Tutored Pharmacy Exam 2
Which of the following is proof of receipt of Class II controlled substances?
!! Third copy of DEA Form 222C is used for Class II drugs, along with the original commercial invoice.
A compounded prescription required using 10 capsules costing $40.00 per 60 capsules and 120 gm of an ointment base costing $8.00 per pound. If a $5.00 dispensing fee is included, how much should the patient be charged?
$13.77
The markup for a $36.75 vial of antibiotic is 18%. What is the retail price for this medication
$43.37
What volume of pediatric digoxin injection 0.1 mg/ml is required for a 50 mcg dose?
0.5
What volume of pediatric digoxin injection 0.1 mg/ml is required for a 75 mcg dose
0.75
Digoxin is available in a concentration of 0.1 mg/ml. How many ml are required to administer a 75 mcg dose?
0.75 ml.
What volume of pediatric digoxin injection 0.1 mg/ml is required for a 75 mcg dose?
0.75ml
Normal Saline (N.S.) contains:
0.9% NaCl
The concentration of Lasix is 20 mg/2.5 ml. What volume would be required for an 8 mg dose?
1 ml
If a prescription for Fosamax states "refill prn", for how long may this RX be refilled?
1 year.
The infusion rate of an I.V. is over 12 hours. The total exact volume is 800 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute?
1.11
Heparin is available in a vial labeled 10,000U/ml. How many ml are required for a 12,500U dose?
1.25 ml.
The infusion rate of an I.V. is over 12 hours. The total exact volume is 1000 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute
1.39 per min
What volume of a 125 mg/ml injectable should be drawn up for a 175 mg dose?
1.4 ml
45 ml is equivalent to how many fluid ounces
1.5 oz
What is the resultant percentage concentration when 30 gms of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 2 liters of solution
1.5%
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many ml's of Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 cc do you need?
1.5ml
A third-party insurance program reimburses a pharmacy at 85% of the AWP, plus a $2.00 dispensing fee. If the acquisition cost of a drug is $8.50 and the AWP is $10.00, how much will the pharmacy be reimbursed for the prescription
10.50
The doctor writes for Aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250 mg/5 ml. How much would be needed for the treatment?
100 ml.
Regular U-100 insulin contains:
100 units per 1 ml.
A formula for a cough syrup contains 60 mg of codeine per fluid ounce. How many mg are contained in one teaspoonful?
10mg
The Technician receives an order for KCl 15 mEq PO bid. What volume of KCl elixir containing 40 mEq/30 ml will be required to deliver a single dose
11.25 ml.
A third party insurance program pays for only a 14 day supply of Skelaxin. If the directions for use read "i - ii tabs po tid-qid", what is the maximum allowed quantity to be dispensed?
112 tablets.
If the manufacturer's expiration date for a drug is 12/03, the drug is considered okay to dispense until which date
12/31/03.
A 1000-ml bag of D5W 1/2 NS is to infuse over 8 hours. What is the flow rate of the infusion?
125 ml/hr
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution
126 ml
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
126 ml of 95%
The initial dose of Theophylline for an adult is 0.8 mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of an IV solution containing 800 mg per 100 ml would be required for a 250 lb male over this 12 hour period?
136 ml
Reconstituted Ceclor is stable in the refrigerator for:
14 days.
What is the definition of "controlled room temperature"?
15 - 30 degrees Centigrade.
To prepare 400 ml of a 40% (w/v) solution of sodium bicarbonate, how many grams of solute are needed
160gm
Fentanyl has a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. How many milliliters do you need for a 800-mcg dose
16ml
Fentanyl has a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. How many milliliters do you need for a 800-mcg dose?
16ml
How many gallons are contained in 144 pints
18 gallons
Opiates or Narcotics are generally found in what schedule:
2
What household measurement is 30 ml?
2 tablespoonfuls.
You receive an order for Kaopectate 30 ml bid prn. How many tablespoonful is one dose equal to?
2 tablespoons
Assuming that one-pint is equal to 473 ml., how many pints can be found in one liter?
2.1 pints
Mr. Smith receives and I.V. infusion order for KCl 20 mEq in 1000 ml of NaCl 0.9% to be infused at 125 ml/hr. What amount of KCl will Mr. Smith receive per hour?
2.5 mEq.
If 75 gm's of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 3 liters of sterile water, what is the resultant percentage strength of the solution?
