TEDA/EEDA - Exam 2 quiz MCQs
Respiratory distress from perilla mint toxicosis may be particularly evident: a. When the animal is standing with its head down b. A year after ingestion of the plant c. Two to three months after ingestion of the plant d. During exhalation
d. During exhalation
The recommended period of time to quarantine a newly purchased bird is: (Choose one best answer.) a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. 30 days
d. 30 days
What species is thought to have first transmitted the H3N2 influenza virus to dogs *in Asia*? a. Cats b. Horses c. Wild rodents d. Avian species e. Horses and avians f. All of the above: cats, horses, wild rodents, and avians
d. Avian species
Which of the following are differentials for BSE? a. Nervous ketosis and rabies b. Polioencephlomalacia and listeriosis c. Bovine viral diarrhea and brucellosis d. Both A and B e. All of the above
d. Both A and B. A and B could all cause similar neurological signs.
Matching of agencies for importation of pets: Regulates the importation of dogs, cats, monkeys and other animals that can carry zoonotic diseases Enforce the regulations in place by inspecting dogs and cats at ports of entry. Any dog or cat showing signs of infectious disease that can be transmitted to humans may not be allowed to enter the United States. Regulate the entry of dogs that will be used in livestock handling and require quarantine and inspection to ensure they are free of tapeworms. They also inspect dogs from countries where screwworm is endemic. A. APHIS B. CDC C. DHS
*B. CDC:* Regulates the importation of dogs, cats, monkeys & other animals that can carry zoonotic diseases *C. DHS:* Enforce the regulations in place by inspecting dogs & cats at ports of entry. Any dog or cat showing signs of infectious disease that can be transmitted to humans may not be allowed to enter the United States. *A: APHIS:* Regulate the entry of dogs that will be used in livestock handling & require quarantine & inspection to ensure they are free of tapeworms. They also inspect dogs from countries where screwworm is endemic.
True/False: Even though there are border inspections, the smuggling of animals into the US is not that uncommon and continues to be a real risk for foreign disease introductions.
True
Plague is transmitted most commonly to cats by: a. Eating the feces of infected rodents or birds b. A bite from rodent fleas or eating an infected rodent c. Spores located in the soil d. Eating infected birds
b. A bite from rodent fleas or eating an infected rodent
When you perform necropsies on birds from a flock that may have highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI), would petechial hemorrhages in the fat, and tracheitis be consistent with this disease?
Yes
Yes/No: In the scenario, could the dirty boots of an employee who was helping another farm with sick birds have transmitted avian influenza virus to this flock?
Yes
The *reservoir* species for Yersinia pestis is/are: a. Ticks, e.g., Dermacentor andersoni and Amblyomma americanum b. Rodents c. Rodent fleas d. Cats
B. Rodents Rodent fleas are the VECTOR
Good risk communication will provide all the known information about a particular risk. True False
False
T/F: Employees who keep birds at home are the best people to care for birds in businesses or industry because they know how to handle them and will quickly recognize disease.
False
T/F: If there is an outbreak of exotic Newcastle's disease in the U.S., poultry will be euthanized if they are infected or exposed, but exotic pet birds will be isolated and given supportive care until they recover. Once they test negative these birds can be removed from isolation.
False
T/F: Responding inappropriately to an FMD outbreak will have major public health consequences and could potentially overwhelm medical centers.
False
T/F: When dealing with a high outrage, high crisis situation, it is best to provide highly detailed instructions for all aspects of biosecurity, and emphasize strict adherence to each individual component no matter how small.
False
The risk analysis paradigm assumes that in many cases there is a zero risk of harm. True False
False
True/False: Only exotic Newcastle's disease (END) has been seen in the U.S.; highly pathogenic avian influenza has not yet occurred in this country.
False
T/F: A Certificate of Veterinary Inspection (CVI) can be used for intrastate, interstate, and international movement of animals.
False A CVI is only used for intrastate and interstate movement of animals. For international movement, either United States Federal forms are used or forms provided by the destination country
T/F: Canine influenza virus is a reportable disease throughout the United States.
False Canine influenza is reportable in some states but not others. In states where it is reportable, veterinarians or laboratories who suspect or diagnose canine influenza must notify their State Animal Health Official.
Fear and Trust greatly impact Risk Communication. Generally fear is rapidly acquired, readily extinguished, and easily re-established.
False Fear is: Rapidly acquired Slow to extinguish Easily re-established
T/F: The devastating 2015 HPAI outbreak in the Midwest was limited to commercial poultry operations. Backyard flocks were not affected.
False The greatest impact of this outbreak was on commercial poultry (71 sites); however, backyard flocks were also affected (six sites) and lost around 5000 birds.
T/F: The major impact of the 2015 HPAI outbreak in the United States was on the commercial poultry producers. Fortunately, because of the early detection and rapid response, other businesses were not impacted.
False Thousands of poultry workers were laid off when production stopped for depopulation, and cleaning, and disinfection. Processing plants, feed mills, trucking companies, food production companies, and retail stores were all affected
T/F: To be maximally effective and efficient it is best to target risk communication at the general public rather than specific audiences.
False. The general public does not exist. There are a number of public policies which correspond to a myriad of approaches to risk communication. Each message should be tailored to the audience it is being delivered to.
T/F: When delivering risk communication it is best to show as little emotion as possible.
False. You do not want your audience to think you are cold or indifferent to the situation. Show empathy and confidence.
T/F: Good risk communication will tailor the message to a specific audience.
True
Good risk communication will often suggest positive actions people can take to reduce their risk. True False
True In the field of risk communication, self-efficacy is often fostered by giving those at risk appropriate actions to take to lessen the risk.
Risk communication should be two way: delivering information to the public as well as listening to public concerns. True False
True Risk communication is an open, two-way exchange of information and opinion about risk that leads to better understanding and better risk management decisions by all involved (e.g., veterinarians, animal owners, and consumers).
T/F: Trust and Fear both have a significant impact on how risk communication is perceived. Generally Trust is slowly acquired, readily extinguished, and difficult to re-establish.
True. Trust is: Slowly acquired Readily extinguished Difficult to re-establish
Yes/No: In this scenario, could a healthy flock of migrating Canadian geese which landed on the farm have been the source of the virus for a poultry flock with highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI)?
Yes
Yes/No: In this scenario, could chickens infected with low pathogenicity avian influenza have been the source of the virus for a poultry flock with highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI)?
Yes
Yes/No: The owner brought a bird home from the live bird market. He used the cage he took to the live bird market to move some of his poultry. Could the virus have been introduced into the poultry flock from the cage?
