Success Ch. 6 Bacteriology

A common member of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract is A. Cornybacterium jeikeium B. Lactobacillus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Virdans streptococcus

D. Virdans streptococcus

The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as A. Valley Fever B. Walking pneumonia C. Farmer's lung D. Woolsorters disease

D. Woolsorters disease

Streptococci obtain all their energy from a fermentation of sugars to A. Formic acid B. Lactic acid C. Succine acid D. Valeric acid

B. Lactic acid

In suspected cases of brucellosis, what is the most sensitive specimen to submit for culture? A. Bone marrow B. Nasopharyngeal swab C. Sputum D. Stool

A. Bone marrow

Streptococci are unable to synthesize the enzyme A. Catalase B. Kinase C. Hyaluronidase D. Lipase

A. Catalase

Shigella sonnei is differentiated from other Shigella sp. by A. A positive ONPG B. Its positive phenylalanine deaminase C. Its negative oxidase reaction D. Its ability to demonstrate motility at 22*C

A. A positive ONPG

Eikenella corrodens is an opportunistic pathogen, but it is most noted for causing A. Abscesses of the oral cavity B. Pneumonia C. Post surgical would infections D. Urinary tract infections

A. Abscesses of the oral cavity

Which of the following Mycobacterium produces an orange pigment and is most commonly recovered from water? A. M. intracellulare B. M. gordonae C. M. asiaticum D. M. kansasii

B. M. gordonae

Haemophilus ducreyi is the causitive agent of A. Chancroid B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Trachoma D. Whooping cough

A. Chancroid

Which of the following is true of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A. Adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens B. Rapid growth on sheep blood agar C. Ferments glucose on sheep blood agar D. ONPG positive

A. Adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens

The most common photochromogenic Mycobacterium isolated in the US is A. M. bovis B. M. kansasii C. M. tuberculosis D. M. xenopi

B. M. kansasii

Identify the fermentative agent that may infect reptiles and fish as well as humans when they are exposed to contaminated soil or water. A. Aeromonas B. Chromobacterium C. Chryseobacterium D. Enterobacter

A. Aeromonas

In the catalse test, the formation of bubbles is due to A. Production of O2 B. Production of H2 gas C. Breakdown of water D. Oxidation of hydrogen peroxide

A. Production of O2

A suspension of the test organism for use in broth dilution and disk diffusion testing is adjusted to match the turbidity of a A. #0.5 McFarland standard B. #1.0 McFarland standard C. #2.0 McFarland standard D. #3.0 McFarland standard

A. #0.5 McFarland standard

When using the rapid chromogenic cephalosporin method for the detection of beta-lactamase production by an organism, a positive test is indicated by the color A. Yellow B. Green C. Red D. Blue

C. Red

Which of the following tests is most appropriate for the presumptive identification of Prevotella melaninogenica? A. SPS sensitivity test B. Nagler test C. Cytotoxin assay D. Fluorescence test

D. Fluorescence test

The production of H2S is one characteristic used to differentiate which of the aerobic gram-positive bacilli? A. Corynebacterium B. Erysipelothrix C. Lactobacillus D. Nocardia

B. Erysipelothrix

A culture of a decubitus ulcer grew a gram neg facultative bacillus. On TSI it produced an acid slant, acid butt, and gas. Test reactions in other media were as follows: Citrate: Neg Indole: Pos Urease: Neg ONPG: Pos VP: Neg A. Enterobacter cloacae B. Escherichia coli C. Citrobacter (diversus) koseri D. Providencia stuartii

B. Escherichia coli

Campylobacter spp. are associated most frequently with case of A. Osteomyelitis B. Gastroenteritis C. Endocarditis D. Appendicitis

B. Gastroenteritis

When an infection due to Streptomyces is suspected, isolates can be separated from most other bacteria by A. Heat shocking the culture B. Incubating the culture at 25* C C. Incubating the culture at greater than 37* C D. Drying the specimen before inoculating the culture media

B. Incubating the culture at 25* C

The majority of clinical isolates of Klebsiella are A. K. ozaenae B. K. pneumoniae C. K. aerogenes D. K. oxytoca

B. K. pneumoniae

Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize A. Maltose B. Lactose C. Glucose D. Sucrose

B. Lactose

A bone marrow transplant patient on immunosuppressive therapy developed a pulmonary abscess with symptoms of neurologic involvement. A brain abscess was detected by MRI, and aspirated material grew an aerobic, filamentous, branching gram-positive organism, which stained weakly acid-fast. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be A. Actinomyces israelii B. Nocardia aderoides C. Mycobacteroum tuberculosis D. Propionibacterium acnes

B. Nocardia aderoides

The most common etiologic agent of infections associated with the surgical insertion of prosthetic devices such as artificial heart valves and cerebrospinal fluid shunts is A. Corynebacterium urealyticum B. Staphylococcus capitis C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Streptococcus mutans

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Rust-colored sputum in cases of lobar pneumonia is characteristic of which of the following possible etiologic agents? A. Corynebacterium jeikeium B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Cultures of the posterior pharynx are most commonly submitted to the clinical laboratory for the detection of A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus sanguis, a viridans streptococcus, is most commonly associated with which of the following clinical conditions? A. Otitis media B. Pharyngitis C. Relapsing fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A negative PYR (L-pyrolidonyl-a-napthylamide) test is demonstrated by A. Enterococcus faecalis B. Enterococcus faecium C. Streptococcus pyogens D. Viridans streptococci

D. Viridans streptococci

Color Plate 29 shows a filamentous gram positive rod recovered from an aspirate of a closed chest abscess. It grew only under anaerobic conditions and was not acid-fact. What is the most likely presumptive identification of the isolate seen? A. Actinomyces israelii B. Bacteroides fragilis C. CLostridium septicum D. Propionibacterium acnes

A. Actinomyces israelii

Which of the following is a fluorescent stain for mycobacteria? A. Auromine-rhodamine B. Calcofluor white C. Fluorescent isothiocyanate D. Ziehl-Neelson

A. Auromine-rhodamine

A catalase-negative gram positive coccus is isolated from a urine sample of a hospitalized patient. The bacterium poduced a black pigment on bile-esculin agar and formed acid from glucose in the presence of 6.5% NaCl. What is the most likely identification of this bacterium? A. Abriotrophia sp. B. Enterococcus faecalis C. Group B strep D. Group D strep

B. Enterococcus faecalis

Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing A. Carbuncles B. Enterocolitis C. Impetigo D. Scalded Skin Syndrome

B. Enterocolitis

Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by A. Ampicillin B. Erythromycin C. Gentamicin D. Penicillin

B. Erythromycin

A number of vacationers who have traveled outside the US have had their vacations interuppted by a case of "traveler's diarrhea," which is commonly associated with which etiological agent? A. Aeromonas hydrophila B. Escherichia coli C. Proteus mirabilis D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

B. Escherichia coli

An infant was hospitalized with a severe, tender erythema. The child's epidermis was loose, and large areas of skin could be peeled off. The condition described is most consistant with a clinical syndrome associated with A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Bacillus anthracis D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

B. Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following would not be appropriate for a positive control in the PYR test? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus lugdunensis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Enterococcus faecalis

B. Staphylococcus lugdunensis

Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar specifically for the isolation of A. Shigella B. Vibrio C. Campybacter D. Shigella

B. Vibrio

An identifying characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is A. DNAse negative B. Coagulase negative C. Mannitol fermentation positive D. Growth inhibition in presence of increased salt

C. Mannitol fermentation positive

The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism? A. Proteus vulgaris B. Yersinia pestis C. Salmonella enterica D. Shigella dysenteriae

D. Shigella dysenteriae

Transmission of the sylvantic from of typhus infection caused by Rickettsia prowazekii is associated with A. Bats B. Rabbits C. Raccoons D. Squirrels

D. Squirrels

Ethyhydrocupreine HCl susceptability is a presumptive test for the identification of A. Viridans pyogenes B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Solubility in the presence of sodium desoxycholate is characteristic of A. Enterococcus faecalis B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus mutans D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A child presented in August at the pediatric clinic with a superficial skin infection of the neck. The large, itchy lesions were cultured, and the diagnosis of impetigo was made. One of the etiologic agents of this clinical condition is A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following organisms would not routinely undergo antimicrobial susceptibility testing? A. Escherichia coli B. Proteus mirabilis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

The chemotherapeutic agents structurally similar to the vitamin p-animobenzoic acid that act by inhibiting bacteria via inhibition of folic acid synthesis are A. Aminglycosides B. Penicillins C. Marcolides D. Sulfonamides

D. Sulfonamides

Which of the following organisms is not gram-positive? A. Eubacterium lentum B. Bifidobacterium dentium C. Propionibacterium acnes D. Suttonella wadsworthensis

D. Suttonella wadsworthensis

The term that denotes a situation in which the effort of two antimicrobial agents together is greater than the sum of the effects of either drug alone is A. Additivism B. Antagonism C. Sensitivity D. Synergism

D. Synergism

A former species of Corynebacterium pathogenic for swine, horses, and cattle is also known to cause disease in comprimised hosts. This organism when grown on culture media produces pale pink colonies that help to presumptively identify it as A. Arcanobacterium hemolyticum B. Actinomyces naeslundii C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Rhodococcus equi

Rhodococcus equi

On Tinsdale agar, colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are characterized by the observance of A. Liquification of the agar surrounding the colonies on the medium B. Opalescent colonies in the surrounding agar C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halos D. Pitting of the agar medium surrounding the colonies

C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halos

Which of the following is the optimal clinical specimen for the recovery of Legionella pneumonia? A. Stool B. Blood C. Bronchial washings D. Nasopharyngeal swab

