UMM Exam 1 Review

Which of the following bacteria is not closely related to the others? a. Salmonella enterica subsp. arizonae b. Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica c. Salmonella enterica subsp. indica d. Salmonella bongori

Salmonella bongori

Fluorescent "in situ" hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of a. a specific genetic marker sequence. b. DNA. c. proteins. d. recombinant DNA. e. RNA.

a specific genetic marker sequence.

Spirochetes are able to move due to a. a membrane-bound flagellum b. a periplasmic flagellum. c. cilia serving as walking feet. d. glycocalyx for gliding motility. e. pseudopods.

a periplasmic flagellum.

Which of the following is produced by adding 1% to 5% agar to nutrient broth that is then boiled and cooled? a. a contaminated medium b. a liquid medium c. a mixed culture d. a pure culture e. a solid medium

a solid medium

What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymixin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin®) for superficial skin infections? a. bacitracin b. chloramphenicol c. clindamycin d. streptomycin e. vancomycin

a. bacitracin

The term ____ refers to the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. a. bacteremia b. septicemia c. toxemia d. viremia

a. bacteremia

Clavulanic acid inhibits a. beta-lactamase activity. b. cell membrane synthesis. c. formation of peptidoglycan cross-linkages. d. peptidoglycan synthesis.

a. beta-lactamase activity.

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.

a. carrier.

The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief or prophylaxis of a disease is called a. chemotherapy. b. nephrotoxicity. c. prophylaxis. d. selective toxicity. e. synergism.

a. chemotherapy.

Removal of moisture by dehydration is called a. desiccation. b. flash freeze. c. lyophilization. d. pasteurization. e. sterilization.

a. desiccation.

Lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of Gram-negative cell walls is called a. endotoxin b. enterotoxin c. exotoxin d. hemolysin e. leukocidin

a. endotoxin

Which of the following is not a therapeutic benefit of interferon? a. increases white blood cell count b. prevents or reduces some cold symptoms c. reduces healing time d. slows progress of some cancers e. treats hepatitis C

a. increases white blood cell count

Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? a. isoniazid b. penicillin G c. synercid d. tetracycline e. vancomycin

a. isoniazid

Resident biota are found in/on the a. large intestine. b. mouth. c. nasal passages. d. skin. e. all of the choices are correct

a. large intestine.

When would Koch's postulates be utilized? a. to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab b. to determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab c. to develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab d. to formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab e. whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem

a. to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab

A patient has a serious respiratory infection. A sputum sample yielded a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be a. Borrelia burgdorferi. b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. d. Staphylococcus aureus. e. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? a. bacterial endospores b. fungal spores c. naked viruses d. protozoan cysts e. yeast

bacterial endospores

The size of DNA is often given in the number of ____ that it contains. a. base pairs b. codons c. genes d. proteins e. triplets

base pairs

If you were a bacterial cell, which of the following would be the most beneficial for you to have or be able to make for the survival of your species. a. cilia b. endospore c. exotoxin d. pilus

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Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? a. belief in a preconceived idea b. development of a theory c. formulation of a hypothesis d. laboratory experimentation e. systematic observation

belief in a preconceived idea

A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following components would likely be present in selective medium for this purpose? a. bile salts b. NaCl c. peptone d. sheep red blood cells e. thioglycollic acid

bile salts

Alcohol-based hand sanitizers specifically target lipids, making them most effective when trying to eliminate a. biofilms. b. endospores. c. Gram-negatives. d. Gram-positives. e. viruses.

biofilms??

Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of a. bioremediation. b. biotechnology. c. decomposition. d. epidemiology. e. immunology.

bioremediation.

Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as a. biotechnology. b. gel electrophoresis. c. gene probes. d. genetic engineering. e. recombinant DNA.

biotechnology.

A common medium for growing fastidious bacteria is a. a reducing medium. b. blood agar. c. MacConkey medium. d. mannitol salt agar. e. trypticase soy agar.

blood agar.

When assigning a scientific name to an organism a. both genus and species are capitalized. b. both genus and species are italicized or underlined. c. the species name can be abbreviated. d. the species name is capitalized. e. the species name is placed first.

both genus and species are italicized or underlined.

The term obligate refers to a. existing in a very narrow niche. b. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. c. using chemicals for energy production. d. using light for energy production. e. using oxygen for metabolism.

existing in a very narrow niche.

In which way are archaea and eukaryotes the same? a. can use flagella for movement b. contain membrane-bound organelles c. contain mitochondria for energy production d. have a cell wall for rigidity

can use flagella for movement

Growth factors a. are inorganic b. are synthesized by the organism. c. cannot be synthesized by the organism. d. contain elemental oxygen. e. all of the choices are correct

cannot be synthesized by the organism.

Which external structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis? a. capsule b. cell membrane c. fimbriae d. slime layer

capsule

Facilitated diffusion is limited by a. carrier proteins in the membrane. b. osmotic pressure. c. the size of the cell. d. the size of the pores in the membrane. e. the substrate concentration.

carrier proteins in the membrane.

Each of the following are features of a cloning host except a. mapped genome. b. minimal growth requirements. c. pathogenicity. d. quick generation time. e. transformable.

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The production of antibiotics by microbes evolved so that a. bacteria and viruses could be eliminated. b. certain environments can be protected from pathogenic bacteria. c. diseases could be cured. d. the growth of other organisms sharing their habitat was inhibited, thus giving them a selective advantage.

d. the growth of other organisms sharing their habitat was inhibited, thus giving them a selective advantage.

Broad spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause a. allergic reactions. b. drug toxicity. c. nephrotoxicity. d. superinfections.

d. superinfections.

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a/an a. inflammation. b. pathology. c. sign. d. symptom. e. syndrome.

d. symptom.

Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk and wine is optimally achieved by a. boiling water. b. chlorination. c. filtration. d. moist heat autoclave. e. pasteurization.

e. pasteurization.

Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes? a. adhesion. b. encapsulation. c. exocytosis. d. margination. e. phagocytosis.

e. phagocytosis.

Pasteurization a. increases food nutrient value. b. is used to sterilize food products. c. kills all vegetative forms. d. reduces number of endospores. e. reduces number of vegetative forms.

e. reduces number of vegetative forms.

Virulence factors include all of the following except a. capsules. b. endotoxin. c. exoenzymes. d. exotoxin. e. ribosomes.

e. ribosomes.

The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed a. antisepsis. b. decontamination. c. degerming. d. disinfection. e. sterilization.

e. sterilization.

Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections? a. chemotherapy b. genetic defects in immunity c. old age d. physical and mental stress e. strong, healthy body

e. strong, healthy body

The ____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration. a. cephalosporins b. macrolides c. penicillins d. streptomycins e. tetracyclines

e. tetracyclines

Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time? a. evolution b. genetics c. morphology d. phylogeny e. transformation

evolution

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is a. biotechnology. b. gel electrophoresis. c. gene probes. d. genetic engineering. e. recombinant DNA.

gel electrophoresis.

Newly inoculated cultures must be ____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. a. incubated b. poured c. spread d. streaked

incubated

The chromosome in bacteria and archaea a. contains all the cell's plasmids. b. forms a single linear strand of DNA. c. is located in the cell membrane. d. is part of the nucleoid.

is part of the nucleoid.

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? a. family b. genus c. kingdom d. phylum e. species

kingdom

The study of genomes of a particular community is called a. genomics. b. genomology. c. metabolomics. d. metagenomics. e. proteomics.

metagenomics.

Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype? a. microarray analysis b. Oryza sativa c. PCR d. transformation e. Western blot analysis

microarray analysis

The sum total of all the microbes in a certain environment is termed the a. biofilm. b. domain. c. microbial niche. d. microbiome. e. phylogeny.

microbiome.

The majority of oxygen in earth's atmosphere is a product of photosynthesis by a. agricultural lands. b. green plants. c. microorganisms. d. rain forests.

microorganisms.

Which of the following parts of the microscope magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen? a. body b. condenser c. objective lens d. ocular lens

ocular lens

Plasmids a. are essential for survival. b. are found in all bacteria. c. are located in microcompartments. d. cannot be passed between organisms. e. often carry genes controlling pathogenicity.

often carry genes controlling pathogenicity.

A pure culture contains a. a variety of species from the same genus. b. microbes from a single source. c. only bacteria. d. only one identified species of microorganism.

only one identified species of microorganism.

Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called a. active transport. b. diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. facilitated diffusion. e. osmosis.

osmosis.

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called a. codons. b. exons. c. genes. d. introns. e. palindromes.

palindromes.

Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface? a. pour plate b. replica plate c. spread plate d. streak plate

pour plate

Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR? a. primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides b. primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides c. reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides d. reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides

primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides

The function of bacterial endospores is a. protection of genetic material during harsh conditions. b. reproduction and growth. c. storage of excess cellular building blocks. d. to provide a protected site for photosynthesis.

protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.

Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? a. assay medium b. broth medium c. differential medium d. selective medium e. solid medium

solid medium

The three physical forms of laboratory media are a. a streak plate, a pour plate, and a broth. b. reducing, transport, and enumeration. c. solid, liquid, and gas. d. solid, semisolid, and liquid.

solid, semisolid, and liquid.

When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called a. antibiosis. b. mutualism. c. symbiosis. d. synergism.

synergism.

The primers in PCR are a. bacterial enzymes. b. DNA polymerases. c. reverse transcriptases. d. short RNA strands. e. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.

synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.

Making new genomes is called a. bioengineering. b. cloning. c. genetic engineering. d. recombinant DNA. e. synthetic biology.

synthetic biology.

Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms? a. epidemiology b. nomenclature c. pathology d. phylogeny e. taxonomy

taxonomy

Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape? a. bacillus b. coccus c. spirochete d. tetrad e. vibrio

tetrad

Archaeal cells are about ____ bacterial cells. a. ten times larger than b. ten times smaller than c. the same size as

the same size as

Many chronic infections are caused by microbes that associate in communities termed a. biofilms. b. microbiota. c. sediments. d. virions.