2.5%
How many 100 mg tablets will be needed to make 1/2 liter of 1:250 solution
20 tablets.
How many 100 mg tablets will be needed to make 500 cc of 1:250 solution
20 tabs
The pharmacy technician is asked to divide 5 liters of Nystatin suspension into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension
200 bottles
A prescription is written for penicillin VK 250 mg tab's po qid for 10 days. If the patient cannot swallow tablets and requests a liquid dosage form, what volume of 250 mg/5 ml suspension should be dispensed?
200ml
A patient is to be administered Amoxicillin that has a recommended dosage of 30 mg/kg of body weight. The patient is an infant weighing 15 lb. The amount of the drug the patient is to receive is:
204mg
The minimum age to sign the exempt narcotic log is:
21
How many ml of 95% of ethyl alcohol should be added to sterile water for injection to make 1/2 liter of a 40% ethyl alcohol solution
210
A pharmacy fills an order for 28 Septra tablets containing 0.08 g of Trimethoprim each. How much Trimethoprim is dispensed?
2240 mg.
The dose of Cefaclor for children 6 months or older is 50 mg/kg/day. What would be the daily dose range for a child who weighs 10 lbs.?
227
The directions for use for Prednisone 5 mg tablets reads: Sig: 2 tabs po bid for 3 days, 3 tabs po qd for 2 days, 2 tabs po qd for 2 days, 1 tab po qd for 1 day, then 1/2 tab po qd for 1 day. How many tablets should be dispensed?
24
In this formula, how much Talc is needed to fill 120 grams? Nupercainal Ointment 4% Zinc Oxide 20% Talc 2%
2400mg
How many units of NPH U-I 00 would be administered if the patient's noon dose was 0.25 ml?
25
You have a 70% solution of Dextrose. How many grams of Dextrose is in 400 ml of this solution
280g
Rx: Cefixime 100 mg/5 ml. Sig: 60 mg po qd x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a single daily dose?
3 ml
You are to use 2.4 ml of diluent to reconstitute a vial of medication. What size of syringe should be used?
3 ml.
How many days will the following prescription last? Paxil 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 PO BID
30 days
How many days will the following prescription last? Prozac 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 po bid
30 days
To prepare sterile products, the laminar flow hood should be running for a minimum of:
30min.
If an insurance company will pay for a 30 day supply only and the prescription reads "i-ii q4-6h," what is the maximum number of units that can be dispensed?
360 tab
What is the normal body temperature in Centigrade.
37 degrees C.
The doctor wants to give a dose of Amoxicillin 200 mg bid to a 4 year old female. You have Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml in 100 ml bottles. What would the dose be in ml?
4 ml
How many 30 mg KMNO4 (Potassium Permanganate) tablets are needed to make the following Solution: KMNO4 1:5000 600 ml.
4 tabs
Determine the flow rate of an IVPB containing 120 ml of Flagyl, if the solution is to be infused over a 1 hour period and the administration set is calibrated to deliver 20 drops per ml.
40 drops per min
The markup for a $35.18 vial of antibiotic is 22%. What is the retail price for this medication
42.92
A prescription reads "hydrocortisone 1%. Clotrimazole 1%, aa ap qhs". How many gms of hydrocortisone would be required to make 90 gms?
45 45
What volume of Donnatal would be dispensed to administer a dose of 1 1/2 oz?
45 ml.
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication
5 refills.
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication?
5 refills.
A piggyback has 100 ml of ANCEF infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
50
A piggyback has 100 ml of ANCEF infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
50 min
How many mcg of B-12 injection are contained in 0.5 ml of a B-12 1000 mcg/ml injection?
500 mcg
Penicillin 'V' is commercially available in which strength?
500 mg
Penicillin 'V' is commercially available in which strength
500mg
If the dosage of a medication is 20 mg/kg/day in three divided doses, what is the dose for a 175 lb patient?
530mg tid
A patient is taking 100 mg capsules of Phenytoin tid. How many milligrams of Phenytoin would the patient take in 20 days?
6000 mg.
The Roman numeral LXI is equivalent to:
61
The doctor writes a prescription for Na Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml N.S. Infuse over 8 hours. The administration set delivers 60 drops/ml. What is the flow rate in drops/min?
63 drops
What is the total amount of hydrocortisone found in eight 1-ounce tubes of hydrocortisone cream 2.5%?