C. Bronchial washings

Corneal scrapings are collected and examined microscopically using a direct fluorescent test to detect inclusion bodies for the diagnosis of infection caused by A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Ehrlicia chaffeensis C. Mycoplasma hominis D. Rickettsia prowazekii

A. Chlamydia trachomatis

Which one of the following microorganisms cannot be cultivated on artificial cell free media? A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Mycoplasma hominis C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Ureaplasma urealyticum

A. Chlamydia trachomatis

Violet-colored colonies are typically produced by A. Chromobacterium violaceum B. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum C. Pseudomonas aeroginosa D. Serratia marcescens

A. Chromobacterium violaceum

The paper strip for the demonstration of hydrogen sulfide production is impregnated with a solution of A. Sodium desoxycholate B. Lead acetate C. Potassium tellurite D. Sodium thiosulfate

B. Lead acetate

Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar is the recommended medium for the recovery of A. Hafnia alvei B. Legionella pneumophila C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Vibrio cholerae

B. Legionella pneumophila

In the decontamination and digestion procedure for the isolation of mycobacteria from sputa samples, what is the role of NALC? A. Bactericidal for normal flora B. Liquefies mucus C. Growth stimulant D. Neutralizes pH to prevent damage to mycobacteria

B. Liquefies mucus

Which of the following is the most potent bacterial exotoxin known? A. Botulinum toxin B. Erythrogenic toxin C. C. difficile toxin B D. C. perfringens alpha-toxin

A. Botulinum toxin

Bacillus cereus has been implicated as the etiologic agent in cases of A. Food poisioning B. Impetigo C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Toxic shock syndrome

A. Food poisioning

Egg yolk showing a precipitate in the medium surrounding the colony is positive for A. Lecithinase production B. Lipase production C. Protease activity D. Starch hydrolysis

A. Lecithinase production

The classic toxigenic strains of which serogroup are implicated in epidemic infections of Vibrio cholerae? A. O1 B. O2 C. O3 D. O4

A. O1

Streptococcus pyogens can be preemptively identified using a(n) A. PYR disk B. ONPG disk C. SPS disk D. Optochin disk

A. PYR disk

Which of the following specimens is routinely decontaminated when trying to recover Mycobacterium spp.? A. Sputum B. Plerua fluid C. Lung biopsy D. CSF

A. Sputum

For the selective isolation of Vibrio spp. the recommended agar is A. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose agar B. Charcoal yeast extract agar C. Mannitol salt agar D. Tinsdale agar

A. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose agar

Which of the following is not appropriate for the cultivation of Neisseria gonorrheae? A. Chocolate agar B. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin C. Martain-Lewis agar D. Modified Thayer-Martin agar

B. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin

The potentially lethal intoxication type of food poisoning often associated with improperly canned food is caused by A. Bacteroides fragiis B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium septicum

B. Clostridium botulinum

Identify the Fusobacterium sp. considered to be the most frequent isolate recovered from clinical infections. A. F. varium B. F. nucleatum C. F. mortiferum D. F. nercropherum

B. F. nucleatum

Acinetobacter baumannii A. Requires cysteine B. Is oxidase negative C. Ferments glucose D. Does not grow on MacConkey agar

B. Is oxidase negative

The etiologic agent of epidemic relapsing fever is Borrelia recurrentis, which is commonly transmitted by A. Fleas B. Lice C. Mosquitoes D. Ticks

B. Lice

The medium used to determine whether an organism is oxidative or fermentative with respect to its metabolic activities is A. CTA medium B. OF medium C. HE medium D. XLD medium

B. OF medium

The finding of five to six acid fast bacilli per field ( x800 to x1000) in a fuchsin smear of expected sputum should be reported as A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+

C. 3+

The minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) of an antimicrobial agent is defined as the lowest concentration of that antimicrobial agent that kills at least __________ of the original inoculum. A. 95.5% B. 97% C. 99.9% D. 100%

C. 99.9%

Which of the following is not true of Coxiella burnetii? A. It is an obligate intracellular parasite B. It is transmitted from animals to humans by inhalation C. A rash appears first on the extremities and then on the trunk D. Is the etiologic agent of Q fever, which may be acute or chronic

C. A rash appears first on the extremities and then on the trunk

In cases of legionellosis A. Person-to-person transmission is common B. Farm animals are important animal reseroirs C. Patients can present with a self-limited nonpneumonic febrile illness D. Specimens may be cold enriched to enhance recovery of the organism

C. Patients can present with a self-limited nonpneumonic febrile illness

Exfoliatin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing A. Enterocolitis B. Toxic Shock Syndrome C. Scalded Skin Syndrome D. Staphylococcal pneumonia

C. Scalded Skin Syndrome

An example of a halophilic microorganism is A. Morganella morganii B. Plesiomonas shigelloides C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. Yersinia pestis

C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

A 45 year old was ween in the ED w/ fever, chills, nausea and myalgia. He reported that 2 days earlier he had eaten raw oysters at a popular seafood restaurant. On admission he was febrile and had hemorrhagic, fluid-filled bullous lesions on his left leg. The patient had a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic hep B, and heavy alcohol consumption. The patient, who had a temp of 102.2* F, was admitted to the intensive care unit for resumed sepsis, and treatment was begun. A curved gram neg rod was isolated fro mblood cultures drawn on admission and fluid from the bullous leg wound. On the third day, DIC developed, and he died. The source of the oysters eaten by the deceased patient was the Gulf of Mexico. The most likely etiological agent in this case would be A. Aeromonas hydrophila B. Pleisiomonas shigelloides C. Vibrio vulnificus D. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Vibrio vulnificus

Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding blood cultures? A. Collection of 10-20 mL per culture for adults is recommended B. Two or three blood cultures are recommended as optimum C. Volume of blood cultured is more critical than timing of culture D. Blood drawn for culture may be allowed to clot

D. Blood drawn for culture may be allowed to clot

Which of the following is true concerning Campylobacter jejuni? A. Catalase neg B. Isolated at 24*C C. Hydrogen sulfide pos D. A leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide

D. A leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide

Acinetobacter baumannii is characteristically A. Motile B. Oxidase pos C. Sensitive to penicillin D. Able to grow on Mac agar

D. Able to grow on Mac agar

Methyl red-Voges Proskauer (MRVP) broth is inoculated and incubated for 48 hours. What two reagents must be added to determine if the bacterium is VP positive? A. Creatine and 1 N NCl B. 10% FeCl3 and apha-naphthol C. Kovac's reagent and zinc dust D. Alpha-naphthol and 40% KOH

D. Alpha-naphthol and 40% KOH

In the nitrate test, reduction is demonstrated by the development of a red color, following the addition of A. Alpha-naphthol and potassium hydroxide B. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde and amyl alcohol C. Ninhydrin and acetone D. Alpha-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid

D. Alpha-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid

Which of the following is not characteristic of Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius? A. Indole negative B. Requires V factor C. Requires X factor D. Aminolevulinic acid positive

D. Aminolevulinic acid positive

Which of the following is not true of Bacteroides fragilis? A. Lipase and lecithinase neg B. Anaerobic gram neg bacillus C. Commonly associated with intra-abdominal infections D. Among the most antimicrobial sensitive anaerobic bacteria

D. Among the most antimicrobial sensitive anaerobic bacteria

Which of the following clostridia has a terminal sport that causes the cell to swell? A. C. botulinum B. C. difficile C. C. perfringes D. C. tetani

D. C. tetani

Which of the following statements is not true of clostridia? A. Pseudomembraneous colitis is due to a toxin produced by C. difficile B. Clinically significant clostridia are found in the normal flora of the colon and in the soil C. Botulisn is caused by ingesting preformed toxin and can be prevented by boiling food prior to teating D. C. tetani spores will form in the presence of oxygen; therefore, anaerobiosis in a wound is not required to cause tetanus

D. C. tetani spores will form in the presence of oxygen; therefore, anaerobiosis in a wound is not required to cause tetanus

Which of the following media would not be routinely used to culture Mycobacterium spp.? A. Lowenstein-Jensen-Gruft B. Lowenstein-Jensen C. Middlebrook 7H11 D. Chocolate agar

D. Chocolate agar

Pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli in a gram strain best describes A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus subtilis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

D. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

Brucella spp. are A. The etiologic agents of relapsing fever B. Small spiral organisms C. Primarily a cause of endogenous human infections D. Intracellular pathogens

D. Intracellular pathogens

The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is A. Anterior nares swab B. Blood C. Expectorated sputum D. Nasopharyngeal swab

D. Nasopharyngeal swab

An example of a bactericidal antibiotic is A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Tobramycin

D. Tobramycin

The phenomenon of bacterial resistance to the bactericidal activity of penicillins and cephalosporins, with only inhibition of the organism's growth, is known as A. High-level resistance B. Intrinsic resistance C. Inducible resistance D. Tolerance

D. Tolerance

Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a recognized pathogen, is a cause of A. Furuncles B. Impetigo C. Otitis media D. UTI

D. UTI

A positive DNase would be seen with A. E. coli B. Klebsiella oxytoca C. Proteus mirabilis D. Serratia marcescens

D. Serratia marcescens

The ability of a microorganism to deaminate phenylalanine can be assessed by inoculating a phenylalanine agar slant with the test organism. Following incubation, if the organism is positive, a green color develops with the addition of A. 10% ferric chloride B. 2% sulfanilamide C. 2 N sodium carbonate D. 5% alpha-naphthol

A. 10% ferric chloride

A non fermentative gram neg bacillus that is oxidase positive, motile, and grows well on Mac agar is A. Aeromonas hyrophila B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A. Aeromonas hyrophila

The Moeller test for the detection of decarboxylase activity is dependent upon A. An alkaline pH shift in the medium B. The oxidation of gluconate C. An acid pH basal meium D. A deamination of tryptophan