Biofilms

Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)? a. It can be used to detect RNA in cells b. It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing. c. It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA. d. Probes can be applied to intact cells. e. Probes can locate genes on chromosomes.

It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA.

Which of the following will converge light rays to a single focal point on the specimen? a. condenser b. iris diaphragm c. nosepiece d. objective lens e. ocular lens

condenser

In general, eukaryotic cells are about ____ times larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. a. 2 b. 10 c. 50 d. 1000

10

The first cells appeared about ____ billion years ago. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3.5 d. 4.5 e. 5

3.5

Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice? a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% e. 90%

80%

If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments. a. 12 b. 24 c. 27 d. 48 e. 81

81

DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of a. 37° C. b. 42° C. c. 60° C. d. 90° C. e. 100° C.

90° C.

If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950x, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10x? a. 95x b. 940x c. 950x d. 9500x

95x

Bacterial endospores are produced by a. Bacillus. b. Entamoeba. c. Mycoplasma. d. Staphylococcus.

Bacillus??

Robert Koch and his colleagues first used agar in bacteriological media. Why was this ingredient an improvement on previous materials used to culture bacteria? a. Agar can convert from liquid to solid form, and back again, very easily. b. Agar is a complete source of nutients for most bacteria. c. Agar was less expensive than the nutrients that Koch was previously using in the lab. d. Bacteria growing on the solidified medium did not degrade or break down the agar.

Bacteria growing on the solidified medium did not degrade or break down the agar.

Which of the following is a traditional human use of microorganisms? a. baking bread b. cleaning up oil spills c. mass-producing antibiotics d. treating water and sewage

Baking bread

Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR? a. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins. b. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab. c. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA. d. This thermophile's enzyme will synthesize DNA.

DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.

In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes? a. DNA helicase b. DNA ligase c. DNA polymerase I d. DNA polymerase II e. primase

DNA ligase

You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which procedure would be most useful in this case? a. DNA probe analysis b. microarray analysis c. polymerase chain reaction d. whole genome sequencing

DNA probe analysis

You want to experiment with microbial growth in various nutrients, so inoculate a loopful of E. coli into a tube of honey. Which statement best describes what you expect to happen and why? a. E. coli does not grow because it has been dehydrated by the honey. b. E. coli does not grow because there is only sugar in the honey and no other nutrients. c. E. coli grows well in the honey because fructose is a good carbon source. d. E. coli will grow because the excessive sugar is toxic.

E. coli does not grow because it has been dehydrated by the honey.

Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxin? a. Endotoxin is a bacterial cell wall lipid b. Endotoxin can cause septic shock in the human body c. Endotoxin can stimulate fever in the human body d. Endotoxin is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls

Endotoxin is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls

Which activity is an example of biotechnology? a. a microbiologist using the microscope to view bacteria b. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors c. Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds d. Escherichia coli producing human insulin e. public health official monitoring diseases in a community

Escherichia coli producing human insulin

Which of the following is not true of the outer membrane? a. Gram positive bacteria have an outer membrane. b. Porins create channels through the outer membrane. c. The innermost layer is a phospholipid bilayer. d. The lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide layer is termed endotoxin. e. The uppermost layer is made of lipopolysaccharide.

Gram positive bacteria have an outer membrane.

Lysozyme is most effective against a. archaea. b. cyanobacteria. c. Gram negative organisms. d. Gram positive organisms. e. mycoplasmas.

Gram positive organisms.

A bacterial cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is a. acid fast. b. a protoplast. c. a spheroplast. d. Gram negative. e. Gram positive.

Gram positive.

During the Gram stain, the application of alcohol results in the decolorization of ____ cells. a. all b. Gram-negative c. Gram-positive d. pleomorphic

Gram-negative

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of a. acid fast bacteria. b. Gram-negative bacteria. c. Gram-positive bacteria. d. mycoplasmas. e. protoplasts.

Gram-negative bacteria.

What compound has the highest concentration in a cell? a. CH4 b. CO2 c. glucose d. H2O e. NH3

H2O

Which of the following historical microbiologists is incorrectly paired with his contribution to the science? a. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek: made and used quality magnifying lenses to observe and record microorganisms. b. Francesco Redi: tested spontaneous generation with meat exposed to the air or covered with cloth. c. Joseph Lister: promoted disinfecting hands and air prior to surgery. d. Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that anthrax was caused by a bacterium.

Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that anthrax was caused by a bacterium.

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is a. Bacillus. b. Corynebacterium. c. Mycobacterium. d. Mycoplasma. e. Streptococcus.

Mycobacterium.

A microbiology student with a visual disability is viewing a sample of Bacillus endospores in a phase-contrast microscope that is linked to an iPad. By "stretching" the image on the iPad screen, the student can increase the apparent size of the endospores. How does this manipulation affect resolution and contrast? (No software is being used to alter the image.) a. Both magnification and resolution increase; contrast is unchanged. b. Contrast will improve because the microscope is phase-contrast. c. Only the magnification can be increased; resolution and contrast are unchanged. d. Resolution and magnification will decrease because the screen is not as good as the human eye.

Only the magnification can be increased; resolution and contrast are unchanged.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria? a. DNA is free in the cytoplasm. b. Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production. c. Ribosomes are present as the site of protein synthesis. d. The cell wall is made of peptidoglycan or other distinct polysaccharides.

Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production.

Which of the following is not an inoculating tool? a. loop b. needle c. Petri dish d. pipette e. swab

Petri dish

All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except a. agar b. broth. c. enriched. d. Petri dish. e. semisolid.

Petri dish.

Humans can see objects as small as 0.1 mm. Leeuwenhoek's best microscope could magnify objects to 300x. Which of the following would be invisible using Leeuwenhoek's microscope. a. Escherichia coli, 1 µm X 4 µm b. Pandora virus, 0.5 mm X 1 mm c. Poliovirus, 30 nm d. red blood cell, 8 µm

Poliovirus, 30 nm

Recombinant strains of ____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects. a. Escherichia coli b. Pseudomonas fluorescens c. Pseudomonas syringae d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae e. Thermus aquaticus

Pseudomonas fluorescens

The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather. This product contains a strain of a. Escherichia coli b. Pseudomonas fluorescens c. Pseudomonas syringae d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae e. Thermus aquaticus

Pseudomonas syringae

Mannitol salt agar selective for organisms in which bacterial genus? a. Escherichia b. Neisseria c. Salmonella d. Staphylococcus e. Streptococcus

Staphylococcus

Which scientific name is written correctly? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus aureus (underlined or slanted) c. Staphylococcus Aureus d. S. aureus e. staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following is a scientific name? a. anthrax b. Gram positive streptococcus c. Streptobacilli d. Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following properties is likely to be found in a pioneer colonizer of a biofilm on an artificial joint implant? a. No susceptibility to reactive oxygen species like peroxides. b. Surface structures for attaching to tissue. c. The ability to grow at thermophilic body temperature (37⁰C). d. The ability to use the titanium from the implant as an energy source.

Surface structures for attaching to tissue.

Your microscope has a resolving power of 0.15 µm. The specimen that you will be observing has bacterial cocci the size of 0.1 µm in diameter. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The cocci will appear much smaller than their actual size because of the low resolution. b. The cocci will be fuzzy-looking and blend together. c. The cocci will be readily visible and distinct. d. The cocci will not be visible.

The cocci will be fuzzy-looking and blend together.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation.? a. The culture is contaminated. b. The culture medium must be differential. c. The culture medium must be selective. d. The incubation temperature was incorrect. e. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.

The culture is contaminated.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? a. The culture is contaminated. b. The culture medium must be differential. c. The culture medium must be selective. d. The incubation temperature was incorrect. e. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.

The culture medium must be selective.

In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation, swannecked flasks were used. Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment? a. Because the glass necks were stretched out, the heat used to sterilize the medium inside of the flask could not kill the bacteria in the neck. b. The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck. c. These flask shapes were the easiest and cheapest to produce. d. The shape of the glass neck allowed the bacteria into the flask and then into the media, but air could not enter.

The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck.

Endospore-forming bacteria like Bacillus species begin the sporulation process with an asymmetric cell division to produce two cells with different fates. One will differentiate into the endospore, and the other is the sporangium that will ultimately lyse to release the mature endospore. During this asymmetric cell division, one of the compartments does not receive an intact copy of the chromosome. Which compartment can function with only part of the genome and why? a. The endospore; it is a dormant stage and requires very little to maintain its dormancy. b. The endospore; the endospore is built from the outside via the sporangium and not from the inside. c. The sporangium; it supports endospore development and then lyses. d. The sporangium; much of the genome is "junk DNA" and not required for endospore maturation.

The sporangium; it supports endospore development and then lyses.

What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases? a. Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA. b. Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication. c. These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages. d. They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.

These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages.

What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have in common? a. The outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall. b. They are differential stains. c. They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. d. They use a negative stain technique e. They use heat to force the dye into cell structures

They are differential stains.

Which of the following is not true of vectors? a. An origin of replication (ORI) is present. b. They are easy to manipulate. c. They can detect RNA in cells. d. They contain a gene for drug resistance. e. They must accept DNA of desired size.

They can detect RNA in cells.

Eukaryotic cells are larger than bacterial or archaeal cells; all cells are larger than macromolecules. Where do viruses fit on this scale? a. Viruses are larger than eukaryotic cells. b. Viruses are smaller than bacterial or archaeal cells, but larger than macromolecules. c. Viruses are smaller than eukaryotic cells, but larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. d. Viruses are smaller than macromolecules.

Viruses are smaller than bacterial or archaeal cells, but larger than macromolecules.