Yes
Yes/No: When you perform necropsies on birds from a flock that may have highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI), would finding no significant gross lesions be consistent with this disease?
Yes
Which of the following is most likely to be an equine herpesvirus infection? a. A mild respiratory disease that affects young animals that have been in close contact b. A severe and highly fatal respiratory disease that affects horses of all ages c. A rapidly spreading, severe respiratory disease that affects large numbers of young horses d. A severe respiratory disease that affects only immunodeficient foals
a. A mild respiratory disease that affects young animals that have been in close contact
Monkeypox entered the U.S. via: a. Animals imported from Ghana which were distributed to various locations in the U.S and transmitted the disease to U.S. born animals and humans before it was identified. b. An infected person that transmitted the virus to her pet prairie dog and then sold the prairie dog at a swap meet. c. Gambian pouched rats and prairie dogs that were smuggled into the U.S. and sold at a variety of pet swap meets. d. A shipment of animals from Ghana that spread the disease in spite of proper importation procedures and a 60 day quarantine period
a. Animals imported from Ghana which were distributed to various locations in the U.S and transmitted the disease to U.S. born animals and humans before it was identified.
Which of these are zoonotic diseases from CDC's Bioterrorism Category A agents list: a. Anthrax, Botulism, and Plague b. Smallpox, Tularemia, and Brucellosis c. Q Fever, Eastern Equine Encephalitis, and Nipah virus d. Ricin, Botulism, and Smallpox e. Plague, Hantavirus, and Anthrax
a. Anthrax, Botulism, and Plague
Scrapie susceptible sheep are typically infected: a. As lambs through contact with infected placenta and birth fluids, not necessarily mother to offspring b. From ram to ewe during breeding c. From ingestion of contaminated feed d. In utero from the ewe to the fetus e. All of the above
a. As lambs through contact with infected placenta and birth fluids, not necessarily mother to offspring
Anthrax is diagnosed by: a. Bacterial culture and identification b. Virus isolation c. Characteristic clinical signs; there is no laboratory test d. Electron microscopy of tissue samples e. Agar gel immunodiffusion assay
a. Bacterial culture and identification
After examination and necropsy of some chickens, highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) and Newcastle's disease (ND) are on your list of possible diagnoses. What should you do? a. Call your State and Federal animal health authorities (State veterinarian and AD) and wait for their directions before there is movement off the premises. Remind the owner and employees that respiratory secretions and feces from birds may contain these viruses. b. Ease the concerns of the owner and employees by telling them that although HPAI and ND are devastating to the poultry industry they do not infect people so they and their families do not need to worry. c. Suggest the owner review the biosecurity practices of the farm and ensure strict adherence to those practices until a diagnosis is made. d. Allow employees to shower out and go home to do chores for their backyard chickens. e. Collect samples and send them to the lab ASAP. Call the lab to let them know the samples are on their way.
a. Call your State and Federal animal health authorities (State veterinarian and AD) and wait for their directions before there is movement off the premises. Remind the owner and employees that respiratory secretions and feces from birds may contain these viruses.
You are presented with a cat with a single abscess and high fever. All other parameters are normal. Your most likely diagnosis is: a. Cat bite abscess b. Tularemia c. Plague d. All of the above are equally likely
a. Cat bite abscess
Naturally occurring infections of Hendra have been reported in horses, humans, bats, and dogs. In which of the following species was infection established experimentally and virus isolated from the urine. a. Cats b. Chickens c. Cows d. Goats
a. Cats
In the U.S., susceptibility to scrapie is determined primarily by genotyping: a. Codon 171 of the DNA that codes for the prion protein b. Amyloid A protein sequence c. Hemoglobin DNA codon 55 d. Codons 120 and 180 of the DNA that codes for lipoprotein A e. None of the above
a. Codon 171 of the DNA that codes for the prion protein
The primary route of transmission of EHV-1 is: a. Direct contact transmission b. Aerosol transmission c. Vector-borne transmission d. Reproductive transmission
a. Direct contact transmission
Which diseases are zoonotic? a. Exotic Newcastle's disease, avian influenza, salmonellosis, and chlamydiosis b. Encephlomalacia, avian influenza, exotic Newcastle's disease, and Pacheco's disease c. Pacheco's disease, salmonellosis, and exotic Newcastle's disease d. Exotic Newcastle's disease, avian influenza, systemic organ disease, and aspergillosis
a. Exotic Newcastle's disease, avian influenza, salmonellosis, and chlamydiosis
Which of the following species is considered the reservoir species for Hendra virus? a. Flying foxes b. Humans c. Guinea pigs d. Cats
a. Flying foxes
Which of the following equine respiratory diseases would be the greatest the threat to human handlers? a. Hendra b. Equine herpesvirus 4 (EHV-4) c. Equine adenovirus d. African horse sickness
a. Hendra
What feature(s) qualify it as an emerging disease? a. Increasing in incidence and severity b. Identified for the first time in the last 10 years c. Recently identified in a new location d. Expanding host range e. All of the above
a. Increasing in incidence and severity
There are different goals/purposes for the USDA Disease Programs. Which of the following is *NOT* a goal/purpose of a USDA Disease Program? a. Indemnification b. Control c. Certification d. Surveillance e. Eradication
a. Indemnification
A cow is most likely to acquire BSE by: a. Ingestion of the agent b. Either oral or aerosol transmission c. Addition of an infected cow into the herd d. Fomites and vectors e. All of the above routes are possible
a. Ingestion of the agent. A cow could contract BSE by ingesting meat contaminated with infected CNS tissue.
Many of the lesions of Newcastle disease occur because the virus infects and damages: a. Lymphoid tissues and neurons b. Neurons only c. Red blood cells and platelets d. Gastrointestinal epithelial cells e. Respiratory epithelium
a. Lymphoid tissues and neurons
All of the following are important biosecurity measures during the investigation of a vesicular disease outbreak *EXCEPT*: a. Notify the media so they can tell the public to stay away from the farm b. Use personal protective equipment (PPE) c. Clean/disinfect equipment used d. Work from healthiest animals to sickest animals e. No movement on or off farm
a. Notify the media so they can tell the public to stay away from the farm. You must be careful what information is shared with the media so as not to cause undue panic or other damage. This outbreak may turn out to be something other than an exotic disease.