6gm
How much Ceclor 250 mg/5 ml suspension should be dispensed for a 375 mg dose?
7.5ml
What should the minimum percent of Isopropyl Alcohol be to prevent contamination of an I.V.
70%.
If a medication is available in 100 tablet bottles and the pharmacy typically uses approximately 600 tablets per week, how many bottles should be ordered if it is anticipated that 33% more tablets will be dispensed in the following week?
8 bottles
What volume of alcohol would be required to package 64 pints of alcohol
8 gallons
How much diluent do you need to add to a 2 gm vial of Rocephin to get a concentration of 250 mg/ml? Disregard the space the powder may occupy
8ml
Rx: Cefaclor 125 mg/5 ml. Sig: 100 mg po bid x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a daily dose?
8ml
If a third party payer specifies a maximum 1-month supply for a specific drug and the directions for use state "I cap po tid", how many units of the drug may be dispensed
90
Thirty-four degrees Celsius (34 degrees C) would be how many degrees Fahrenheit?
93.2
HCTZ or Hydrochlorothiazide is used as:
A diuretic.
The purpose of a formulary is a document:
A listing of committee-approved pharmaceuticals and therapeutics in stock.
Federal laws requires the following information to be documented daily
A log of controlled substances dispensed.
Federal laws requires the following information to be documented daily.
A log of controlled substances dispensed.
The purchasing of drugs directly from the manufacturer requires:
A minimum order set by the manufacturer
Which of the following are true concerning patient participation in an investigational drug study
A patient participating in an investigational drug study must sign an informed consent. Participation is voluntary and the patient may withdraw at any time(All of the above)
A two-phase system of finely divided insoluble solid particles dispensed in a liquid is called:
A suspension.
A prescription is written for Tylenol caplet. What is a caplet?
A tablet shaped like a capsule
Which of the following is an acceptable DEA # for Doctor A. C. Brown?
AB 1838640.
Which of the following is an unacceptable DEA #?
AH3126426
The process whereby a drug crosses a membrane into the blood stream is called:
Absorption
The process where a drug is taken up from the site of administration and is transported to the blood stream is
Absorption.
The five schedules for controlled substances were established on the basis of:
Abuse potential.
A prescriber's DEA number is needed to prescribe which drugs?
Acetaminophen with Codeine and Talwin NX.
Which of the following is a Schedule III controlled substance under federal law?
Acetaminophen with Codeine.
All the following are correct when opening an ampule except:
After wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel.
Which of the following are true about Cimetidine
All of the above.
Which of the following is a "Capital Expense".
All of the above.
Which of the following is a means of contamination?
All of the above.
Which of the drugs listed below are antidotes?
All of the above. All are antidotes
Which of the following drugs are used to treat AIDS?
All of the following are used to treat AIDS: (A) Amphotericin. (B) Ganciclovir. (C) Foscarnet.
Which of the following statements is true regarding quality?
All of the statements are true.
Which of the following are true about a formulary
All the following are true about a formulary: They reduce drug inventory costs, they limit medications used based on safety, efficacy and cost, and they are often used by HMO and institutional pharmacies.
Which of the following are true about a formulary?
All the following are true about a formulary: They reduce drug inventory costs, they limit medications used based on safety, efficacy and cost, and they are often used by HMO and institutional pharmacies.
Which of the following medications is Schedule IV substance
Alprazolam
What do the initials APhA stand for?
American Pharmaceutical Association
If a patient has a severe adverse reaction after prior administration of Penicillin, this would be referred to as:
An anaphylactic reaction.
Tobrex ophthalmic ung refers to:
An ointment used for the eye.
An "automatic stop order" in the hospital setting would apply to which category of drugs
Antibiotics
Your receive a prescription for Sertraline (Zoloft) qd x 30 days. What is Sertraline?
Antidepressant
Prochlorperazine belongs to what classification of drugs?
Antiemetic
To which drug classification does the drug prochlorperazine belong?
Antiemetic.
Which of the following is not a type of respiratory system medication
Antifungals
What type of medication is used to relieve a dry hacking cough?
Antitussive.
Of the following group names, which one would be used for cough
Antitussives are used to relieve cough
Of the following Group names, which one would be used for cough?
Antitussives.
Position or job descriptions:
Are written descriptions outlining employee responsibilities and duties
The procedures for preparation of sterile products that is designed to prevent contamination is called:
Aseptic technique.