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis must have a. a capsule. b. fimbriae. c. flagella. d. metachromatic granules. e. thylakoids.

a capsule. (probably wrong)

All bacterial cells have a. a chromosome. b. an S-layer. c. capsules. d. flagella. e. the ability to produce endospores.

a chromosome.

Taxonomy does not involve a. a common name. b. classification. c. identification. d. nomenclature.

a common name.

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that a. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. b. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. c. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. d. microbes are found on dust particles. e. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.

a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.

A drug exhibiting which therapeutic index value would be the safest, most effective to use on a patient? a. 20 b. 10 c. 1 d. 0.1 e. any choice would be equally effective

a. 20

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. b. Infection Control Committee. c. National Institutes of Health. d. United States Department of Agriculture. e. World Health Organization.

a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

Your patient has been on antibiotics for 6 weeks after a case of streptococcal endocarditis, an infection of the inner heart wall. The infection clears up. However, the patient visited you about a urinary tract infection, and the lab verified that the culprit was E. coli. What do you hypothesize happened in this situation? a. Her normal microbiota in the genitourinary tract were killed, allowing E. coli (not killed by the antibiotics) to establish an infection. b. The antibiotics damaged her immune system, making her very susceptible to environmental bacteria. c. The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and in fact, the endocarditis was caused by E. coli. d. The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and in fact, the UTI was caused by the original Streptococcus.

a. Her normal microbiota in the genitourinary tract were killed, allowing E. coli (not killed by the antibiotics) to establish an infection.

Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass? a. Leeuwenhoek b. Lister c. Pasteur d. Redi e. Schultz and Schwann

a. Leeuwenhoek

A major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold a. Penicillium chrysogenum. b. Penicillium familiaris. c. Penicillium notatum. d. Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used.

a. Penicillium chrysogenum.

Over 50% of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans? a. Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans. b. The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion c. The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections. d. The use of antibiotic for livestock means that there will are not enough for use in the human population.

a. Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans.

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin and penicillin G all have a. a beta-lactam ring. b. an expanded spectrum of activity. c. a semisynthetic nature. d. resistance to the action of penicillinase.

a. a beta-lactam ring.

A superinfection results from a. a decrease in most normal biota resulting in the overgrowth of an unaffected species. b. an immune system reaction to the drug. c. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. d. the wrong drug administered to the patient.

a. a decrease in most normal biota resulting in the overgrowth of an unaffected species.

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from a. air. b. human tissues. c. liquids. d. medical instruments. e. all of the choices are correct

a. air.

Infections caused by Gram-negative bacilli are often treated with a. aminoglycosides. b. isoniazid. c. penicillin G. d. synercid. e. vancomycin.

a. aminoglycosides.

The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is a. amphotericin B. b. griseofulvin. c. metronidazole. d. nystatin. e. sulfa drugs.

a. amphotericin B.

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy bacteria are called a. antibiotics. b. broad spectrum drugs. c. narrow spectrum drugs. d. semisynthetic drugs. e. synthetic drugs.

a. antibiotics.

The alcohol wipe used on a patient's skin before an injection is an example of a. antisepsis. b. decontamination. c. disinfection. d. sanitization. e. sterilization.

a. antisepsis.

The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed a. antisepsis. b. decontamination. c. disinfection. d. sterilization.

a. antisepsis.

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? a. aqueous glutaraldehyde b. chlorhexidine c. 3% hydrogen peroxide d. iodophor e. merthiolate

a. aqueous glutaraldehyde

Which of the following is an example of sequelae? a. arthritis from Lyme disease b. diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection c. difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection d. headache from meningitis

a. arthritis from Lyme disease

Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called a. asymptomatic. b. inflammation. c. malaise. d. secondary infection. e. syndromes.

a. asymptomatic.

What instrument is most effective for pressure-temperature sterilization? a. autoclave b. Bunsen burner c. incubator d. oven e. water-bath

a. autoclave

A saprobe differs from a parasite in that a saprobe a. cannot infect a human, but a parasite is always infectious. b. derives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals. c. does not harm a host that it lives on, whereas a parasite does harm a host. d. is a fungus, but a parasite can be any type of microbe.

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All communicable diseases a. are caused by microorganisms or their products. b. are caused by vectors. c. are contagious. d. involve viruses as the pathogen. e. only occur in animals.

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An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that a. blocks maturation b. blocks penetration c. blocks transcripton and translation d. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane e. inhibits DNA synthesis

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Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are transferred to ocean water would a. become dehydrated due to the loss of water. b. be in a hypotonic solution. c. be in an isotonic solution. d. gain water.

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Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive human insulin produced through a. gel electrophoresis. b. gene therapy. c. PCR. d. recombinant DNA technology.

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Comparing transmission electron microscopy with scanning electron microscopy, the following statement is true. a. Transmission EM can provide good images of bacteria but not viruses. b. Transmission EM gives detail of the external architecture of cells. c. Transmission EM is used for internal detail of cells and subcellular structures. d. Transmission EM requires dyes.

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Gram negative bacteria a. are generally more susceptible to antibiotics than Gram positive bacteria. b. include all pathogens. c. have a more complex envelope with a greater variation in chemical composition. d. appear purple following the Gram stain.

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Microbes in a biofilm use quorum sensing to a. assess the size of a particular microbial population. b. attach to surfaces. c. inactivate antibiotic molecules. d. transfer genetic material among individual cells.

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Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA fingerprinting techniques. The discovery of ____ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic material. a. frameshift mutations b. microarrays c. miRNAs d. SNPs

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SNPs are derived from a. frameshift mutations. b. gene therapy. c. genetic engineering. d. point mutations.

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The intermediary inanimate object from which an infectious agent is acquired is termed the a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. vector.

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The suffix -osis means a. a disease or morbid process. b. an inflammation. c. blood. d. pertaining to. e. tumor.

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Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis. The Gram-negative spirochete has never been cultured on bacteriological media. Select the statement that most accurately describes this disease-causing microbe. a. Because the bacterium cannot be grown, there is no way to characterize the organism as to staining features, biochemical test reactions, molecular testing, etc. b. Koch's postulates cannot be fulfilled for this disease. c. There is no satisfactory way to identify the disease without being able to grow it. d. There is no way to perform an epidemiological study on this disease.

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When bacilli in a chain fold back upon each other like a hinge, this cellular arrangement is termed a a. palisade. b. sarcina. c. staph. d. strep. e. tetrad.

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Which of the following is a disadvantage of dry heat methods such as using a Bunsen burner to incinerate microbes from an inoculating loop and the use of a hot air oven? a. Bunsen burners and hot air ovens only reach a maximum of 100 ⁰C so they are not effective against endospores. b. Bunsen burners take too long to sterilize and hot air ovens are hazardous to the operators. c. neither of these methods actually sterilize; they only kill vegetative cells. d. use of an open flame can be dangerous and hot air ovens take much longer to sterilize than autoclave.

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Which of the following is true regarding the use of osmotic pressure as an antimicrobial agent? a. Exposing a microbe to a hypertonic environment draws water out of the cell, causing plasmolysis. b. Exposing organisms to the air on a benchtop so they completely dry out is an example of using osmotic pressure as a means of microbial control. c. Salt is an effective solute to create an osmotic pressure gradient outside of a cell; however, the use of sugar, such as in jams and jellies, work via a different mechanism. d. Salts and sugars external to a microbe create a hypotonic environment, which causes lysis of the cell.

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Which of the following properties are shared by both bacteria and archaea? a. cell wall polysaccharides b. ester linkages in fatty acids c. method of DNA compaction d. single, circular chromosome

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Which of the following represents microbial control by osmotic pressure? a. canning tomatoes after a summer growing season to use throughout the winter b. pickling cucumbers and other vegetables for long-term storage c. placing fruit slices on a drying rack d. the crew of the Mayflower using salted meats throughout their voyage to the New World

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Which of the following statements regarding chemotaxis is incorrect? a. In a cell with peritrichous flagella, each flagellum moves individually but in a coordinated direction during a run. b. In a tumble, the flagellum reverses direction, causing the cell to stop moving and change course. c. The fuel for flagellar motion is not ATP, but a proton gradient. d. When a cell detects a nutrient gradient, it will increase the frequency of runs to move toward the nutrient.

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Which of these recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched? a. erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow b. Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade c. interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production d. tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting

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Sterile refers to a. absence of any life forms and viral particles. b. absence of spores. c. homogenized. d. pasteurized. e. pathogen-free.

absence of any life forms and viral particles.

Mycobacterium and Nocardia are distinguished from other bacteria by the ____ stain. a. acid-fast b. basic c. endospore d. Gram e. methylene blue

acid-fast

The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called a. active transport. b. diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. facilitated diffusion. e. osmosis.

active transport.

The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to a. add contrast in order to see them better. b. enlarge the cells. c. kill them. d. secure them to the slide. e. observe motility.

add contrast in order to see them better.

An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a/an a. aerobe. b. facultative anaerobe. c. microaerophile. d. obligate aerobe. e. obligate anaerobe.

aerobe.

Agar is an important component of media because a. agar inhibits mold growth. b. agar prevents contamination. c. agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth. d. bacteria require agar as a source of carbon. e. all of the choices are correct

agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth.

Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an a. algae. b. bacterium. c. fungus. d. green plant. e. marine invertebrate.

algae.

Which of the following is not a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology? a. biofilms b. PCR technique c. restriction enzymes d. small RNAs e. all are significant discoveries

all are significant discoveries

Analysis of the small subunit rRNAs from all organisms in the three current domains suggests that a. all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor. b. the Archaea are more closely related to bacteria than eukaryotes. c. the eukaryotes arose from prokaryotes. d. the prokaryotes, archaea, and eukaryotes are not related.

all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor.

Genetically modified organisms include a. bacteria. b. nonhuman animals. c. plants. d. viruses. e. all of the above have been genetically modified.

all of the above have been genetically modified.