Which of the following vaccines is/are available for sheep? a. Rabies b. Scrapie c. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy d. Both A and B e. All of the above
a. Rabies
Which of the following actions should you avoid when educating your clients and the public during an FMD outbreak: a. Telling the public your speculations b. Staying calm c. Providing a FAQ sheet d. Providing current and consistent information e. Deferring questions which are not covered in factsheets and FAQ sheets to the proper authorities
a. Telling the public your speculations. Especially in the early stages of an outbreak investigation,you should be careful not to share information that may cause the public or the media to jump to conclusions that may have disastrous effects.
Your client has a horse that is traveling to a horse show and you need to test it for equine infectious anemia (EIA). The results need to be reported on the Certificate of Veterinary Inspection (CVI). Where should you send the blood sample for testing to obtain official results? a. The sample must be sent to a USDA-APHIS approved EIA testing laboratory b. The sample can be sent to any private licensed diagnostic laboratory as long as you have a relationship with them. c. There is an in-clinic approved ELISA for this test, so it can be run in the clinic as long as you are accredited. d. The sample should be sent to the National Veterinary Services Laboratory (NVSL)
a. The sample must be sent to a USDA-APHIS-approved EIA testing laboratory
What is the difference between the test for susceptibility to scrapie and the diagnosis of scrapie? a. The susceptibility test is a genotype test to determine the DNA sequence of the 171 and 136 codons of the gene for the prion protein; the diagnosis of scrapie is made using an immunohistochemistry test to visualize the prion proteins in brain or lymphoid tissue b. There is no difference; they are the same test c. The susceptibility for scrapie is based on evaluation of the flock pedigrees; the diagnosis of scrapie is made based on clinical signs in a sheep with a pedigree suggestive of susceptible to scrapie d. The susceptibility test is an immunohistochemistry test on brain or lymphoid tissue; the diagnosis of scrapie is a test for antibody, the presence of antibody is indicative of infected because once an animal is infected it is infected for life e. The susceptibility test is a neurologic evaluation based on a 1-5 scale with a 4 or 5 meaning susceptibility to disease; the diagnosis of scrapie is made using a PCR test on blood, lymphoid tissue, skin, or brain.
a. The susceptibility test is a genotype test to determine the DNA sequence of the 171 and 136 codons of the gene for the prion protein; the diagnosis of scrapie is made using an immunohistochemistry test to visualize the prion proteins in brain or lymphoid tissue
If 30% of pens with cattle previously on feed for over 100 days are febrile, depressed, and have oral lesions, it could be FMD. You should call the animal health authorities and be aware that "what you say and do matters."
a. True
In general, you will submit most of your samples for USDA Program Disease testing to: a. Any of the National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) laboratories. It is recommended to use the one nearest your location. b. A laboratory that has been approved by APHIS to run the specific test needed. c. The Foreign Animal Disease Diagnostic Laboratory at Plum Island, NY d. The National Veterinary Services Laboratories (NVSL) in Ames, IA
b. A laboratory that has been approved by APHIS to run the specific test needed.
Which of the following is most likely to be equine influenza? a. A mild respiratory disease affecting a single newborn foal on a farm b. A respiratory disease affecting large numbers of young horses c. A severe respiratory disease, with abortions, that affects mares d. A severe respiratory disease, with neurologic signs, that affects older mares
b. A respiratory disease affecting large numbers of young horses
Which option below places possible public responses to risk from the most frequent reaction to the least frequent reaction? a. Denial Acceptance Panic Fear b. Acceptance Fear Denial Panic c. Denial Fear Panic Acceptance d. Panic Denial Fear Acceptance e. Fear Denial Panic Acceptance
b. Acceptance Fear Denial Panic
During an Iowa winter, which of the following diseases would *NOT* spread through a stable from a single infected horse? a. Equine influenza b. African horse sickness c. Equine herpesvirus 4 (EHV-4) d. NONE of the above; they would all spread
b. African horse sickness This disease requires an arthropod vector
When called out to a farm to look at a horse with signs of respiratory disease, you would inspect a. Only the sick horse b. All other horses on the premises first, then the sick animal c. Both the sick horse and the rest of the animals on the premises, but the order is not important d. The sick animal first, then check all other horses on the premises
b. All other horses on the premises first, then the sick animal
Risk communication is an important component in the response to a potential crisis. Which is *NOT* appropriate when dealing with a potential FMD outbreak: a. Let your client know what procedures are mandatory to follow, as well as any additional steps he can or should take to protect his animals and prevent the disease from spreading. b. Assure your client that they don't need to worry and that everything will be ok. c. Discuss the public health aspects of the disease. d. Let your client know when you will have further information. e. Let your client know what you know, what you don't know, and what you are doing to find answers
b. Assure your client that they don't need to worry and that everything will be ok. You want to be honest with your client and tell them what you do know, what you don't know, and how you will proceed with the case. While you want to be careful not to cause panic, telling them that everything will be okay may be providing false hope.
Hendra would be most likely if a horse with respiratory disease was recently imported from: a. Madagascar b. Australia c. England d. Kenya
b. Australia
The most effective means of preventing EHM in horses is: a. Temperature checks two times per day b. Biosecurity c. Vaccination d. Prophylactic antibiotics
b. Biosecurity
Plague is most commonly transmitted from reservoir species to people by: a. Aerosol transmission from animals with pneumonic plague b. Bites from infected fleas c. Direct transmission from exudates of ruptured bubos d. Bites from infected animals
b. Bites from infected fleas
BSE agent has been found in which tissues from cattle infected with BSE agent? a. Muscle b. Brain c. Milk d. Blood
b. Brain. BSE is prions are found mainly in the CNS (including the brain, spinal cord and retina) and the distal ileum. There is not evidence that these prions occur in the blood, milk or muscles (meat).