A. An alkaline pH shift in the medium

What is the predominant indigenous flora of the colon? A. Anaerobic, gram neg, non-spore forming bacteria B. Anaerobic, gram pos, non-spore forming bacteria C. Aerobic, gram neg, non-spore forming bacteria D. Aerobic, gram pos, spore forming bacteria

A. Anaerobic, gram neg, non-spore forming bacteria

Growth on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar incubated anaerobically is primarily used for A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Bifidobacterium dentium C. Clostridium perfringens D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

A. Bacteroides fragilis

Obligately anaerobic, gram neg bacilli, recovered from an abdominal wound, recovered from an abdominal wound, were found to be resistant to penicillin. Growth of this organism was not inhibited by bile. What is the most likely identification of this isolate? A. Bacteroides fragilis group B. Clostridium septicum C. Eubacterium lentum D. Fusobacterium nucleatum

A. Bacteroides fragilis group

The causative agent of the septicemic, hemolytic disease known as Oroya fever is A. Bartonella bacilliformis B. Burkolderia mallei C. Haemophilus aegyptius D. Yersinia pestis

A. Bartonella bacilliformis

WHich of the following reactions is typical for E. coli? A. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar B. Colorless colonies on Mac agar C. Colorless colonies on xylose-lysine-desoxycholate agar D. Green colonies with black centers on Hekton enteric agar

A. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar

The selective nature of Hekton enteric agar is due to the inclusion of which one of the following? A. Bile salts B. Bis-sodium metasulfate C. Bromthymol blue D. NaCl

A. Bile salts

Which of the following statement does not apply to the acridine orange stain? A. Binds to the teichoic acid of the cell wall B. Require the use of fluorescence C. Is more sensitive than the gram stain D. Is recommended for fluid and exudates with low bacterial concentrations

A. Binds to the teichoic acid of the cell wall

A 36 year old man was seen in the emergency department. He complained of fever and headache. He had returned 1 week previously from a 6-week visit to a village in India. Among the differential diagnosis was typhoid fever. What is the most critical laboratory test necessary to establish or eliminate the diagnosis? A. Blood cultures B. Sputum cultures C. Stool cultures D. Urine cultures

A. Blood cultures

Which of the following is an occasional cause of respiratory tract ifections and is rapidly urea positive? A. Bordetella bronchiseptica B. Brucella abortus C. Campylobacter fetus D. Escherichia coli

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica

Colonies that are said to resemble "droplets of mercury" are characteristic of A. Bordetella pertussis B. Burkholderia cepacia C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Yersinia pestis

A. Bordetella pertussis

The mild type of typhus fever that is caused by recrudescence of an initial attack of epidemic typhus is known as A. Brill-Zinsser disease B. Q fever C. Sao Paulo typhus D. Tsutsugamushi disease

A. Brill-Zinsser disease

Milk had classically been the primary food associated with the transmission of some diseases, especially for those diseases of cattle transmissible to humans, such as A. Brucellosis B. Glanders C. Meliodosis D. Pontiac fever

A. Brucellosis

On gram stain, a morphology that resembles "seagull wings" is most characteristic of A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Plesiomonas shigelloides D. Yersinia pseudotuberulosis

A. Campylobacter jejuni

An aerobically incubated blood agar plate show colonies surrounded by an inner zone of complete cell lysis and an outer zone of incomplete cell lysis (double zone of hemolysis). The most presumptive identification of this isolate would be A. Clostridium perfringes B. Clostridium tetani C. Fusobacteroium nucleatum D. Prevotella melaninogenica

A. Clostridium perfringes

Which of the following does not describe Acinetobacter sp.? A. Commonly susceptible to most antimicrobials B. Generall coccobacillary in morphology C. Oxidase negative D. Infections associated with use of medical devices

A. Commonly susceptible to most antimicrobials

During the first week of leptospirosis, the most reliable way to detect the presence of the causative agent is by the direct A. Culturing of blood B. Culturing of urine C. Examination of blood D. Examination of CSF

A. Culturing of blood

A positive indole reaction is characterisitc of A. E. coli B. Proteus mirabilis C. Salmonella Choleraesuis D. Serratia marcescens

A. E. coli

Which one of the following organisms would be produce a yellow slant and yellow butt on TSI agar after incubating 18 hrs? A. E. coli B. Proteus mirabilis C. Salmonella Typhimurium D. Shigella sonnei

A. E. coli

a 21 year old sexually active woman came to the university student health service with a 2 day history of urinary frequency with urgency, dysuria, and hematuria. She had no history of prior urinary tract infection. Laboratory test showed a WBC cound of 10x10^9/L. The urine sediment contained yielded more than 10^5 colony-forming units/mL of a lactose-fermenting gram neg rod. The most likely etiological agent is A. E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Morganella morganii D. Proteus mirabilis

A. E. coli

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication after infection with A. E. coli O157:H7 B. Salmonella Typhi C. Vibrio cholerae O1 D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A. E. coli O157:H7

A positive Voges-Proskauer reaction is characteristic of A. Enterobacter aerogenes B. E. coli C. Proteus vulgaris D. Providencia rettgeri

A. Enterobacter aerogenes

A 7 year old female became ill with an intestinal illness after visiting a petting zoo featuring farm animals such as calves, lambs, and chickens. She had bloody diarrhea and went on to develop hemolytic uremic syndrome. The most likely etiologic agent in this case is A. Eschericia coli 0157:H7 B. Shigella dysenteriae C. Vibrio cholerae 01 D. Vibrio cholerae non01

A. Eschericia coli 0157:H7

Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting protein synthesis? A. Gentamicin B. Methicillin C. Rifampin D. Ampicillin

A. Gentamicin

For nonspecific staining of Rickettsia the recommeded stain is A. Gimenez stain B. Gomori silver stain C. Gram stain D. Kinyoun stain

A. Gimenez stain

Some strains of Serratia marcescens produce a red-colored pigment. Pigment prduction is enhanced by A. Incubation at 22* C B. Incubation at 42* C C. Growth on BA D. Growth on typtic soy agar w/o blood

A. Incubation at 22* C

Legionella pneumonia A. Infections are most often acquired from environmental sources B. Metabolizes a number of carbohydrates C. Stains easily on the routine gram stain D. Does not autofluoresce

A. Infections are most often acquired from environmental sources

Laboratory professionals are at risk for disease transmission. The majority of cases of laboratory-related infections are associated with A. Infectious aerosols B. Contamination of abraded skin C. Puncture wounds D. Person-to-person transmission

A. Infectious aerosols

Human infection with the causative agent of Q fever is acquired by A. Inhalation of infectious material B. The bite of a mite (chigger) C. The bite of a body louse D. The bite of the arthropod Phlebotomus

A. Inhalation of infectious material

Which one of the following is not true of Clostridium tetani? A. It produces rapid tissue necrosis B. It is a ram positive, spore-forming bacillus C. Microorganism in soil contaminate puncture wounds D. Disease is caused by an exotoxin acting on the CNS

A. It produces rapid tissue necrosis

Mycobacteria have a large amount of a component in their cell wall that other bacteria lack. That component is A. Lipids B. Murein C. Sterols D. Teichoic acid

A. Lipids

Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete transmitted by Ixodes dammini in the NE US is the etiologic agent of A. Lyme disease B. Rat bite fever C. Relapsing fever D. Q fever

A. Lyme disease

In August, a patient presented at a community hospital in New England with symptoms of a skin rash, headache, stiff neck, muscle aches, and swollen lymph nodes. A silver-stained biopsy of a skin lesion showed spirochetes. On the basis of the clinical syndrome and laboratory detection of a causative agent, the patient was diagnosed as having A. Lyme disease B. Plague C. Rabbit fever D. Relapsing fever

A. Lyme disease

Which of the following Mycobacterium is most noted fr being associated with patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? A. M. avium-intracellular complex B. M. marinum C. M. kansasii D. M. bovis

A. M. avium-intracellular complex

Which of the following is associated with livestock and causes zoonosis? A. M. bovis B. M. fortuitum C. M. gordonae D. M. xenopi

A. M. bovis

A college student got a summer job working at a marina. While repairing the outboard motor on a rental boat, he received several lacerations on his right forearm. No medical treatment was sought at the time of the injury, but after several weeks he noted that the lesions were not healing and he sought the opinion of his physician. A biopsy of one of the lesions revealed a cutaneous granulomatous condition. Given the history, which of the following microorganisms would most likely be the etiologic agent in this case? A. Mycobacterium marinum B. Nocardia asteroides C. Speudomonas aeruginosa D. Vibrio vulnificus

A. Mycobacterium marinum

Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose but not from maltose, lactose, or sucrose? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria lactamica C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Neisseria sicca

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Pyocyanin is characteristically produced by A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Pseudomonas fluorescens C. Shewanella putrefaciens D. Stenotrophomonas maltophillia

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following non-lactose-fermenting organism does not produce fluorescein? A. Pseudomonas alcaligenes B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Pseudomonas fluorescens D. Pseudomonas putida

A. Pseudomonas alcaligenes

Which of the following is true about mycoplasmas? A. Resistant to penicillin B. Not able to survive extracellulary C. Easily stained using the gram stain D. Grow on routine nonselective culture media

A. Resistant to penicillin

Which of the following tests is most appropriate for the presumptive identification of Peptostreptococcus anaerobius? A. SPS disk B. Colistin disk C. Kanamycin disk D. Vancomycin disk

A. SPS disk

Edwardsiella tarda is occasionally isolated in stool specimens and can biochemically be confused with A. Salmonella B. Enterohemmorraghic E. coli C. Vibrio cholerae D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A. Salmonella

Which of the following is not urease positive? A. Salmonella B. Helicobacter pylori C. Proteus mirabilis D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A. Salmonella

Which of the following is not one of the standard control organisms used for the weekly testing of antimicrobial disks? A. Staphylococcus epidermidis (ATCC 25833) B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (ATCC 27853) C. Escherichia coli (ATCC 25922) D. Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC 29212)

A. Staphylococcus epidermidis (ATCC 25833)

When performing the oxidase test, which of the following would not be appropriate? A. The regent used is o-nitrophenyl-B-D-galactopyranoside. B. A nichrome wire loop should be used to acquire inoculum for testing. C. Colonies from sheep blood agar can be used. D. A positive colony turns dark purple within 10 seconds after application of the reagent.

