Tests and Measurements Test 2
When comparing cardiorespiratory fitness levels of individuals differing in body size, it is best to look at the relative values rather than the absolute values. a. True b. False
A
When the resistance is less than the muscle force, what is the result? a. concentric contraction b. eccentric contraction c. isometric contraction d. static contraction e. both c and d
A
Describe how to distribute intense workouts when there is one peak per week, two peaks per week, and three peaks per week.
1 per week: middle of week; 2 peak: separate with 2 or less-intensity workouts; 3 peak: separate with low intense days
Describe the steps taken in planning a periodized program.
1. determine multi-year training objectives 2. establish the annual training plan 3. break each macrocycle into phases and subphases 4. establish mesocycle structures 5. determine individual training day 6. plan the training session
What are the characteristics of the accumulation phase of training?
1. high training volumes and loads 2. tends to create the longest training residents 3. highest level of fatigue 4. elevates general fitness 5. provides training base for subsequent blocks
1. Cardiorespiratory Assessment What is the criterion measure or gold standard of cardiorespiratory fitness? a. directly measured maximal oxygen uptake ( ) b. time to complete a 1-mile run c. number of 12-inch steps that can be completed in 3 minutes d. heart rate at the conclusion of a 3-minute step test e. maximal power output during a 30-second sprint on a bike ergometer
A
13. The general preparation phase should focus on A) developing the fitness base. B) specialized work. C) correcting deficiencies. D) peaking for competition.
A
As the speed of joint rotation increases, the muscular force decreases. a. True b. False
A
1RM testing is contraindicated for children (<12 years) and older adults (>60 years). a. True b. False
B
A braking force that resists gravity or decelerates a rapidly moving body segment best describes what muscle action? a. concentric contraction b. eccentric contraction c. isokinetic contraction d. isometric contraction
B
A circuit resistance training program will likely produce the same increase in aerobic capacity as traditional modes of aerobic training (e.g., cycling, running). a. True b. False
B
A measuring stick placed at the height of the client's acromion process is used for which test? a. Star excursion test b. functional reach test c. Romberg test d. modified Romberg test e. timed up and go test
B
A track athlete who competes in both an indoor and outdoor season would use what type of annual training plan structure? A) Monocycle B) Bicycle C) Tricycle D) Quadrennial training plan
B
Although they are popular gym activities that improve muscular endurance, Pilates, yoga, and tai chi are not likely to improve balance or reduce the risk of falling. a. True b. False
B
On the average, discontinuous exercise tests take ___ times longer to administer than do continuous tests. a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
B
Which of the following would be an indication to terminate a graded exercise test before the client reaches the predetermined end point? a. failure of diastolic blood pressure to increase with increasing workload b. failure of heart rate to increase with increasing workload c. client has a red face d. respiratory exchange ratio (RER) goes above 0.95 e. none; always go to the predetermined end point regardless of what is taking place
B
Which subphase is used to translate basic fitness characteristics into more sport-specific fitness, motor abilities, and technical abilities by using periods of higher-volume training coupled with periods of high-intensity training? A) General preparatory B) Specific preparatory C) Precompetitive D) Main competitive
B
Which two exercises are included in the Senior Fitness Tests (Rikli and Jones) to assess the functional muscular fitness of older adults (60-94 yr)? a. arm curl and leg curl b. arm curl and 30 sec chair stand c. bench press and squat d. 30 sec shoulder abduction and 30 sec lunge e. upright row with 1-gallon water jugs and repeated squat to collect coins from the floor
B
_______________ exercise dynamometers provide an accommodating resistance that adjusts to both the force and velocity output of the individual a. ballistic b. omnikinetic c. isokinetic d. free lever
B
1 MET is equal to approximately a. 3.5 ml/min b. 3.5 L/min c. 3.5 ml/kg/min d. 3.5 kcal e. 3.5 kcal/min
C
According to the exercise modality classification system presented in the text, cross-country skiing would be in what category? a. type A b. type B c. type C d. type D
C
Exercise volume can be quantified as calories/week (kcal/week) of energy expenditure. The ACSM recommends a minimal aerobic exercise volume of _____ kcal/week. a. 300 b. 500 c. 1,000 d. 2,500 e. 5,000
C
Power outputs on cycle ergometers are often reported in both kilogram-meters per minute and watts. One watt is equivalent to approximately how many kilogram-meters per minute? a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 10 e. 12
C
Using Brzycki's prediction equation, estimate a male client's 1RM if he was able to perform three bench presses with 210 pounds. a. 212 pounds b. 219 pounds c. 222 pounds d. 265 pounds
C
Which of the following would be best for measuring the functional ability of older clients? a. Romberg test b. modified Romberg test c. timed up and go test d. Star excursion test
C
Cable tensiometers and strain gauges are associated with which mode of strength measurement? a. dynamic constant resistance b. dynamic variable resistance c. isokinetic d. static
D
If your client has a VO2max of 12 METS and wants to train at an intensity of 70% of VO2R , her training target MET value is a. 6.8 b. 7.2 c. 8.4 d. 8.7 e. 9.4
D
A spotter should be used for all of the following exercises except a. flat bench press b. incline press c. dumbbell shoulder press d. overhead triceps press with dumbbell e. power clean
E
For exercise performed at the same perceived exertion, which exercise mode produced the highest steady-state heart rate, total oxygen consumption, and rate of energy expenditure? a. cycling b. Nordic skiing c. rowing d. stair climbing e. treadmill jogging
E
Explain the steps for 1RM testing.