Cleaning and disinfection of exotic Newcastle's disease (END) and highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI): (Choose one best answer.) a. Is a very difficult process because these viruses are very hardy b. Can be accomplished with widley available disinfectants as long as organic material does not interfere c. Is unnecessary when these viruses are contained in organic material where they will die quickly. Other surfaces must be disinfected with widely available disinfectants. d. Can only be accomplished with a limited number of disinfectants that are specifically made for these viruses e. A and D
b. Can be accomplished with widely available disinfectants as long as organic material does not interfere
Investigating the origins of a BSE case and tracing the animal's contacts: a. Is relatively straightforward, as long as the herd is closed. The main challenge in this situation is determining whether the cattle have infected any wild animals, such as deer, via tick vectors. b. Can be difficult, because the incubation period is long, animal movements may be hard to trace over a period of years, and feed source records are often incomplete. c. Can be difficult, because the incubation period is long. Tracing the animal's contacts is nevertheless vital, because each infected cow may have infected a significant number of cattle during the incubation period. Incorrect d. Is relatively straightforward due to a good animal identification program that was implemented in the mid-1980s, although the initial case may be difficult to diagnose.
b. Can be difficult, because the incubation period is long, animal movements may be hard to trace over a period of years, and feed source records are often incomplete
Which of the following is/are symptom(s) most often reported when APMV-1 (Newcastle's disease virus) infects a human? a. None; this is not a zoonotic disease. b. Conjunctivitis c. Mild respiratory signs d. Potentially life threatening illness, predominately respiratory symptoms, although diarrhea can also be seen e. B, C and D are all equally reported
b. Conjunctivitis
When BSE is diagnosed on a farm, public health must be contacted because this is a zoonotic disease and the employees exposed to the cow should be monitored. a. TRUE b. FALSE
b. FALSE. BSE is not acquired by contact with animals or their secretions and excretions. However, a human who consumes BSE-contaminated meat or other organs is at risk for developing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
The reason for the quarantine of the herd in the BSE scenario was to prevent the spread of the disease. a. TRUE b. FALSE
b. FALSE. BSE is not directly contagious, and is acquired by ingestion of tissues from infected animals
After a mild week-long respiratory illness, 95% of the affected horses in a stable recover. Which of the following diseases is least likely to be the cause of the illness? a. Equine herpesvirus 4 (EHV-4) b. Hendra c. Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1) d. Equine influenza
b. Hendra
How do scientists think that HPAI made its way to North America in the spring of 2015? a. Contaminated poultry products imported from China b. Infected migratory waterfowl migrating on the East Asia/ Australia flyway c. Illegal exotic bird smuggling past USDA ports of entry d. All of the above
b. Infected migratory waterfowl migrating on the East Asia/ Australia flyway
The ongoing BSE surveillance program in the US: a. Is carried out by USDA and does not involve private practitioners b. Involves accredited veterinarians submitting appropriate samples from high-risk animals c. Is critical for food safety d. Tests a high percentage of calves going to slaughter before they enter the food chain e. All of the above
b. Involves accredited veterinarians submitting appropriate samples from high-risk animals USDA asks accredited veterinarians to submit brain samples from cattle that fit a clearly described case definition. The case definition includes information on age, neurologic signs, ambulatory status. The goal of the surveillance program is to detect any change in the BSE status of U.S. cattle; it is not for the purpose of food safety. Food safety comes from the the many other safeguards in place, certain feed bans for ruminants, and the removal of tissues from the food chain that would pose a risk to humans.
When monkeypox was diagnosed for the first time in the U.S. in 2003: a. There were cases of person to person transmission. b. It was diagnosed in humans who had been in direct contact with infected animals. c. The disease was first diagnosed in a sick prairie dog by a veterinarian. d. Animals with monkeypox were isolated and treated until negative for the virus.
b. It was diagnosed in humans who had been in direct contact with infected animals
Which of the following clinical signs is/are most consistent with highly pathogenic avian influenza in chickens and turkeys? a. Loss of color in the eyes, comb and wattle b. Neurologic and respiratory signs and decreased egg production c. Matting and loss of feathers d. Difficulty chewing and swallowing, flaccid paralysis of the neck muscles and generalized weakness accompanied by weight loss e. Constipation and abscesses
b. Neurologic and respiratory signs and decreased egg production
Which of the following poultry diseases are reportable and foreign animal diseases? a. Infectious laryngotracheitis and Marek's disease b. Newcastle disease and highly pathogenic avian influenza c. Marek's disease and highly pathogenic avian influenza d. Highly pathogenic avian influenza and infectious laryngotracheitis e. Fowl cholera and exotic Newcastle disease
b. Newcastle disease and highly pathogenic avian influenza
You are a veterinary practitioner in Kentucky. One of your clients calls to tell you she is being transferred to her company's headquarters in Tennessee for a six month rotation. She will be taking her 3 year old dog with her. She would like some tranquilizers for her dog for the ride. As an accredited veterinarian, what else will you tell her she needs before she takes her dog to Tennessee? a. Proof of a current rabies vaccination only b. Proof of current rabies vaccination and Certificate of Veterinary Inspection (valid for 30 days) if animal is entering Tennessee for more than 15 days c. Proof of distemper combination vaccination within one year of the date of entry into Tennessee. d. A signed and Federally endorsed copy of the APHIS Form 7001, United States Interstate and International Certificate of Health Examination for Small Animals
b. Proof of current rabies vaccination and Certificate of Veterinary Inspection (valid for 30 days) if animal is entering Tennessee for more than 15 days
When working up a downer cow suspected of having BSE, blood samples are taken to: a. Evaluate antibody titers to BSE b. Rule out/rule in other diseases c. Determine alkaline phosphatase levels to support a diagnosis of BSE d. Evaluate antibody titers to rabies e. Both A and D
b. Rule out/rule in other diseases BSE status cannot be determined with a blood test, but you may find another cause for the neurological signs.
The clinical signs of scrapie typically do not include: a. Gait abnormalities b. Sudden death c. Tremors d. Pruritus e. Behavioral changes
b. Sudden death
Plague is endemic in: a. The eastern U.S. b. The western U.S. c. Australia, northern Europe, and Mexico d. Both B and C
b. The western U.S
Eradication programs are usually conducted in stages. As a state or region gets closer to eradicating the disease what is true about the rules and regulations for that disease. a. They remain constant in all stages b. They tend to become less restrictive c. They tend to become more restrictive
b. They tend to become less restrictive
All of the following are top differentials for vesicular lesions in the mouth and on the hooves of cattle *except*: a. Foot and Mouth Disease Virus b. Traumatic Stomatitis c. Malignant Catarrhal Fever Virus d. Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus e. Vesicular Stomatitis Virus
b. Traumatic Stomatitis
As a veterinarian, what should you do if you suspect a horse has Hendra virus infection or African horse sickness? a. Submit blood samples and nasal swabs to your diagnostic lab. b. Use your personal protective equipment, best biosecurity practices, and call your state animal health official (SAHO) and/or Assistant District Director (ADD) immediately. c. Call the FDA (food and drug administration) immediately and use precautions to protect yourself and the owner. d. Call around to your colleagues and see if they have any horses with similar clinical signs and/or if they agree with your differentials.
b. Use your personal protective equipment, best biosecurity practices, and call your state animal health official (SAHO) and/or Assistant District Director (ADD) immediately.