A. The regent used is o-nitrophenyl-B-D-galactopyranoside.

Yersinia pestis is characterisically A. Urease negative B. Hydrogen sulfide positive C. Motile at 20-25*C D. Oxidase positive

A. Urease negative

Skin cultures for the recovery of Mycobacterium app. should be incubated at A. 22* C B. 30* C C. 35* C D. 42* C

B. 30* C

In capnophilic incubators, carbon dioxide concentrations should be maintained between A. 1% and 5% B. 5% and 10% C. 10% and 15% D. 15% and 20%

B. 5% and 10%

The pH of the agar used for the Kirby-Bauer test should be A. 7.0-7.2 B. 7.2-7.4 C. 7.4-7.6 D. 7.6-7.8

B. 7.2-7.4

The characteristic colony morphology of Actinomyces istaelii on solid agar resembles A. "Medusa head" B. A molar tooth C. A fried egg D. Ground glass

B. A molar tooth

Enterococcus faecium is characteristically A. Inhibited by the presence of bile in culture media B. Able to grow in the presence of high concentrations of salt C. PYR positive D. Beta-hemolytic

B. Able to grow in the presence of high concentrations of salt

Kingella dentrificans can be differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhoeae because it is A. Able to grow on Thayer-Martin agar B. Able to reduce nitrates C. Oxidase positive D. Glucose positive

B. Able to reduce nitrates

Clavulanic acid is classified as a A. Beta-lactam B. Beta-lactamase inhibitor C. Macrolide D. Aminoglycoside

B. Beta-lactamase inhibitor

Chloramphenicol is an important antimicrobial agent for the treatment of meningitis as well as several other serious infections. Unfortunately, chloramphenicol exhibits significant complications that limit its clinical usefulness. These effects include A. Allergic reactions and anaphylaxis B. Bone marrow suppression and aplastic anemia C. Significant gastrointestinal anifestations D. Photosensitivity

B. Bone marrow suppression and aplastic anemia

Which of the following is not considered a zoonic disease? A. Anthrax B. Botulism C. Brucellosis D. Leptospirosis

B. Botulism

Blood cultures are recommended for the recovery of which of the following microorganisms? A. Acinetobacter baumannii B. Brucella canis C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Yersinia enterocolitica

B. Brucella canis

Besides Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which of the following is an important casue of lower respiratory tract infections in patients with cystic fibrosis? A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans B. Burkholdia cepacia C. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum D. Serratia marcescens

B. Burkholdia cepacia

The species of Campylobacter noted to produce septicemia, septic arthritis, meningitis, jaundice with hepatomegaly, and thrombophlebitis in debilitated patients is A. C. coli B. C. fetus C. C. laris D. C. sputorum

B. C. fetus

Which Clostridium sp. is most commonly recovered from cases of gas gangrene? A. C. bifermentans B. C. perfringens C. C. sordellii D. C. difficile

B. C. perfringens

The extended-spectrum beta-lactamases confer resistance to A. Amoxicillin B. Ceftriaxone C. Erythromycin D. Rifampin

B. Ceftriaxone

Gram pos bacilli with central spores are seen in the direct gram stain of a tissue biopsy. After 24 hours of incubation, no growth is seen on the sheep blood agar plate incubated aerobically and the chocolate agar plate incubated in increased CO2. Which of the following is the likely cause of the infection? A. Bacillus B. Clostradium C. Lactobacillus D. Prevotella

B. Clostradium

Septicemia caused by which of the following is generally associated with an underlying malignancy? A. Bifidobacterium dentium B. Clostridium septicum C. Eubacterium lentum D. Lactobacillus catenaforme

B. Clostridium septicum

Which of the following is not true about the laboratory diagnosis of pertussis? A. Regan-Lowe medium is the recommended medium B. DFA test results are definitive and do not need to be confirmed by culture. C. Calcium alginate or Dacron swabs are recommended over cotton-tipped swabs for specimen collection D. Material collected from the naso-pharyngnx is optimal for detection of the causative agent

B. DFA test results are definitive and do not need to be confirmed by culture.

One of the most common etiologic agents of community-acquired uncomplicated cases of cystitis is A. Enterobacter aerogenes B. E. coli C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Proteus vulgaris

B. E. coli

Plesiomonas was recently moved to which family? A. Brucelleaceae B. Enterobacteriaceae C. Legionellaceae D. Vibrionaceae

B. Enterobacteriaceae

The axial fibrils of spirochetes most closely resemble which bacterial structure? A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Flagellum C. Pilus D. Spirangium

B. Flagellum

Which of the following is not true of Haemophilus spp.? A. Obligate parasites B. Grow well on sheep blood agar C. Small, pleomorphic, gram neg coccobacilli D. Many are found as normal flora in the human respiratory tract

B. Grow well on sheep blood agar

Rapid testing for beta-lactamase production is recommended, before initiation of antimicrobial therapy, for isolates of A. Serratia marcescens B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Haemophilus influenzae

The porphyrin test is most useful for the identification of which of the following? A. Campylobacter B. Heamophilus C. Moraxella D. Neisseria

B. Heamophilus

Infection of the gastric mucosa leading to gastritis or peptic ulcers is most commonly associated with A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Helicobacter pylori C. Salmonella typhi D. Shigella sonnei

B. Helicobacter pylori

The organism that is linked to peptic ulcers and is the most frequent cause of gastritis is A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Helicobacter pylori C. Salmonella Typhimurium D. Yersinia enterocolitica

B. Helicobacter pylori

The porphytin test determines an organism's requirement for A. Cystiene B. Hemin C. NAD D. Thiol

B. Hemin

During childbearing years, the normal flora of the vagina is predominantly A. Enterococcus B. Lactobacillus C. Propionibacterium D. Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus

B. Lactobacillus

Which of the following is not true about Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) pneumoniae? A. Common agent of lower respiratory tract infection B. Human become infected from animal reservoirs C. Tetracycline and erythromycin are effective treatments D. Research has found an association with atherosclerosis

B. Human become infected from animal reservoirs

Which of the following is not true about Pasteurella multocida? A. Most common human infection occur in soft tissues, bones, and joints. B. Human harbor the organism as part of their normal flora. C. It is the most virulent of the species in the genes. D. It grows on sheep blood agar.

B. Human harbor the organism as part of their normal flora.

Foodborne outbreaks of brucellosis are most commonly associated with eating A. Raw shellfish B. Imported cheese C. COntaminated potato salad D. Improperly cooked hamburger

B. Imported cheese

Chlamydia trachomatis causes which of the following? A. Rat bite fever B. Inclusion conjunctivitis C. A skin disease found predominantly in tropical areas D. Zoonosis in birds and parrot fever in humans

B. Inclusion conjunctivitis

An infant seen in the ED with symptoms of neurolomuscular weakness and constipation. The diagnosis of infant botulism was confirmed by the demonstration of toxin in the child's stool. The child most likely contracted this disease by A. A scratch would caused by a cat B. Ingestion of spores that germinated in the intestine C. A puncture would with a contaminated household item D. Ingestion of preformed toxin found in a contaminated jar of pureed vegetables

B. Ingestion of spores that germinated in the intestine

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Klebsiella (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis? A. Is often sexually transmitted B. Is isolated on chocolate agar C. Is the causative agent of granultoma inguinale D. Can be diagnosed by detection of Donovan bodies in clinical specimens

B. Is isolated on chocolate agar

Why are cultures for Gardnerella vaginalis not recommended? A. The bacteria grow so slowly that results take too long to be relevant. B. Isolation of the bacteria may not be clinically significant. C. It is unsafe to grow this bacterium. D. Artificial media are not available.

B. Isolation of the bacteria may not be clinically significant.

Which one of the following drugs is not considered as primary antimycobacterial therapy? A. Isoniazed B. Kanamycin C. Rifampin D. Pyrazinamide

B. Kanamycin

Lack of motility is characteristic of A. Enterobacter B. Klebsiella C. Salmonella D. Serratia

B. Klebsiella

Lack of motility is characteristic of A. Enterobacter cloacae B. Klebsiella oxytoca C. Morganella morganii D. Providencia stuartii

B. Klebsiella oxytoca

Suggested quality control organisms for Simmons citrate agar slants are A. Shigella sonnei; E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae; E. coli C. E. coli; Edwardsiella tarda D. Morganella morganii; Edwardiella tarda

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae; E. coli

A woman, who had recently returned from a vacation in Mexico, was admitted to the hospital. She was febrile and complained of flulike symptoms. Her case history revealed that she had eaten cheese that had been made with unpasteurized milk while on vacation. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be A. Bordetella pertussis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Yersinia entercolitica

B. Listeria monocytogenes

What of the following is associated with infections in humans often linked to deli meats and improperly pasteurized dairy paroducts? A. Bacillus subtilis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Leuconostoc D. Streptococcus agalactiae

B. Listeria monocytogenes

Suseptibility to thiophene-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide (T2H) is characteristic of which of the following mycobaceria? A. M. avium-intracellular complex B. M. bovis C. M. kansasii D. M. tuberculosis