FIND
________________ training refers to loosely structured training generally performed on cross-country trails.
Fartlek training
FITT-VP Principle
Frequency Intensity Type Time Volume Progression
What would be an argument against excessive continuous training (for example, three to five times the competition distance)?
Going more than 3-5 times
List and describe the variables that can be manipulated during interval training.
Intensity, duration, length of recovery, number of repetitions
_____________ training allows for a significant quantity of normally exhaustive exercise to be performed.
Interval
Describe the summated microcycle model of periodization.
It is a method of sequencing and integrating training variation into the periodized plan
Why might the classic model of periodization be disadvantageous when working with intermediate and advanced athletes?
It may not maximize the physiological and performance adaptations required by those athletes
______________ refers to the maximum rate at which an individual can consume oxygen.
Maximal oxygen consumption
The ability to use ___________ efficiently can have a huge impact on endurance performance.
Oxygen
Generally, ___________________are structured for the preparation of Olympic athletes but also are used for the development of both high school and collegiate athletes.
Quadrennial plan
___________ are a more intense version of interval training.
Repetitions
Typically, an 8- to 14-day _____________is constructed at the end of the precompetitive subphase to stimulate a supercompensation of both preparedness and performance
Taper
What are the general goals of using a periodized training plan?
The plan variation in volume and intensity of training to promote maximal performance at the desired time and decrease the chance of overtraining
Why is strength training important for distance athletes?
To make sure they could kick at the end. Need things like leg strength to power through to the end.
An individual __________________can contain one or more interconnected training session(s) constructed to meet the goals and demands established by the microcycle.
Training day
The smallest training unit is the individual __________________.
Training day
Though ___________________is a key component of a periodized training program, it should never be applied randomly or excessively.
Variation
Aerobic endurance may improve as much as _____ during the first month, _____ during the second month, and _____ or less thereafter. a. 5% per week; 4% per week; 3% per week b. 5% per day; 4% per day; 3% per day c. 3 % per week; 2% per week; 1% per week d. 3% per day; 2% per day; 1% per day
A
Dynamic strength is measured only at the weakest point in the joint's range of motion when using free weights. a. True b. False
A
For moderate exercise intensities, heart rate is linearly related to VO2max . a. True b. False
A
For those in the improvement stage of aerobic conditioning, it is recommended that exercise duration or exercise frequency be increased before attempting to increase exercise intensity. a. True b. False
A
Free weights are best used to assess which mode of strength? a. dynamic constant resistance b. dynamic variable resistance c. isokinetic d. static
A
Free weights are recommended over variable-resistance machines for determining dynamic 1RM. a. True b. False
A
Isokinetic tests of strength require a slower velocity setting than isokinetic tests of power. a. True b. False
A
Maximal oxygen consumption is limited by A) cardiac output. B) pulmonary function. C) cellular metabolism. D) cardiac output, pulmonary function, and cellular metabolism.
A
Moderate intensity is defined as _____ METS. a. 3-6 b. 6-8 c. 7-9 d. 10-12 e. METS should not be used to classify exercise intensity.