A live animal test for diagnosing scrapie in sheep: a. Uses a biopsy of brain tissue b. Uses lymphoid tissue from the third eyelid, rectal mucosa, tonsil, or lymph node c. Does not exist d. Uses a biopsy of lung tissue e. Uses whole blood and a skin biopsy
b. Uses lymphoid tissue from the third eyelid, rectal mucosa, tonsil, or lymph node
Respiratory disease is the most common clinical sign of EHV-1 infection. However, the most serious clinical manifestations of EHV-1 are abortions and neurologic signs (equine herpes myeloencephalopathy). What is the main prerequisite leading to these clinical manifestations of the disease? a. Transmission via mosquitoes b. Viremia c. Latent infection d. Infection by 2 years of age
b. Viremia
Newcastle disease is caused by: a. Highly pathogenic strains of the avian influenza virus b. Virulent strains of avian paramyxovirus serotype 1 c. Pasteurella multocida d. Virulent strains of gallid herpesvirus 2 (lymphotropic alphaherpesvirus) e. Gallid herpesvirus 1 (alphaherpesvirus)
b. Virulent strains of avian paramyxovirus serotype 1
Is scrapie present in the United States? a. Yes. Scrapie appeared in the United States concurrently with the recent BSE epidemic in the United Kingdom. b. Yes. Scrapie has been seen in U.S. sheep since the 1940s. c. No. Scrapie was once found in U.S. sheep, but the disease was eradicated in 2001. d. Yes, but is currenly only present in goats; it has been eradicated from the sheep flocks. e. No. Scrapie has never been seen in animals in the United States
b. Yes. Scrapie has been seen in U.S. sheep since the 1940s.
Which other species are affected by transmissible spongiform encephalopathies? a. Dogs, tigers, horses, sheep b. Cats, goats, mink, pigs c. Cats, mink, sheep, deer d. Cats, dogs, mink, pigs e. All of the above
c. Cats, mink, sheep, deer. These species can be affected by at least one TSE: Feline spongiform encephalopathy, transmissible mink encephalopathy, scrapie, and chronic wasting disease, respectively. So far, there is no evidence that TSEs occur in horses, pigs, or dogs.
Which of the following infections may be associated with both respiratory disease and abortions? a. Equine influenza and equine adenovirus b. Equine viral arteritis and African horse sickness c. Equine viral arteritis and equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1) d. Equine herpesvirus 4 (EHV-4) and equine influenza
c. Equine viral arteritis and equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1)
Necropsy findings that would suggest Newcastle's disease (ND) and warrant a call to the authorities include: a. Plaques in the trachea and on the air sacs b. Fluid in the brain c. Hemorrhages and edema in multiple systems d. Dry, compacted feces in the intestinal tract e. Enlarged liver and spleen
c. Hemorrhages and edema in multiple systems
How would you interpret the diagnostic test results of positive for EHV-1 on nasal swab and negative for EHV-1 from blood sample? a. Horse is latently infected b. Horse has recovered and may comingle with other horses c. Horse is shedding the virus d. Horse is viremic e. Horse will not get EHM
c. Horse is shedding the virus
In the United States, the Scrapie Flock Certification Program: a. Is a mandatory program for all sheep farmers with more than 10 sheep b. Is only available to farmers who have not vaccinated their sheep against scrapie c. Is voluntary and identifies flocks that are free of evidence of scrapie for a certain amount of time, e.g. 5 years d. Is also known as the Scrapie Eradication Program e. None of the above
c. Is voluntary and identifies flocks that are free of evidence of scrapie for a certain amount of time, e.g. 5 years
A successful eradication program typically has multiple elements. Which of the following is *NOT* a common component of an effective eradication program? a. Movement restrictions b. Surveillance and testing c. Mandatory veterinary inspections every three months d. Mandatory reporting e. Infected animals are euthanized or sent to slaughter
c. Mandatory veterinary inspections every three months
You were at a client's farm two weeks ago to look at a goat because it had gotten in a barbed wire fence and had a small lesion on its neck. You cleaned the wound and had to put in a couple of stitches. Otherwise, the goat looked good. The owner took the stiches out after 10 days and let you know everything looked good. She is calling today because she would like you to fill out a CVI for this goat so she can take it to a show in a neighboring state. She would like to just stop by and pick up the CVI and not bring the goat in. Can you legally do this? a. Yes, since you examined the goat two weeks ago, you are within the time limit to still issue a CVI. b. Yes, a CVI is typically not needed to take a goat to the next state, so there are no legal implications in this situation. c. No, a CVI cannot be issued because the last time you examined the goat is outside of the 10 day requirement. d. No, a CVI can only be issued at the time of the examination of an animal.
c. No, a CVI cannot be issued because the last time you examined the goat is outside of the 10 day requirement.
One responsibility of an accredited veterinarian (AV) is to accurately complete health certificates. By signing a health certificate, the AV is attesting to: a. The animal is healthy and not currently incubating or transmitting an infectious disease b. The entire health history of the animal c. The lack of apparent illness of the animal d. Not only the animal's health but that they know and trust the owner
c. The lack of apparent illness of the animal
Your client has a horse that is traveling to compete in an international event. One of the export requirements is a negative test for equine infectious anemia (EIA). The results need to be reported on the International Health Certificate (IHC). Where can you send the blood sample for testing to obtain official results? a. All samples for EIA testing must be sent to the National Veterinary Services Laboratory (NVSL) b. This test can be run at the diagnostic laboratory you use for testing any other blood samples from your patients c. This test should be sent to a USDA-approved laboratory for EIA testing. d. This test can be conducted in your veterinary clinic with the EIA APHIS-licensed test kit.
c. This test should be sent to a USDA-approved laboratory for EIA testing.
According to the reading, vaccination for smallpox: a. Was completely ineffective against monkeypox b. Was recommended for all healthy adults in the states where animals were diagnosed with monkeypox. c. Was used in the outbreak for pre-exposure prophylaxis and also post-exposure d. May have been effective against monkeypox but was not used during the outbreak
c. Was used in the outbreak for pre-exposure prophylaxis and also post-exposure
When should you and your staff use standard veterinary precautions? Choose one best answer. a. When you have a diagnosed reportable disease. b. When you have a patient in isolation to ensure protection of your staff, the patient, and other animals in the hospital. It is recommended these be posted in the isolation area for easy access and review. c. Whenever you or your staff may be exposed to potentially infectious materials including feces, body fluids, vomitus, exudates, and nonintact skin. d. When you are suspicious you may be dealing with a zoonotic disease.
c. Whenever you or your staff may be exposed to potentially infectious materials including feces, body fluids, vomitus, exudates, and nonintact skin.
