c. parzen d. ramp
a. blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl
which of the following is a contraindication for F-18 FDG imaging? a. blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl b. blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl c. high iodine diet in the last week d. low iodine diet in the last week
a. explanation of the procedure to the patient
which of the following is part of Tc-99m sestamibi breast imaging? a. explanation of the procedure to the patient b. fast 8 hrs prior c. discontinue all meds d. consume a fatty meal
a. Tc-99m MAA
which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used for lower extremity DVT? a. Tc-99m MAA b. Tc-99m arcitumomab c. I-131 iobenguane d. In-111 oxyquinoline
175 mCi
-35 mCi -175 mCi -250 mCi -350 mCi
B. Salivary glands
111In Pentetreotide normally localized in all of the following sites except A. Pituitary gland B. Salivary glands C. Spleen D. Thyroid gland E. Liver
b. 4.70 GBq
127 mCi is equivalent to how many gigabecquerels? a. 0.003 GBq b. 4.70 GBq c. 3,430 GBq d. 4,699 GBq
A. .15
15mRem is equivalent to how many mSv A. .15 B. .015 C. .0015 D. 1.5 E. 15
C. 125mCi
99mTc Pentetate was prepared using the following reagents Pentetate kit Reconstituting volume: 1-8mL 99mTc Pertechnetate Activity Range: 3-160mCi99mTc Pertechnetate Concentration: 25.0mCi/mL Total Volume: 5.0mL Which of the following dose calibrator readings would verify that the maximum activity of 99mTc pentetate was prepared from the reagents available A. 100mCi B. 160mCi C. 125mCi D. 200mCi E. 300mCi
B) Daily
A "blank scan" is performed in PET: A) Hourly B) Daily C) Weekly D) With every patient study
b. LLD= 629; ULD= 695
A 10% window for 662 keV is set on a spectrometer with lower level discriminator (LLD) and an upper level discriminator (ULD). if each increment on the discriminator dial equals 1 keV, what should be the setting for the LLD and ULD? a. LLD= 596; ULD= 728 b. LLD= 629; ULD= 695 c. LLD= 652; ULD= 672 d. LLD= 657; ULD= 667
D. .4uCi/mL
A 1:25 dilution of a solution with a concentration of 10uCi/mL is prepared. What is the tracer concentration in the dilution? A. .04uCi/mL B. .25uCi/mL C. 2.5uCi/mL D. .4uCi/mL E. 4.5uCi/mL
a. 3.02×10^-25 mCi
A 25-mCi dose in a volume of 2 mL is added to 50 mL and a one-sixth serial dilution is performed. What amount of total activity is present in a 5-mL sample of tube? a. 3.02×10^-25 mCi b. 6.04×10^-25 mCi c. 9.08×10^-25 mCi d. 12.12×10^-25 mCi
B. 16 times more
A 256x256 matrix requires how much more computer memory than a 64x64 matrix A. 2 times more B. 16 times more C. 8 times more D. 4 times more E. 32 time more
B. Acromion processes
A 99mTc Oxidronate image of the region shown would demonstrate all of the following structures except the A. Costochondral junctions B. Acromion processes C. Clavicles D. Sternum E. Humerus
d. recalibrate the operating voltage
A Cs-137 reference standard is counted daily with a scintillation spectrometer, using the same gain, window, and high voltage setting. On the basis of the data shown here: July 15 12,555 cpm July 16 12,534 cpm July 17 12,613 cpm July 20 10,678 cpm On July 20, what should the tech do? a. use the spectrometer for clinical studies b. arrange for repair of the instrument c. change the gain setting d. recalibrate the operating voltage
C) Inform the vendor that the wrong label was on the container
A DOT II radioactive label is on a package that reads 9 mR/hr at 1 m. What is the appropriate action to take? A) Log in the package as you normally would B) Contact the regional office of the NRC C) Inform the vendor that the wrong label was on the container D) Notify the DOT that a "shipment event" has occurred
C) 0.45 mR/hr
A G-M meter has a scale of 1-5 mR/hr. If a deflection on the meter reads 4.5 and the meter is set on the X0.1 setting, what is the reading? A) 40.5 mR/hr B) 4.5 mR/hr C) 0.45 mR/hr D) 0.045 mR/hr
E. 4,320,000
A SPECT study is acquired using 60 projections over a 360 degree rotation. Each projection is acquired for .5min. If the counting rate is 144,ooo cpm, how many counts will be collected for the total acquisition A. 1,036,800 B. 2,587,300 C. 3,640,000 D. 3,920,000 E. 4,320,000
d. According to the standard of practice, the instrument is operating within limits
A linearity test was performed on those calibrator, and the following data are collected: Based on these results, which of the following statements is true? a. The instrument consistently measures higher than expected b. The instrument measures higher activities more accurately the lower activities c. The instrument measures lower activities more accurately than higher activities d. According to the standard of practice, the instrument is operating within limits
D) Need to reduce their action level to at least 410 mrem per month to be compliant with annual possible levels of exposure
A nuclear medicine department has an action level of 500 mrem per month whole-body exposure. If you were the NRC inspector, what would your recommendations to this site be? A) Nothing, everything is fine B) Need to reduce their action level to at least 450 mrem per month to be in compliance with annual possible levels of exposure C) Need to increase their action level to 5000 mrem per month D) Need to reduce their action level to at least 410 mrem per month to be compliant with annual possible levels of exposure
Category I
A package containing radioactive material is monitored and found to produce .4mR/hr at the surface and no detectable radiation exposure at 1m from the surface. Which DOT label must be affixed to the outside of the package -Category I-A -Category I -Category III -No DOT label is required -Category I
b. Category II
A package containing radioactive materials is monitored and found to produce 12 mR/Hr at the surface and 0.9 mR/Hr at 1 m from the surface. Which DOT label must be affixed to the outside of the package? a. Category I b. Category II c. Category III d. No DOT label is required
B. Within 3 hr after the department opens
A package containing radiopharmaceuticals is delivered before the nuclear medicine department opens. According to the NRC, the package must be checked in and monitored: A. As soon as the department opens B. Within 3 hr after the department opens C. Within 6 hr after the department opens D. Within 24 hr of the time of delivery E. within 46 hr of the time of delivery
b. DOT II
A package is reading 2 mR/hr at a distance of 2m, what is the appropriate DOT label for this package? a. DOT I b. DOT II c. DOT III d. no labeling is required
a. Decrease in count rate after some peak in count rate is obtained
A paralyzable counting system will: a. Decrease in count rate after some peak in count rate is obtained b. Never plateau and never obtain a peek count c. Plateau with no decrease in count rate as activity increases, which is the peak count d. Not exhibit any count rate difference
c. 0.5 rem
A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose from the patient exceeding how many rems? a. 0.1 rem b. 0.2 rem c. 0.5 rem d. 5.0 rem
d. the situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC
A patient receives a unit dose of Sr-89 chloride intended for another patient. What statement about this situation is true? a. because the patient only received a unit dose of Sr-89, no report to the NRC is required b. according to the NRC, this does not constitute a medical event, but a departmental record should be maintained c. the situation describes a medical event that needs to be reported only to the nuclear medicine supervisor and the authorized user d. the situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC
C) spaghetti and garlic bread
A patient scheduled for PET imaging with F-18 FDG should avoid which of the following foods in the alst meal before fasting? A) steak and mushrooms B) blackened fish and spinach salad C) spaghetti and garlic bread D) eggs and bacon
a. right AC
A patient scheduled for scintimammography has symptoms involving her left breast. Which of the following sites is the best choice for injecting the radiopharmaceutical? a. right AC b. right carotid c. left carotid d. left hand
A. Place the chest tubes external apparatus on a level lower than the patients chest
A patient with a chest tube arrive in the NM department for an imaging study. The technologist should A. Place the chest tubes external apparatus on a level lower than the patients chest B. Cancel the procedure because chest tubes will interfere with the study C. Place the chest tubes external apparatus on the imaging table next to the patient D. Hang the chest tubes external apparatus from an IV pole and raise it above the patients chest E. Drain the chest tube while holding in place during the imaging procedure
nausea and vomiting
A patient with diabetes who becomes hypoglycemic may exhibit all of the following signs and symptoms except: -weakness and shakiness -confusion -irritability -nausea and vomiting
c. mode of administration
A pharmacokinectic profile of a drug depends on what? a. Time to excretion b. mode of excretion c. mode of administration d. time to administration
B. reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel
A post surgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologist notices the patient surgical dressing shows signs of drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist to do is: A. remove the old dressing and replace it with a fresh one B. reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel C. Terminate the study and transport the patient back to his/her room D. complete the nuclear medicine procedure and ignore the dressing
c. 1.7 GBq
A syringe that contains 50 mCi of a Tc99m labeled compound at 0600 will contain how much activity at 1000? a. 1169 kBq b. 116.9 MBq c. 1.7 GBq d. 11.7 GBq
a. locating the order for the test in the patients medical record
A tech confirms a referring physicians request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by: a. locating the order for the test in the patients medical record b. telephoning the patients physician for confirmation c. asking the patient why he/she came to the nuclear medicine department d. conferring with the nuclear medicine physician
b. constancy
A tech measures a Co-57 standard in a dose calibrator on the following settings: Co-57, Tc-99m, I-123, I-131, Xe-133, Tl-201, then calculates the percentage difference between the calculated and measured activities. What is the tech measuring? a. accuracy b. constancy c. linearity d. geometric variation
c. 1.0 ml
A tech must administer 37MBq of Tl-201 thallous chloride at 1000 Feb 16. On the basis of the vial label information shown here: Calibration: 1200 Feb 14 Total activity: 222 MBq Total volume: 4.0 ml Concentration: 55.5 MBq/ml Expiration: 1200 Feb 17 What volume of Tl-201 thallous chloride should be administered to the patient? a. 0.44 ml b. 0.84 ml c. 1.0 ml d. 2.3 ml
c. 0.92 ml
A tech must administer 8 mCi of Tc-99m mebrofenin at 1100. On the basis of the vial label information shown here: Calibration: 0700 Aug 4 Total activity: 100 mCi Total volume: 8.5 ml Concentration: 11.8 mCi/ml Expiration: 1500 Aug 4 What volume of Tc-99m mebrofenin should be administered to the patient? a. 0.13 ml b. 0.68 ml c. 0.92 ml d. 1.1 ml
b. 1.35 ml
A tech needs 4 mCi of Tl-201 thallous chloride at 0800 June 29. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information: Total activity: 10.0 mCi Total volume: 5.5 ml Assay: 1200 July 1 What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on June 29? a. 3.6 ml b. 1.35 ml c. 0.74 ml d. 0.28 ml
b. the aluminum ion concentration in the eluate is below the USP limit
A tech performs an aluminum ion breakthrough test on Tc-99m eluate and obtains the following result: When the indicator paper is spotted with aluminum ion solution, a faint red color is observed, but when the paper is spotted with Tc-99m, no color change is observed. What do these results indicate? a. the absence of radionuclidic impurities in the eluate b. the aluminum ion concentration in the eluate is below the USP limit c. the eluate should be discarded d. the aluminum ion solution contains less aluminum than the eluate
the acquisition time will increase