Differential media result in which of the following growth characteristics? a. differently colored colonies b. different media color after incubation c. gas bubbles d. chemical precipitates e. all of the choices are correct

all of the choices are correct

Endospores are a. living structures. b. metabolically inactive. c. resistant to destruction by radiation. d. resistant to heat and chemical treatments. e. all of the choices are correct

all of the choices are correct

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on a. application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate. b. DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen. c. DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole. d. larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells. e. all of the choices are correct.

all of the choices are correct.

Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are a. artificial chromosomes. b. bacteriophages. c. plasmids. d. viruses. e. all of the choices are correct.

all of the choices are correct.

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as a. enzymes. b. fluorescent dyes. c. radioisotopes. d. all of the choices are correct.

all of the choices are correct.

Transgenic animals a. are often obtained from germline engineering. b. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins. c. commonly include mice. d. will pass the genes on to their offspring. e. all of the choices are correct.

all of the choices are correct.

Organisms called parasites are a. always harmful to their host. b. always viruses. c. free-living. d. the deomposers in ecosystems.

always harmful to their host.

The term that refers to flagella at both poles of the cell is a. amphitrichous. b. atrichous. c. lophotrichous. d. monotrichous. e. peritrichous.

amphitrichous.

A reducing medium is used to culture ____ organisms. a. aerobic b. anaerobic c. fastidious d. pathogenic

anaerobic

The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called a. antibiosis. b. mutualism. c. symbiosis. d. synergism.

antibiosis.

Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene? a. antisense therapy b. cloning c. DNA fingerprinting d. gene therapy

antisense therapy

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is a. antisepsis. b. disinfection. c. sanitization. d. sterilization.

antisepsis.

Microorganisms are best defined as organisms that a. are infectious particles. b. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye. c. can only be found growing in laboratories. d. cause human disease. e. lack a cell nucleus.

are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.

Two functions of bacterial appendages are a. antibiotic resistance and motility. b. attachment and energy production. c. attachment and motility. d. motility and energy production.

attachment and motility.

Basic dyes are a. anionic. b. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. c. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. d. repelled by cells. e. used in negative staining.

attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.

Bacteriophages selectively infect bacterial cells. How might they be used as a therapeutic treatment in humans? a. Bacteriophages can be used to genetically engineer bacterial cells making them more susceptible to drugs. b. Humans suffering from infections with antibiotic resistant bacteria can be treated with phages, which will infect and lyse the bacterial cells, leaving human cells unaffected. c. Phages can be used to stimulate human immune cells to attack and kill bacterial cells. d. Phages can carry genes into cells which will genetically modify the host cells to prevent infection.

b. Humans suffering from infections with antibiotic resistant bacteria can be treated with phages, which will infect and lyse the bacterial cells, leaving human cells unaffected.

Three classmates from microbiology class are talking about drug resistance. They each disagree about the definition of the term so they state their definitions and give their justification for each definition. Compare the various definitions and justifications below and pick the one that is most accurate. a. The bacterium becomes immune to the drug, the drug no longer kills or inhibits the bacterium. b. The bacterium has changed physically or chemically in some way to be able to destroy the drug or avoid its action, allowing it to grow unimpeded by the drug. c. The drug is changed in the body and is inactivated physically and chemically so it no longer works properly against the bacterium. d. The person becomes resistant to the drug; the body adjusts to the dosage of the chemical so it no longer responds to its action.

b. The bacterium has changed physically or chemically in some way to be able to destroy the drug or avoid its action, allowing it to grow unimpeded by the drug.

You have given a dosage of an antibiotic to a patient for his infection, but the patient is not getting any better. The MIC tests shows that the drug that you prescribed, at the dosage that was given, should work against this particular strain of bacterium. What do you think might be the problem? a. The bacterium is immune to the chemical effects of the drug. b. The drug might be broken down in the patient's body before it can have its full effect on the bacterium. c. The drug was improperly made at the pharmaceutical company, so is no longer effective. d. The patient is resistant to the drug.

b. The drug might be broken down in the patient's body before it can have its full effect on the bacterium.

A patient has a staphylococcal infection of the blood; a septicemia - very serious and possibly deadly. As the doctor, you would like to prescribe a relatively non-toxic and inexpensive drug out of the cephalosporin family. However, if the patient harbors a strain of Staphylococcus that is resistant to a variety of antibiotics, you would prefer to use vancomycin - which is highly effective against Staphylococcus. Which of the following explains why the cephalosporin drug is preferred for use over the vancomycin? a. Vancomycin is one of the most selectively toxic drugs there is, so you would prefer one that has a more broad-spectrum effect. b. Vancomycin is very toxic, and the Staphylococcus strain could become resistant leaving no back-up drugs with which to treat the infection. c. You really do not know that much about vancomycin, so you would rather go with a drug that you can find out more about. d. You would rather give an inexpensive drug to save the family mone.

b. Vancomycin is very toxic, and the Staphylococcus strain could become resistant leaving no back-up drugs with which to treat the infection.

A symptom is a. an objective indication of disease. b. a subjective indication of disease. c. a temperature. d. measurable by health care personnel.

b. a subjective indication of disease.

Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor? a. ability to survive intracellularly b. adhering to the host c. production of leukocidins d. secretion of a capsule e. secretion of slime

b. adhering to the host

The suffix -itis means a. a disease or morbid process. b. an inflammation. c. blood. d. pertaining to. e. tumor.

b. an inflammation.

A sign is a. an objective indication of disease. b. an objective indication of disease that is measurable by health-care personnel. c. a subjective indication of disease. d. malaise and body aches. e. measurable by health-care personnel.

b. an objective indication of disease that is measurable by health-care personnel.

An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics except they a. are easily administered. b. are easily broken down by the host. c. are nonallergenic. d. are non-toxic to host. e. have limited capacity to elicit resistance.

b. are easily broken down by the host.

When considering time and temperature as factors in microbiocidal activity, they a. are directly proportional to each other. b. are inversely proportional to each other. c. is not a factor, only temperature. d. must be of equal value - e.g., 30 minutes at 30 ⁰C.

b. are inversely proportional to each other.

Placing organisms at 4° C is a. bactericidal. b. bacteriostatic. c. decontamination. d. germicidal e. sterilization.

b. bacteriostatic.

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are a. aerosols. b. biological vectors. c. droplet nuclei. d. fomites. e. mechanical vectors.

b. biological vectors.

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are called a. antibiotics. b. broad-spectrum drugs. c. narrow-spectrum drugs. d. semisynthetic drugs. e. synthetic drugs.

b. broad-spectrum drugs.

Opportunistic pathogens a. are always pathogens. b. cause disease in compromised individuals. c. cause disease in every individual. d. have well developed virulence factors.

b. cause disease in compromised individuals.

The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is a. carbolic acid. b. chlorhexidine. c. formalin. d. quaternary ammonium compounds. e. triclosan.

b. chlorhexidine.

Carriers are shed and transmit pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease are called ____ carriers. a. asymptomatic b. chronic c. convalescent d. incubation e. passive

b. chronic

Which of the following is not a structure used for bacterial adhesion? a. adhesive slime or capsules b. cilia c. fimbriae d. specialized receptors e. surface proteins

b. cilia

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is a. aztreonam. b. clavulanic acid. c. imipenem. d. penicillinase. e. synercid.

b. clavulanic acid.

Which term-definition pair is mismatched? a. capsules - anti-phagocytic factor b. coagulase - dissolves fibrin clots c. fimbriae - adherence to substrate d. hemolysins - damage red blood cells e. leukocidins - damage white blood cells

b. coagulase - dissolves fibrin clots

Since the 1970s, approximately 40 new infective diseases agents have been discovered, including SARS, chikungunya and zica. The ability of these agents to spread rapidly and cause global concern is due to all of the following except a. communities are becoming more densely populated. b. communities are becoming more sparsely populated. c. communities are spreading into rural areas/wildlife habitats. d. individuals are traveling more frequently and farther distances than in the previous half-century.

b. communities are becoming more sparsely populated.

Leukopenia is the ____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient. a. abnormal production b. decrease c. elevation d. stabilization

b. decrease

Some microbial control agents are able to ____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, the three-dimensional configuration of the proteins. a. bind b. denature c. dissolve d. mutate

b. denature

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following except a. deafness. b. development of resistance to the drug. c. diarrhea. d. hepatotoxicity. e. nephrotoxicity.

b. development of resistance to the drug.

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is a. aerosol. b. direct. c. droplet nuclei. d. fomes. e. vehicle.

b. direct.

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is referred to as a. chronic. b. endemic. c. epidemic. d. pandemic. e. sporadic.

b. endemic.

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is a. clinical microbiology. b. epidemiology. c. immunology. d. medicine. e. pathology.

b. epidemiology.

The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is a. chlorine dioxide. b. ethylene oxide. c. formaldehyde. d. glutaraldehyde. e. iodophor.

b. ethylene oxide.

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.

b. fomes.

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat a. bacterial. b. fungal. c. helminthic. d. protozoan. e. viral.

b. fungal.

Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances? a. hand washing b. healthcare worker with active lesions handling patients c. mask and gloves d. proper disposal of needles e. sterilizing or disinfecting dental hand pieces

b. healthcare worker with active lesions handling patients

Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by a. hepatitis C virus. b. herpes simplex virus. c. HIV. d. influenza A virus. e. respiratory syncytial virus.

b. herpes simplex virus.

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except a. boiling water. b. hydrogen peroxide. c. pasteurization. d. ultraviolet radiation.

b. hydrogen peroxide.

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ____ rate. a. epidemic b. incidence c. morbidity d. mortality e. prevalence

b. incidence

The time from when the pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the a. convalescent stage. b. incubation period. c. period of invasion. d. prodromal stage.

b. incubation period.

Beta-lactams are selectively toxic because they a. cause hepato- and nephrotoxicity in humans. b. inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan, which humans do not make. c. initiate allergic reactions in many humans. d. often initiate the evolution of drug-resistant organisms.

b. inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan, which humans do not make.