A
Muscular strength can be predicted from muscular endurance tests with a reasonable degree of accuracy. a. True b. False
A
Pedaling rate (rpm) does not have to remain constant on an electrically braked cycle ergometer in order to maintain a given power output. a. True b. False
A
Perturbation-based balance training appears to be more beneficial than traditional static and dynamic balance training for improving reactive balance and reducing the risk of falling. a. True b. False
A
Research suggests that balance training will help to prevent falls in older adults and reduce the risk of ankle sprains in athletes. a. True b. False
A
Standing on a high-density foam pad with the eyes closed is more difficult than the standard Romberg test. a. True b. False
A
Talk tests (the ability to talk while exercising) are related to ventilatory threshold and have been validated as a method for assessing cardiorespiratory exercise intensity. a. True b. False
A
The ACSM metabolic equations allow for the estimation of for steady-state work but should not be used to estimate . a. True b. False
A
The Wii balance board has produced valid and reliable measures of dynamic balance. a. True b. False
A
The annual training plan is often used interchangeably with the term: A) macrocycle. B) mesocycle. C) microcycle. D) quadrennial training plan.
A
The exercise intensity at 60% of heart rate reserve (HRR) is thought to be the same as the exercise intensity at 60% of reserve ( ). a. True b. False
A
The greatest conditioning improvements occur in the first 6 to 8 weeks of an aerobic exercise program. a. True b. False
A
The maximum rate that an individual can consume oxygen is A) maximal oxygen consumption. B) lactate threshold. C) glycogen utilization. D) economy of movement.
A
The most widely used distance run tests are the _______minute runs and the ____mile runs. a. 9- and 12-; 1.0- and 1.5- b. 9- and 12-; 1.5- and 3.0- c. 8- and 10-; 1.0- and 1.5- d. 10- and 15-; 1.5- and 3.0-
A
The quantity of physical activity needed for achieving health benefits or reducing risk of illness is _____ the amount of activity typically prescribed when the goal is to make substantial improvements to cardiorespiratory fitness. a. less than b. more than c. equal to d. unrelated to
A
The relative height of the center of gravity is typically lower in women compared to men. a. True b. False
A
The risk of a graded maximal cardiorespiratory exercise test being fatal in the general population is less than 1 in 10,000. a. True b. False
A
True or False? Fartlek training has been a mainstay of endurance training for decades. A) True B) False
A
True or False? In a periodized training program, only the volume and intensity should be varied. A) True B) False
A
True or False? It is generally accepted that training days that contain multiple smaller training sessions result in a greater training effect and allow for a greater level of training variation. A) True B) False
A
True or False? Once strength is increased, the potential to develop power and speed characteristics is enhanced. A) True B) False
A
What is defined as the maximal force generated in a single contraction at a specified velocity? a. strength for dynamic movements b. muscular power c. strength for isotonic contractions d. maximum voluntary isometric contraction
A
What is the first step in the process of making a periodized training plan? A) Determine the multiyear training objectives. B) Establish the annual training plan. C) Break each macrocycle into phases. D) Break the annual training plan into macrocycles.
A
What phase of training is used to elevate or maintain the physiological and sport-specific skills developed in the previous phase of training while concurrently increasing the athlete's level of preparedness and performance at key time points established in the annual training plan? A) Competitive phase B) Transition phase C) Preparatory phase D) Realization phase
A
When a person has three intense workouts a week, these should be separated by A) low-intensity workouts. B) moderate-intensity workouts. C) high-intensity workouts. D) moderate- to high-intensity workouts.
A
Which balance model states that balance control is adaptive and that the brain works in conjunction with the visual, somatosensory, and vestibular systems to maintain balance? a. dynamic model b. hierarchical model c. reflex model d. static model
A
Which exercise mode is probably least appropriate for a sedentary individual who is just beginning an aerobic exercise program? a. rope skipping b. stationary cycling c. elliptical training d. walking and jogging e. stair climbing machine
A
Which is used to compare fitness levels of individuals differing in body size? a. relative b. net c. gross d. absolute
A
Which mesocycle structure is designed to develop an overall fitness base with the use of substantial workloads that target basic athletic abilities such as muscular strength, anaerobic endurance, or aerobic endurance? A) Accumulation B) Transmutation C) Realization D) Transition
A
Which of the following are general indications for terminating a graded exercise test in low-risk adults? I. client's request to stop II. drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than 5 mmHg from baseline blood pressure despite an increase in workload III. red face or excessive perspiration IV. heart rate increase of more than 10 beats per minute with increased intensity from prior test stage a. I and II only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and IV only d. II, III, and IV only
A
Which of the following is false and therefore not a limitation or concern when using heart rate to assess exercise intensity? a. Wireless chest-strap heart rate monitors frequently give erroneous heart rate values. b. The prediction of 220 minus age for maximal heart rate can lead to large errors in the calculation of exercise intensity. c. Maximal heart rate varies a bit with exercise mode. d. Heart rate can be affected by various environmental factors such as altitude and heat. e. Heart rate increases as exercise intensity increases.