B. M. bovis

Mycobacterium fortuitum, a rapidly growing mycobacterium, grows on MacConkey agar in 5 days. Which other species of Mycobacterium is able to demonstrate growth within the same time peroid on MacConkey agar? A. M. bovis B. M. chelonei C. M. kansasii D. M. tuberculosis

B. M. chelonei

To ensure that anaerobic conditions have been achieved in anaerobic jars or chambers, an oxygen-sensitive indicator is employed such as A. Bromcreosol purple B. Methylene blue C. Methyl red D. Phenol red

B. Methylene blue

Which drug known to be active against parasitic infections has importance as a therapeutic agent in cases of disease caused by anaerobic bacteria A. Isoniazid B. Metronidazole C. Rifampin D. Trimethoprim

B. Metronidazole

Aspiration of vomitus can lead to pneumonia. Which of the following would not be a likely causative agent in aspiration pneumonia? A. Bacteroides gracilis B. Mobiluncus sp. C. Porphyromonas sp. D. Prevotella melaninogenica

B. Mobiluncus sp.

Isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae A. Is enhanced by cold enrichment B. Requires incubation under increased CO2 C. From contaminated sited is made easier by the use of CIN agar D. Is not affected if clinical specimen is refrigerated before culturing

B. Requires incubation under increased CO2

Which of the following is described as obligately anaerobic gram positive cocci? A. Capnocytophaga B. Peprostreptococcus C. Propionibacterium D. Veillonella

B. Peprostreptococcus

After 72 hours of anaerobic incubation, small olive-green to black colonies are seen. A gram stain reveals gram pos cocci. What is the most likely identification of this organism? A. Fingoldia magna B. Peptococcus niger C. Peoptostreptococcus anaerobius D. Veillonella parvula

B. Peptococcus niger

A young man developed keratitis associated with the use of cantact lenses that had been immersed in a contaminated cleaning solution. The most common bacterial etiological agent in such cases is A. Chryselobacterium meningosepticum B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Francisella tularensis D. Escherichia coli

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Association with faucet aerators and humidifiers used with ventilators in intensive care units is commonly a factor in outbreaks of infections with which of the following microorganisms? A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Salmonella spp. D. Serratia marcescens

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following tests is most appropriate for the presumptive identification of Clostridium perfringens? A. SPS sensitivity test B. Reverse CAMP test C. Cytotoxin assay D. Esculin hydrolysis

B. Reverse CAMP test

The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine protects against which serotype? A. Serotype a B. Serotype b C. Serotype c D. Serotype d

B. Serotype b

The recommended anticoagulent for use when a body fluid or joint fluid that may clot is sent for microbiologic examination is A. Heparin B. Sodium polythethanolsulfonate (SPS) C. Sodium EDTA D. Sodium citrate

B. Sodium polythethanolsulfonate (SPS)

Which of the following is not correct regarding spirochetes? A. Motility is via axial filaments B. Spirochetes are gram pos C. They are visualized best using dark field or phase optics D. Those associated with human disease are 0.1-0.5 um in diameter and 5-30 um in length

B. Spirochetes are gram pos

A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying species of the genus A. Abiotrophia B. Corynebacterium C. Enterococcus D. Staphyloccus

C. Enterococcus And other Group D Streps

Which of the following statements is true reguarding Clostridium perfringens? A. There are five serologic types B. Spores are termially located C. Alpha-toxin is produced by all strains D. Spores are readily seen in laboratory media

C. Alpha-toxin is produced by all strains

Gram pos rods were recovered from the chest fluid drawn fro ma teenager with right lower lobe pneumonia who lived on a dairy farm. At 24 hours, pinpoint colonies grew on sheep blood agar that showed faint zones of beta-hemolysis. The isolate was catalase negative and demonstrated a pos CAMP test. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent in this case? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Arcanobacterium pyogenes D. Streptobacillus moniliformis

C. Arcanobacterium pyogenes

Which of the following diseases involves erythrogenic toxin? A. Cutaneous anthrax B. Diphtheria C. Impetigo D. Scarlet fever

D. Scarlet fever

The diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis (Clostridium difficile associated disease) is often made by A. Serology B. Culturing blood specimens C. Assays to detect toxin in stool D. Acid-fast stain of fecal material

C. Assays to detect toxin in stool

Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) psittaci infections in humans most commonly result after exposure to infected A. Amphibians B. Arthropods C. Avians D. Mammalians

C. Avians

Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile? A. B. cereus B. B. subtilis C. B. anthracis D. B. thuringiensis

C. B. anthracis

The supervisor of a microbiology laboratory has been asked to begin performing in vitro antimicrobial susceptibility testing of Mycobacterium tuberculosis because of an increase in the reported resistnace in his community. Which of the following methods would be appropriate for this testing? A. Broth microdilution method using Mueller-Hinton broth B. Kirby-Bauer method C. BACTEC method D. Schlichter method

C. BACTEC method

Which of the following is an important cause of food poisoning? A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Bacteroides ureolyticus C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium histolyticum

C. Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following tests is most appropriate for the identification of Clostridium difficile? A. SPS sensitivity test B. Nagler test C. Cytotoxin assay D. Fluroescence test

C. Cytotoxin assay

What is the reference method for detection of Chlamydia trachomatis in cases of sexually transmitted disease? A. Tissue culture B. Nonculture EIA methods C. DNA-amplification techniques D. Culture on modified Thayer-Martain agar

C. DNA-amplification techniques

Production of a yellow pigment is characteristic of which of the following Enterobacter sp.? A. E. aerogenes B. E. cloacae C. E. sakazakii D. E. taylorae

C. E. sakazakii

Which of the following is not true of Mycobacterium leprae? A. Causes Hansen disease B. Difficult to grow in vitro C. Easily transmitted from person to person D. Usually grows in peripheral limbs of infected patients

C. Easily transmitted from person to person

The MIDI identification system is based on A. Antibiograms B. Colony pigment on ChromAgar C. Fatty acid analysis D. Multiple biochemical tests

C. Fatty acid analysis

A curved appearance on gram stain is characteristic of which of the following? A. Actinomyces israelii B. Clostridium speticum C. Fusobacterium nucleatum D. Propionibacterium acnes

C. Fusobacterium nucleatum

The gram neg, non-spore forming, anaerobic bacillus frequently implicated in serious clinical infections such as brain and lung abscesses is A. Bacteroides urealyticus B. Eubacterium lentum C. Fusobacterium nucleatum D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

C. Fusobacterium nucleatum

Which anaerobic, gram meg rod can be preemptively identified by its gram stain morphology, and inhibition by bile and a 1-ug kanamycin disk? A. Bacteroides fragilis group B. Eubacterium lentum C. Fusobacterium nucleatum D. Porphyromonas gingivalis

C. Fusobacterium nucleatum

Which of the following is the most common indicator of bacterial vaginosis? A. Eikenella B. Capnocytophaga C. Gardnerella D. Listeria

C. Gardnerella

Color Plate 28 (many PMNs) shows a gram stain of a CSF from a 1-year old girls suspected of having meningitis. After 24 hours of growth, small tan colonies were isolated on chocolate agar incubated in CO2. Sheep blood agar also incubated in CO2 had no growth. Which of the following organisms should be suspected? A. Brucella canis B. Bordetella parapertussis C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Neisseria meningitidis

C. Haemophilus influenzae

The characteristic growth pattern known as "satelliting" is associated with A. Burkholderia pseudomallei B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Yersinia pestis

C. Haemophilus influenzae

Which of the following has a negative oxidase test? A. Aeromonas B. Chryseobacterium C. Hafnia D. Vibrio

C. Hafnia

Campylobacter jejuni is A. Nonmotile B. Oxidase negative C. Hippurate hydrolysis positive D. A straight gram neg bacillus

C. Hippurate hydrolysis positive

Which of the following is not true of the VDRL test? A. False-pos tests are more frequent than with the FTA-ABS test B. The ab titer will decline if hte patient is adequately treated C. Inactivated Treponema pallidum serves as the ag D. The test is usually pos in secondary syphilis

C. Inactivated Treponema pallidum serves as the ag

Cardiobacterium hominis, an inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract of humans, has been recovered as the etiologic agent from cases of endocarditis. An identifying characteristic of the organism is A. Positive oxidase B. Positive catalase C. Indole negative D. Inability to grow on sheep blood agar

C. Indole negative

Which of the following is an important virulence factor of Bacteroides fragilis? A. Endotoxin B. Exotoxins C. Polysaccharide capsule D. Protease

C. Polysaccharide capsule

Penicillin is active against bacteria by A. Inhibition of protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit B. Reduction of dihdrofolic acid C. Inhibition or peptidoglycan synthesis D. Inhibition of nucleic acid function

C. Inhibition or peptidoglycan synthesis

Which of the following organisms is unable to grow on Mac agar? A. Bordetella brochiseptica B. Burkholderia cepacia C. Kingella denitroficans D. Plesiomonas shigelliodes

C. Kingella denitroficans

Mycobacteria can be examined by using the A. Dieterle stain B. Gimenez stain C. Kinyoun stain D. Wright's stain

C. Kinyoun stain

Small alpha-hemolytic colonies are seen on a sheep blood agar plate after 48 hours of incubation on a vaginal culture. This describes which of the following? A. Bacteroides B. Clostridium C. Lactobacillus D. Porphyromonas

C. Lactobacillus

Which bacterium is part of the normal vaginal flora that helps resist the onset of bacterial vaginosis? A. Peptostreptococcus sp. B. Peptococcus sp. C. Lactobacillus sp. D. Mobiluncus sp.