Selective toxicity exhibited by a drug means that the drug a. is effective against Gram-positive bacteria but not Gram-negative. b. is effective against the target organism but not the human host. c. is toxic against to the human host but ineffective against the organism. d. kills some organisms but not others.

b. is effective against the target organism but not the human host.

Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms except a. conjugation. b. mutation. c. R-plasmids. d. transposons.

b. mutation.

The difference between the terms pathogenicity and virulence is that a. pathogenic organisms cause disease, virulent organisms do not. b. pathogens cause disease and their virulence describes the degree of pathogenicity. c. virulent organsims cause disease and their pathogenicity describes the degree of disease manifestations. d. virulent organisms cause disease, pathogens do not.

b. pathogens cause disease and their virulence describes the degree of pathogenicity.

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by a. bacterial chromosomal mutations. b. removing the drug from the cell when it enters. c. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.

b. removing the drug from the cell when it enters.

The term ____ refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood that multiply and act as pathogens. a. bacteremia b. septicemia c. toxemia d. viremia

b. septicemia

What is one goal of the Human Microbiome Project? a. to elucidate genetically-linked diseases. b. to provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease c. to sequence the DNA of all microorganisms d. to study microorganisms in an artificial habitat e. to study the prevalence of disease

b. to provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease

A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last Universal Common Ancestor would show Archaea a. branching off the Domain Bacteria. b. branching off the Domain Eukarya. c. as the original cells from which the others derived.

branching off the Domain Eukarya.

Which type of microscope shows cells against a bright background? a. bright-field b. confocal c. electron d. fluorescence e. phase-contrast

bright-field

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? a. Cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed. b. Cells die at increasingly greater rates. c. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. d. Only older cells die in a culture. e. Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time.

c. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate.

____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage. a. Betadine b. Bromine c. Chlorine d. Fluorine e. Iodine

c. Chlorine

All of the following genera are considered resident biota of skin sites except a. Candida. b. Corynebacterium. c. Escherichia. d. Micrococcus. e. Staphylococcus.

c. Escherichia.

____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them. a. Boiling b. Disinfection c. Filtration d. Radiation e. Sterilization

c. Filtration

Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by a. hepatitis C virus. b. herpes zoster virus. c. HIV. d. influenza A virus. e. respiratory syncytial virus.

c. HIV.

Disease can re-emerge for a variety of reasons. Evaluate the following statements and choose the one that does not provide evidence for a re-emergence. a. Agents of bioterrorism have been introduced into a population. b. Climate change influences arthropods to expand their geographical areas. c. Humans have avoided animal habitats. d. Pathogens evolve over time.

c. Humans have avoided animal habitats.

Which of the following is not a primary target of milk pasteurization? a. Brucella b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Lactobacillus d. Listeria monocytogenes e. Salmonella

c. Lactobacillus

____ solution was introduced in the late 19th century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal. a. Betadine b. Merthiolate c. Silver nitrate d. Triclosan e. Zinc oxide

c. Silver nitrate

Alexander Fleming had been running tests using Staphylococcus, and he left some plates out to incubate. Evidently, after returning to his lab after the weekend, he found that Penicillium mold was growing on his agar plates containing the growth of Staphylococcus. Looking more closely, he found a large, clear area around the mold colony where Staphylococcus colonies did not grow. Given this situation, a valid hypothesis would be that the a. bacteriological medium being used in the plates was somehow inhibitory to the Staphylococcus growth. b. Penicillium mold was being killed by the Staphylococcus. c. Staphylococcus was being inhibited by the Penicillium mold. d. room temperature incubation was inhibitory to the growth of Staphylococcus.

c. Staphylococcus was being inhibited by the Penicillium mold.

Why do researchers often include DNase in their antibiotic preparations to eliminate biofilms? a. If the microbe's genome can be destroyed, the cell will die. b. Targeting the bacterial chromosome is the most effective way to kill biofilm bacteria. c. The antibiotics cannot readily penetrate the extracellular debris, which often includes DNA from lysed cells. d. The antibiotics target the cell wall and DNase targets the genome, effectively destroying the biofilm.

c. The antibiotics cannot readily penetrate the extracellular debris, which often includes DNA from lysed cells.

Your friend, Joe, recently visited the doctor for steroid injections into his knee to reduce swelling due to a previous knee injury. Within a couple of days, he had an infection caused by Pseudomonas, a very pathogenic and drug resistant bacterium. Luckily, Joe went to the doctor immediately and received antibiotics. The doctor tells him that the same problem has occurred to many other people across the United States. Predict the most likely cause of this situation. a. The bacterium is normally on the skin of people, so can easily access the patient's blood during the needle stick. b. The needles were re-used and already contaminated before being used on the patients. c. The staff giving the steroid injections did not use proper aseptic technique. d. The steroid was contaminated at the production plant, so all batches of that drug made at that plant were contaminated with the bacterium.

c. The staff giving the steroid injections did not use proper aseptic technique.

Which of the following is not true of the preliminary findings by the HMP thus far? a. Microbial antagonism prevents potential pathogens in the resident biota from causing disease. b. The number of bacterial genes outnumber human genes by millions in the holobiont. c. There are many more sterile sites in the human than were previously assumed. d. Viruses have played an important role in guiding the evolution of both humans and their resident flora.

c. There are many more sterile sites in the human than were previously assumed.

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and anthelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths a. are not affected by antimicrobials. b. are parasites found inside human cells. c. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve. d. have fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria. e. do not cause many human infections.

c. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve.

Penicillins and cephalosporins a. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. b. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. c. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. d. damage cell membranes. e. destroy peptidoglycan.

c. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

The suffix -emia means a. a disease or morbid process. b. an inflammation. c. blood. d. pertaining to. e. tumor.

c. blood.

Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease are called ____ carriers. a. asymptomatic b. chronic c. convalescent d. incubation e. passive

c. convalescent

Each of the following affect cell walls except a. cephalosporin. b. cycloserine. c. erythromycin. d. penicillin. e. vancomycin.

c. erythromycin.

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of a. adhesive factors. b. antiphagocytic factors. c. exoenzymes. d. exotoxins. e. hemolysins.

c. exoenzymes.

Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? a. carbapenems. b. cephalosporins c. gentamicin d. penicillins e. vancomycin

c. gentamicin

Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat ____ infections. a. bacterial. b. fungal. c. helminthic. d. protozoan. e. viral.

c. helminthic.

The minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed is termed a/an a. endotoxin. b. indigenous biota. c. infectious dose. d. minimal dose. e. virulence factor.

c. infectious dose.

Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botunlinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/an a. hemolysin. b. infection. c. intoxication. d. pandemic. e. toxemia.

c. intoxication.

Dry heat a. cannot sterilize. b. includes tyndallization. c. is less efficient than moist heat. d. is used in devices called autoclaves. e. will sterilize at 121° C for 15 minutes.

c. is less efficient than moist heat.

Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called ____ will remain preserved and viable for years. a. desiccation b. flash freeze c. lyophilization d. pasteurization e. sterilization

c. lyophilization

The drug used for several protozoan infections is a. amphotericin B. b. griseofulvin. c. metronidazole. d. nystatin. e. sulfa drugs.

c. metronidazole.

The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the ____ rate. a. endemic b. incidence c. morbidity d. mortality e. pandemic

c. morbidity

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as a. lantibiotics. b. phytobiotics. c. prebiotics. d. probiotics. e. riboswitches.

c. prebiotics.

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.

c. reservoir.1

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the a. gastrointestinal system. b. genital system. c. respiratory system. d. skin. e. urinary system.

c. respiratory system.

The difference between thermal death time and thermal death point in microbicidal activity is that thermal death time is the a. greatest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes. b. shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a 100 ⁰C, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes. c. shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes. d. shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 30 minutes.

c. shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes.

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an a. inflammation. b. pathology. c. sign. d. symptom. e. syndrome.

c. sign.

If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a/an ____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B. a. equal-sized b. larger c. smaller

c. smaller

The most selectively toxic drugs are those that a. cause allergic reactions in humans b. cause damage to host tissues. c. target microbial sites that are not present in humans, e.g., the bacterial cell wall. d. target structures present in both microbes and humans, thus causing host tissue damage.

c. target microbial sites that are not present in humans, e.g., the bacterial cell wall.

Drug susceptibility testing determines a. if normal biota will be affected by antimicrobials. b. if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. c. the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials. d. the patient's response to various antimicrobials.

c. the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials.

A high therapeutic index is advantageous. This refers to a. high efficacy of the drug against the target microbe. b. selective toxicity and human toxicity are both high. c. the ratio between high selective toxicity and low human toxicity. d. the ratio between low selective toxicity and high human toxicity.

c. the ratio between high selective toxicity and low human toxicity.

Your patient has a rash, a fever, and a very high white blood cell count. Blood specimens are taken, put into culture bottles, and sent down to the microbiology lab for incubation and analysis. Select the statement that best reflects why microbial analysis of blood is an important step in patient diagnosis. a. A few bacterial cells in a blood sample are no big deal and should be ignored. b. A lack of microbes in the blood means that the patient's health is critical. c. Blood specimens are often obtained through poor aseptic technique by the healthcare worker: this is documentation of their failure to employ proper universal precautions. d. Microbial growth in blood samples may indicate sepsis.

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The cell membrane, the cell wall and the outer membrane comprise the a. cell envelope. b. glycocalyx. c. peptidoglycan. d. S-layer. e. slime layer.

cell envelope.

Nutrient absorption is mediated by the a. cell membrane. b. cell wall. c. nuclear membrane. d. peptidoglycan layer. e. proteins in the periplasmic space.

cell membrane.

The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the a. cell membrane. b. cell wall. c. hook. d. outer membrane. e. peptidoglycan layer.

cell membrane.