A technologist changes the collimator on a gamma camera from a low energy all purpose collimator to a higher resolution collimator. If the same number of accounts is acquired, how will the acquisition time change when the high resolution collimator is used? -the acquisition time will be the same with both collimators -the acquisition time will decrease -the acquisition time will increase -the effect of the acquisition time is unpredictable
10 to 20
A technologist is asked to check the flow rate on a drip infusion on a patient in the department. An acceptable flow rate is how many drops per minute? -1 to 5 -10 to 20 -40 to 60 -75 to 100
A. Adjust the scale of the meter
A technologist is measuring room background with an end window GM survey meter. The meter shows the following reading. What should the technologist do next? A. Adjust the scale of the meter B. Record the meter reading as the room background C. Choose another area of the room to measure background D. Recalibrate the survey meter E. Check the probe for contamination
mask
A technologist is performing a lung image on a patient known to have active tuberculosis. the most appropriate personal protective device the technologist should utilize is? -latex gloves -gown -lab coat -mask
B. 4.2mL
A technologist needs 185 MBq 131I Sodium Iodide solution on November 3rd. The label on the RP vial contains the following information Total Activity: 740 MBq Total Volume: 10mL Assay: 1200, October 28th What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on November 3 A. .42mL B. 4.2mL C. 1.5mL D. 4.6mL E. 5.2mL
0.07 mL
A technologist needs 50 uCi CR51 sodium chromate at 0800 on March 15. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information: Total activity: 2.0 mCi Total volume: 5.0 mL Assay: 0600, March 18 What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on March 15? -0.07 mL -0.12 mL -0.86 mL -1.2 mL
b. the instrument can be used to measure activities in the microcurie range
A technologist performs a linearity test on a dose calibrator. The expected activity at a given time is 28.2 uCi, and the actual reading is 27.0 uCi. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The instrument should be repaired or replaced b. the instrument can be used to measure activities in the microcurie range c. the correction factor of 0.96 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range d. correction factor of 1.04 should be applied when measuring activities on the microcurie range
c. remove the collimator and repeat the acquisition
A technologist performs a uniformity test on a scintillation camera using a Tc 99m point source and obtains the image shown here What should the technologist do next? a. Arrange for the camera service b. record the results and proceed with imaging patience c. remove the collimator and repeat the acquisition d. move the point source further from the face of the detector
3.9mCi
A vial of 67Ga Gallium Citrate is calibrated to contain 5mCi at 0600 PST on March 8. How much activity does the vial contain on March 9 at 1200 EST -3.9mCi -4.9mCi -6.3mCi -3.7mCi -2.5mCi
b. return the vial to storage
A vial of Xe-133 has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is 2X background. What should the tech do? a. remove radiation symbols and dispose of the vial b. return the vial to storage c. dispose of the vial as biohazardous waste d. vent the radioactivity left in the vial into a fume hood
charging port
A wet column generator is equipped with all the following parts except a(n)? -alumina column -lead shield -charging port -collection port
2371 DPM
A wipe test gives a reading of 1240 CPM with a background count of 410 CPM. If the efficiency of the instrument is 35%, what is the weight test reading in DPM? -35 DPM -290 DPM -2371 DPM -3542 DPM
b. non-ionic
A(n) ____________ contrast material may be described as one that does not dissociate or divide into charged particles in solution. a. Ionic b. non-ionic c. oral d. osmolar
D. Disposed
According to the NRC decay in storage records must include the date that the radioactive material was A. Calibrated B. Recieved C. Placed in storage D. Disposed E. produced
Annually
According to the NRC how often must survey meters be calibrated -Daily -Before each use -Annually -Monthly -Bi-annually
c. It has a physical half-life of less than 120 days
According to the NRC regulations, radioactive waste can be decayed in storage if: a. The exposure rate at the time of the storage is less than 5mR/hr at the surface b. Say exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5 R/hr at the surface c. It has a physical half-life of less than 120 days d. It has a physical half-life of less than one year
spleen
Abnormal bio distribution of indium 111 labeled leukocytes will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24 hours after injections in which of the following sites? -bone marrow -liver -lung -spleen
D. 5000mRem
According to NRC regulations the annual whole body occupational dose limit TEDE for adults is A. 15Rem B. 50mRem C. 50Rem D. 5000mRem E. 10Rem
A patient receives a whole body bone scan dosage of 131I instead of 123I for a thyroid uptake and scan
According to NRC regulations which of the following radiopharmaceuticals administration errors must be reported to the NRC -A patient receives 18mCi of 99mTc Pertechnetate when 20-25mCi was prescribed -A patient scheduled for bone imaging receives 20mCi of 99mTc Pertechnetate instead of 99mTc Medronate -Patient A receives a Hepatobiliary scan dosage intended for patient B -A patient receives a whole body bone scan dosage of 131I instead of 123I for a thyroid uptake and scan -Patient A receives a bone scan dosage intended for patient B
A. Caution: Radiation Area
According to NRC regulations which of the following signs should be posted on the door of a radiopharmacy laboratory in which radiation levels have been measured to be 7.5 mR/hr A. Caution: Radiation Area B. Caution: Radioactive Materials C. No posting is required D. Caution: High Radiation Area E. Caution: Very High Radiation Area
C. The authorized user approves the individual dosage
According to NRC regulations, a technologist cannot use a diagnostic dosage that exceeds 20% of the dosage prescribed by the authorized user unless A. There is no other radiopharmaceutical available B. The patient weighs more than 20% over the standard reference weight C. The authorized user approves the individual dosage D. The patients physician approves the individual dosage E. The radiologist or nuclear medicine physician approves the individual dosage
for 3 years
According to NRC regulations, a written directive must be retained -for 1 year -for 3 years -for 5 years -indefinitely
3 years
According to NRC regulations, records of patients dosage determinations must be retained for how long -7 years -5 years -10 years -Indefinitely -3 years
c.) the patients name
According to NRC regulations, reports of medical events sent to the NRC must include all of the following information except: a.) whether the patient or a relative was notified b.) a description of the incident c.) the patients name d.) the referring physicians name e.) why the event occured
b. 150 mSv
According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is: a. 500 mSv b. 150 mSv c. 50 mSv d. 5 mSv
E. 3 years
According to the NRC all dose calibrator quality control results must be retained for A. 1 year B. 5 years C. The life of the instrument D. As long as the facilities license is in effect E. 3 years
c. Restricted areas must be locked when authorized personnel are not present
According to the NRC regulations, which of the following concerning restricted areas is true? a. Patient rooms become restricted areas after the patient has received a radiopharmaceutical b. only areas where radiopharmaceutical's are stored must be designated restricted areas c. Restricted areas must be locked when authorized personnel are not present d. Radiation area monitors are required in restricted areas
a. No posting is required
According to the NRC regulations, which of the following signs should be posted in unrestricted areas? a. No posting is required b. authorized personnel only c. caution: radioactive materials d. caution: radioactive area
b.
According to the NRC regulations, which of the following unit dosage may be administered to the patient?
D. 100mRem
According to the NRC the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public must be limited to no more than A. 500mRem B. 2mRem C. 50mRem D. 100mRem E. 1mRem
C. Dpm
According to the NRC wipe test results must be reported as A. Cpm B. mR/hr C. Dpm D. mRem/hr E. mCi/mL
d. only after the first elution
According to the NRC, Mo-99 contamination in Tc-99m equate must be measured how often? a. weekly b. daily c. after each elution d. only after the first elution
B. Dosage
According to the NRC, a written directive for administration of 15mCi of 131I Sodium Iodide must include the following information: A. Patient's thyroid uptake value B. Dosage C. Patient's Birth date D. Lot number of the radiopharmaceutical E. Patients name
Patients social security number
According to the NRC, a written directive for administration of 89Sr Chloride must include all of the following information except -Patients social security number -Radiopharmaceutical name -Route of administration -Signature of an authorized user -Patients name
c. At the end of each day a therapeutic dosage is prepared or administer
According to the NRC, areas were therapeutic radoopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be surveyed: a. weekly b. monthly c. At the end of each day a therapeutic dosage is prepared or administer d. After each therapeutic dose is prepared or administered
D) estimated dose to personnel involved
According to the NRC, departmental records of medical events must include all of the following pieces of information except: A) identity of the patient B) referring physician's name C) nuclear medicine staff involved in the medical event D) estimated dose to personnel involved
White I, yellow II, and yellow III
According to the NRC, packages with the following DOT labels must be checked for contamination using a wipe test? -yellow II only -white I and yellow II only -yellow II yellow III only -White I, yellow II, and yellow III
3 years
According to the NRC, patient dosage records must be retained for how many years? -1 year -3 years -5 years -as long as the facilities license is in affect
3 years
According to the NRC, records of survey meter calibrations are retained for how long? -3 years -5 years -as long as the instrument is in use -as long as the facilities license is in effect
C) yearly (once a year)
According to the NRC, survey meters must be calibrated _________ and following any repairs. A) Semiannually (twice a year) B) Biannually (every other year) C) yearly (once a year) D) Monthly (once a month)
b. 200 mR/hr
According to the NRC, the NRC and the final delivery carrier must be notified if exposure rate at the surface of the package containing radioactive materials exceeds: a. 100 mR/hr b. 200 mR/hr c. 1000 mR/hr d.2000 mR/hr
a. 0.15 uCi Mo99/Tc99m
According to the NRC, the maximum allowable Mo99 concentration in Tc99m eluate at the time of administration to the patients was not exceed: a. 0.15 uCi Mo99/Tc99m b. 1 uCi Mo99/Tc99m c. 5 uCi Mo99/Tc99m d. 5 uCi in a unit dose
.5 Rem
According to the NRC, the radiation dose to the fetus of a declared pregnant worker must not exceed how many Rems during the pregnancy -.5 Rem -50Rem -5Rem -500Rem -2Rem
10ug/mL
According to the USP, the maximum allowable aluminum concentration in Tc 99m eluate is not to exceed -0ug/mL -10ug/mL -20ug/mL -10ug/mL
a. Annually
According to the standards of practice, how often must the accuracy of the dose calibrator be determined? a. Annually b. quarterly c. Monthly d. daily
24 hours
After a Mo 99/Tc 99m generator is eluded, it takes approximately how many hours for the Tc 99m activity to build up to a maximum level? -8 hours -12 hours -24 hours -the secular generator can be eluted only once
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with which of the following conditions? a. Diabetes b. stress induced myocardial ischemia c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. peripheral vascular disease