A
Which of the following is not a benefit of performing repetitions? A) Enhanced maximal oxygen consumption B) Increased speed C) Enhanced capacity for anaerobic metabolism D) Enhanced tolerance to anaerobic metabolism
A
Which of the following is not an indication to terminate a graded exercise test before the client reaches the predetermined endpoint? a. rise in systolic blood pressure with each stage b. angina c. symptoms of poor perfusion d. failure of equipment e. client requests to stop
A
Which of the following is not true about the direct (laboratory) method of balance assessment? a. makes use of global positioning system (GPS) technology to track small movements in the body b. provides data about postural sway and weight distribution c. derives anteroposterior and mediolateral coordinates of center of pressure d. uses a computerized force plate with multiple force transducers to quantify vertical pressure e. generally is costly
A
Which of the following steps are recommended for 1RM testing of children? a. Have the child perform 6 reps with a light load and 3 reps with heavier load before testing. b. Have the child warm up by performing 5 minutes of low-intensity aerobic exercise. c. The 1RM is typically achieved within 3 to 5 trials. d. Adjust the adult-sized exercise machines to the smallest setting.
A
Which of the following tests was developed to estimate the aerobic capacity of children and therefore would be most appropriate and likely most accurate for estimating the of a 12-year-old? a. multistage 20-meter shuttle run b. Queens College step test c. 6-minute walking test d. YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test e. Concept II rowing ergometer test
A
Which of the following tools are used to measure static muscular strength? I. dynamometers II. barbells III. strain gauges IV. dumbbells a. I and III b. II and IV c. II, III, and IV d. I, II, and III
A
Which phase of training typically lasts 2 to 4 weeks and is designed to refresh the athlete physically and mentally while performing a significantly reduced training load that targets the maintenance of fitness and minimizes the emphasis on sport specific skills? A) Transition phase B) Preparatory phase C) Competitive phase D) Realization phase
A
Which statement is correct regarding the submaximal treadmill exercise tests? I. can be predicted using both the single-stage and multistage model. II. Submaximal tests assume a linear increase in heart rate with successive increments in workload. III. Individuals who are well conditioned perform a greater amount of work at a given submaximal heart rate than those with low cardiorespiratory fitness levels. IV. The multistage model is much more accurate than the single-stage model of submaximal testing. a. I, II, and III only b. II, III, and IV only c. I and IV only d. II and IV only
A
Which subphase has a primary focus of establishing a general physical training base by utilizing a large variety of training means that target the development of general fitness and motor abilities or skills that are undertaken for relatively higher volumes and lower intensities? A) General preparatory B) Specific preparatory C) Precompetitive D) Main competitive
A
How long should the client squeeze the handle of a dynamometer during a grip endurance test? a. once, as hard as possible without any extraneous movement b. once, as hard as possible with three separate trials c. 30 seconds d. 1 minute
B
Prescribing exercise intensity using heart rate data is based on which assumption for all three approaches? a. Men and women have a different heart rate maximum at the same age. b. The higher the intensity of exercise, the higher the heart rate. c. Men and women have the same heart rate maximum at the same age. d. The lower the intensity of the exercise, the longer the duration needs to be.
B
Tension developed in the muscle while the muscle is lengthening defines a. concentric contraction b. eccentric contraction c. isometric contraction d. isokinetic peak torque e. muscular strength
B
The %HRmax method tends to give a higher value than the %HRR method for a given intensity. a. True b. False
B
The OMNI scale is an alternative to blood pressure measurements during a graded exercise test. a. True b. False
B
The YMCA bench press test is an example of a. dynamic muscular strength b. dynamic muscular endurance c. isokinetic muscular strength d. isokinetic muscular endurance e. static muscular endurance
B
Handgrip dynamometers can be used to assess I. dynamic muscular strength II. dynamic muscular endurance III. static muscular strength IV. static muscular endurance V. isokinetic strength a. I and II b. III and IV c. I and III d. V e. I, II, III, and IV
B
The difference in strength between the right and left sides of the body should be no more than a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
B
High-intensity interval training may be better suited for ____________ and ______________. I. stimulating short-term (e.g., 4-week) improvements II. adding variety to the exercise program III. maintaining exercise adherence for the general population IV. individuals initiating an aerobic exercise program a. II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and IV
B
29. Why would it be important to focus on continuous and fartlek training at the beginning of a training year?
At beginning of the year, build aerobic base/fitness base
An individual with excellent cardiorespiratory fitness should have a higher heart rate at a given submaximal workload compared to an individual with poor cardiorespiratory fitness. a. True b. False
B
Continuous training is designed to increase an athlete's A) sense of race pace. B) maximal oxygen consumption. C) ability to tolerate lactic acid. D) ability to recover from lactic acid.