The site for ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is the a. cell membrane. b. cell wall. c. microcompartment. d. mitochondria. e. ribosomes.

cell membrane.

If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the a. capsule. b. cell membrane. c. cell wall. d. endospore. e. slime layer.

cell wall.

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the a. cell membrane. b. cell wall. c. flagella. d. ribosomes.

cell wall.

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial a. capsules. b. cell membranes. c. cell walls. d. inclusions. e. slime layers.

cell walls.

Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except a. cilia. b. fimbriae. c. flagella. d. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) e. pili.

cilia.

The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called a. biotechnology. b. classification. c. experimentation. d. identification. e. nomenclature.

classification.

Which step in gene mapping involves transformation? a. cloning host receives plasmid b. desired protein is produced by cloning host c. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host d. target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonucleases e. target DNA removed from cells and isolated

cloning host receives plasmid

In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ____ represents one ____ from the sample. a. cell, cell b. cell, colony c. colony, cell d. generation, cell e. species, colony

colony, cell

When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called a. commensalism. b. mutualism. c. symbiosis. d. synergism.

commensalism.

Mycobacterium and Nocardia are different from most Gram-positive bacteria in that their cell walls a. are easily decolorized during staining. b. contain a layer of lipopolysaccharide. c. contain more peptidoglycan. d. contain unique, waxy, lipids.

contain more peptidoglycan.

In which way are bacteria and eukaryotes the same? a. contain a nucleus to hold DNA b. contain membrane-bound organelles c. contain ribosomes for protein synthesis d. have a cell wall for rigidity

contain ribosomes for protein synthesis

Which term refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? a. contrast b. magnification c. refraction d. resolution

contrast (probably wrong)

Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell? a. carbon b. copper c. hydrogen d. nitrogen e. oxygen

copper

Which is the correct order for the application of reagents in the Gram stain? a. crystal violet - alcohol - iodine -safranin b. crystal violet - iodine - alcohol - safranin c. crystal violet - safranin - iodine - alcohol d. iodine - safranin - crystal violet - alcohol e. safranin - crystal violet - alcohol - iodine

crystal violet - iodine - alcohol - safranin

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are a. 63° C for 30 minutes. b. 71.6° C for 15 seconds. c. 100° C for 30 minutes. d. 121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. e. 160° C for 2 hours.

d. 121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.

Which of the following phrases reflects an effective treatment of biofilms? a. Add DNase to the antibiotics to disrupt extracellular debris. b. Interrupt quorum-sensing pathways, preventing signaling between cells. c. Pre-treat with newly-discovered antimicrobials before exposure to established drugs. d. All of the above have been shown to enhance biofilm elimination.

d. All of the above have been shown to enhance biofilm elimination.

Who is considered to be the father of modern antibiotics? a. Chargaff b. Crick c. Domagk d. Fleming e. Watson

d. Fleming

Physicians are required to report new cases of gonorrhea to the CDC, wheras new cases of genital herpes are not notifiable. Evaluate the statements below and choose which statement best represents why some diseases are reportable and others are not. a. Genital herpes is less deadly than gonorrhea. b. Gonorrhea affects certain populations and geographic areas, whereas genital herpes does not. c. Gonorrhea is more contagious than genital herpes. d. Gonorrhea is treatable with antibiotics and therefore may develop resistance; genital herpes is not treatable with antibiotics.

d. Gonorrhea is treatable with antibiotics and therefore may develop resistance; genital herpes is not treatable with antibiotics.

____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to ____ heat. a. Dry, moist b. High, dry c. High, moist d. Moist, dry e. Moist, high

d. Moist, dry

Antibiotics are derived from all of the following except a. Bacillus. b. Cephalosporium. c. Penicillium. d. Staphylococcus. e. Streptomyces.

d. Staphylococcus.

Sterilization is achieved by a. boiling water. b. flash pasteurization. c. hot water. d. steam autoclave. e. all of the choices are correct.

d. steam autoclave.

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? a. an antibiogram b. an E-test c. a Kirby-Bauer technique d. a minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test e. a therapeutic index (TI)

d. a minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test

Exotoxins a. are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms. b. are bound to membrane of pathogenic organisms. c. are host specific. d. are secreted by pathogenic organisms. e. cause more damage than endotoxins.

d. are secreted by pathogenic organisms.

Each of the following results in drug resistance except a drug a. being blocked from entering cell. b. being inactivated. c. being pumped out of the cell. d. being used as a nutrient by the cell. e. binding site being altered.

d. being used as a nutrient by the cell.

Which of the following is not a mode of action of antiviral drugs? a. block maturation b. block penetration c. block transcripton and translation d. bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane e. inhibit DNA synthesis

d. bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal biota leading to antibiotic-associated colitis, is a. bacitracin. b. chloramphenicol. c. ciprofloxacin. d. clindamycin. e. gentamicin.

d. clindamycin.

Each of the following is the target of antimicrobial agents except a. cell membranes. b. cellular proteins. c. cell walls. d. cytoplasm. e. ribosomes.

d. cytoplasm.

Surfactants work by a. blocking transport into the organism. b. blocking transport out from the organism. c. coating the organism preventing interaction with its environment. d. disrupting membrane integrity.

d. disrupting membrane integrity.

An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called a. an enterotoxin. b. an exotoxin. c. axenic. d. endogenous. e. exogenous.

d. endogenous.

The chemical agent(s) that produce(s) highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is a. cationic detergents. b. Cidex. c. chlorhexidine. d. hydrogen peroxide. e. iodophors.

d. hydrogen peroxide.

In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using a. chemicals. b. filtration. c. gas sterilization. d. incineration. e. moist heat.

d. incineration.

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ____ rate. a. endemic b. incidence c. morbidity d. mortality e. pandemic

d. mortality

Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except a. addition of antibiotics to common household products. b. improper use of antibiotics. c. ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed. d. multiple drug therapy. e. overuse of antibiotics.

d. multiple drug therapy.

Microbial death occurs when there is a. a change in appearance. b. a decrease in size. c. no movement. d. no reproduction. e. all of these occur

d. no reproduction.

Which antimicrobial method does not sterilize? a. autoclave b. ethylene oxide gas c. ionizing radiation d. pasteurization

d. pasteurization

The term infection refers to a. contact with microorganisms. b. contact with pathogens. c. microorganisms colonizing the body. d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.

d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.

What molecule will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins? a. aztreonam b. clavulanic acid c. imipenem d. penicillinase e. synercid

d. penicillinase

All ____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring and an R group. a. aminoglycosides b. cephalosporins c. macrolides d. penicillins e. tetracyclines

d. penicillins

Which of the following methods of microbial control is mismatched? a. autoclaving nutrient agar before pouring into Petri plates - sterilization b. exposure of surgical equipment to ultraviolet light - radiation c. heating a liquid to 71.6 ⁰C for 15 seconds - pasteurization d. pickling eggs - osmotic pressure

d. pickling eggs - osmotic pressure

The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of a. lantibiotics. b. phytobiotics. c. prebiotics. d. probiotics. e. riboswitches.

d. probiotics.

The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called a. competitive inhibition. b. lantibiotics. c. prebiotics. d. prophylaxis. e. synergism.

d. prophylaxis.

Exotoxins are a. antiphagocytic factors. b. lipopolysaccharides. c. only released after a cell is damaged or lysed. d. proteins secreted by living bacterial cells. e. secretions that always target nervous tissue.

d. proteins secreted by living bacterial cells.

Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in treatment of ____ infections. a. fungal b. Gram-negative bacterial c. Gram-positive bacterial d. protozoan e. viral

d. protozoan

Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method? a. bleaching a kitchen counter b. exposing dental equipment to UV light c. rinsing of a cut with betadine d. salting of meat

d. salting of meat

The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms and debris to reduce contamination to safe levels is termed a. antisepsis. b. decontamination. c. disinfection. d. sanitization. e. sterilization.

d. sanitization.

An endotoxin is a. indicative of fungal infections. b. indicative of Gram-negative bacterial infection. c. indicative of viral infections. d. secreted by Gram-positive organisms. e. secreted by pathogenic organisms.

d. secreted by Gram-positive organisms.

Some diseases can cause long-term or permanent damage in the patient termed a. abscesses. b. edema. c. granulomas. d. sequelae. e. swollen lymph nodes

d. sequelae.

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility? a. bactericide b. fungicide c. germicide d. sporicide e. virucide

d. sporicide

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention mandates that some diseases must be reported, while it is not necessary for others. This is so that a. disease trends and areas of outbreak can be monitored for certain diseases. b. high-risk epidemics can be identified and dealt with as quickly as possible. c. statistics may be gathered for certain diseases. d. the incidence and prevalence for diseases of public health importance can be tracked. e. All of the above answers validate why it is important to report certain diseases to the CDC.

d. the incidence and prevalence for diseases of public health importance can be tracked.

Selective toxicity refers to damage to a. nucleic acids. b. pathogenic organisms. c. prokaryotic cell membranes. d. the target organisms but not vertebrate cells.

d. the target organisms but not vertebrate cells.

You have inherited some old glass baby bottles from your grandmother, and you would like to use them instead of plastic bottles. The bottles are placed into a large metal container and placed in the oven at 325 ⁰F for about 2 hours. What factor would you change if you wanted the sterilization to occur much quicker? a. increase the temperature of the oven by 5 degrees b. place the bottles outside in the sunlight and then place in the oven c. pour an antimicrobial chemical into the bottles before placing them in the oven d. use a pressure cooker to sterilize the bottles with steam

d. use a pressure cooker to sterilize the bottles with steam

An infection spread between animals and humans is a a. healthcare-associated infection. b. secondary infection. c. sequela. d. zoonosis.

d. zoonosis.

The type of microscopy in which you would observe brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is a. confocal. b. dark-field. c. electron. d. fluorescence. e. phase-contrast.

dark-field.

A microaerophile a. grows best in an anaerobic jar. b. grows with or without oxygen. c. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. d. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels of oxygen.

ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddd

Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from puberty to menopause? a. Clostridium. b. Escherichia. c. Hemophilus. d. Lactobacillus. e. Treponema.

ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddd

Which of the following is not true regarding healthcare-associated infections? a. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents. b. Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence. c. The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent. d. These infections are only transmitted by medical personnel. e. These infections often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.

ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddd

The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called a. decomposers. b. eukaryotes. c. fermenters. d. pathogens. e. prokaryotes.

decomposers.

Caring for patients infected with a new virus requires safety precautions for medical personnel. Choosing appropriate procedures is an example of a(n) ____ process. a. deductive b. hypothetical c. inductive d. pathogenic

deductive

A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on a. bioremediation. b. determining evolutionary relatedness. c. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease. d. nomenclature. e. recombinant DNA.

determining evolutionary relatedness.

The Gram staining procedure is best described as a ____ staining technique. a. differential b. negative c. selective d. simple

differential

Which type of medium distinguishes different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? a. differential b. enriched c. enumeration d. reducing e. selective

differential

The effect of beneficial microbes of normal biota against invading microbes is called a. axenic. b. endogenous infection. c. gnotobiotism. d. infectious disease. e. microbial antagonism.

e. microbial antagonism.

Eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB) is a commonly used bacteriological medium for growing Gram-negative bacteria from complex environments. It contains two dyes, eosin and methylene blue, as well as the sugar lactose. Eosin is a pH indicator that changes color when the medium is acidic, while methylene blue inhibits the growth of most Gram-positive bacteria. If an organism consumes lactose, acid will be produced, causing the bacterial colonies to change color. Based upon this description, this medium is a. differential. b. differential and selective. c. for enrichment. d. reducing. e. selective.

differential and selective.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called a. active transport. b. diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. facilitated diffusion. e. osmosis.

diffusion.

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is a. antisepsis. b. degermation. c. disinfection. d. sanitization. e. sterilization.

disinfection.

Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces? a. Escherichia b. Hemophilus c. Lactobacillus d. Mycobacterium e. Streptococcus

e. Streptococcus

Alcohols a. are skin degerming agents. b. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids. c. denature proteins when ia a 50-95% alcohol-water solution. d. disinfect items when soaking method is utilized. e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Each of the following is inoculation of normal flora to a newborn except a. bottle feeding. b. breast feeding. c. contact with hospital staff. d. the birth process through the birth canal. e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include a. a lack of serious side effects in humans. b. high toxicity against microbial cells. c. low toxicity for human tissues. d. stability and solubility in body tissues and fluids. e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Normal biota includes each of the following except a. bacteria. b. fungi. c. protozoans. d. viruses. e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include a. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. b. bacterial chromosomal mutations. c. prevention of drug entry into the cell. d. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? a. cured meats b. human tissues such as heart valves and skin c. operating room air d. surgical gloves e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Enterotoxins are a. exotoxins. b. proteins. c. toxins that target the intestines. d. virulence factors. e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct.

Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because a. bacterial genomes undergo mutation often. b. bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly. c. mutations are passed between organisms. d. short generation times accumulate mutations in populations. e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct.

Reservoirs include a. animals. b. humans. c. soil. d. water. e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity? a. length of exposure b. material being treated c. microorganism being treated d. strength of the germicide e. all of the choices are factors

e. all of the choices are factors

Which of the following factors will influence the action of microbial agents? a. mode and dosage of the agent b. number of microorgansims c. temperature and pH d. type of microorganisms present e. all of the choices will influence the action

e. all of the choices will influence the action

An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called a. an enterotoxin. b. an exotoxin. c. axenic. d. endogenous. e. exogenous.

e. exogenous.

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the a. antibiogram b. E-test c. Kirby-Bauer technique d. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) e. therapeutic index (TI)

e. therapeutic index (TI)

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called a. indigenous biota. b. micropathogens. c. normal biota. d. opportunistic pathogens. e. true pathogens.

e. true pathogens.

What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis? a. isoniazid b. erythromycin c. penicillin G d. tetracycline e. vancomycin

e. vancomycin

Organsims have a tendency to develop resistance to beta-lactams, and humans can develop allergic reactions to them. A drug that also targets the cell wall and can be used as an alternative is a. chloramphenicol. b. fluoroquinolone. c. streptomycin. d. tetracycline. e. vancomycin.

e. vancomycin.

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.

e. vector.

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are a. endospores. b. mycobacteria and staphylococci. c. naked viruses. d. protozoan cysts. e. vegetative bacteria and fungi.

e. vegetative bacteria and fungi.

Based on new information from the Human Microbiome Project, the human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora a. before birth, in utero. b. during and immediately after birth. c. during puberty. d. when a child first goes to school. e. when an infant gets its first infectious disease.

e. when an infant gets its first infectious disease.

Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium? a. can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful b. easily digested by most microbes c. flexibility d. holds moisture e. solid at room temperature

easily digested by most microbes

Resident biota of the gastrointestinal tract include a. Bacteroides. b. Hemophilus. c. Lactobacillus. d. Streptococcus. e. A ll of the choices are correct.

eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee

Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? a. bright-field b. dark-field c. electron d. fluorescence e. phase-contrast

electron

Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens? a. bright-field b. dark-field c. differential interference d. electron e. phase-contrast

electron

Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? a. diffusion b. endocytosis c. facilitated diffusion d. osmosis

endocytosis

The process by which a cell uses ATP to enclose a substance in its membrane, by forming a vacuole and engulfing it, is called a. active transport. b. diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. facilitated diffusion. e. osmosis.

endocytosis.

The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier but without energy expenditure is called a. active transport. b. diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. facilitated diffusion. e. osmosis.

facilitated diffusion.

A bacterium is inoculated into a tube of thioglycollate and incubated. After incubation, turbidity appears throughout, top to bottom, with the greatest turbidity at the very top. This bacterium would be called a/an a. aerotolerant microbe. b. facultative anaerobe. c. microaerophile. d. obligate aerobe. e. psychrotroph.

facultative anaerobe.

An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a/an a. aerobe. b. facultative anaerobe. c. microaerophile. d. obligate aerobe. e. obligate anaerobe.

facultative anaerobe.

Cultures of a bacterial strain were incubated in a standard incubator, in an anaerobic jar, and in a candle jar. After incubation, there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture in the incubator. This species is a/an a. aerobe. b. anaerobe. c. capnophile. d. facultative anaerobe. e. microaerophile.

facultative anaerobe.

Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right). a. class, phylum, order b. family, genus, species c. family, order, class d. genus, species, family e. kingdom, domain, phylum

family, genus, species

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed a. aerobic. b. anaerobic. c. fastidious. d. fermentative. e. hemolytic.

fastidious.

Two structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ____ and ____. a. actin filaments, phospholipid membranes b. endospores; metachromatic granules c. fimbriae, capsules d. lipopolysaccharides, teichoic acid e. pili, ribosomes

fimbriae, capsules

The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called a. cilia. b. fimbriae. c. flagella. d. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). e. pili.

fimbriae.

Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR? a. cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid b. desired protein is produced by cloning host c. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host d. target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease e. target DNA removed from cells and isolated

gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as a. biotechnology. b. gel electrophoresis. c. gene probes. d. genetic engineering. e. recombinant DNA.

gene probes.

Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease? a. gene therapy b. genome mapping c. microarrays d. reverse transcripton

gene therapy

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called a. antisense therapy. b. cloning. c. DNA fingerprinting. d. gene therapy.

gene therapy.

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed a. biotechnology. b. gel electrophoresis. c. gene probes. d. genetic engineering. e. recombinant DNA.

genetic engineering.

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms, the process is called a. bioremediation. b. epidemiology. c. genetic engineering. d. immunology. e. taxonomy.

genetic engineering.

Transgenic animals are referred to as ____ modified organisms. a. chemically b. genetically c. naturally d. physically

genetically

An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an a. compound b. element c. growth factor d. macronutrient e. trace element

growth factor

Halobacterium salinarium lives in and requires high salt concentration. This is an example of an archaeon described as a/an a. barophile. b. halophile. c. osmophile. d. psychrophile. e. thermophile.

halophile.

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA? a. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C b. add primers c. cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C d. heat target DNA to 94° C e. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

heat target DNA to 94° C

Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands? a. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C b. add primers c. cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C d. heat target DNA to 94° C e. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

heat target DNA to 94° C

The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was a. hemophilia factor VIII. b. human adrenaline c. human growth hormone. d. human insulin. e. human testosterone.

human insulin.

Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting? a. electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments b. hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample c. PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA d. restriction endonucleases to cut DNA e. Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments

hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample

Two different nucleic acids can ____ by annealing at their complementary sites. a. covalently bond b. form a peptide bond c. hybridize d. ligate

hybridize

The cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting in ____ conditions. a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. mesotonic

hypotonic

Scattering of peripheral light rays through the glass slide under very high magnification can be prevented by a. immersion oil b. the condenser c. the cover slip d. the ocular

immersion oil

Studies of the immune response to an infection caused by microorganisms would be performed by a(n) a. epidemiologist. b. geomicrobiologist. c. hypersensitivity specialist. d. immunologist.

immunologist.

DNA polymerases used in PCR a. are labeled with fluorescent dyes. b. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase. c. must remain active at very cold temperatures. d. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.

include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.

All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except a. capsule. b. fimbriae. c. Gram-negative outer membrane. d. inclusions. e. slime layer.

inclusions.

Which of the following pairs of career descriptions and work tasks is not correctly matched? a. agricultural microbiologist - identify bacterial causes of crop disease b. industrial microbiologist - manipulate bacterial strains to be less pathogenic c. medical microbiologist - identify the cause of a bladder infection in a hospital lab d. public health microbiologist - track the incidence of AIDS in a population

industrial microbiologist - manipulate bacterial strains to be less pathogenic

The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except a. identification. b. incubation. c. infection. d. inoculation. e. isolation.

infection

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is a. contamination. b. immunization. c. infection. d. inoculation. e. isolation.

inoculation.