A) acquisition of stress and rest images with one tracer dose
Advantages of using Tc99m Sestamibi for myocardial perfusion imaging include all of the following except: A) acquisition of stress and rest images with one tracer dose B) acquisition of ventricular function information C) completion of stress and rest imaging on the same day D) flexibility in the time of imaging following tracer administration
B. Demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily
After stress myocardial imaging with 201Tl Thallous Chloride 1-1.5mCi of 201Thallous Chloride May be administered before rest myocardial imaging to A. Improve patient throughput B. Demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily C. Demonstrate infarct size more precisely D. Minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts E. Maximize visualization of attenuation artifacts
on the technologists hand
After the administration of Tc 99m pentetate aerosol with a face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all of the following areas except? -on the floor between the patient and nebulizer -around the patient's mouth -on the the patient's chest -on the technologists hand
c. 285
All IV contrast agents have a greater osmolality than plasma. The osmolality of plasma is _______mOsm/kg. a. 75 b. 435 c. 285 d. 525
A) F-18
All of the following PET radionuclides must be produced very close to the site where they are administered except: A) F-18 B) C-11 C) O-15 D) N-13
d. multiple views with one tracer dose
All of the following are advantages of the first-pass method for performing cardiac function imaging except: a. Short acquisition time b. low background activity c. choice of radoopharmaceuticals d. multiple views with one tracer dose
In vitro labeling has the lowest risk of red cell hemolysis
All of the following are advantages of the in vitro method of labeling red blood cells with 99mTc Pertechnetate except -The red blood cells can be washed to remove substances from the plasma that may interfere with labeling -A commercially manufactured kit that requires no cell separation by centrifugation is available -Higher labeling efficiency's than with the in vivo method are possible -In vitro labeling has the lowest risk of red cell hemolysis -In vitro labeling allows clear separation from white blood cells
b.) pulmonary embolism
All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of In111-labeled leukocytes except: a.) osteomyelitis b.) pulmonary embolism c.) dental abscess d.) ostomy site e.) fever of unknown origin
E. The saline volume used for elution
All of the following factors affect the amount of 99mTc eluted from a 99Mo/99mTc generator except A. Amount of 99Mo activity present on the column B. The time elapsed since the last elution C. The elution efficiency of the generator D. The time elapsed since calibration E. The saline volume used for elution
d. meckel's diverticulum
All of the following procedures may be performed using Tc-99m sulfur colloid EXCEPT a. gastric emptying b. gastroesophageal reflux c. GI bleed d. meckel's diverticulum
e.) Tc99m sulfur colloid
All of the following radiopharmaceuticals are prepared with reduced 99mTc pertechnetate except: a.) Tc99m MDP b.) Tc99m oxidronate c.) Tc99m MAA d.) Tc99m lidofenin e.) Tc99m sulfur colloid
D) No special instructions are given to the patient prior to injection
All of the following statements about 3 or four phase bone imaging are true except: A) This study includes both dynamic and static imaging B) The last phase is performed 24 hr post-tracer administration C) The patient is positioned under the camera prior to tracer administration D) No special instructions are given to the patient prior to injection
The study may be performed with any blood pool agent
All of the following statements about four phase bone imaging are true EXCEPT: - This study includes both dynamic and static imaging - The study may be performed with any blood pool agent - The patient is positioned under the camera before tracer administration - The third phase is performed for 5 to 6 hours after the tracer administration
c. the patient is imaged which inhaling particles from the nebulizer
All of the following statements about performing a lung ventilation study with Tc99m pentetate aerosol are true, except: a. multiple projections may be obtained with one dose of tracer b. the patient is disconnected from the nebulizer after inhalation of the aerosol c. the patient is imaged which inhaling particles from the nebulizer d. the face mask, tubing, and nebulizer must be disposed of as radioactive waste. e. some residual tracer may be present in the esophagus.
E. One HVL of lead is the same thickness as one HVL of aluminum
All of the following statements about the HVL are true except A. One HVL reduces the radiation intensity to half its original value B.One HVL of lead will absorb the same amount of radiation as one HVL of aluminum C. One HVL absorbs 50% of the photons emitted from a radiation source D. Two HVLs reduce the radiation intensity to one quarter its original value E. One HVL of lead is the same thickness as one HVL of aluminum
c. 169,635 particles
An MAA kit has 3,000,000 total particles. If a 5-mCi dose is needed at 1000 and the following information is provided 25 mCi/mL in 5 mL total volume at 0700 what approximate number of particles will be given to the patient? a. 600,000 particles b. 120,000 particles c. 169,635 particles d. 134,831 particles
d. redistributes
An advantage of 201 Tl thallium chloride is that it: a. Has a high photon flux at a high energy window b. is a calcium analog c. has a short half-life d. redistributes
D. A helium atom minus its electrons
An alpha particle is similar to what A. An electron B. A Proton C. A helium atom minus its neutrons D. A helium atom minus its electrons
A. Caution: Radiation Area
An ionization chamber is left in integral mode for 10min and records a total dose of 3mRem. Which of the following area posting signs should be used on the door leading into the area A. Caution: Radiation Area B. Caution: Radioactive Materials C. Caution: High Radiation Area D. Grave Danger: Very High Radiation Area
C) Review ALARA standards to reduce exposure because they are close to exceeding their annual eye dose limit
An occupational worker has received 14,000 mrem of exposure to the eyes in 1 year on his/her eye dose dosimeter; which following course of action would be appropriate? A) Recommend eye chelation therapy B) Review ALARA standards to reduce exposure because they have exceeded their annual eye dose limit C) Review ALARA standards to reduce exposure because they are close to exceeding their annual eye dose limit D) Recommend they use leaded eyeglasses to reduce exposure
D. Personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure
An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when A. Leaving the nuclear medicine department B. Radiation exposure results from patients who had radioactive materials administered at another facility C. Badge readings are likely to exceed allowable limits D. Personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure E. Calibrating equipment
D) 4
An unrestricted nuclear medicine waiting room is on the other side of the wall from the hot lab. G-M meter readings in the hot lab read 50 mR/hr. Readings on the other side of the wall in the waiting room read 25 mR/hr. What is the minimum number of HVLs of Pb that are required in the wall to bring the waiting room reading down to compliance with NRC regulations? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
a. scintillation detector
An uptake probe is what type of detector? a. scintillation detector b. proportional counter c. ionization chamber d. Geiger Mueller counter
A. Splenic sequestration
An uptake probe would be used for which of the following studies A. Splenic sequestration B. Red cell mass C. Red cell survival D. Plasma volume test E. Liver sequestration
58%
Based on the net counts shown here, what is the percentage gallbladder ejection fracture? Maximum gallbladder counts 185,632 Minimum gallbladder counts 77, 203 -71% -58% -41% -29%
intraperitoneal
Colloidal P 32 chromic phosphate is administered by which of the following routes? -intraperitoneal -intravenous -subcutaneous -inhalation
b. semilog
Data collected from a red cell survival procedure are plotted on what type of graph paper? a. Linear b. semilog c. log - log d. logit - log
c. stunned myocardium
Delayed improvement of perfusion following coronary artery revascularization is referred to as: a. Hibernating myocardium b. infarcted myocardium c. stunned myocardium d. necrosed myocardium
C. Removal of any cells damaged during the labeling process
During a red blood cell survival study the first blood sample is taken 24hr after the injection of the labeled cells. This 24hr time period is needed to allow A. Radiochromium to decay to a level compatible with the scintillation detector B. Patient recovery from the radiopharmaceutical injection C. Removal of any cells damaged during the labeling process D. Uniform mixing of the labeled cells throughout the vascular system E. A better non target ratio
E. Perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable
During a routine room survey for a radioactive contamination, a technologist identifies an area on the floor that exceeds the trigger level. Which of the following should the technologist do next? A. Determine the identity of the radionuclide present in the contaminated area B. Ascertain the source of the contamination C. Perform a dose calibrator background determination D. Cover the area until it has decayed to background level E. Perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable
a. no more contamination can be removed from the area
During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until: a. no more contamination can be removed from the area b. the exposure rate cannot be distinguished from background c. the contamination is reduced to a small area d. no one would receive the maximum allowable TEDE if he/she remained in the area
a. 0.84
During dose calibrator geometry, activity in a 1 ml syringe measures 253 μCi when the expected reading is 212 μCi. Which of the following correction factors should be applied to the measured reading? a. 0.84 b. 1.19 c. 4.1 d. 23.3
b. visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue
During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained for: a. correct the image series for patient motion b. visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue c. visualize substernal thyroid tissue d. diagnose hyperparathyroidism
Reduce the chromate ion to a lower valence state
During red blood cell labeling with 51Cr the purpose of adding ascorbic to the ACD (acid citrate dextrose) whole body solution is to -Reduce the chromate ion to a lower valence state -Maintain the pH of the mixture -Prevent clot formation -Prevent hemolysis of red blood cells -Oxidize the chromate ion to a higher valence state
A) wearing sterile gloves
During the IV injection of unit doses, all of the following practices are standard aseptic technique except: A) wearing sterile gloves B) usign disposable equipment before its expiration date C) aseptically cleaning the venipuncture site prior to injection with an alcohol swab D) uncapping the needle immediately prior to the injection
B. Osteomyelitis
Early (6h after injection) 67Ga imaging should be performed if which of the following conditions is suspected A. Sarcoma B. Osteomyelitis C. Lymphoma D. Bronchogenic carcinoma E. Chrondosarcoma
c. generating a time-activity curve for the superior vena cava
Evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is best accomplished by which of the following techniques? a. visually inspecting the bolus b. calculating the cardiac transit time c. generating a time-activity curve for the superior vena cava d. imaging the injection site for residual activity
E. Attenuation and organ depth
Geometric mean is sometimes used in quantization because it corrects for A. The size and shape of the organ B. Background activity C. Radioactive half life D. Radioactive decay E. Attenuation and organ depth
a. At installation and after repair.