C. Lactobacillus sp.

A middle aged man with a history of smoking and drinking for over 40 years developed shortness of breath, fever, frontal headache, diarrhea and cough. He worked in the produce section of a supermarket, which routinely misted the fresh greens. His medical history included a kidney transplant several years ago for which he remains on antirejection therapy. His sputum gram stain showed numerous PMNs but rare microorganisms, An X-ray of his chest showed an infiltrate in the left lower lobe, and a diagnosis of atypical pneumonia was made. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent in this case? A. Bordetella pertussis B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Legionella pneumophila D. Moraxella catarrhalis

C. Legionella pneumophila

A helicoidal, flexible organism was demonstrated in a blood smear. This motile organism was approximately 12 um long, approximately 0.1 um wide, and had semicircular hooked ends. The description of this organism corresponds most closely to the morphology of A. Morrelia B. Leptonema C. Leptospira D. Treponema

C. Leptospira

Which of the following body sites is not normally colonized by large number of normal flora organisms? A. Colon B. Skin C. Lungs D. Vagina

C. Lungs

A screening test for the identification of Mycoplasma pneumoniae isolates is the A. Acid-fast stain B. Gram stain C. Lysis of RBCs D. Catalase test

C. Lysis of RBCs

The Mycobacterium that is the etiologic agent of "swimming pool granuloma" is A. M. fortunitum B. M. kansasii C. M. marinum D. M. xenopi

C. M. marinum

Which of the following Mycobacterium appears as buff-colored colonies after exposure to light and is niacin positive? A. M. bovis B. M. scrofulaceum C. M. tuberculosis D. M. ulcerans

C. M. tuberculosis

Which of the following mycobaceria has an optimal growth temp 30-32*C? A. M. avis complex B. M. bovis C. M. ulcerans D. M. xenopi

C. M. ulcerans

Which of the following media is both selective and differential? A. Sheep blood agar B. Chocolate agar C. Mannitol salt agar D. Mueller-Hinton agar

C. Mannitol salt agar

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is known to manifest commonly as which of hte following clinical conditions? A. Epiglottitis B. Hepatitis C. Mesenteric lymphadenitis D. Pseudomembraneous colitis

C. Mesenteric lymphadenitis

Which of the following is not an appopriate medium for primary isolation of Bordetella pertussis? A. Regan-Lowe B. Bordet-Gengou C. Modified Skirrow's medium D. Buffered charcoal yeast extract

C. Modified Skirrow's medium

A purulent aspirate of joint fluid from a 28-year old female wit hjoint pain was sent for microbiologic examination. The gram stain of this sample revealed many PMNs with intracellular and extracellular gram neg diplococci. Given the specimen type and microscopic findings, the appropriate selective medium for primary isolation would be A. Mannitol salt agar B. Potassium tellurite agar C. Modified Thayer-Martain agar D. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin

C. Modified Thayer-Martain agar

Of the following microorganisms, which one will turn a dark purple when tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride is applied? A. Acinetobacter baumannii B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia C. Moraxella catarrhalis D. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Moraxella catarrhalis

The agar recommended by the Clinical and Lab Standards Institute for routine susceptibility testing of nonfastidious bacteria is A. Mac agar B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar C. Mueller-Hinton agar D. Trypticase soy agar

C. Mueller-Hinton agar

Which of the following media should be used for in vitro susceptibility testing of S. pneumoniae A. Chocolate agar B. Charcoal yeast extract agar C. Mueller-Hinton base supplemented w/ 5% lysed horse blood D. Mueller-Hinton base supplemented w/ 1% hemoglobin and 1% IsoVitaleX

C. Mueller-Hinton base supplemented w/ 5% lysed horse blood

The etiologic agent of Hansen disease is A. Mycobacterium bovis B. Mycobacerium fortuitum C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C. Mycobacterium leprae

Colonies said to have the appearance of a "fried egg" are characteristic of A. Ehrlichia chaffeesis B. Mycoplasma gentalium C. Mycoplasma hominis D. Ureaplasma urealyticum

C. Mycoplasma hominis

The etiological agent of primary atypical pneumonia is A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Chlamydiophila psittaci C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Ureaplasma urea

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Which of the following Mycoplasmataceae has not been connected with human genital infections? A. Mycoplasma gentalium B. Mycoplasma hominis C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Ureaplasma urealyticum

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

WHen clinical specimens are processed for the recovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the generallly recommended method for digestion and decontamination of the sample is A. 6% NaCl B. HCl C. NALC-NaOH D. Trisodium phosphate

C. NALC-NaOH

When an epidemiologic survey for the detection of upper respiratory tract carriers of Neisseria meningitidis or Bordetella pertussis is being conducted, the optimal type of specimen to be obtained for culture is A. Anterior nares B. Buccal cavity C. Nasopharyngeal D. Throat

C. Nasopharyngeal

The flattened adjacent of the cellular appearance of which microorganism are said to resemble kidney beans?? A. Aeromonas hydrophila B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Pasturella multocida

C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose and maltose but not sucrose or lactose? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria lactamica C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Neisseria sicca

C. Neisseria meningitidis

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Mycobacterium kansasii? A. Slow grower B. Obligate aerobe C. Nonchromogenic D. Infections usually acquired by respiratory route

C. Nonchromogenic

Which of the following is not true regarding virulent strains of Vibrio cholerae? A. Adherent to enterocytes B. Mucinase production C. Nonmotile D. Toxigenic

C. Nonmotile

Which of the following is not a correct description regarding Aeromonas hydrophila? A. Beta-hemolytic B. Catalase pos C. ONPG neg D. Oxidase pos

C. ONPG neg

Metronidazole is most commonly recommended for treatment of infections caused by A. Aerobic microorganisms B. Microaerophilic microorganisms C. Obligate anaerobic microorganisms D. Obligate intracellular microorganisms

C. Obligate anaerobic microorganisms

Which of the following statements is not characteristics of Clostridum botulinum? A. Infant botulism is the most common clinical form B. Pathogenicity is related to a potent neruotoxin C. Oval spores are located terminally D. Of the seven toxogenic types, types A, B, E, and F are associated with human botulism

C. Oval spores are located terminally

Which of the following species of Pasturella is associated with human infections following cat bites? A. P. avium B. P. canis C. P. multocida D. P. stomatis

C. P. multocida

Beta-lactamase-producing strains of Haemophilus influenzae are resistant to A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin D. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole

C. Penicillin

Which of the following is a non-spore forming, gram pos, anaerobic bacillus? A. CLostridium B. Fusobacterium C. Propionibacterium D. Veillonella

C. Propionibacterium

A gram neg bacillus was recovered from the urine of a child with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The organism was oxidase neg, lactose neg, urease pos, and motile. The most likely identification of this agent would be A. E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Proteus mirabilis D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Proteus mirabilis

A positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction is characteristic of A. Hafnia alvei B. Moraxella catarrhalis C. Proteus vulgaris D. Salmonella Enteritidis

C. Proteus vulgaris

Which of the following organisms produced a positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction? A. Citrobacter freundii B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Providendia stuartii D. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Providendia stuartii

In the past, providone iodine, tincture of iodine prop pads and swabs, and other disinfectants have been recalled because of microbial contamination. The most likely organism to be isolated in these cases is A. Bordetella bronchiseptica B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Serratia marcescens

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pus was aspirated from an empyema. A gram stain of the aspirated material showed many WBCs and numerous GNB. The culture grew many colonies producing soluble green pigment. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be A. Chromobacteroum voilaceum B. Legionella pneumophila C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Serratia marcescens

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Reptiles kept as pets are sometimes associated with the transmission of A. Campylobacter B. Helicobacter C. Salmonella D. Vibrio

C. Salmonella

Chronic carriers, persons who remain infected with an organism for long periods, are typically associated with the dissemination of A. Bordetella perussis B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Salmonella Typhi D. Yersinia pestis

C. Salmonella Typhi

A positive VDRL test for syphilis was reported on a young woman known to have hepatitis. When questioned by her physician, she denied sexual contact with any partner symptomatic for a sexually transmitted disease. Which of the following would be the appropriate next step for her physician? A. Treat her with penicillin B. Identify her sexual contacts for serologic testing C. Test her serum using a fluorescent treponemal ab-absorbed assay D. Reassure her that it was a biologic false-pos casued by her liver disease

C. Test her serum using a fluorescent treponemal ab-absorbed assay

Which of the following statements is not true of Brucella? A. Infection may occus via abrasions of the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and genitals. B. They are fastidious and require supplemented media for isolation. C. The risk of accidental laboratory infection is no greater than with any other organism. D. Phage and dye sensitivity tests are used for identification to the species level.

C. The risk of accidental laboratory infection is no greater than with any other organism.

Serious congenital infections are associated with A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Borrelia recurrentis C. Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum D. Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue

C. Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

The symptom of diffuse, watery diarrhea that produces a relatively clear stool containing mucus flecks is suggestive of an infection caused by A. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli B. Shigella dysenteriae C. Vibrio cholerae D. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Vibrio cholerae

When testing the antimicrobial susceptibility of Haemophilus influenzae strains by disk-agar diffusion, the recommended medium is A. Chocolate agar B. Charcoal yeast extract agar C. Mueller-Hinton base supplement w/ 5% sheep blood D. Mueller-Hinton base supplemented w/ hematin, NAD, and yeast extract

D. Mueller-Hinton base supplemented w/ hematin, NAD, and yeast extract

Which of the following is not true of blood cultures for the recovery of bacteria? A. No more than three cultures should be drawn in 1 day B. Cultures should be drawn before the expected fever spike C. Cultures should be incubated aerobically and anaerobically D. Collect 5 mL of blood for optimal recovery of pathogen

D. Collect 5 mL of blood for optimal recovery of pathogen

An unheated suspension of Salmonella typhi typically poduces affutination of Vi antisera. After heating the same suspension, agglutination will occus in which grouping sera? A. A B. B C. C1 D. D

D. D

Purulent material from a cerebral abscess was submitted to a laboratory for smear and culture. On direct gram stain, gram pos cocci in chains nad gram neg bacilli with pointed ends were seen. Plates incubated aerobically exhibited no growth at 24 hours. On the basis of the organisms seen on the smear, what is the most likely presumptive identification of the etiologic anaerobic agents? A. Veillonella sp. and CLostridium sp. B. Subacterium sp. and Veillonella sp. C. Peptostreptococcus sp. and Nocardia sp. D. Fusobacterium sp. and Peptostreptococcus sp.