The purpose of OSHA is to:
Assure a safe and healthful workplace.
How far within a laminar flow hood should the pharmacy technician work
At least 6 inches within the hood
A home care pharmacy compounds 30 TPN orders daily. Which device would assist in the preparation of these orders?
Automix.
All of the following are required when filling and dispensing a prescription for a Cromolyn oral metered dose inhaler except:
Auxiliary label: Refrigerate.
Explain the situation to the pharmacist, correct the error, and document the error per procedures.
B and C.
A patient presents a prescription order for Morphine Sulfate tablets, prescribed by John Doe, M.D. Which of the following DEA registration numbers is consistent with the prescriber
BD 4695283.
Scanning for drug prices and inventory levels would be accomplished with the aid of:
Barcode reader.
Scanning for drug prices and stock levels would be accomplished with which device?
Barcode reader.
Bentyl is ordered to be administered "a.c." How will Bentyl be taken?
Before meals.
Which of the following dosage forms has the highest concentration of alcohol in its formulation?
Benzoin Compound tincture.
A semi-rigid cup-like plastic package that is normally used for tablets and capsules and sealed with a foil type material is called a:
Blister package.
Thiazide diuretics are used for:
Blood pressure treatment.
Which of the following is an example of a side effect of antineoplastic therapy?
Bone marrow suppression.
A prescriber's DEA number is needed to prescribe which drugs
Both A and C
Which of the following is a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN?
Branched-chain amino is acid solution, essential amino acid solutions, and mixed essential and non-essential amino acid solutions ......all the above
Beta -2 receptor blockers belong to which drug classification?
Bronchodilator.
Terbutaline belongs to which drug classification?
Bronchodilator.
Drugs within which class of controlled substances contain no legal use?
CI.
Cocaine belongs to which category of controlled substances?
CII
Meperidine belongs to which category of controlled substances?
CII.
Which federal legislation enacted in 1970 regulates the use and distribution of substances with high abuse potential?
CSA
Schedule V medications must be ordered in which of the following ways?
Calling the wholesaler directly
Schedule III medications must be ordered in which of the following ways
Calling the wholesaler directly.
Which of the following medications is prescribed to treat CHF
Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE Inhibitor used for CHF (Congestive Heart Failure
Which of the following medications is prescribed to treat CHF?
Captopril. (Enalapril)
Which of the following medications is to control seizures
Carbamazepine.
Digoxin belongs to which drug classification
Cardiac glycoside
Lanoxin is a member of which of the following classes of drugs
Cardiac glycosides.
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in patients allergic to Cephalexin (Keflex)?
Cefaclor (Ceclor
All of the following medications must be prepared in a vertical laminar airflow hood except:
Ceftriaxone.
What is the process by which a non-governmental association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications?
Certification
______ is the process by which non-government association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that association or agency
Certification.
Which of the following are true about Cimetidine:
Cimetidine (Tagamet) is an OTC preparation. It is used to reduce stomach acid and it does interact with many other drugs. [It will interact with Aminophylline and Barbiturates in I.V.
Which of the following medication might cause heart palpitation
Claritin-D 12 hour.
Which of the following statements is true for a laminar flow hood
Clean the hood from back to front
A vial of reconstituted Adriamycin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the technician do?
Clean up the spill with a "spill kit".
Which of the following best describes controlled substances in Schedule I?
Controlled substances that are Schedule I are drugs with no accepted medical use in the United States, drugs with a high potential for physical dependence, and drugs such as heroin, opium, and marijuana. all the above
Which of the following is the most accurate device for measuring liquids?
Cylindrical graduate.
The form number for ordering Schedule II drugs is:
DEA Form 222.
Lovastatin would be prescribed to
Decrease cholesterol.
Lovastatin would be prescribed to:
Decrease cholesterol.
Which of the following groups is usually not a member of the P + T Committee
Dental representative.
Which of the following medications belong to the same class of drugs as Etodolac
Diclofenac.
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker
Diltiazem
The last step performed in the prescription-processing function is
Dispensing.
Following the preparation of an Vinblastine I.V. admixture, the needle and syringe should be:.
Disposed of in an approved container without recapping or clipping.
Distribution is the physiological process by which a drug
Distribution is the physiological process by which a drug is transported throughout the body
The labeling of Unit-dose products must include medication name and which of the following?