Tuberculosis has nearly been eradicated from the United States. The biggest barrier preventing its eradication is: a. Lack of an effective treatment b. The zoonotic nature of the diseases c. Wildlife reservoirs of the disease d. The extended incubation period for the disease e. Lack of a live animal test for the disease
c. Wildlife reservoirs of the disease
Diagnosis of either HPAI or END in the US is devastating because: a. Trade implications are costly b. The diseases are very contagious, most infected birds become ill, and most sick birds die. c. Because the diagnostic tests take so long to complete, the disease can spread before a diagnosis can be made d. A and B e. All of the above
d. A and B
Agroterrorism is: a. Likely to be caused by agents that cause sudden death in animals, such as anthrax, Clostridium chauvoei, Clostridium hemolyticum, and Leptospira spp. b. Less harmful than bioterrorism c. Intentional use of microorganisms or biological toxins to cause death or disease in humans. d. A specific form of bioterrorism in which the biological weapons target animal or crop agriculture to cause economic damage and instability. e. Any act that targets agriculture, crops, or animals.
d. A specific form of bioterrorism in which the biological weapons target animal or crop agriculture to cause economic damage and instability.
A good infection control program includes: a. Records b. Quarantines c. Restricted movement and sanitation d. All of the above e. Both B and C
d. All of the above
How are canine influenza viruses spread? a. Direct contact b. Fomites c. Aerosol transmission d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Plague should be included on a differential list in non-endemic areas because: a. Animals may have traveled to endemic areas b. The disease may be newly emerging in non-endemic areas c. It is caused by an agent that might be used by a bioterrorist d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The differentials for a pet bird with ruffled feathers, diarrhea, mild respiratory signs and neurologic signs would include: a. Aspergillosis, chlamydiosis, avian influenza, calcium deficiency, and salmonellosis b. Avian influenza, encephlomalacia, and exotic Newcastle's disease, systemic organ disease, and parasitism c. Lead toxicity, Pacheco's disease, avian influenza, exotic Newcastle's disease and aspergillosis d. Avian influenza, Pacheco's disease, salmonellosis, and exotic Newcastle's disease e. All of the above
d. Avian Influenza, Pacheco's disease, Salmonellosis, & Exotic Newcastle's Disease (APSE)
Highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) and exotic Newcastle's disease (END) can be transmitted by: (Choose one best answer.) a. Feces and respiratory secretions b. Biological vectors c. Contaminated fomites d. Both A and C e. All of the above
d. Both A and C
What was one of the major challenges for the response to the 2015 HPAI outbreak in the United States? a. The wide geographic distribution of the outbreak and coordination or teams across the country. b. The carrier state of the disease in the wild waterfowl. Surveillance efforts could not detect and keep up with the movement of the virus via the waterfowl. c. Because of the high risk for human infections, responders had to be put on prophylactic antivirals before they could help, this delayed the response time. d. Depopulation of large numbers of laying hens in cages and clean up exceeded the capabilities of the responders.
d. Depopulation of large numbers of laying hens in cages and clean up exceeded the capabilities of the responders.
Which of the following avian influenza viruses are *most* likely to cause highly pathogenic avian influenza? a. H5N3 and H3N2 b. H3N5 and H1N7 c. H1N1 and H3N2 d. H5N1 and H7N7 e. H7N2 and H3N2
d. H5N1 and H7N7
Choose the most appropriate sequence for inspecting animals on a suspect FMD farm: a. Hospital facility, healthy animals with sick animal contact, healthy animals with no contact b. Hospital facility, healthy animals with no sick animal contact, healthy animals with contact c. Healthy animals with sick animal contact, healthy animals with no contact, hospital facility d. Healthy animals with no sick animal contact, healthy animals with contact, hospital facility e. Healthy animals with no sick animal contact, hospital facility, healthy animals with contact
d. Healthy animals with no sick animal contact, healthy animals with contact, hospital facility. Always move in the direction from healthiest to the most sick to prevent cross contamination.
What species is thought to have first transmitted the H3N8 influenza virus to dogs? a. Avian species b. Cats c. Wild rodents d. Horses e. All of the above.
d. Horses
Which of the following species is not susceptible to infection with FMD virus? a. Cattle b. Hedgehogs c. Pigs d. Horses e. Water buffalo
d. Horses
When should you contact a state animal health official if FMD is suspected? a. Immediately, but then continue on to your next appointment b. At the end of the day when you make the rest of your calls c. Never, as FMD is endemic and you're not to contact a state animal health official about endemic diseases. d. Immediately, the state animal health official will advise you what to do next; he/she may have you stay at the farm until the FADD arrives. e. Not until you get a definitive diagnosis; you don't want to waste their time
d. Immediately, the state animal health official will advise you what to do next; he/she may have you stay at the farm until the FADD arrives. As soon as any exotic disease is suspected, a state animal health official should be notified. You should be prepared to follow their instructions, and can expect your normal routine of calls to be interrupted.
Diagnosis of BSE can be made based on: a. Clinical signs and disease progression b. Immunoblot or immunohistochemistry of third eyelid lymphoid tissues antemortem c. Antibody titers, acute and convalescent d. Immunoblot or immunohistochemistry of the brain
d. Immunoblot or immunohistochemistry of the *brain* There is *no live animal test for BSE*, and clinical signs are not definitive. The disease is usually diagnosed by detecting prions in the CNS (usually the brain) by immunoblotting or immunohistochemistry. Rapid tests such as ELISAs can also be used, but must be confirmed by immunoblot/immunohistochemistry if they are positive.
Bioterrorism would be suspected if anthrax is diagnosed: a. In several workers at an abattoir b. In both humans and animals at the same time in the Dakotas c. In several dead cattle after heavy storms d. In people, cattle and dogs in Washington e. In a farmer in Texas
d. In people, cattle and dogs in Washington
Treatment for a cat suspected of having plague should be: a. Initiated after culture and sensitivity results are in. b. No treatment is given as this is a reportable disease with human health consequences, & the cat will be euthanized. c. Begun only after government authorities have arrived to approve of the treatment. d. Initiated immediately after samples are collected.
d. Initiated immediately after samples are collected.