B
During which stage of exercise progression is the rate of progression more rapid and the frequency progressed from 3 to 5 days/wk? a. initial conditioning b. improvement c. performance enhancement d. maintenance
B
For most apparently healthy individuals, which exercise intensity range is recommended for improving cardiorespiratory fitness? a. 30 to 40% of b. 55 to 80% of c. 75 to 95% of d. 50 to 60% of HRmax e. RPE of 17 to 19
B
The improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness are substantially greater when aerobic exercise is performed in a continuous training bout (without rest intervals) compared to a discontinuous training bout (exercise interspersed with rest intervals) of equal intensity and total work output. a. True b. False
B
The maximal test duration (maximal score) for the unipedal stance test is 60 seconds. a. True b. False
B
The muscle balance ratio for all agonist and antagonist muscle groupings in the body (e.g., elbow extensors and flexors, knee extensors and flexors) is 1:1. a. True b. False
B
The optimal duration to reach using a continuous protocol GXT should be _____ to _____ minutes (excluding client preparation and cool-down). a. 3; 5 b. 8; 12 c. 15; 18 d. 18; 22 e. 25; 30
B
The postural stress test is a. one of the Romberg tests b. an example of a reactive balance test c. one portion of the computerized dynamic posturography test battery d. a direct measure of dynamic balance e. extremely costly
B
The warm-up should start with static stretching. a. True b. False
B
The Åstrand-Rhyming protocol I. is a multistage cycle ergometer submaximal exercise test II. uses an age-correction factor to adjust the predicted of clients younger or older than age 25 III. involves one 6-minute submaximal workload IV. uses a nomogram to predict from heart rate response a. I, II, and IV only b. II, III, and IV only c. II and IV only d. I and IV only
B
There is very little interindividual variability in HRmax among people of the same age. a. True b. False
B
True or False? As a whole, the general loading paradigm across the macrocycle moves from higher intensity during the preparatory phase toward higher volume training during the competitive phase. A) True B) False
B
True or False? Interval training is also known as long, slow distance training and overdistance training. A) True B) False
B
True or False? Maximal oxygen consumption refers to the speed of movement at which blood lactate increases above resting. A) True B) False
B
True or False? The smallest and most basic training structure is the mesocycle. A) True B) False
B
True or False? Theoretically, individuals with a higher percentage of type I muscle fibers will perform better at endurance tasks. A) True B) False
B
True or False? Today the thinking is that static stretching should be performed before aerobic exercise sessions to improve performance. A) True B) False
B
Using the 10-point RPE scale, which range corresponds to moderate intensity? a. 4-5 b. 5-6 c. 7-8 d. 8-9 e. RPE should not be used for assessing exercise intensity.
B
VO2max can be increased with short-duration, high-intensity interval training (HIT); however, this popular training method is not effective at reducing CHD risk factors. a. True b. False
B
What is the ability of a muscle group to exert submaximal force for extended periods? a. muscular agility b. muscular endurance c. muscular strength d. muscular acceleration
B
What is the one disadvantage to the side bridge test? a. The test may need to be modified for those with back pain. b. The test may be terminated due to upper-extremity fatigue or pain. c. The participant may be able to hold the position for longer than the norms. d. The tester may not be able to determine if the participant is keeping the torso horizontal.
B
What is the target volume of exercise for adults as recommended by ACSM in MET min/wk? a. 150 to 400 b. 500-1,000 c. 1,500 to 3,500 d. greater than 5,000
B
When a person has only one intense workout a week, that workout should fall A) at the beginning of the week. B) at the middle of the week. C) at the end of the week. D) at the beginning or end of the week.