Geometric variation, on a dose calibrator, should be performed: a. At installation and after repair. b.Installation and yearly. c. Quarterly d. Daily.
c. 29 msec
Given a heart rate of 85bpm, if a 24-frame gated heart study is acquired the length of each frame in milliseconds is: a. 0.06 msec b. 0.3 msec c. 29 msec d. 705 msec
d. 624 µCi
Given the decay factor (DF) of a radioisotope is 0.254 for 1 hr and 30 mCi/mL concentration is available at 0700, how much total activity will remain in the vial at 1100 if a total volume of 5 mL was used to make up the kit? a. 125 µCi b. 312 µCi c. 452 µCi d. 624 µCi
The RSO must review the technologist's work habits
If a technologist receives dosimeter readings that are nearly equal to the NRC limits, which of the following is the most appropriate action? -The technologist must cease working in a radiation area -The technologist can work in a radiation area but must limit exposure -The RSO must reassign the technologist to non radiation exposure work areas -The RSO must give the technologist a written warning -The RSO must review the technologist's work habits
.17mRem
If a technologist stands next to a radioactive source that is producing an exposure rate of .5mRem/hr for 20min, what radiation dose does the technologist receive -17mRem -.5mRem -10mRem -.17mRem - 23mRem
E. .42mL
If a unit dosage of 99mTc Pertechnetate is calibrated to contain 25mCi in .8mL at 1400 what volume should be removed from the syringe to retain 15mCi in the syringe at 1200 A. .20mL B. .32mL C. .52mL D. .48mL E. .42mL
d. 0.27 ml
If a unit dosage of radioactivity contains 4.5 mCi in 1.2 ml, how many ml must be removed from the syringe so that 3.5 mCi remains? a. 0.93 ml b. 0.78 ml c. 0.42 ml d. 0.27 ml
c. 650,000
If a unit dose of Tc-99m MAA contains 148 MBq and 325,000 particles in 0.75 ml at 1000, approximately how many particles will be contained in 148 MBq at 1600? a. 162,500 b. 325,000 c. 650,000 d. 866,666
A. 1.12 MBq/mL
If a vial of 99mTc Labeled Radiopharmaceutical contains 4.65MBq in 3.5mL at 0800 what is the concentration at 0930 A. 1.12 MBq/mL B. 1.33 MBq/mL C. .90 MBq/mL D. .75 MBq/mL E. .52 MBq/mL
C. She may not resume it with this child
If a woman who is breast feeding needs 131 I therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer, how long must she suspend breast feeding? A. 48 hr B. 1 week C. She may not resume it with this child D. Suspension of breast feeding is not necessary in this case E. 72 hr
C. 450,000
If an MAA kit containing 4.5 million particles is prepared by adding 30mCi in 2.5mL, how many particles are contained in 3mCi A. 150,000 B. 180,000 C. 450,000 D. 215,000 E. 555,000
4.8 mL
If an MAA kit contains approximately 6 million particles, what reconstituting volume is required to obtain 500,000 particles in 0.4 mL? -0.03 mL -0.21 mL -4.8 mL -12 mL
b. patients receive more MAA particles per ml
If an MAA kit must be reconstituted with 3.5 ml of TcO4, what are the consequences if only 2 ml are added to the kit? a. patients receive fewer MAA particles per ml b. patients receive more MAA particles per ml c. patients receive the recommended number of particles if the correct activity is given d. the resulting perfusion lung images will have the appearance of decreased tracer uptake
B. Plasma
If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample the fluid portion of the blood sample is known as A. Serum B. Plasma C. Antiserum D. Blood complement E. Clotting factor
b. Caution: Radiation Area
If an area survey reveals an ambient radiation level of 7 mR/hr, which of the following radioactive signs would be the best choice to display on the door leading to this area? a. Caution: radioactive materials b. Caution: radiation area c. Caution: high radiation area d. Grave danger: high radiation area
b. 2.73 mm x 2.73 mm
If an image acquired with a 128 x 128 matrix on a gamma camera with 350 mm FOV, what are the dimensions of each pixel? a. 0.37 mm x 0.37 mm b. 2.73 mm x 2.73 mm c. 3.14 mm x 3.14 mm d. 5.9 mm x 5.9 mm
d. at the base of the tongue or in the mediastinum
If ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the tech can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas? a. in the brain b. at the base of the tongue c. in the mediastinum d. at the base of the tongue or in the mediastinum
d. attempt to eluate the generator with a different (new) collection vial
If no eluate appears in the collection vial during generator elution, the tech should first: a. Add more elution solvent to the column b. contact the manufacturer for advice c. change the generator tubing d. attempt to eluate the generator with a different (new) collection vial
c. 60 cm
If one is receiving 20 mR/hr exposure at a distance of 3m from a source, at what distance would one receive 500 mR/hr exposure? a. 0.36 cm b. 0.36 m c. 60 cm d. 0.60 cm
c. falsely decreased
If radioactivity in the circulation from a pervious nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, results of a plasma volume determination will be: a. unaffected b. falsely elevated c. falsely decreased d. impossible to predict
c. 0.9 cm
If the HVL for I-131 in lead is 0.3 cm, what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate from 12 mr/hr to less than 2 mr/hr? a. 0.3 cm b. 0.6 cm c. 0.9 cm d. 1.2 cm
A) Use the survey meter as you normally would
In calibrating your survey meter for your nuclear medicine department, you discover that it has a 12% error. What is your next course of action to remain in compliance with NRC regulations? A) Use the survey meter as you normally would B) Throw it away C) Replace the batteries D) Recommend that it be serviced
D) <3.33 Bq/100 cm²
In doing a room survey you discover that a therapy patient's room has removable contamination above acceptable levels. What is the acceptable level? A) <200 Bq/100 cm² B) <200 Mbq/100 cm² C) <12,000 Bq/100 cm² D) <3.33 Bq/100 cm²
a. lung fields
In infants, 24 hour images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux? a. lung fields b. lower esophagus c. stomach d. upper small intestine
a. patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid
In labeling RBCs with radio chromium, the order of components added to the vial containing the ACD solution is: a. patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid b. radiochromium, patient blood, ascorbic acid c. radiochromium, ascorbic acid, patient blood d. ascorbic acid, radiochromium, patient blood
C. ACD solution
In labeling red blood cells with 51 Cr Sodium Chromate, which of the following reagents is used to prevent the blood sample from coagulating A. Heparing B. EDTA C. ACD solution D. Sodium Fluoride E. Sodium Chloride
Blood sample
In labeling red blood cells with 51Cr sodium chromate which of the following components is first added to the ACD solution -Blood sample -51Cr Sodium Chromate -Ascorbic Acid -Heparin -Sodium Chloride
A. Add ascorbic acid to the tagged blood
In labeling red blood cells with 51Cr the final step before re injecting the red blood cells into the patient is to A. Add ascorbic acid to the tagged blood B. Wash the labeled red cells to remove excess 51Cr C. Separate the blood cells from the plasma D. Add 51Cr to the patients blood sample E. Separate the white blood cells from the plasma
B) Background normalization
In nuclear medicine, "windowing" (choosing a linear scale with threshold) is used primarily for: A) Background subtraction B) Background normalization C) Image normalization D) Image reconstruction
B) Check the batteries
In operating a G-M meter on a daily basis, what is the first thing you should always do? A) Use a check source to make sure the meter is working correctly B) Check the batteries C) Insert the batteries D) Set it to the most sensitive scale/setting
Plantar view of the feet
In performing a bone image, which of the following views would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus? -Lateral views of the patella -Post void images of the pelvis -plantar view of the feet -anterior view of the distal humerus and radius
B. Immediately after meal consumption then every 15min for at least 2 hr
In performing a gastric emptying study imaging should begin A. 15 min after meal consumption then every 15min for 1 hr B. Immediately after meal consumption then every 15min for at least 2 hr C. Immediately after meal consumption then every 5 min for at least 1 hr D. 1hr after meal consumption then every 15min for the next hour E. 2hr after meal consumption then every 15min for at least 2 hr
A. The uptake value will be falsely increased
In performing a thyroid uptake a technologist collects the thyroid counts 5cm from the surface of the patients neck and the standard counts 20cm from the surface of the neck phantom. What is the effect on the thyroid uptake value calculated from this data A. The uptake value will be falsely increased B. The uptake value will be falsely decreased C. The uptake value will be accurate D. The results are unpredictable E. There is no effect
c.) rule out tracer infiltration
In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged: a.) quantitative the amount of tracer deposited at the injection site b.) calculate the amount of injected activity c.) rule out tracer infiltration d.) correct the kidney transit time of the tracer e.) correct the urinary output graph
d. for the study performed second
In the 1-day protocol for myocardial perfusion imaging performed with a 99mTc-labeled tracer, the larger amount of activity is administered: a. For the rest study b. for the stress study c. for the study performed first d. for the study performed second
B. Medical treatment of the seriously injured
In the case of a radioactive spill that involves contamination and life threatening injuries to personnel which of the following actions should be given priority A. Decontamination of the victim B. Medical treatment of the seriously injured C. Confinement of the radioactive spill D. Notification of the radiation safety officer E. Establishment of hot and cold zones
C. Using syringe shields when preparing unit doses
In the radio pharmacy laboratory, good radiation protection technique includes which of the following practices? A. Wearing disposable gloves when withdrawing unit doses B. Manipulating needles, syringes, and vials containing radioactivity at arms length C. Using syringe shields when preparing unit doses D. Wearing disposable gloves when giving injections E. Using a butterfly setup when giving injections
A. Reducing agent
In the radiochromium labeling process ascorbic acid is used as which of the following A. Reducing agent B. Radiotracer C. Oxidizing agent D. Anticoagulant E. Neutralizing agent
a. The modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patient's blood
In what ways does the modified in vivo method of labeling red blood cells with 99mTc Pertechnetate differ from the in vivo method? a. The modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patient's blood b. The modified method "pretins" only a small volume of the patient's blood c. The modified method to use a smaller activity Tc99m pertechnete d. A modified method requires a small amount of stannous pyrophosphate
d. head to upper forearms
In-111 Octreotide routinely includes what areas of the body? a. head and chest b. chest c. abdomen d. head to upper forearms
a. total parenteral nutrition mixture
In-111 Octreotide should not be administered though an IV line containing a. total parenteral nutrition mixture b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. dextrose and water d. glucose
b. kidneys
Increased bilirubin causes what to be seen on a HIDA? a. colon b. kidneys c. lungs d. spleen
b.) lungs
Increased levels of Al3+ in 99mTc eluate used to prepare 99mTc SC may cause the tracer to concentrate in the: a.) liver b.) lungs c.) red blood cells d.) thyroide.) brain
b. decreased blood flow
Ischemia means: a. Necrotic tissue b. decreased blood flow c. infarction d. a superior portion of the pelvis
d. there is an increase possibility of a local irradiation of soft tissue due to infiltration
It is best notto administer Sr89 and Sm153 directly via syringe because: a. the syringe cannot be adequately shielded b. the radiation dose to the technologist hands from the Beta emissions is great c. there is no means of controlling the rate of radiopharmaceutical administration d. there is an increase possibility of a local irradiation of soft tissue due to infiltration
Weekly
It is recommended that a high count uniformity correction flood maps be acquired how frequently -Daily -Weekly -Monthly -Quarterly -Hourly
a. The number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterials
It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with symptoms of pulmonary emboli because: a. The number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterials b. The particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum c. The particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages d. The albumin is denatured before it is made into particles
D) tolerance
Nonreactivity toward a particular antigen is called: A) autoimmunity B) immuntiy C) immunogenicity D) tolerance
D. I, II and III
Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by which of the followingI. 60-100 beats/minII. R wave occurs at constant intervalsIII. PR interval .12-.20sec long A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III E. III only
B. Urine, saliva, and perspiration
Nurses caring for 131I therapy patients who require isolation should be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patients: A. Feces, urine, and blood B. Urine, saliva, and perspiration C. Blood and urine D. Sputum and blood E. Feces and blood
E. 6.9%
On the basis of the chromatography results shown here: what is the percentage radiochemical impurity of the 99mTc pentetate preparation? Origin. Solvent Front System 1: 3uCi HR-Tc. 177 uCi 99mTc Pentetate + 99mTc Pertechnetate System 2: 275 uCi 99mTc Pentetate + Hr-Tc. 15uCi 99mTc Pertechnetate What is the percentage radiochemical impurity of the 99mTc Pentetate Prepartion A. 74.6% B. 93.1% C. 94.8% D. 98.3% E. 6.9%
c. 19,694
On the basis of the data: what are the net counts in the cardiac region of interest Total Counts No. Pixels Cardiac ROI 28503 417 Background ROI 1859 88 a. 28,065 b. 26,644 c. 19,694 d. 15,463
23%
On the basis of the following accounts per minute obtained from a thyroid uptake test: Thyroid 2876 Patient background 563 Standard 10,111 Room background 124 The percentage of the radioiodine uptake is? -3.5% -4.3% -23% -28%
c. 99mTc Oxidronate 0600/July9 , 1400/July9
On the basis of the radiopharmaceutical vial label information shown here which of the preparations should the technologist administer on July 9 at 0800 to perform three-phase bone imaging?