Dose strength, manufacturer or pharmacy code, drug expiration date.
The National Drug Code (NDC) is usually required for purchasing of pharmaceutical products. The NDC can be found in which of the following?
Drug Topics Red Book.
The Patient Package Insert (PPI) for oral contraceptives is required to be dispensed:
Each time the prescription is dispensed.
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of a lipids free T.P.N.?
Effervescence.
The primary function of the P + T Committee is to:
Establish standards for therapeutics.
Federal regulations required a Package Patient Insert (PPI) to be dispensed each time when which medication is dispensed
Estrogens.
Federal regulations required a Package Patient Insert (PPI) to be dispensed each time when which medication is dispensed?
Estrogens.
How often must a laminar flow hood be checked?
Every 6 months
When dispensing Ortho-Cyclen, how often must the Patient Package Insert (PPI) be included with the drug product?
Every time the prescription is dispensed.
A patient calls the pharmacy asking why his Lanoxin is white instead of the usual yellow color. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?
Explain the situation to the pharmacist, correct the error, and document the error per procedures.
The process of repackaging quantities of medications that will be used in a short time usually for one patient is called
Extemporaneous
The process of repackaging quantities of medications that will be used in a short time usually for one patient is called:
Extemporaneous.
Of the following, the reference source that would provide the most comprehensive indication and dosage information about a newly released Macrolide is:
Facts and Comparisons.
Which information source would a technician use for information concerning the dosing of a newly marketed antibiotic?
Facts and Comparisons.
Federal law requires that all controlled substances dispensed bear the following statement on the dispensing label?
Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to another person
Federal law requires that all controlled substances dispensed bear the following statement on the dispensing label
Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to another person.
Which of the following medications is not commercially available as a tablet?
Fentanyl.
Which dosage form is formulated to mask an objectionable taste of a medication
Film-coated tablets
Which auxiliary label would you use for this particular sig: ii gtts AU qhr prn:
For the ear.
The proper technique for cleaning a horizontal laminar flow hood (Laminar air flow workbench) is to wipe:
From back to front using side-to-side motion
Cimetidine, Famotidide and Ranitidine are examples of a:
H2 receptor blocker
Endocarditis is an infection involving which part of the body?
Heart.
What is the proper method of measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?
Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus.
Sudafed is contraindicated in which of the following disease states?
Hypertension.
Which category of drugs stimulates insulin release in the body?
Hypoglycemic agents.
Red blood cells can burst when exposed to _______ I. V. solution.
Hypotonic.
Which of the following routes of administration produces the quickest onset of action of a drug?
IV.
Which routes of administration produces the quickest onset of action of Promethazine?
IV.
The directions for the use of Gentamicin Ophthalmic drops are "ii gtts au q4h x5d". The proper interpretation of "au" is:
In both ears
The one inch "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:
In red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx.
Gowns used in preparing Cancer Chemotherapy drugs must close:
In the back.
Label direction for Gentamicin read "ii gtts os q8h while awake". Where should this medication be instilled?
In the left eye.
Propranolol is the same as:
Inderal.
The CDC is the regulatory commission responsible for:
Infection control.
While a mother is waiting for an Amoxicillin prescription for her 8-year old, she asks the technician what to give the child for fever. The technician should:
Inform the pharmacist that the mother would like help choosing a nonprescription product.
Preservative-free injectable drugs must be used when drugs will be injected by which route of administration?
Intrathecal.
Which solution is safest for a patient?
Isotonic
Which solution is safest for a newborn
Isotonic.
Which of the following medications is an OTC analgesic?
Ketoprofen tablets.
Most drugs and their metabolites are excreted by the:
Kidneys.
Which of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine?
Klonopin.
Prescription drugs are also known as
Legend drugs
Prescription drugs are also known as:
Legend drugs.
The process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called:
Levigation
The process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called
Levigation.
Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocking agent?
Lotensin.
Who is responsible for the initial ordering of investigation drugs
MD
The responsibility for the initial ordering of investigation drugs belong to whom?
MD.
Which of the following medications is classified as Schedule II?
MS Contin.
Of the following, which one is used to ensure the safe handling of hazardous materials
MSDS
The purpose of the P + T Committee is all the following except:
Make sure hospital receives payment.
The main goal of the formulary systems is to:
Manage the cost of rational drug therapy.