B
When choosing an alternative field test, which test is the least preferable? a. walking test b. 12-minute swim test c. 12-minute cycling test d. step test
B
When is it suitable or practical to estimate 1RM? a. when the client is able to easily lift over 200 pounds b. if the client is unaccustomed to lifting heavy loads c. if the client will take longer than 5 minutes to complete the test d. when the client is 18 years of age or younger
B
When performing a biceps curl with a constant resistance (e.g., 25 pounds), the tension produced by the biceps brachii is constant throughout the range of motion. a. True b. False
B
When there is no visible movement at the joint, the contraction is called a. concentric b. isometric c. isotonic d. isokinetic
B
Which microcycle structure contains sudden increases in training load applied in conjunction with high training volumes and has the potential to induce specific physiological and performance gains? A) Ordinary B) Shock C) Precompetitive D) Competitive
B
Which of the following are considered advantages to multimodal exercise programs? I. increased likelihood of incorporating physical activity and exercise into the individual's lifestyle II. improved skill of one particular activity increasing an individual's sense of self-determination III. better understanding of how an individual's body responds to exercise IV. greater likelihood of engaging in a safe and effective exercise program a. I, II, and III only b. I, III, and IV only c. I and IV only d. II and IV only
B
Which of the following best describes fartlek training? A) Lower-intensity training performed for long periods of time B) Loosely structured training that alternates between fast, intense running and slower recovery jogs C) Training that allows for a greater quantity of normally exhausting training to be performed D) High-intensity interval training
B
Which of the following is a major advantage of interval training in endurance athletes? A) Interval training does not cause overtraining. B) Interval training allows the athlete to train at a higher total workload. C) Interval training is physiologically more specific to endurance events. D) Interval training does not cause overtraining, allows the athlete to train at a higher total workload, and is physiologically more specific to endurance events.
B
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the realization phase? A) Reduced training loads B) Elevates general fitness C) Elevates performance levels D) Induces recovery
B
Which of the following statements regarding discontinuous training are correct? I. ACSM recommends the use of discontinuous training for symptomatic individuals who are able to tolerate only low-intensity exercise for short periods. II. Exercise modes listed as type A, type B, type C, or type D are suitable for discontinuous training. III. Because of the intermittent nature of this form of training, the exercise intensity and total amount of work performed can be greater than with continuous training. IV. Discontinuous training is a versatile method that is widely used with athletes. a. II, III, and IV only b. I, III, and IV only c. III and IV only d. I and II only
B
Which of the following statements regarding submaximal cycle ergometer exercise testing are correct? I. The heart rate response to submaximal workloads is used to predict . II. The test needs to be continuous for an accurate measurement. III. Multistage submaximal tests can be used to predict the . IV. The test is based on the assumption that heart rate and oxygen uptake are linear functions of work rate. a. I, II, and III only b. I, III, and IV only c. II and IV only d. II and III only
B
How is VO2R calculated? a. It is equivalent to . b. x 0.85 c. VO2max - VO2rest d. + e. HRmax -
C
It is recommended that recreational sports (e.g., basketball, soccer, racket sports) be incorporated into the aerobic exercise program at what stage of conditioning? a. initial conditioning stage b. improvement stage c. maintenance stage d. Recreational sports should be part of every stage of conditioning. e. Recreational sports are not part of the aerobic exercise program.
C
Maintaining balance after tripping over an object is an example of _____ balance. a. dynamic b. functional c. reactive d. static
C
Maximal contraction of a muscle group at a constant velocity throughout the entire range of joint motion defines a. muscular strength b. muscular endurance c. isokinetic contraction d. isotonic contraction e. static contraction
C
Most endurance programs focus on what type of training for the first part of the training year? A) Repetition B) Interval C) Continuous/fartlek D) Sprint/interval
C
Preseason games would occur during which phase of the annual training plan? A) General preparatory B) Specific preparatory C) Precompetitive D) Main competitive
C
The MET method should be used along with what other two methods in order to ensure that exercise intensity does not exceed safe limits? I. heart rate II. heart rate maximum III. blood pressure IV. rating of perceived exercise a. I, II, and IV only b. I, II, and III only c. I and IV only d. III and IV only
C
The most widely used field tests to estimate that involve running or walking cover what distance? a. 400 meters b. 800 meters c. 1 mile to 1.5 miles d. 5 km e. 10 km
C
The test battery for an 18-year-old male includes which of the following strength tests? I. knee extension II. shoulder extension III. ankle plantar flexion IV. elbow flexion a. I and IV only b. III and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. I, II, and IV only
C
The total rate of energy expenditure (gross ) during steady-state treadmill walking or running is a function of which three components? a. resting energy expenditures, sex, and incline b. metabolic baseline expenditures, work rate, and grade c. grade, resting energy expenditures, and speed d. speed, body weight, and age
C
To progress from the initial stage to the improvement stage of cardiorespiratory conditioning, clients should be able to sustain what intensity and duration of aerobic activity? a. 40% HRR for 20 minutes b. 40% HRR for 30 minutes c. 60% HRR for 30 minutes d. 40% HRmax for 20 minutes e. 60% HRmax for 30 minutes
C
What is the best recommendation about exercise frequency that could be given to an individual who is able to exercise only 5 to 10 minutes at a time? a. Perform at least four sessions daily for any benefit from aerobic exercise. b. Perform exercise 7 days a week until able to consistently and continuously exercise for at least 20 minutes at a time. c. Perform multiple sessions (two or three 10-minute sessions) in a given day to accumulate 20 to 30 minutes of aerobic exercise. d. Perform at the highest intensity possible for the full exercise time.