c. 875
On the basis of the spectrometer calibration curve shown here: The operating voltage of the instrument is: a. 800 b. 850 c. 875 d. 885
E. 567 dpm
On the basis of these data: Wipe test count: 375 cpm Background count: 120cpm And a well counter efficiency of 45% the results of the wipe test in dpm are? A. 49dpm B. 115dpm C. 255dpm D. 423 dpm E. 567 dpm
A. The instrument consistently gives higher readings than expected
On the basis of this graph The dose calibrator linearity test results demonstrate that A. The instrument consistently gives higher readings than expected B. Lower activities are measured as accurately as higher activites C. The instrument is operating linearly over the range of activities measured D. The instrument should be used to measured only millicurie amounts of radioactivity E. the instrument consistently gives lower readings than expected
d. no manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required
One advantage of the in vivo method of 99mTc red cell tagging is that: a. All the circulating red cells are labeled with tracer b. no incubation times are required at any step in the process c. smaller amounts of stannous chloride are required d. no manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required
c. no manipulation of blood samples outside of the body is required
One advantage of the in vivo method of Tc99m red cell tagging is that: a. All circulating red cells are labeled with tracer b. no incubation times are required at any step in the process c. no manipulation of blood samples outside of the body is required d. smaller amounts of stannous chloride are required
d.) after the radiopharm is administered to the patient
One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all of the following except: a.) before the vial is removed from the shelf b.) before the radiopharm is dispensed c.) after the vial is placed back on the shelf d.) after the radiopharm is administered to the patient e.) after the syringe shield is added
d. PO
Parenteral administration of a drug or radiopharmaceutical would include all of the following routes EXCEPT: a. IV b. IM c. SQ d. PO
a.) a low-iodine diet for 1 week before the therapy
Patient Preparation for a I131 therapy includes: a.) a low-iodine diet for 1 week before the therapy b.) a high-iodine diet for 1 week before the therapy c.) a low-carbohydrate diet for 3 days before the therapy d.) not consuming any salt for 1 week before the therapy e.) not consuming potassium for 1 week before the therapy
laxatives
Patient preparation for GA 67 citrate imaging may include the administration of which of the following? -diuretics -potassium perchlorate -lugol's solution -laxatives
hydration of the patient
Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which of the following? -hydration of the patient -discontinuation of all medications -fasting for at least two hours before imaging -administration of furosemide one hour before imaging
B. Lab work and information concerning recent blood transfusions
Patient preparation for infection imaging using tagged white blood cells includes A. Fasting for at least 4hr with a blood glucose level below 120mg/dL B. Lab work and information concerning recent blood transfusions C. Discontinuation of certain medications D. Smoking cessation for at least 24hr E. Fasting for at least 4hr with a blood glucose level below 200mg/dL
D. Introducing 99mTc Sulfur Colloid into the cavity to confirm that the 32P will disperse evenly
Patient preparation for instilling colloidal 32P chromic phosphate into the peritoneal cavity includes which of the following A. Surgical placement of a LeVeen shunt to remove excess peritoneal fluid B. Fasting for 8-12hr before radiopharmaceutical administration C. Instructing the patient about isolation requirements D. Introducing 99mTc Sulfur Colloid into the cavity to confirm that the 32P will disperse evenly E. Administering an antacid 2-4hours before the procedure
A. Administering of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2hr before imaging
Patient preparation for post thyroidectomy 131I whole body imaging for metastases may include all of the following except A. Administering of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2hr before imaging B. Administration of exogenous TSH C. Discontinuation of replacement thyroid hormone D. Following a low iodine diet for 1-2 weeks before imaging E. No IV CT contrast 6 weeks before
d. Meckel's diverticulum
Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans: a. Gastric emptying b. deep vein Thrombosis c. LaVeen patency d. Meckel's diverticulum
a. Left anterior descending
Perfusion of the ventricular septum in the heart is provided primarily by which coronary artery? a. Left anterior descending b. left circumflex c. right coronary d. none of the above
c. likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure
Personnel must wear a radiation monitoring device during work hours if they are: a. exposure to radiation any time during work hours b. exposed to radiation above background levels c. likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure d. likely to exceed the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure
d. using tweezers to pick up the chromatography paper
Possible radiochromatography artifacts include all of the following except: a. Using the wrong solvent b. the strip touches the side of the developing chamber c. the solvent evaporates before chromatography is completed d. using tweezers to pick up the chromatography paper
A) twelve lead ECG monitoring
Preparation of patients undergoing PET imaging for an oncologic clinical indication include all of the following except: A) twelve lead ECG monitoring B) installation of IV line C) hydration D) fasting
D. Fasting for at least 2hr before imaging
Preparation of the patient for Meckel's Diverticulum localization includes: A. Administration of laxatives B. Oral or intravenous hydration C. An enema immediately before imaging D. Fasting for at least 2hr before imaging E. An enema immediately after imaging
D. Lateral Ventricles
Radioactivity is visualized in all of the following areas during a normal cisternographic study except the A. Cerebral Convexities B. Basal cisterns C. Central Canal D. Lateral Ventricles E. Subarachnoid Space
d. target: nontarget ratios
Radiochemical impurities can change: a. Radionuclide purity b. generator yields c. PET blank scans d. target: nontarget ratios
d.) catheterization of the patient
Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires which of the following? a.) intravenous injection of the tracer b.) use of a renal agent c.) administration of furosemide d.) catheterization of the patient e.) calculation of the ERPF
d. Tc-99m MAA
Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals? a. Tc-99m DTPA b. TcO4 c. Tc-99m exametazime d. Tc-99m MAA
c. oxidation
Radiopharmaceutical kits reconstituted with 99mTc pertechnetate are prepared in nitrogen or argon-purged vials to prevent: a. Bacterial growth b. hydrolysis c. oxidation d. radiolysis
b. lower than adjacent areas
Radioxenon ventilation studies should be performed in rooms whose air pressure is: a. Higher than adjacent areas b. lower than adjacent areas c. equal to adjacent areas d. neither higher or lower than adjacent areas
d. in vivo and modified in vivo
Reconstituted "cold" PYP is administered to the patient in which RBC labeling method? a. in vitro b. in vivo c. modified in vivo d. in vivo and modified in vivo
B. 1-2hr
SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of 99mTc Exametazime A. Immediately B. 1-2hr C. 15-20min D. 24hr E. 48hr
2mRem
The NRC defines an unrestricted area as one in which an individual will receive less than how many millirems in an hour -2mRem -5mRem -50mRem -100mRem -500mRem
Dose calibrator make and model number
The NRC requires that all of the following information be included in unit dosage measurement records except the? -Date of measurement -Time of measurement -Patients name -Radiopharmaceutical name -Dose calibrator make and model number
A) specificity
The ability of an antibody to react with one and only one antigen is known as its: A) specificity B) sensitivity C) avidity D) affinity
E. Minimize environmental stimuli
The administration technique for 99mTc Bicisate includes which of the following A. Direct venous stick B. Infusion at peak cardiac stress C. Bolus injection technique D. Infusion over 3 hrs E. Minimize environmental stimuli
C) 10% of the standard yearly occupational dose for the gestation period
The allowed dose of ionizing radiation to a declared pregnant woman's embryo/fetus is: A) 10% of the standard occupational workers whole-body dose per year B) 1% of the standard occupational workers whole-body dose per year C) 10% of the standard yearly occupational dose for the gestation period D) 1% of the standard yearly occupational dose for the gestation period
D) 34eV
The average energy required to create an ion pair in air is _____________. A) 60 eV B) 30keV C) 5 eV D) 34eV
C. 350,000
The average recommended number of MAA particles recommended to be administered is A. 100,000 B. 150,000 C. 350,000 D. 1,000,000 E. 50,000
a. Lower left lung
The background ROI used in determining percentage gastroesophageal (GE) reflux is placed over the: a. Lower left lung b. small intestine c. right hepatic lobe d. upper esophagus
C. 620
The calibration of a scintillation spectrometer yielded the following data What is the operating voltage of this instrument A. 615 B. 625 C. 620 D. 630 E. 635
C) Random coincidence
The chance detection of photons from unrelated annihilation events within the coincidence timing window is called: A) True coincidence B) Scatter coincidence C) Random coincidence D) Prompt coincidence
d. the question the referring physician needs answered
The clinical indication for a diagnostic test is: a. A list of the patient's symptoms b. the patient's diagnosis c. a summary of the patient's clinical history d. the question the referring physician needs answered
c. detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria
The clinical indication for performing a 14C urea breath test is to: a. rule out excess urea in the blood b. determine the cause of gastric reflux c. detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria d. diagnose possible causes of abnormal gastric emptying
c. I-123 sodium iodide, I-131 sodium iodide, In-111 DTPA
The clinics schedule is shown here: Patient A: Thyroid uptake and imagePatient B: Therapy for hyperthyroidismPatient C: Cisternogram What radiopharmaceuticals should the tech prepare or order? a. I-131 human serum albumin, I-131 sodium iodide, and TcO4 b. In-111 oxine and I-123 sodium iodide c. I-123 sodium iodide, I-131 sodium iodide, In-111 DTPA d. I-131 sodium iodide and In-111 chloride
a. Wash in
The concentration of 133 Xe gas in the lungs is increasing in which phase of a xenon ventilation study? a. Wash in b. equilibrium c. washout d. there is no phase of increasing activity
d. 20 mL
The concentration of 99mTc pertechnetate is required to be 60 mCi/mL. If approximately 1,200 mci 99mTc pertechnetate will be eluted from a wet-column generator, which size evacuated vial should be used to collect the eluate? a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 15 mL d. 20 mL
the difference in vessel size
The difference in hematocrit values between the average whole body hematocrit and the Venus hematocrit is the result of -the difference in vessel size -the variation in red blood cell diameter -the increased amount of blood in the extremities -plasma leakage
c. call for help
The first step a tech should take when an adult patient is experiencing cardiac arrest: a. perform chest compressions b. establish an airway c. call for help d. perform rescue breathing
Remove any particles of contaminated personal or protective clothing
The first step in the decontamination of personnel is to -Immediately place the contaminated person in a shower -Wash contaminated areas of the skin with soap and water -Remove the contaminated person from the site of the spill -Remove any particles of contaminated personal or protective clothing -Establish hot and cold zones
b. support for the patient during a stretcher to bed transfer
The function of a draw sheet is to provide: a. Warmth to the patient during the procedure b. Support for the patient during the stretcher to bed transfer c. protection from infectious disease d. patient privacy during an imaging procedure
b. blood clotted to MAA particles was injected
The image shown here was obtained after the administration of Tc-99m MAA. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the quality of this lung perfusion image? a. the image shows lung pathology b. blood clotted to MAA particles was injected c. there is radioactive contamination on the patient's skin or camera detector d. too many MAA particles were administered
B) Geiger effect
The ionization of the entire fixed volume of a gas due to secondary ionization is known as the _____________. A) Townsend Avalanche B) Geiger effect C) Proportional effect D) Internal amplification
Check the radionuclide setting on the dose calibrator
The label on an unopened vial states that the vial contains 10mL of a radiopharmaceutical with a concentration of 55.5 MBq/mL. When the technologist assays the vial in a dose calibrator, it measures 9mCi. Which of the following actions should the technologist perform first A. Begin to prepare unit doses from the vial B. Check the radionuclide setting on the dose calibrator C. Perform an accuracy check on the dose calibrator D. Contact the radiopharmaceutical manufacturer E. Return the vial to the vendor
C) cross-reactivity
The property whereby an anitbody reacts with two or more antigens of similar structure is known as: A) sensitivity B) avidity C) cross-reactivity D) immunoreactivity
d. xenon
The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon administration unit is to absorb: a. Bacteria b. carbon dioxide c. moisture d. xenon
d. xenon gas
The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb: a. bacteria b. carbon dioxide c. moisture d. xenon gas
b. To indicate the highest activity of the constant at 1 m from surface.