Based on the information on the USDA-APHIS website for importing live animals, to import poultry from Hong Kong, the requirements include: (Check all that apply) a. 30-day quarantine at a USDA Animal Import Center b. Veterinary Health Certificate issued by a full-time salaried veterinarian of the agency responsible for animal health of the national government of the exporting country c. Animal Import Permit (VS Form17-129) (fillable pdf 75kb) d. No poultry from Hong Kong can be imported to the United States. e. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Certification
d. No poultry from Hong Kong can be imported to the United States.
The treatment for a horse infected with African horse sickness in the United States is: a. Antibiotics b. Antiserum c. Rest and supportive care only d. No treatment, the animal would be euthanized
d. No treatment, the animal would be euthanized
If BSE is diagnosed in a cow after slaughter, how could the premises and equipment be disinfected? a. Any common disinfectant should work b. Virkon-S is the disinfectant of choice c. There are no disinfectants or physical methods that can reduce the concentration of prions in the environment. d. Prions are difficult to inactivate, but sodium hypochlorite, sodium hydroxide and autoclaving are among the more effective methods
d. Prions are difficult to inactivate, but sodium hypochlorite, sodium hydroxide and autoclaving are among the more effective methods. Prion proteins are extremely resistant to commonly used disinfectants and physical methods of decontamination, including formalin, UV light and ionizing radiation. Autoclaving or the use of sodium hydroxide or sodium hypochlorite, for periods of *an hour or more*, are among the techniques used to inactivate prions. It may be possible for some prions to escape even the harshest decontamination methods.
The first reports about the emergence of H3N2 canine influenza virus were from where? a. United States b. China c. Europe d. South Korea
d. South Korea
The treatment of choice for plague in cats is: a. Amoxicillin, dextramethophan and hydroxizine, as well as symptomatic treatment and flea adulticide treatement b. Streptomycin alone c. Flea control and fluids d. Streptomycin (or gentamicin, doxycycline), symptomatic treatment and flea adulticide treatment
d. Streptomycin (or gentamicin, doxycycline), symptomatic treatment and flea adulticide treatment
The monkeypox outbreak in the United States led to some new legislation, still in effect today, that closed a loophole with regard to African rodents entering the United States. a. All African rodents are imported through a special import center in Texas. b. The FDA restricts the importation and movement of African rodents. c. The USDA must inspect all animals entering the United States. d. The CDC restricts the importation of African rodents. e. CDC and USDA inspect all animals imported from Africa and the FDA restricts the movement.
d. The CDC restricts the importation of African rodents.
When asked to complete a Certificate of Veterinary Inspection for animals traveling to another state, the best source of information regarding the entry requirements would be: a. The Federal Veterinarian for the destination state b. The Federal Veterinarian for the State of origin c. The State Animal Health Official for the State of origin d. The State Animal Health Official for the destination state e. National Import/Export Service Center in the State where the animal being exported resides.
d. The State Animal Health Official for the destination state
Many control and eradication programs have a program where herds that meet certain testing and monitoring standards can receive a special status (e.g., Certified Brucellosis-Free herds, Scrapie Export Monitored Category). What is an advantage of such a status for the herd owner? a. The herd is exempt from disease control regulations in other states b. The owner can freely add additional animals to the herd without restriction c. The animals no longer need to be tested d. The animals can generally move (interstate or internationally) with less testing
d. The animals can generally move (interstate or internationally) with less testing
The tuberculosis (TB) program includes surveillance testing by accredited veterinarians. What is the primary TB surveillance test that accredited veterinarians perform for cattle? a. The bovine gamma interferon test b. Draw blood and submit serum for a laboratory test c. Dual Path Platform VetTB Assay (DPP) for antibody d. The caudal fold test e. The comparative cervical test
d. The caudal fold test
The incubation period for BSE in a cow is: a. One to three days b. One to three weeks c. One to three months d. The incubation period is variable, but more than a year and often several years
d. The incubation period is variable, but more than a year and often several years. The incubation period can range from 2 to 8 or more years.
Which is the most accurate statement with regard to the CDC's Category ABC Agents List? a. Agents are divided into A=viruses, B = bacteria, and C = toxins; all agents on the list represents agents that have been used as a bioweapon or there is a history of development for use as a bioweapon b. Is for use by the human medical community and public health and is not really relevant to veterinarians; only the USDA's high consequence livestock pathogen list is relevant to veterinarians and the animal health industry. c. Have been categorized based on the severity of disease they cause (most fatal (no treatments) to least fatal (good treatments available). d. Was established as a way to help prioritize preparedness efforts; for example, Category A agents receive the highest priority because they pose the highest risk to public and national security. e. Is a list of viruses, bacteria and toxins, categorized based on accessibility to terrorists, and most of them are human pathogens only; however, there are a couple of agents on the list that are zoonotic so veterinarians should be aware and informed about those agents.
d. Was established as a way to help prioritize preparedness efforts; for example, Category A agents receive the highest priority because they pose the highest risk to public and national security.
What animals are considered the *reservoir* for *influenza A* viruses? a. Feral swine b. Domestic chickens and turkeys c. Asian backyard poultry flocks d. Waterfowl and shorebirds
d. Waterfowl and shorebirds
You are investigating a disease outbreak in a herd of cattle: two calves died suddenly of unknown causes, and several cows aborted late in pregnancy. Should you do necropsies on these animals? (Choose one best answer.) a. No. You must call a university pathologist to help you do the necropsy. b. Yes. No precautions are necessary, since zoonotic agents are rare. c. No. Call state or federal officials; tell them that you suspect a foreign animal disease. d. Yes, but wear protective clothing, gloves, and a surgical mask. and protect the environment. e. No. Call state or federal officials; tell them that you suspect bioterrorism.
d. Yes, but wear protective clothing, gloves, and a surgical mask. and protect the environment.