D. Fusobacterium sp. and Peptostreptococcus sp.

Which of the following Legionella spp. is positive for hippurate hydrolysis? A. L. micdadei B. L. longbeachae C. L. gormanii D. L. pneumophila

D. L. pneumophila

Which of the following is not characteristic of Eikenella corrodens? A. It is a this, gram neg bacillus B. Colonies sometimes pit the surface of the agar medium C. It is found in the mouth and upper respiratory tract of humans D. It is often found in pure culture when recovered from infections

D. It is often found in pure culture when recovered from infections

Which is a correct statement regarding Clostridium tetani? A. It is proteolytic B. It is lecithinase pos C. It is characteristically nonmotile D. It produces terminal spores

D. It produces terminal spores

Several international participants in an Eco-Challenge adventure race in Borneo became ill with symptoms of chills, diarrhea, headaches, and eye infections. The racers hiked in the mountains and jungles, swarm in rivers, and slogged through flooded streams for 2 weeks. Contact with contaminated water and soil during the race was highly associated with illness. What is the most likely etiologic agent in this case? A. Borellia recurrentis B. Brucella canis C. Franciscella tularensis D. Leptospira interrogans

D. Leptospira interrogans

The species of Mycobacterium that would most commonly be associated with contamination of the hot water system in large institutions such as hospitals is A. M. heimophilum B. M. marinum C. M. ulcerans D. M. xenopi

D. M. xenopi

Continuous blood culture systems that detect changes in head space pressure in bottles are referred to as A. Fluorescence methods B. 14C detection methods C. Colorimetry methods D. Manometric methods

D. Manometric methods

The anaerobic, gram negative, curved, motile bacilli associated with bacterial vaginosis belong to the genus A. Actinomyces B. Bifidobacterium C. Lactobacillus D. Mobiluncus

D. Mobiluncus

A positive gelatin reaction is characteristic of A. Morganella morganii B. Proteus vulgaris C. Salmonella Typhimurium D. Serratia liquefaciens

D. Serratia liquefaciens

A slow growing, organge pigmented, acid fast bacillus was isolated from a cervical lymph node of a child with symptoms of cervical adenitis. The most likely etiological agent in this case would be A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Mycobacterium chelonei C. Mycobacterium fortuitum D. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

D. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

Serratia spp. are unique in the family Enterobacteriaceae becasue of their ability to produce extracellular hydrolytic enzymes. Which of the following is not produced by Serratia species? A. DNase B. Gelatinase C. Lipase D. NADase

D. NADase

New York City agar was developed for the isolation of A. Bordetella pertussis B. Campylobacter fetus C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A 3 year old was brought to the ER by her parents. She had been febrile w/ a loss of appetite for the past 24 hours. Most recently the parents noted it was difficult to arouse her. She attended a daycare center, and her childhood immunizations were current. On examination she demonstrated a positive Brudzinski sign indicative of meningeal irritation. Cultures of blood and CSF were sent to the laboratory. Her CSF was cloudy, and the gram stain showed many PMNs containing gram neg diplococci. The WBC count was 25x 10^9/L, with 88% PMNs. THe CSF protein was 100 mg/dL. Cultures of the blood and CSF grew the same organism. The most likely etiologic agent in this case is A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Moraxella catarrhalis D. Neisseria meningitidis

D. Neisseria meningitidis

The method of serogrouping Shigella used in the clinical laboratory is based on A. Bacteriocins B. H antigens C. K antigens D. O antigens

D. O antigens

WHich one of the following tests would be appropriate in the diagnosis of a mycobacterial infection? A. Elek test B. CAMP test C. Nagler test D. PPD test

D. PPD test

A genital specimen is inoculated into 10 B broth. After overnight incubation, an alkaline reaction is noted without turbidity. What is the most likely explanation? A. pH change due to molecules in the clinical specimen B. Presence of Mycoplasma genitalium C. Presence of Mycoplasma hominis D. Presence of Ureaplasma urealyticum

D. Presence of Ureaplasma urealyticum

a tube of semisolid medium that contains resazurin appears pink. What does this indicate? A. Acid environment B. Alkaline environment C. Motility D. Presence of oxygen

D. Presence of oxygen

A cervical mucosal abscess specimen was sent to the laboratory for bacteriologic examination. The culture of this sample grew an anaerobic gram negative bacillus that was inhibited by bile, produced a black pigment, and was negative for indole production and positive for glucose, sucrose, and lactose fermentation. This isolate would most likely be A. BActeroides fragilis group B. Bacteroides ureolyticus C. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Prevotella melaninogenica

D. Prevotella melaninogenica

The majority of the gram pos, non-spore-forming, anaerobic bacilli isolated from clinical material will be A. Bifidobacterium dentium B. Capnocytophagia ochracea C. Eubacterium limosum D. Propionibacterium acnes

D. Propionibacterium acnes

Swimmer's ear, a form of external otitis is commonly caused by A. Acinetobacter baumannii B. Bordetella bronchiseptica C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Rocky Mtn spotted fever is transmitted by the bite of a tick tnfected with A. Rickettsia akari B. Rickettsia conorii C. Rickettsia prowazekii D. Rickettsia rickettsii

D. Rickettsia rickettsii

The causative agent of endemic or murine typhus is A. Rickettsia akari B. Rickettsia conorii C. Rickettsia prowazekii D. Rickettsia typhi

D. Rickettsia typhi

The recommended medium for the recovery of Mycoplasma pneumoniae from clinical specimens is A. Charcoal yeast extract medium B. Fletcher semisolid medium C. Middlebrook D. SP4 agar

D. SP4 agar

A negative citrate reaction is charaacteristic of A. Citrobacter freundii B. Enterobacter aerogenes C. Serratia marcescens D. Shigella boydii

D. Shigella boydii

Detection of antibody against cardiolipin is useful for the diagnosis of which of the following disease? A. Leptospirosis B. Lyme disease C. Relapsing fever D. Syphilis

D. Syphilis

Explosive watery diarrhea with severe abdominal pain after eating raw shellfish is most characteristic of infection caused by A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Helicobacter pylori C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

A young woman complaining of symptoms of sudden onset of fever, vomiting, diarrhea and rash was seen by her gynecologist. She was admitted to the hospital, where a culture of vaginal discharge grew many coagulase-pos staphylococci. The most likely diagnosis in this case would be A. Kawaskaki disease B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Scalded skin syndrome D. Toxic shock syndrome

D. Toxic shock syndrome

Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis? A. Clindamycin B. Gentamicin C. Naladixic acid D. Vancomycin

D. Vancomycin

Vibrio vulnificus is a well established human pathogen that is known to cause A. Gastroenteritis B. Pneumonia C. Pyelonephritis D. Wound infections

D. Wound infections

A 32 year old male was seen in the ER with symptoms of lower right quadrant abdominal pain and diarrhea. A CBC showed a leukocytosis with an increased number of neutrophils. He was admitted, and a stool culture was obtained. The culture showed many gram neg bacilli, which were oxidase neg, citrate neg, and indole neg. The triple sugar iron reaction was acid over acid, but there was no evidence of gas or H2S production. The organism was pos for urease and ONPG and neg for phenylalanine. The characteristic symptomatology and the biochemical reactions confirmed that the etiologic agent was A. Salmonella Paratyphi B. Shigella dysenteriae C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. Yersinia entercolitica

D. Yersinia entercolitica

An anemic patient was transfused with PRBCs. Approximately 1 hour after the transfusion began, the patient developed fever and hypotension consistent with endotoxic shock. The RBCs had been stored at 4* C for approximately 30 days before their use. The organism most likely to be involved in this case is A. Campylobacter fetus B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Yersinia entercolitica

D. Yersinia entercolitica

Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar is recommended for the recovery of A. Brucella suis B. Cardiobacterium hominis C. Rhodococcus equi D. Yersinia enterocolitica

D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Nocardia asteroides infections in humans characteristically produce A. Carbuncles B. Draining cutaneous sinuses C. Spetic shock D. Serous effusions

B. Draining cutaneous sinuses

In the CAMP test, a single streak of a bets-hemolytic Streptococcus is placed perpendicular to a streak of beta-lysin producing Staphylococcus aureus. After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape of an arrowhead is notes; this indicates the presumptive identification of A. S. agalactiae B. S. bovis C. S. equinus D. S. pyogens

A. S. agalactiae

An organism occasionally misidentified as an enteric pathogen becuase it produces a large amount of H2S is A. Burkholderia cepacia B. Burkholderia pseudomallei C. Pseudomonas putida D. Shewanella putrefaciens

D. Shewanella putrefaciens

The description of "Medusa head" colonies on solid agar is most characteristic of A. Bacillus anthracis B. Enterococcus faecalis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A. Bacillus anthracis

The etiologic agent of "malignant pustule" is A. Bacillus anthracis B. Corynebacterium ulcerans C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D. Listeria monocytogenes

A. Bacillus anthracis

Which one of the following is not appropriate when describing Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. Bile-resistant B. Alpha-hemolytic C. Lancet-shaped, gram positive diplococcus D. Virulent strains are encapsulated

A. Bile-resistant

In suspected cases of brucellosis, the optimal specimen to be collected for the isolation of the etiologic agent is A. Blood B. Urine C. CSF D. Nasopharyngeal exudates

A. Blood

The single species in the genus Hafnia is A. alvei B. gergoviae C. ruckeri D. tarda

A. alvei

Colonies of Listeria monocytogenes on a sheep blood agar plate most closely resemble colonies of A. Corynebacterium diptheriae B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus bovis group D. Rhodococcus equi

B. Streptococcus agalactiae

An important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae or the infection it produces is A. A gram strain of the organism reveals gram-negative bacilli B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females C. Produces disease in humans and domestic animals D. The bacteria survive long periods outside the host's body

B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females

Which of the following is the most commonly isolated species of Bacillus in opportunistic infections such as bacteremia, post-traumatic infections of the eye, and endocarditis? A. B. circulans B. B. cereus C. B. licheniformis D. B. subtilis

B. B. cereus

The causitive agent of melioidosis is A. Burkholderia cepacia B. Burkholderia pseudomallei C. Moraxella catarrhalis D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

B. Burkholderia pseudomallei

A gram stain of a sputum specimen from a patient with a suspected case of lobar pneumonia reveals many white blood cells and many gram-positive cocci, which are primarily diplococci. Which of the following statements would be appropriate, given these findings? A. A PYR test should be performed on the culture isolate. B. An Elek test should be performed on the culture isolate. C. An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate. D. A hippurate hydrolysis test should be performed on the culture isolate.