The purpose of the transport index is: a. To list the final destination of the package. b. To indicate the highest activity of the constant at 1 m from surface. c. Not to give emergency personnel information about the contents of the package in an accident. d. Not to list the radio isotopes in the package..
b. evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia
The purpose of using acetazolamide (Diamox) in conjunction with a brain agent is to: a. tranquilize the patient b. evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia c. localize the area of the brain where seizures arise d. localize brain tumors
c. suppress superficial circulation
The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing a radionuclide venogram with Tc99m MAA is to: a. distend the veins in the feet b. prevent blood clots from traveling to the lung c. suppress superficial circulation d. trap the tracer in the lower extremities e. increase low blood pressure in the patient
A. 78.4%
The radiochemical purity of a radiopharmaceutical is determined using a solvent/support media combination with these Rf values Radiopharmaceutical: 0 Radiochemical impurity: 1.0 After the radiochromatography strip is developed and cut in half the solvent front half of the strip is counted 15,345 cpm and the origin half of the strip counted 55,632 cpm. What is the radiochemical purity of the sample A. 78.4% B. 27.6% C. 72.4% D. 21.6% E. 89.9%
c. 25-50 mg
The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in a hypertension study is: a. 10-15 mg b. 15-20 mg c. 25-50 mg d. 55-100 mg
d. hemolytic anemia
The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected: a. pernicious anemia b. intestinal malabsorption c. iron deficiency anemia d. hemolytic anemia
a. 4-6 hours
The shelf life of MOST 99mTc Labeled Radiopharmaceuticals is? a. 4-6 hours b. 6-8 hours c. 10-12 hours d. 16-18 hours
b.) Mo99 on the column
The size of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is expressed as the total activity of a.) Tc99m on the column b.) Mo99 on the column c.) Tc99m eluted from the column d.) decay-corrected Tc99m available at time of elution e.) decay-corrected Mo99 available at time of elution
b. posterior
The size of the spleen can best be determined using what view of a Tc99m Sulfur Colloid image? a. Anterior b. posterior c. right lateral d. left lateral
D. Three
The standard adult dosage of 123I sodium iodide is 400uCi plus or minus 10%. On the basis of the vial label information show here Total Activity: 1mCi Number of capsules: 10 Activity/Capsule: 100uCi/capsule Calibration: 1200, October 5 How many 123I sodium iodide capsules should be administered to the patient at 0800 on October 5th A. Four B. The capsules may not be administered until 1200 C. Two D. Three E. Five
Weekly
The standard of practice dictates that the center of rotation (COR) offset correction be performed how frequently on SPECT camera -Weekly -Daily -Monthly -Quarterly -Hourly
e. anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques
The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are: a. anterior and posterior b. posterior and obliques only c. anterior, posterior, and lateral of the affected lung d. laterals and obliques only e. anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques
C) increasing the number of projections
The star artifact suring a SPECT reconstruction can be reduced by ____________. A) increasing the time per projection B) decreasing the time per projection C) increasing the number of projections D) decreasing the number of projections
87.9%
The tagging efficiency of a radiopharmaceutical is determined using these solvent/support media systems Rf Values Radiopharmaceutical Free Pertechnetate Hydrolyzed Reduced 99mTc System 1: 0.0 0.9 0.0 System 2: 1.0 1.0 0.0 After a chromatography strip containing a sample of the radiopharmaceutical was developed in each solvent, cut in half and counted, these results were obtained Counts Per Minute Solvent front half Origin Half System 1: 1716cpm 23706cpm System 2: 21001cpm 1200cpm What is the tagging efficiency of the sample? -92.8% -6.7% -12.1% -87.9% -5.4%
d. ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity
The techs responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include: a. performing the lumbar puncture b. obtaining consent to perform the procedure c. monitoring the patient for any adverse reactions to the procedure d. ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity
10ug/ml
The test kit used to measure aluminum ion concentration in Tc 99m and eluate contains specially treated indicator paper and aluminum solution with a concentration of approximately -2ug/ml -5ug/ml -10ug/ml -20ug/ml
b. beta particles
The therapeutic effectiveness of I-131 in treating hyperthyroidism results from the delivery of energy to thyroid tissue from: a. Alpha particles b. beta particles c. gamma rays d. x-rays
corrected hematocrit
The total blood volume baby calculated by dividing the measured red cell volume by the: -hematocrit -plasmacrit -corrected hematocrit -corrected plasmacrit
c. corrected hematocrit
The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume measured with labeled albumin by the: a. hematocrit b. plasmacrit c. corrected hematocrit d. corrected plasmacrit
B) Purple
The triblade radiation symbol must be which of the following colors on a yellow background? A) Pink B) Purple C) Red D) Brown
b. X axis: segment of the myocardium; Y axis: maximum counts
The x- and y-axes of a circumferential profile curve are, respectively: a. X axis: bull's-eye quadrant; Y axis: % maximum count b. X axis: segment of the myocardium; Y axis: maximum counts c. X axis: time; Y axis: activity d. X axis: rest; Y axis: stress
The energy resolution of the instrument is worsening
These are the results of energy resolution tests for the last four quarters January: 9.5% April: 10.3% July: 10.9% October: 11.1% According to these data, which of the following statements is true -The energy resolution of the instrument is improving -The test is erroneous -The results indicate that the instrument should no longer be used -The test should be performed with a different radionuclide -The energy resolution of the instrument is worsening
Aminophylline
Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of: -Adenosine -aminophylline -acetazolamide -nitroglycerin
b. aminophylline
Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of: a. Adenosine b. aminophylline c. antihistamines d. nitroglycerin
b. put on disposable gloves
When opening radioactive packages, what steps should be done first? a. visually inspect the package for damage or leakage b. put on disposable gloves c. verify package contents against package slip d. wipe test package for contamination
c. ectopic stomach mucosa
When performing Meckel's diverticulum imaging, which of the following would be visualized in a positive study? a. Malignant thyroid tissue b. stomach mucosa c. ectopic stomach mucosa d. ectopic endometrial tissue
c. LAO
When performing a MUGA, which of the following views best separates the right and left ventricles? a. LT LAT b. LPO c. LAO d. ANT
d. adjusting both anterior and LAO angle
When performing a left ventricular function examination with 99mTc-labeled red blood cells, which of the following actions is used to visually separate the ventricles from one another? a. Adjusting the interior angle b. adjusting the left lateral angle c. adjusting the left lateral oblique angle d. adjusting both anterior and LAO angle
thigh
When performing a radio iodine thyroid uptake, non-thyroidal (body) background measurements may be taken over the? -Lateral skull -mediastinum -abdomen -thigh
C) thigh
When performing a thyroid uptake, the nonthyroidal body backgroundmeasurement is performed over the: A) stomach B) skull C) thigh D) lumbar spine
a. 0
When performing radiochromatography on a radiopharmaceutical sample, the solvent is located 8.5 cm from the origin and the radiochemical impurity is at the origin. What is the R(f) value of the radiochemical impurity? a. 0 b. 0.85 c. 1.0 d. 8.5
Withdraw the unit dose
When preparing to withdraw a unit dose of 32P chromic phosphate, the technologist visually inspects the radiopharmaceutical and notes that is a blue green color. The technologist should next -Contact the radiopharmaceutical manufacturer -Reschedule the procedure -Add it to the cup of water for dispensing to the patient -Place the dose in radioactive waste for disposal -Withdraw the unit dose
A) identity of the patient
When reporting a medical event to the NRC, which of the following information should not be included? A) identity of the patient B) licensee's name C) description of event D) remedial action
C
When surveying for contamination, which of the following diagrams depicts the correct position of the probe of the end window G-M meter in relation to the surface being monitored
d. 1.5 beat
When the heart beat is 90 bpm, how many beats are per second? a. 0.011 beat b. 0.016 beat c. 0.67 beat d. 1.5 beat
d. every day and at the same distance from the patient each time
When the radiation level coming from a radioactive therapy patient in isolation is measured, it should be measured: a. every day b. every day at the same time c. at the same distance from the patient each time d. every day and at the same distance from the patient each time e. at difference distances from the patient each time
E. Pre injection syringe counts
When using the camera method for a GFR, compare the kidney counts to what A. Dynamic image ROI counts B. Injection site C. Post injection site counts D. Plasma counts E. Pre injection syringe counts
a. DOT I
Which DOT radioactive labeling is entirely white? a. DOT I b. DOT II c. DOT III d. DOT IV