If avian influenza and exotic Newcastle disease are on your rule out list: (Choose one best answer.) a. You should not notify anyone until you have a diagnosis. The implications are too big if you call too soon with a suspect case. b. You should notify the AVMA c. You should notify Public Health because these are both zoonotic diseases d. You should notify state or federal authorities
d. You should notify state or federal authorities
Monkeypox is transmitted to people by: a. Animal bites b. Aerosols during close contact c. Direct contact with lesions, blood, or body fluids d. B and C only e. A, B and C
e. A, B and C
The list of possible diagnoses in a poultry flock with acute mortality and clinical presentations ranging from no clinical signs to conjunctivitis, depression, neurologic and/or respiratory signs should include: a. Highly pathogenic avian influenza and Newcastle disease b. Marek's disease and Infectious laryngotracheitis c. Fowl cholera and management problems d. A and B e. A, B, and C
e. A, B, and C
Periodic introductions of END have occurred in the US. The disease is difficult to keep out of the US because: a. Illegal bird smuggling can introduce the virus b. It is endemic among poultry in the U.S., and the virus is periodically transmitted from poultry to pet birds c. Some birds can be carriers d. Wild birds that cross into the U.S. frequently carry this virus e. A, C, D
e. A, C, D
Anthrax spores are: a. Found naturally, in the soil b. Easily aerosolized after they have been weaponized c. Formed following exposure of contaminated tissue to oxygen d. B and C only e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Plague may be transmitted from cats to people by: a. Cat bites b. Contamination of mucous membranes with the exudates from a ruptured bubos c. Flea bites d. Aerosol transmission e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Reportable diseases can include: a. APHIS regulated diseases such as pseudorabies, tuberculosis b. Those posing a public health threat, like rabies c. Foreign animal diseases/pests such as screwworm or foot-and-mouth disease d. Endemic diseases such as leptospirosis, depending on the State's requirements e. All of the above
e. All of the above
When handling birds with respiratory disease and/or diarrhea, good veterinary standard practices would suggest that you wear: a. Gloves b. Gown or lab coat c. Mask d. Protective eyewear e. All of the above
e. All of the above
You have a flock of sheep with neurologic symptoms. Which of the following diseases would you include among your initial rule outs? a. Organophosphate intoxication b. Listeriosis c. Scrapie d. Rabies e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Health certificates are legal documents. Providing false or incorrect information can lead to: a. Warning letter from Federal veterinarian b. Fines c. Loss of accreditation status d. Loss of licensure e. All of the above
e. All of the above Depending on the infraction, penalties can range from a stern reprimand to those that are extensive and life changing. Do the right thing, every time.
Which of the following symptoms, in people, can be caused by highly pathogenic avian influenza viruses? a. None; this is not a zoonotic disease b. Conjunctivitis c. Mild respiratory signs d. Potentially life threatening illness, predominately respiratory, although diarrhea can also be seen e. B, C and D are all possible
e. B, C and D are all possible
Which three diseases are disease problems in cervids in the United States and are part of a control/eradication program? a. Brucellosis, Tuberculosis, Scrapie b. Brucellosis, Chronic Wasting Disease, Scrapie c. Tuberculosis, Chronic Wasting Disease, Scrapie d. Chronic Wasting Disease, Scrapie, Brucellosis e. Brucellosis, Tuberculosis, Chronic Wasting Disease
e. Brucellosis, Tuberculosis, Chronic Wasting Disease
The pseudorabies (PRV) program has transitioned from eradication to surveillance. Which is *NOT* currently part of the surveillance for pseudorabies? a. Collecting and testing samples from swine on operations with feral swine exposure b. Testing swine samples submitted to diagnostic laboratories c. Testing sows, boars, and market swine at slaughter d. Testing swine sold at markets and buying stations e. Capturing and testing of feral swine
e. Capturing and testing of feral swine
A herd of cattle on pasture were fine two days ago, now two of the adults, who were in great condition, are dead. On necropsy, hemoglobinuria (blood in the urine) and a large liver infarct are observed. What is the top on your list of causative agents? a. Weaponized anthrax b. Clostridium chauvoei c. Bacillus anthracis d. Leptospira hardjo e. Clostridium hemolyticum
e. Clostridium hemolyticum
There are several reasons that a disease may become subject to an eradication, certification, surveillance, or control program. Which of the following is *NOT* a common reason for developing a disease program? a. It causes significant production losses b. It is zoonotic c. It causes high death rates in infected animals d. It is economically important to the livestock industry e. It is a disease with a long incubation period
e. It is a disease with a long incubation period
Anthrax in cattle: a. Is most commonly diagnosed in cattle on pasture in the southeastern U.S., sudden death may occur in some animals, others will often present with acute lameness, depression, and characteristic edematous and crepitant swelling in the hip and shoulder. b. Most commonly presents as cutaneous lesions; these lesions can be difficult to detect and the disease then progresses to septicemia and sudden death. c. Affects usually the adult cattle in good condition; they often have hemaglobinuria (blood in the urine) a couple of days before they die. d. Is rare because cattle are fairly resistant; however, peracute disease (sudden death) can result after exposure to large doses of anthrax. e. Most commonly presents as a peracute disease (sudden death) after ingestion or inhalation of spores; bloody discharges from the body orifices from the dead animals result in contamination of the environment with spores and these are a source of infection to other animals and people.
e. Most commonly presents as a peracute disease (sudden death) after ingestion or inhalation of spores; bloody discharges from the body orifices from the dead animals result in contamination of the environment with spores and these are a source of infection to other animals and people.
A transmissible spongiform encephalopathy has not been identified in: a. Goats b. Cats c. Deer d. Bovine e. None of the above is correct; a TSE has been identified in each of the above species
e. None of the above is correct; a TSE has been identified in each of the above species
You are suspicious of anthrax in cattle at a client's ranch, and you have a concern about nefarious activity. What should you say and do? (Choose one best answer.) a. Tell your client you do not know what this is but you will find out and get back to him. b. Don't mention it, take appropriate precautions to get samples for the lab, let the client know you will be in contact. c. Tell your client as much as you can about what might be happening and all you know about anthrax. You should let him know you suspect bioterrorism/agroterrorism but encourage him not to be afraid. Try to assure him everything will be fine and remind him animal health officials are trained to handle these kinds of cases. You also suggest he not say anything to his family, but just make sure they don't go near the area where the animals are. You let him know you will be in contact whenever you hear back from the lab. d. Be honest with the client and tell him you suspect bioterrorism/agroterrorism. e. Tell your client that the clinical signs are consistent with anthrax, you are not sure how the cattle were exposed, and you are going to call the animal health officials to help with answering some of the questions. You let him know anthrax is zoonotic and help him know the appropriate biosecurity measures to take to protect himself, his family, and other animals. When you leave, you tell him you will call him in three to four hours to give him an update. You make sure he has your contact information in case he has questions or thinks of more information he would like you to know.
e. Tell your client that the clinical signs are consistent with anthrax, you are not sure how the cattle were exposed, and you are going to call the animal health officials to help with answering some of the questions. You let him know anthrax is zoonotic and help him know the appropriate biosecurity measures to take to protect himself, his family, and other animals. When you leave, you tell him you will call him in three to four hours to give him an update. You make sure he has your contact information in case he has questions or thinks of more information he would like you to know.