Materials management personnel are responsible for:
Materials management include the drug procurement process, inventory control and drug storage. all the above
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Diphenhydramine elixir
May Cause Drowsiness
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Diphenhydramine elixir?
May Cause Drowsiness.
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed as a verbal order
Meperidine
Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
Meperidine
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed as a verbal order?
Meperidine.
What is the process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver to another chemical:
Metabolism.
Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat an amoeba infection?
Metronidazole
Tetracycline should not be administered with which of the following beverages?
Milk.
Which of the following is not a part of the respiratory system?
Mouth.
NTG is prescribed for the treatment of
NTG, or nitroglycerin, is used to treat heart pain of angina pectoris
Narcan is categorized as a:
Narcotic antagonist.
A prescriber's DEA number is
Needed on outpatient prescriptions for controlled substances
A prescriber's DEA number is:
Needed on outpatient prescriptions for controlled substances.
Filgrastim is available under which of the following proprietary (Brand Name)?
Neupogen
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
Nifedipine
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker
Nifedipine.
Which of the following is classified as a calcium-channel blocker?
Nifedipine.
Certification is the process by which a ______ association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that association or agency
Non-government.
Which of the following is not a means of contamination
None of the above
A prescription can usually be refilled:
None of the above.
Which of the following is not a part of the respiratory system?
None of the above.
A "Hospital Borne" infection is also known as a ______________ infection.
Nosocomial.
When accepting a prescription for Warfarin from a patient the technician should:
Notify the pharmacist if the patient is also buying aspirin. There is an interaction with these medications
A patient who has been on oral Cephalexin for a skin infection asks for a recommendation of an OTC vaginal yeast infection product. What should the technician do?
Notify the pharmacist of potential side effects of the antibiotic regimen.
At cart fill, you identify an order to refill both Aspirin 81 mg and Warfarin for a patient. You should:
Notify the pharmacist. It is possible that this potential drug interaction was "missed" by the pharmacist.
The counseling under OBRA 90 may be made
OBRA-90 requires counseling be made in writing, orally and by a Pharmacist only.
Which federal legislation enacted in 1990 requires Pharmacist to counsel Medicaid patients?
OBRA.
Safety at the work place is the responsibility of which government agency
OSHA is responsible for safety in the work place
The following federal regulations requires that a pharmacist counsel Medicaid patients?
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990.
Which of the following federal regulations requires that a pharmacist counsel Medicaid patients?
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
How often must Schedule II controlled substances be physically inventoried?
Once every two years.
How many hours of continuing education must be in Pharmacy Law every two years?
One
Which of the following would be considered a drug of abuse
Opiates, Alcohol and Nicotine are all considered as drugs of abuse.
Which of the following would be considered a drug of abuse?
Opiates, Alcohol and Nicotine are all considered as drugs of abuse.
DEA Form 222 allows the pharmacy
Order controlled substances.
A Patient Package Insert must be dispensed with which of the following medications?
Ovral
Which of the following substances is not classified as a Schedule II controlled substance
Oxazepam
The pharmacist must complete DEA Form 222 to obtain which of the following medications?
Oxycodone.
Which of the following may only be ordered by completing the DEA Form 222?
Oxycodone.
Who implements formulary review
P & T Committee
Transderm-Nitro is available in which dosage form?
Patch.
According to federal law, control substances must be safeguarded by all of the following EXCEPT:
Payment records. (or transport records)
Which of the following 2 drug classes have cross sensitivity?
Penicillin and Cephalosporin.
If a patient has had an anaphylactic reaction to ASA, which analgesic may they not take
Percodan
The medication profile of John Doe: Cardizem CD 120 mg PO qd, Coumadin 5 mg PO qd, Synthroid 0.088 mg PO qd John Doe presents new prescriptions for: Percodan i to ii OI q4-6h prn severe pain. Zocor 20 mg PO qd. What possible drug interaction exists?
Percodan and Coumadin.
A patient on Warfarin 2 mg therapy should never take which of the following pain medications?
Percodan.
Which of the following products would be contraindicated in a patient who has had an anaphylactic reaction to ASA?
Percodan.
Pharmacy technicians are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who, under the supervision of a licensed pharmacists, assist in pharmacy activities not requiring the professional judgment of the ______.
Pharmacist.
Who is legally responsible by virtue of state licensure for the care and safety of patients served by the pharmacy?
Pharmacist.