A) SA
Which SPECT cardiac slice is used to generate a polar plot? A) SA B) HLA C) VLA D)Transverse
B. The patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins
Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after administration of 18F FDG for PET imaging A. The patient may leave the imaging area and return in approximately 90 min B. The patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins C. The patient may read or watch television until imaging begins D. The patient should consume a fatty meal to clear excess tracer from the Hepatobiliary system E. The patient should exercise in place for 15min before the start of imaging
b. Geiger Mueller counter
Which of the following instruments is most appropriate for detecting low level accidental contamination? a. thermoluminescent dosimeter b. Geiger Mueller counter c. Cutie pie (ionization chamber) d. Pocket dosimeter
c. well counter
Which of the following instruments should be used to determine whether all removable contamination has been eliminated? a. GM counter b. cutie pie c. well counter d. uptake probe
a. How good the test is a detecting a true positive
Which of the following is a definition of sensitivity of a diagnostic test? a. How good the test is a detecting a true positive b. how good the test is a detecting a true negative c. how good the test is a detecting the difference between a true negative and a true positive d. how good the test is a detecting something
a. Compton scatter from the patient
Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technology who performs PET imaging? a. Compton scatter from the patient b. Positrons escaping from the patient c. Gamma rays from the long lived source used from transmission scanning d. Electromagnetic radiation from the PET camera
Tc 99m sulfur colloid is the tracer of choice
Which of the following is common to imaging gastroesophageal reflux in both adults and children? -Tc 99m sulfur colloid is the tracer of choice -the patient must fast starting at midnight before the test -an abdominal binder is used to increase pressure over the abdomen -the patient injest dilute hydrochloric acid with the tracer
B) can be made nearly carrier free
Which of the following is most characteristic of a neutron activation product produced from an (n,p) reaction? A) decay by electron capture B) can be made nearly carrier free C) relatively low specific activity D) more expensive than cyclotron products
b. Cardiac arrhythmia
Which of the following is most likely to interfere with performing a left ventricular ejection fraction using the gated equilibrium technique? a. doxorubicin toxicity b. Cardiac arrhythmia c. cardiomyopathy d. coronary artery disease
d. amount of aluminum on the column
Which of the following is not a factor in generator yields: a. Time since last elution b. column cracks c. air leaks d. amount of aluminum on the column
D) intraarterial
Which of the following is not a route of administration of a radiopharmaceutical? A) inhalation B) IV C) intrathecal D) intraarterial
D) percentage of "no shows" a department expects
Which of the following is not one of the factors that affect daily planning needs for a nuclear medicine department? A) types and nubmers of each nuclear medicine procedure B) unit dosages or dosage ranges for each procedure C) time interval between RPH prep and administration D) percentage of "no shows" a department expects
a. Reducing agent
Which of the following is not part of a 99mTc radiopharmaceutical kit: a. Reducing agent b. ascorbic acid or stannous ion c. pyrogenocidal agent d. lyophilized compound
c. talk calmingly to the patient while injecting
Which of the following is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration? a. Dim the lights b. inject using an IV line c. talk calmingly to the patient while injecting d. ask the patient to keep eyes and ears open
a. Name of patient
Which of the following is not required to be included in the records of a radioactive package receipt check in process? a. Name of patient b. name of radioisotope c. amount of activity d. both external and internal wipe checks
c. it can affect the rate of gastric emptying
Which of the following is the reason that it is important to have a standardized meal size and composition in a gastric-emptying scan? a. It can affect the radiation dose to the patient b. it can affect the ability to have gastric emptying c. it can affect the rate of gastric emptying d. it has no effect and there's not necessary
D) Jaszczak phantom
Which of the following is used for SPECT system performance? A) High count flood B) COR offset measurement C) PLES phantom D) Jaszczak phantom
a. kidneys
Which of the following is/are NOT normally visualized on a GA-67 usage acquired 72 hours after tracer administration? a. kidneys b. lacrimal glands c. sternum d. liver
d. CBC
Which of the following is/are not indicators of renal function? a. BUN level b. peak transit time c. creatinine clearance d. CBC
C. Plastic
Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding 32P A. Lead B. Aluminum C. Plastic D. No shielding is required for 32P E. Tungsten
a. 64 x 64 byte
Which of the following matrix sizes and acquisition modes would be most appropriate for a blood flow study of the feet? a. 64 x 64 byte b. 64 x 64 word c. 256 x 256 byte d. 256 x 256 word
b. diphenhydramine
Which of the following may be used to reduce the allergic effects of contrast media? a. acetaminophen b. diphenhydramine c. air d. water
c. PSA levels
Which of the following medical history is relevant to indium 111 capromab Pendetide imaging? a. Breast-feeding schedule b. mammogram results c. PSA levels d. pregnancy status
B. Heparin
Which of the following medications has been shown to interfere with in vivo 99mTc Labeling of red blood cells A. Doxorubicin B. Heparin C. Penicillin D. Adenosine E. Dobutamine
B. Perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination
Which of the following must be performed before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor? A. Confirm that the exposure rate does not exceed background levels B. Perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination C. Cover each individual vial with a waterproof cover D. Notify the NRC that a shipment is being made E. Performing a calibration check on the DC
C) Use windowing
Which of the following operations would help in improving the image contrast after display? A) Use a smoothing filter B) Use an edge enhancement filter C) Use windowing D) Use a formatter
Tc 99M MAA and xenon 133 gas
Which of the following pairs of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging -Tc 99m sulfer colloid and Tc 99m pentetate aerosol -Tc 99m albumin and xenon 133 gas -Tc 99M MAA and xenon 133 gas -Tc 99m bicisate and Tc 99m pentetate aerosol
45-year-old man with right to left cardiac shunt
Which of the following patients should receive fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging? - 80-year-old woman with suspected pulmonary embolism - 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - 45-year-old man with right to left cardiac shunt - 25-year-old woman with asthma
d. TLD or OSL
Which of the following personnel monitors would be appropriate for use when monitors are changed at three month intervals? a. Film badge b. TLD c. OSL d. TLD or OSL
c. dipyridamole
Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents remains in the plasma for the greatest length of time? a. dobutamine b. adenosine c. dipyridamole d. nitroglycerin
b. I and II
Which of the following quantitative renal techniques require(s) the calculation of kidney depth? I. Schlegel technique II. Gates method III. two compartment effective renal plasma flow ERPF IV. determination Russells glomerular filtration rate GFR method a. I b. I and II c. III and IV d. II and IV
b. portable ionizing chamber
Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is best suited to survey a patient who has received 150 mCi of I 131 for therapy? a. Pocket ionizing chamber b. portable ionizing chamber c. Geiger Mueller counter d. dose calibrator
urinary catheterization for incontinent patients
Which of the following radiation safety measures should be used when performing SR 89 therapy? -use of a lead vial and syringe shields -urinary catheterization for incontinent patients -use of in a absorbent paper in isolation room -monitoring the patient radiation levels weekly
C) "Caution: High Radiation Area"
Which of the following radiation signs would be required if a survey meter reading were 40mR/hr at 60 cm from a source in the room? A) "Caution: Radioactive Material" B) "Caution: Radiation Area" C) "Caution: High Radiation Area" D) "Grave Danger: Very High Radiation Area"
57Co sheet source with collimator in place
Which of the following radionuclide sources is used to acquire a uniformity flood -99mTc point source with collimator removed -57Co sheet source with collimator removed -99mTc point source with collimator in place -131I point source with collimator removed -57Co sheet source with collimator in place
c. mertiatide (MAG3)
Which of the following radiopharmaceutical kit formulations is light sensitive? a. sestamibi b. oxidronate c. mertiatide (MAG3) d. exametazime
d.) Tc99m bicisate
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood-brain barrier? a.) Tc99m pertechnetate b.) Tc99m gluceptate c.) Tc99m pentetate d.) Tc99m bicisate e.) Tc99m sulfur colloid
d.) Sm153 lexidronam
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be ordered to treat bone pain caused by bony metastases? a.) I131 sodium iodide b.) In111 oxine c.) P32 chromic phosphate d.) Sm153 lexidronam e.) I123 sodium iodide
C
Which of the following sets of vital sign measurements represent normal values for an adult?