C
What is the risk of increasing training volume by too much too quickly? A) Overuse injuries B) Burnout C) Overtraining D) There are no risks
C
Which of the following is a correct guideline for the use of cycle ergometers? a. Establish pedaling frequency after setting the workload. b. Adjust the height of the seat so the knee is flexed to about 15 degrees at maximal leg extension with the ball of the foot on the pedal. c. Check the load setting frequently during the test because it may change as the belt warms up. d. Set the metronome so that one revolution is completed for every beat.
C
Which of the following is not a variable that can be manipulated during interval training? A) Intensity B) Duration of the exercise interval C) Frequency of training D) Number of repetitions
C
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 1-mile jogging test? I. It is a submaximal 1-mile track jogging test for 18- to 29-year-old women and men. II. It requires only moderate steady-state exertion. III. Record the time required to jog 1 mile in minutes and measure postexercise heart rates using the palpation technique. IV. The postexercise heart rate should not exceed 170 beats per minute. a. I and IV only b. II and III only c. I, II, and III only d. I, III, and IV only
C
Which of the following terms is unrelated to continuous training? A) Long slow distance B) Overdistance C) Sprint/interval training D) Aerobic threshold
C
Which of the following units of measure is (are) used for quantifying absolute ? I. L·min-1 II. ml·min-1 III. ml·kg-1·min-1 IV. ml·kg·FFM-1·min-1 a. I b. III c. I and II d. III and IV e. I, II, III, and IV
C
Which of the following would be an appropriate interval duration to enhance one's ability to store and use glycogen in the absence of oxygen? A) 10 minutes B) 5 minutes C) 1 minute D) 5 seconds
C
Which test does the ACSM recommend using to assess upper-body endurance? a. pull-up b. bench press c. push-up d. static arm hold
C
Which type of endurance activities require both skill and average physical fitness levels? a. type A b. type B c. type C d. type D
C
During a graded exercise test, what other criteria may be used to indicate the attainment of a true ? a. rating of perceived exertion (RPE) greater than 15 using the original Borg scale (6-20) b. respiratory exchange ratio (RER) lower than 1.15 c. venous lactate concentration exceeding 6 mmol/L d. failure of the heart rate to increase with increased exercise intensity
D
For coronary heart disease (CHD) screening and classification purposes, what minimal intensity should be attained during a graded exercise test (GXT)? a. No GXT is needed; CHD screening and risk classification can be determined from resting data. b. 50% of c. 70% of age-predicted maximal heart rate d. 85% of age-predicted maximal heart rate e. It is mandatory to have a maximal effort (100% ) for CHD screening and risk classification.
D
The Romberg tests measure a. functional balance while picking up objects b. dynamic balance while walking c. dynamic balance while riding a bicycle d. static balance while standing e. reactive balance while dodging balls
D
The density or number of training sessions contained within each day is largely dependent upon: A) the athlete's level of development. B) the time allotted for training. C) the goals established by the training plan. D) the athlete's level of development, the time allotted for training, and the goals established by the training plan.