______ are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist assist in pharmacy activities.
Pharmacy Technicians.
Phenytoin is available in which dosage forms
Phenytoin (Dilantin) is available in tablets, capsules, and I.V. injection dosage forms
Which dosage form is Phenytoin available?
Phenytoin (Dilantin) is available in tablets, capsules, and I.V. injection dosage forms(ALL of the above)
After syringes are used for preparation of hazardous substances, the pharmacy technician should:
Place the syringes in a sealed plastic bag and dispose in special waste.
Which of the following drugs is an antiarrhythmic
Procainamide
Which of the following drugs is an antiarrhythmic?
Procainamide.
Which of the following suppositories should be stored in the refrigerator?
Promethazine
What protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting Vinblastine?
Protective apparel includes 2 pair of gloves (double gloving), a hair covering, a mask and a protective barrier gown all the above
Which of the following correctly describes the manner in which records of the receipt and disposition of all controlled substances must be kept?
Records of Schedule II substances must be maintained separately from all other records of the registrant
What is the storage requirement for the drug Neupogen
Refrigerate.
If Phenergan suppositories is to be stored in a "cold place," the appropriate temperature range for storage is:
Refrigerator, at 2 degrees C to 8 degrees C (35 degrees F to 46 degrees F).
What is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list
Registration
What is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list?
Registration.
The only type of insulin that may be added to an I.V. solution is:
Regular insulin
Insulin is to be added to an IV admixture. What type of insulin may be used?
Regular.
Which of the following drugs is a NSAID
Relafen
An overdose of Morphine would cause:
Respiratory depression
Ear infections can be treated with which of the following?
SMZ-TMP
Schedule II narcotic prescriptions may be refilled how many times?
Schedule II Narcotic prescriptions may not be refilled.
A tracking log should be kept for?
Schedule II order forms
Methylphenidate belongs to which schedule of controlled substances?
Schedule II. CII.
The "C" designation for controlled substances applies to:
Schedule III - V.
The 1 inch Red Letter "C" designation for controlled substances applies
Schedule III - V.
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
Schedule III, IV or V controlled substance
In which controlled substance schedule is Fioricet with Codeine classified
Schedule III.
In which controlled substance schedule is Fioricet with Codeine classified?
Schedule III.
In which controlled substance schedule is Tylenol No. 2 classified
Schedule III.
In which controlled substance schedule is Tylenol No. 2 classified?
Schedule III.
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
Scheduled III, IV or V controlled substances.
Needles used to prepare sterile IV solutions should be disposed in:
Sharp's Container.
Syringes used to prepare sterile IV solutions should be disposed in:
Sharp's Container.
Fluorouracil cream
Should be applied with gloves or a nonmetallic object.
All aseptic manipulations in the horizontal laminar flow hood should be performed at least
Six inches within the hood
All aseptic manipulations in the laminar flow hood should be performed at least:
Six inches within the hood
All aseptic manipulations in the laminar flow hood should be performed at least:
Six inches within the hood.
All needles not used in chemo solution preparation should be discarded by:
Snipping them into a Sharps Container.
What is the program called that is used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting
Software.
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by
State Board of Pharmacy
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by:
State Board of Pharmacy.
An order reads "Acetaminophen 325 mg Pr q4h prn". What dosage form should be dispensed?
Suppositories.
Corticosteroid therapy is characterized by
Suppression of the body's production of cortisol
Which statement concerning Levothyroxine is correct?
Synthroid
I.V. products containing dextrose, amino acids, trace mineral, vitamins, and other pharmacological agents are referred to as:
TPN.
A patient hands you an empty vial of Methylphenidate and asked for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do
Tell the patient that the medication is not refillable.
A patient hands you an empty vial of Methylphenidate and asked for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?
Tell the patient that the medication is not refillable.
A patient hands you an empty vial of Ritalin and asked for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?
Tell the patient that the medication is not refillable.
According to federal law, in the event of the suspected theft of a Schedule II medication, the pharmacy is required to notify which agency or agencies?
The DEA.
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990, led to most states requiring
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) in 1990 led to most states requiring the counseling of patients by Pharmacists.
Of the following, which one deals with the issue of safety caps on prescription bottles
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act
A physician prescribes Amoxicillin 500 mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?
The Rx lacks duration of therapy.
A physician prescribes Ceclor 375 mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?