check the radionuclide setting
Which of the following should a technologist do? -check the radionuclide setting -reacquire the flag for more counts -arrange for service immediately -perform patient studies
b. Cs-137
Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy? a. Tc-99m b. Cs-137 c. I-125 d. I-131
c. these precautions replace "standard precautions"
Which of the following statements about "transmission-based precautions" is false? a. these precautions are applied when a patient is known to be infected with a communicable disease b. these precautions must be implemented in the cause of diseases such as varicella, tuberculosis, and mumps c. these precautions replace "standard precautions" d. these precautions include guidelines for airborne, droplet, and contact transmitted diseases
c. it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect
Which of the following statements about Octreotide is TRUE? a. it is labeled with Tc-99m b. it is a labeled antibody c. it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect d. it is excreted exclusively through the kidneys
A. Image resolution is increased
Which of the following statements about an image acquired with zoom is true A. Image resolution is increased B. Background counts are increased C. More memory is required D. Contrast is decreased E. Specificity is increased
the eluate in the lead shield is measured with the dose calibrator set to assay Mo99
Which of the following statements about determining MO 99 concentration in Tc 99m eluate using a lead shield method is true? -the eluate is assayed for only Mo99 -the lead shield is used to absorb high energy Mo 99 photons -the unshielded eluate is it assayed for Mo 99 and Tc 99m by adjusting the dose calibrator settings -the eluate in the lead shield is measured with the dose calibrator set to assay Mo99
D) ungated myocardial SPECT
Which one of the following will not give information on left ventricular function? A) gated equilibrium radionuclide angiography B) gated tomographic myocardial perfusion imaging C) ungated first-pass study D) ungated myocardial SPECT
c. the particles are deposited in ventilated areas of the lungs
Which of the following statements about radiolabeled aerosols used for lung ventilation imaging is true? a. Particle size range from 30 to 90 µm in diameters b. it is necessary to trap any radiolabeled particles exhaled by the patient c. the particles are deposited in ventilated areas of the lungs d. deposition of particles in the central airway is never a problem with lung aerosol studies
a. correctly labeled horizontal long axis
Which of the following statements about the image of a left ventricle slice shown here is correct? a. correctly labeled horizontal long axis b. incorrectyl labeled horizontal long axis c. correctly labeled vertical long axis d. incorrectly labeled vertical long axis
c. A sample of the patient's "pre tinned" blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient
Which of the following statements about the modified in vivo methods for labeling red blood cells with 99mTc Pertechnetate is true? a. Call me a sample of the patient's blood is incubated with the reconstituted stannous pyrophosphate b. Excess Tc 99m pertechnetate is removed from the blood sample before the sample is re-injected into the patient c. A sample of the patient's "pre tinned" blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient d. Read cell labeling takes place only within the patient's circulatory system
The patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen during the wash in phase
Which of the following statements about the wash in/washout method for preferring xenon ventilation studies is true? -The patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen during the wash in phase -The patient can be disconnected from the gas trapping apparatus after the wash in phase -This method is not recommended for comatose patients -It is not necessary to introduce oxygen or air into the xenon delivery system
b. the lower the cutoff frequency, the noisier the image
Which of the following statements is true about the effect of the filter-cutoff frequency? a. the lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image b. the lower the cutoff frequency, the noisier the image c. adjusting the cutoff frequency will not affect the image appearance d. the cutoff frequency cannot be adjusted after the image has been acquired
a. The ratio of the Mo 99 and Tc99m activities remain constant
Which of the following statements is true when transient equilibrium occurs between 99Mo and 99mTc? a. The ratio of the Mo 99 and Tc99m activities remain constant b. the maximum amount of Tc99m activity is present c. the Mo 99 and Tc 99m activities are equal d. Tc99m and Mo 99 have the same decay constant
oxygen therapy may be ordered by a physician, nurse, athletic trainer, or respiratory therapist
Which of the following statements regarding the administration of oxygen is false? -oxygen is classified as a drug -oxygen therapy may be ordered by a physician, nurse, athletic trainer, or respiratory therapist -with the consent of a physician or nurse, an oxygen appliance may be removed from the patient if it interferes with the in imaging procedure -orders for oxygen therapy must include the amount to be delivered, the type of oxygen appliance to be used, and whether administration is to be continuous or intermittent
e.) whole-body imaging with In111 ibritumomab tiuxetan
Which of the following steps is performed before the administration of 90Y ibritumomab tiuxetan therapy? a.) determining PSA level b.) fasting for 8 hr c.) NPO from midnight before the study d.) intravenous hydration e.) whole-body imaging with In111 ibritumomab tiuxetan
c. costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on pediatric bone images? a. diaphyses of the long bones b. breast tissue c. costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates d. lumbar spine and cranium
C) costochondral junctions
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of a child vs. an adult? A) ribs B) femur C) costochondral junctions D) sternoclavical joints
c. MUGA scan
Which of the following studies requires radiolabeled red blood cells? a. Infection imaging b. renal scan c. MUGA scan d. liver/spleen scan
b. filter back projection
Which of the following techniques is used to help eliminate the star effect creating during tomographic reconstruction? a. Center of rotation offset correction b. filter back projection c. oversampling d. uniformity correction
Tc 99m exametazime
Which of the following tracers may be used to confirm brain death? -Tc 99m exametazime -Tc 99m oxidronate -Tc 99m mertiatide -Tl 201 thallous chloride
d. well counter with a wipe test
Which of the following type of survey instruments would be best to use to survey a spill for removable contamination in a hot lab area where radioisotopes are being stored? a. GM detector b. personal pocket dosimeter c. dose calibrator with a wipe test d. well counter with a wipe test
Moving the camera closer to the patients body
Which of the following will increase the resolution of a spot view bone image obtained with a parallel hole collimator -Moving the camera closer to the patients body -Increasing the pulse height analyzer window width -Using a high sensitivity collimator instead of LEAP collimator -Using fewer shades of gray to display the image -Using a slant hole collimator
c. ability to complete both rest and stressed imaging in two days
Which of the following would not be a characteristic of an ideal myocardial perfusion agent? a. High first pass myocardial extraction proportional to blood flow b. adequate imaging window c. ability to complete both rest and stressed imaging in two days d. high target to non target ratio
Hemocytometer, light microscope
Which of this equipment is needed to verify the size and number of MAA particles in a 99mTc preparation -Dose calibrator -Limulus amebocyte Lystae Solution -Chromatography Strips, Solvent, Developing Chamber -Hemocytometer, light microscope -G-M meter
B. The wheelchair footrests should be out of the way
Which one of the following steps would be appropriate during a standby assist wheelchair transfer A. The wheelchair should be perpendicular to the imaging table B. The wheelchair footrests should be out of the way C. The wheelchair should be placed parallel to the imaging table D. The wheelchair should be unlocked E. The transfer should take place in the presence of a physician
c. Tc-99m DTPA
a nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung vent radiopharmaceuticals? a. Kr-81m gas b. Xe-133 gas c. Tc-99m DTPA d. Tc-99m MAA
c. remain home for at least 30 days
a patient receives 5 mCi of I-131 NaI for treatment of hyperthyroidism. the patient should adhere to all of the following instructions EXCEPT: a. minimize close contact with others b. wash hands after using toilet c. remain home for at least 30 days d. drink plenty of liquids
a. confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if required
a patient with an NG tube is transferred to the NM department. What should the tech do? a. confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if required b. remove NG tube because it will interfere with the imaging procedure c. use the NG tube to administer the radiopharm d. cancel the study because the NG tube precludes any imaging procedure being performed
b. subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1
a patients plasmacrit may be determined by: a. multiplying the patients hematocrit by 0.9 b. subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1 c. finding the ratio of plasma volume to RBC volume d. dividing 1 by the decimal hematocrit
a. obliterate radiation symbols and dispose of the container in the regular trash
a tech monitors the empty carton from a shipment of I-131 NaI. The container measures 0.08 mr/hr and the room background is 0.07 mr/hr. what should the tech do? a. obliterate radiation symbols and dispose of the container in the regular trash b. dispose of the container as radioactive waste c. wipe test the container for contamination d. notify the NRC
c. liver dysfunction
bone marrow uptake on a Tc-99m sulfur colloid liver/spleen image indicates what? a. improper colloid particle size b. insufficient tracer circulation c. liver dysfunction d. overactive bone marrow
b. sign noting the length of time a visitor may stay in the room
if a patient must be hospitalized after receiving a high activity of I-131, which of the following signs must be posted on the door of the isolation room? a. "authorized personnel only" b. sign noting the length of time a visitor may stay in the room c. "reverse isolation procedures required" d. sign in sheet to record name and age of each visitor
d. stop the imaging procedure and have the patient lie on the floor with a pillow under the head
if a patient says they are about to have a seizure, what should the tech do? a. instruct the patient to breathe deeply to increase oxygen levels in the brain b. ignore the patients concerns because the timing of seizures cannot be predicted c. increase the number of physical restraints on the patient to prevent movement and injury d. stop the imaging procedure and have the patient lie on the floor with a pillow under the head
b. 0.39 mCi
if a radiopharm dose is 25 μCi/kg, how much activity should be given to a child weighing 15.5 kg? a. 852 μCi b. 0.39 mCi c. 0.85 mCi d. 1.6 mCi
a. attempt elution with another vial
if no eluate is obtained during a generator elution, what should the tech do? a. attempt elution with another vial b. contact the generator manufacturer c. check the generator tubing for kinks or leaks d. add more saline to the column
c. 75%
if the HVL of Co-60 in lead is 1.25 cm, what percentage of Co-60 photons is absorbed from a Co-60 source shielded with 2.5 cm of lead? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 87.5%
b. 11.2 MBq
if the elution efficiency of a Mo-99/Tc-99m generator is 96% one 11.7 MBq of Tc-99m is present, about how much activity will be removed during elution? a. 0.46 MBq b. 11.2 MBq c. 11.7 MBq d. 12.2 MBq
a. MAG3 0.5 ml TcO4 1 ml
if the following reagents are available, what volume of each reagent should be added together to prepare 20 mCi MAG3? ----MAG3 kit---- 2.2 ml MAG3 reagent (use 1 part by volume to 2 parts TcO4) ----TcO4---- 20 mCi/ml in 10 ml a. MAG3 0.5 ml TcO4 1 ml b. MAG3 0.75 ml TcO4 0.5 ml c. MAG3 1 ml TcO4 2.5 ml d. MAG3 2 ml TcO4 4.5 ml
b. 0.7 m
if the radiation intensity of a point source at 0.5 m measures 36 mr/hr, what distance will it be halved? a. 0.5 m b. 0.7 m c. 2.2 m d. 7.1 m
c. correct for the leakage of radiopharmaceutical
in performing a plasma volume with I-125 albumin, 3 blood samples are collected at varying times after tracer administration and counted. these counts vs. time are plotted on semilog graph paper. the purpose of this graph is to: a. give a visual representation of the data b. obtain the half time clearance value used in the calculations c. correct for the leakage of radiopharmaceutical d. show the decay of the radionuclide
c. a baseline plasma sample should be collected prior to performing the plasma volume
on wednesday, a patient had an I-123 thyroid study. An I-125 plasma volume is ordered to be performed on thursday. Which of the following statements about the situation is correct? a. the I-123 will not interfere with the plasma volume b. the blood volume determination should be postponed until the I-123 has decayed c. a baseline plasma sample should be collected prior to performing the plasma volume d. I-131 instead of I-125 should be used for the plasma volume determination
a. when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm their accuracy
which of the following statements about the shielding method of dose calibrator linearity are true? a. when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm their accuracy b. only a few μCi of activity are needed to perform the test c. linearity must be tested more frequently if this method is used d. a different source activity is required for each shield combination
d. IV injection should be performed in the AC vein in one arm and subsequent blood samples should be taken from the AC vein in the opposite arm
which of the following statements best describes the preferred injection and blood sampling site when performing a plasma volume determination? a. a butterfly placed in an AC vein should be used for an injection of the radiopharm and subsequent blood sampling b. IV injection should be performed in the AC vein and subsequent blood samples should be taken from the same vein c. IV injection should be performed in the AC vein and subsequent blood samples should be taken from a different AC vein in the same arm d. IV injection should be performed in the AC vein in one arm and subsequent blood samples should be taken from the AC vein in the opposite arm
b. brain
which of the following structures are normally visualized on an F-18 FDG scan? a. thyroid b. brain c. pituitary gland d. pancreas
d. all of the above
which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased uptake on adult bone scans? a. anterior iliac crest b. glenoid fossa c. sternoclavicular joints d. all of the above
b. disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord
which of the following would not be in accordance with electrical safety guidelines? a. use of three-pronged plugs and outlets b. disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord c. keeping walk areas free of electrical cords d. not using frayed or kinked cords
b. short axis
which tomographic plane of the heart displays all walls of the left ventricle a. horizontal long axis b. short axis c. transaxial d. vertical long axis
b. detect h pylori
why do a C-14 urea breath test? a. detect peptic ulcers b. detect h pylori c. Identify gastric cancers d. r/o zollinger-ellison syndrome
b. 5 mCi I-131 NaI
written directive must be prepared for which of the following radiopharms? a. 1 mCi In-111 oxine b. 5 mCi I-131 NaI c. 10 mCi Ga-67 citrate d. 30 mCi Tc-99m sestamibi
d. any IND
written informed consent must be obtained in order to obtain which of the following radiopharms? a. I-123 NaI b. Tc-99m mibi c. Tc-99m bicisate d. any IND