C. An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate.

Which of the following nonfermenters is rarelyisolated in the US? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia C. Burkholderia mallei D. Burkholderia cepacia

C. Burkholderia mallei

Colonies of Neisseria sp. turn color when a redox regent if applied. The color change is indicative of the activity of the bacterial enzyme A. Beta-galactoside B. Urease C. Cytochrome oxidase D. Pheylalanine deaminase

C. Cytochrome oxidase

The organism associated with a disease characterized by the presence of a pseudomembrane in the throat and the production of an exotoxin that is absorbed into the bloodstream with a lethal affect is A. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pyogens D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Loeffler's serum medium is recommended for the cultivation of A. Abiotrophia sp. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Leuconostoc sp. D. Streptococcus agalactiae

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which microorganism will grow only on culture media supplemented with either cysteine or cystine? A. Actinobacillus lignieresii B. Bartonella bacilliformis C. Francisella tularensis D. Kingella kingae

C. Francisella tularensis

Which of the following is a characteristic of staphylococci that would help in their isolation from clinical specimens? A. Bile resistance B. Growth at 55* C C. High salt tolerance D. Resistance to novobiacin

C. High salt tolerance

Which of the following is catalse negative? A. Bacillus B. Corynebacterium C. Leuconostoc D. Listeria

C. Leuconostoc

The etiologic aagent of the majority of adult joint infections is A. Abiotrophia sp. B. Leuconostoc sp. C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following is most likely to be isolated in cultures from the anterior nares of healthcare workers? A. Bacillus cereus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

C. Staphylococcus aureus

Growth in a 48 hour semisolid agar stab culture at room temperature reveals lateral filamentous growth away from the stab near the top of the medium. This observation is most characteristic of which organism? A. Rhodococcus sp. B. Corynebacterium urealyticum C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Listeria monocytogenes

Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to prevents infection by A. E. coli B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which of the following is not associated with Staphylococcus aureus? A. Endotoxin production B. CLumping factor production C. Deoxyribonuclease production D. Hemolysin production

A. Endotoxin production

Which of the following is not characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes? A. CAMP test positive B. Catalase negative C. Esculin hydrolysis positive D. Motile

B. Catalase negative

Tellurite reduction is used for the presumptive identification of A. Bacillus anthracis B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

An aerobic gram-positive rod known to cause bacteremia in hospitalized immunocompromised patients is A. Bacillus anthracis B. Corynebacterium jeikeium C. Corynebacterium ulcerans D. Corynebacterium urealyticum

B. Corynebacterium jeikeium

Precipitates of diphtheria toxin and antitoxin formed in agar gels are an in vitro means for detecting toxogenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The name of this test procedure is the A. D-test B. Elek test C. Hodge test D. Nagler test

B. Elek test

Severe disseminated intravascular cogulation often complications cases of septicemia caused by A. Acinetobacter sp. B. Moraxella sp. C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Neisseria meningitidis

D. Neisseria meningitidis

The species of Vibrio closely associated with rapidly progressing wound infections seen in patients with underslying liver disease is A. V. alginolyticus B. V. cholerae C. V. vulnifuicus D. V. parahaemolyticus

C. V. vulnifuicus

Nocardia can be differentiated from Actinomyces based on A. Nocardia being an obligate anaerobe B. The partial-acid fast staining reaction of Actinomyces C. The production of sufur granules in cases of nocardiosis D. Nocardia being catalase positive

D. Nocardia being catalase positive

An example of an oxidase-positive, glucose nonfermenting organism is A. Aeromonas hydrophila B. Escherichia coli C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following diseases is most likely to be acquired from a hot tub or whirlpool? A. Q fever B. Eryipelas C. Acinetobacter cellulitis D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

The novobiocin susceptibility test is used for the identification of A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A causitive agent of the form of conjunctivitis known as pinkeye is A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Moraxella lacunata C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Klebsiella ozaenae

A. Haemophilus aegyptius

The K antigen of the family Enterobacteriaceae is A. Heat labile B. The somatic antigen C. Located on the flagellum D. The antigen used to group Shigella

A. Heat labile

Salmonella Typhi exhibits a characterisitc biochemical pattern, which differentiates it from the other salmonellae. Which of the following is not characteristic of S. Typhi? A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar B. Agglutination in Vi grouping serum C. Lysine decarboxylase protive D. Citrate negative

A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar

The etiologic agent of whooping cough is A. Bordetella pertussis B. Brucella suis C. Francisella tularensis D. Haemophilus ducreyi

A. Bordetella pertussis

A fastidious gram neg bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon darkfield examination was noted to have gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be A. Capnocytophaga B. Chromobacterium C. Kingella D. Plesiomonas

A. Capnocytophaga

THe sexually acquired disease characteristerized by genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphphadenopathy, which is caused by a small, gram-negative bacillus, is known as A. Chancroid B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Syphilis D. Trachoma

A. Chancroid

An environmental sampling study of respiratory therapy equipment produced cultures of a yellow, nonfermentative (at 48 hrs), gram neg bacillus from several of the nebulizers, which would most likely be species of A. Chryseobacterium B. Pseudmonas C. Alcaligenes D. Moraxella

A. Chryseobacterium

Cystine-tellurite blood agar plates are recommended for the isolation of A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus agalaciae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Group D streptococci

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which of the following is not true of Shigela sonnei? A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease. B. The organism produces an inflammatory condition in the large intestine with bloody diarrhea. C. The organism produces disease most commonly in the pediatric population. D. The organism is a delayed lactose fermenter.

A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease.

The color plate 26 (Gram positive rod) shows the gram stain of a blood culture of a 23 year old pregnant woman who presented with fever and flu like symptoms in her ninth month. The isolate on blood agar produced small, translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent in this case? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Propionibacterium acnes C. Straptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pyogens

A. Listeria monocytogenes

A gram positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus A. Micrococcus B. Lactococcus C. Pediococcus D. Staphylococcus

A. Micrococcus

A gram negative, "kidney bean" cellular morphology is a distiguishing characteristic of A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Yersinia pestis C. Bartonella spp. D. Actinobacter spp.

A. Neisseria meningitidis

Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produce A. Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism B. Central nervous system pathology C. Pathology in the lower respiratory tract D. The formation of abscesses in visceral organs

A. Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism

A urine culture from a 23-year-old female grew a catalase-positive gram-positive coccus (>100,000 cfu/mL), which would most likely be A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Enterococcus faecalis C. Streptococcus bovis group D. Streptococcus viridans

A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

The enterotoxins of both Vibrio cholerae O1 and noninvasive (toxigenic) strains of Escherichia coli produce serious diarrhea by what mechanism? A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretions by the cells of the small intestine B. Penetration of the bowel mucosa C. Stimulation of colicin production D. Elaboration of a dermonecrotizing toxin

A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretions by the cells of the small intestine

The etiologic agent most commonly assicated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is A. Strep agalactiae B. Strep bovis group C. Strep pneumoniae D. Strep pyogens

A. Strep agalactiae

Which of the following organisms is able to hydrolyze sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine? A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Enterococcus faecalis

A. Streptococcus agalactiae

Staphylococcus aureus, when present, could most likely be recovered from a stool sample if the primary plating medium included A. Bismuth sulfite B. Phenylethyl alcohol C. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose D. Xylose-lysine-desoxycholate

B. Phenylethyl alcohol

Legionella pneumonphila is the etiologic agent of both Legionnaires disease and A. Swine fever B. Pontiac fever C. Rift Valley fever D. San Joaquin Valley fever

B. Pontiac fever

Abiotrophia, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci, will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in A. Hemin B. Pyridoxal C. VItamin B D. Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide

B. Pyridoxal

The beta-hemolysis produced by group A Streptococcus seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin A. H B. M C. O D. S

D. S

Which of the following organisms would mostly likely produce the biochemical reactions shown in Color Plate 27 (TSI: K/H2S , Urea: Neg, TDA: Neg, Lysine: Pos A. Citrobacter freundii B. Proteus mirabilis C. Providencia rettgeri D. Salmonella

D. Salmonella

Family members attending a picnic became ill about 2 hours after eating. The illness what characterized by rapid onset of violent vomiting. The most likely bacterial cause of such symptoms would be food poisoning caused by A. Enterococcus faecium B. Bacillus subtilis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

The etiological agent of the disease erysipelas is A. Staph aureus B. Strep moniliformis C. Strep agalactiae D. Strep pyogenes

D. Strep pyogenes