The Rx lacks duration of therapy.
You receive the following prescription: Vancenase (Beclomethasone) inhaler Dispense #1 Sig:ii puffs inhaled bid In filling the prescription, the technician should
The Technician should provide the patient with the Patient Package Insert (PPI) or the "For the Patient" instructions included with the inhaler.
The active ingredient of a drug product is labeled USP. This standard is set forth in:
The United States Pharmacopoeia
An order is received for Mylanta 30 cc PO q4h, Ranitidine 300 mg PO hs, enteric-coated aspirin 325 mg PO qd and Tetracycline 250 mg PO q6h. What possible problem is noticeable?
The antacid should not be given with Tetracycline.
The appearance of crystals in Mannitol injection indicates:
The appearance of crystals in Mannitol injection indicates:
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990, led to most states requiring:
The counseling of patients by pharmacists.
The establishment of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) in 1990, led to most states requiring:
The counseling of patients by pharmacists.
Sig or Signa on a written prescription means:
The directions for the medication ordered.
The directions for Fosamax states "10 mg po bid pc". The technician should bring this to the pharmacist's attention because
The medication should be taken 1/2 hour before breakfast once daily.
If State, Local and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies
The more stringent law
If State and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies?
The more stringent law.
The computer error message "refill too soon" indicates:
The patient is attempting to get the prescription earlier than the "day supply" indicated.
The two basic parts of a needle are the
The two basic parts of a needle are the
The decrease of effectiveness of the drugs when ampicillin and gentamicin are given together is an example of which incompatibility?
Therapeutic.
The laminar flow hood should be left operating continuously. If it is turned off, it should not be used until it has been running for at least:
Thirty minutes.
The standard pediatric dose for Amoxicillin is 20 mg/kg/day. The order is written for 150 mg TID. The infant weighs 8 lbs. Is this dose:
Too high
ATS solution should be stored in the:
Topical section.
Which of the following drugs is a NSAID?
Toradol.
How many hours of continuing education must a Certified Pharmacy Technician receive to maintain their certified status?
Twenty every two years.
How many hours of continuing education must the CPhT have before re-certification?
Twenty every two years.
The doctor writes Neosporin ii gtts OU bid. What does this mean
Two drops in each eye twice a day
Typical data collected from the patient by the technician include
Typical data collected from the patient by the Technician include the following: weight for children and infants, allergies and the age of child
Most unit-dose systems provide each patient with a storage bin, in which can be found a supply of drugs for
Unit-dose systems provide each patient with a storage bin with twenty-four hours supply of drugs.
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers now available (OTC). What is the indication of these drugs?
Used to inhibit stomach acid secretion.
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers, which are now available over-the-counter (OTC). What are these drugs used for?
Used to inhibit stomach acid secretion.
Which of the following ophthalmic medications must be refrigerated?
Viroptic.
Which of the following are fat-soluble vitamins?
Vitamins A and E.
An example of a major drug-drug interaction would be:
Warfarin-aspirin.
The appearance of crystals in Mannitol injection would indicate that the product:
Was exposed to cold.
If Betadine ointment is received from the wholesaler, where should they be stocked?
Where the bacitracin ointment is stored.
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
Xanax
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Demerol
You inform the Pharmacist of the call and only the Pharmacist can make the determination
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Percocet.
You inform the Pharmacist of the call and only the Pharmacist can make the determination.
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 mandated which of the following:
all the above
Which of the following drugs is prescribed for the relief of allergy symptoms?
all the above
Which of the following medications is Schedule IV substance?
alprazolam
The directions for the use of a medication are "ii gtts au q4h x5d". The proper interpretation of "au" is
au" is the Latin abbreviation for both ears.
You receive an order for Vinblastine. In preparing this drug you should
biological safety cabinet to prepare Vinblastine
Schedule drugs within which class of controlled substances contain no legal use in the United States?
c 1
Endocarditis is an infection involving which part of the body
heart
Sumycin and Achromycin should not be administered with which of the following beverages
milk.
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) verifies that laminar flow hoods should be certified at least:
once per year
If chosen for an audit, the CPhT must list all continuing education hours on the application and send ______ certificates of completion of the credits.
photocopies of the
How many hours of continuing education may be earned in the practice site under the supervision of the pharmacist
ten
Which of the following dosage forms has the highest concentration of alcohol in it's formulation
tincture.