D
What fitness category would a 25-year-old female be in if she had the following scores in the dynamic muscular endurance battery test? Arm curl = 12 reps; bench press = 15 reps; lat pull-down = 10 reps; triceps extension = 10 reps; leg extension = 14 reps; leg curl = 12 reps; bent-knee sit-ups = 10 reps. a. poor b. fair c. good d. very good
D
What is the correct order and time period for the stages of progression in an exercise program? a. initial conditioning (1 to 4 weeks), improvement (4 to 6 weeks), and maintenance (8 weeks and beyond) b. initial conditioning (1 to 6 weeks), performance enhancement (4 to 8 weeks), and preservation (lifetime commitment) c. initial training (1 to 4 weeks), ramped progression (2 to 4 months), plateau (6 to 8 months), and maintenance (regular long-term basis) d. initial conditioning (1 to 6 weeks), improvement (4 to 8 months), and maintenance (regular long-term basis) `
D
What is the final step in the process of making a periodized training plan? A) Establish the mesocycle structures B) Determine the microcycle structures C) Design the individual training day D) Plan the training session
D
What is the target heart rate for a 44-year-old client with a resting HR of 71 bpm exercising at 65% of HRR? a. 97 b. 114 c. 126 d. 139 e. 176
D
What phase of the aerobic exercise program is performed between the warm-up and cool-down? a. endurance conditioning (20-60 min) and stretching (10 min or greater) b. stretching (5-10 minutes) c. endurance conditioning (30-45 min) and stretching (10-15 min) d. endurance conditioning (20-60 min)
D
Which mesocycle is 2 to 4 weeks in duration and is designed to translate the adaptations and skills developed in the preceding block into sport-specific characteristics that allow for the elevation of preparedness? A) Accumulation B) Realization C) Transition D) Transmutation
D
Which of the following are disadvantages to using free weights for testing dynamic muscle strength? I. They require a greater need for spotting for safety and proper technique. II. They measure strength only at the weakest point in the range of motion. III. They require more neuromuscular coordination to stabilize body parts. IV. They do not have small enough weight increments to measure strength accurately. a. I, II, and IV only b. II, III, and IV only c. I and III only d. II and III only
D
Which of the following correctly match the exercise with the activity type? a. slow dancing (type A); in-line skating (type B); simulated climbing (type C); basketball (type D) b. walking (type A); aqua aerobics (type B); Nordic skiing (type C); bench step aerobics (type D) c. aqua aerobics (type A); aerobic dancing (type B); rowing (type C); handball (type D) d. cycling indoors (type A); running (type B); swimming (type C); hiking (type D)
D
Which of the following is a benefit of interval training? It teaches race pace. It can improve anaerobic metabolism. It can enhance maximal oxygen consumption. It teaches race pace, can improve anaerobic metabolism, and can enhance maximal oxygen consumption.
D
Which of the following is a benefit of using a ramp protocol? a. The maximum work rate for each client must be predetermined. b. plateaus are frequently observed. c. The increments in work rate are much higher for the sedentary population. d. It is designed to be performed in 10 minutes.
D
Which of the following statements are correct regarding bench stepping exercise tests? I. Bench stepping is the least desirable mode of maximal exercise testing. II. To increase the intensity of the work, the only option is to gradually increase the height of the bench. III. The positive (step-up) work phase expends approximately one-quarter to one-third less energy than during the negative (step-down) phase. IV. Total gross is a function of step frequency, step height, and resting energy expenditure. a. I and IV only b. I and II only c. II, III, and IV only d. I, II, and IV only
D
Which of the following statements regarding aerobic bench stepping is correct? I. Bench heights ranging from 6 to 12 inches provide an adequate stimulus for aerobic training. II. Individuals who are shorter or obese may be exercising at a higher training intensity than recommended, especially when using higher benches. III. Using 2- to 4-pound hand weights results in a greater improvement in VO2max than step training without hand weights. IV. After 8 to 12 weeks of step aerobic training, improves as much as 25%. a. I, III, and IV only b. II, III, and IV only c. II and III only d. I and II only
D
Which resistance modality is used when an increase in muscular force production through a range of motion results in an increase in resistance rather than an increase in limb acceleration? a. free weight b. constant-resistance exercise machine c. static dynamometer d. isokinetic dynamometer
D
Which subphase is designed with the express purpose of elevating the athlete's overall levels of preparedness and optimizing competitive performance and culminates with the primary competition or tournament contained in the macrocycle? A) Precompetitive B) Specific preparatory C) General preparatory D) Main competitive
D
Variable-resistance machines a. are electromechanical devices that control the velocity of limb rotation (e.g., 120º/sec) b. use hydraulics to create resistance c. use springs, strain gauges, and load cells to measure force production d. match the natural force-velocity curve that is observed with free weights e. attempt to eliminate the sticking point during a lift by using a cam or pulley
E
Which of the following is an indirect (field) measure of static balance? a. Biodex Stability System testing b. NeuroCom limits of stability test c. Star excursion balance test d. timed up-and-go test e. unipedal stance test
E
Which of the following is not an assumption for a submaximal exercise test to provide a valid estimate of ? a. The maximal heart rate for clients of a given age is similar. b. There is a linear relationship between heart rate and . c. Steady-state heart rate is achieved at each workload. d. All individuals have similar mechanical efficiency for the mode of exercise. e. Resting heart rates are similar among individuals.
E
Which of the following is not true regarding balance training programs? a. Balance should be trained at least 2 times per week. b. Dynamic movements that challenge the center of gravity (e.g., circle turns) should be included. c. Exercises should stress the postural muscles. d. Perform exercises that reduce sensory input. e. The majority of exercises require a partner.
E
Which test would be most appropriate for assessing the dynamic postural control of a collegiate soccer player? a. gait velocity test b. timed up and go test c. unipedal stance test d. Romberg test e. Star excursion balance test
E