The correct microbiological term for the sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium to produce a culture is a. colony. b. inoculum. c. loop. d. streak.

inoculum.

An important mineral ion found in the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is a. calcium. b. iron. c. magnesium. d. potassium. e. zinc.

iron.

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? a. cannot be seen without a microscope b. cause human disease c. contain genetic material d. lack a nucleus e. lack cell structure

lack cell structure

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing at an exponential rate, is the a. death phase. b. lag phase. c. log phase. d. prophase. e. stationary phase.

lag phase.

The incidence of deaths from communicable diseases is ____ in the U.S. compared to the entire world. a. about the same b. greater c. less

less

Genomic ____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts. a. books b. clones c. digests d. DNA e. libraries

libraries

The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is a. endonuclease. b. helicase. c. ligase. d. reverse transcriptase.

ligase.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the a. death phase. b. lag phase. c. log phase. d. prophase. e. stationary phase.

log phase.

The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from a single site is a. amphitrichous. b. atrichous. c. lophotrichous. d. monotrichous. e. peritrichous.

lophotrichous.

The chemical bonds in peptidoglycan can be hydrolyzed by the enzyme ____ found in tears and saliva. a. kinase b. lysozyme c. penicillinase d. peptidase

lysozyme??

Microorganisms require large quantities of ____ for use in cell structure and metabolism. a. electrolytes b. growth factors c. macronutrients d. trace elements e. water

macronutrients

The simple microscopes used by the earliest practitioners of microscopy contained which of the following components? a. condenser b. lamp c. magnifying lens d. ocular e. oil-immersion lens

magnifying lens

Human pathogens fall into the group called a. acidophiles. b. halophiles. c. mesophiles. d. psychrophiles. e. thermophiles.

mesophiles.

Which of the following is not a step in binary fission of bacterial cells? a. chromosome is replicated b. mitotic spindle segregates daughter chromosomes c. protein band forms in the center of the cell to mark the division site d. septum formation separates the cytoplasm of the daughter cells

mitotic spindle segregates daughter chromosomes

Trees of life that illustrate the phylogenetic relationships of all organisms were traditionally based on ____; newer methods for determining phylogeny rely on ____ a. morphology; nucleic acid sequences. b. morphology; nutritional requirements. c. morphology; virology. d. nucleic acid sequences; microbiomes. e. nucleic acid sequences; morphology.

morphology; nucleic acid sequences.

Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? a. bacteria b. fungi c. mosquitoes d. protozoa e. viruses

mosquitoes

Chemotaxis refers to the ability of a cell to a. move in response to a chemical. b. move in response to light. c. not move in response to a chemical. d. transport desired chemicals into a cell.

move in response to a chemical.

E. coli bacteria normally live in the human gut and produce vitamin K that the body uses. This is best termed a ____ relationship. a. antagonistic b. mutualistic c. parasitic d. saprobic

mutualistic

The ____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. a. condenser b. nosepiece c. ocular d. stage

nosepiece

Which of the following parts of the microscope magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? a. body b. condenser c. nosepiece d. objective lens e. ocular lens

objective lens

Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the ____ lens. This image is then projected to the ___ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. a. objective, ocular b. ocular, objective c. ocular, oil immersion d. scanning, objective

objective, ocular

An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an a. aerobe. b. facultative anaerobe. c. microaerophile. d. obligate aerobe. e. obligate anaerobe.

obligate aerobe.

An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a/an a. aerobe. b. facultative anaerobe. c. microaerophile. d. obligate aerobe. e. obligate anaerobe.

obligate anaerobe.

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are a. DNA polymerases. b. ligases. c. palindromes. d. restriction endonucleases. e. reverse transcriptases.

palindromes.

Helminths are a. bacteria. b. infectious particles. c. molds. d. parasitic worms. e. protozoa.

parasitic worms.

Transgenic organisms are a. copyrighted. b. created in nature. c. only microorganisms. d. patented.

patented.

Organisms called ____ live on or in the body of a host, and cause some degree of harm. a. aerobes. b. commensals c. halophiles d. mesophiles e. pathogens

pathogens

Disease-causing microorganisms are called a. bacteria. b. decomposers. c. eukaryotes. d. fermenters. e. pathogens.

pathogens.

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is a. amphitrichous. b. atrichous. c. lophotrichous. d. monotrichous. e. peritrichous.

peritrichous.

When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed a. exocytosis. b. facilitated diffusion. c. facilitated transport. d. phagocytosis. e. pinocytosis.

phagocytosis.

Which type of microscopy transforms the subtle variations in cell density into differences in light intensity, allowing for increased internal detail without staining? a. bright-field b. confocal c. electron d. fluorescence. e. phase-contrast

phase-contrast

DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because a. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge. b. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge. c. phosphate groups have a net negative charge. d. phosphate groups have a net positive charge.

phosphate groups have a net negative charge.

An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a a. chemoheterotroph. b. halotroph. c. heterotroph. d. photoautotroph. e. saprobe.

photoautotroph.

The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called a. biotechnology. b. genetics. c. phylogeny. d. recombinant DNA. e. taxonomy.

phylogeny.

What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections? a. chromosomal b. geographical c. linkage d. physical e. sequence

physical

Which of the following bacterial structures is incorrectly matched with a function? a. cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution b. inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials c. nucleoid - hereditary material d. plasmids - contain genes essential for growth and metabolism e. ribosomes - protein synthesis

plasmids - contain genes essential for growth and metabolism

Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a/an ____ carrier that binds to the substance and causes a conformational change to allow movement across the membrane. a. enzyme b. lipid c. porin d. protein

protein

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be that a. glycogen inclusions would form. b. holes would appear in the capsule. c. material would not cross the cell membrane. d. protein synthesis would stop. e. the chromosome would unravel.

protein synthesis would stop.

Experimentation a. is designed to refute an hypothesis. b. is designed to support an hypotheis. c. is the first step in the scientific method. d. provides a means to gather objective data. e. provides a means to gather subjective data.

provides a means to gather objective data.

All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except a. anaerobes. b. capnophiles. c. facultative anaerobes. d. mesophiles. e. psychrophiles.

psychrophiles.

The scientific method includes all of the following except a. experimentation. b. hypothesis. c. observation. d. publication.

publication.

The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and a. DNA. b. mRNA. c. rRNA. d. tRNA.

rRNA.

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequence transfer into the genome of another organism is a specific technique called a. biotechnology. b. gel electrophoresis. c. gene probe technology. d. genetic engineering. e. recombinant DNA technology.

recombinant DNA technology.

The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs a. contrast b. illumination. c. magnification. d. resolution. e. size of the field.

resolution.

The number one worldwide infectious diseases are a. AIDS-related diseases. b. diarrheal diseases. c. malaria and other protozoan diseases. d. measles and other rash diseases. e. respiratory diseases.

respiratory diseases.

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called a. DNA polymerases. b. ligases. c. palindromes. d. restriction endonucleases. e. reverse transcriptases.

restriction endonucleases.

EcoR1 and HindIII are a. DNA polymerases. b. ligases. c. palindromes. d. restriction endonucleases. e. reverse transcriptases.

restriction endonucleases.

Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called a. DNA polymerases. b. ligases. c. palindromes. d. restriction endonucleases. e. reverse transcriptases.

restriction endonucleases.

Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except a. capacity for large inserts. b. genetic markers used to screen for recombinants. c. multiple cloning sites. d. origin of replication. e. reverse transcriptases.

reverse transcriptases.

A halophile would grow best in a. acid pools. b. arid, desert soil. c. fresh water ponds. d. hot geyser springs. e. salt lakes.

salt lakes.

Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called a. autotrophs. b. lithoautotrophs. c. parasites. d. phototrophs. e. saprobes.

saprobes.

Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? a. differential interference contrast b. fluorescence c. phase-contrast d. scanning electron e. transmission electron

scanning electron

The bacterium, Neisseria gonorrheae, causes the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea. Although it can be isolated from the vagina, there are numerous normal biota in that location as well. To generate a pure culture of this pathogenic bacterium, the best choice is a(n) a. differential medium. b. enrichment medium. c. liquid medium. d. selective medium.

selective medium.

Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping? a. cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid b. desired protein is produced by cloning host c. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host d. separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis e. target DNA removed from cells and isolated

separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis

What type of DNA map is most detailed? a. chromosomal b. geographical c. linkage d. physical e. sequence

sequence

The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called a. cilia. b. fimbriae. c. flagella. d. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). e. sex pili.

sex pili.

A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains it with methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil immersion lens. This is an example of a. capsule staining. b. negative staining. c. simple staining. d. the acid-fast stain. e. using an acidic dye.

simple staining.

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are a. genetically engineered bacteria. b. principal sources of restriction endonucleases. c. sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases. d. used as cloning vectors.

sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases.

The smallest and most significant taxon is a a. family b. genus c. kingdom d. phylum e. species

species

Serological analysis for bacterial identification typically involves using a. a microscope to determine cell morphology. b. methods to identify cell enzymes. c. specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens. d. the analysis of the appearance of colonies. e. the determination of guanine + cytosine base concentrations.

specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens.

An irregular cluster of spherical cells is termed a. staphylobacillus. b. staphylococcus. c. staphylospirillum. d. streptobacillus. e. streptococcus.

staphylococcus.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the a. death phase. b. lag phase. c. log phase. d. stationary phase. e. telophase.

stationary phase.

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms, including bacterial endospores, on inanimate objects is a. antisepsis. b. disinfection. c. sanitization. d. sterilization.

sterilization.

Which isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications, and is most commonly used for colony isolation in the laboratory? a. culture plate b. loop dilution c. pour plate d. spread plate e. streak plate

streak plate

A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a a. palisade. b. Staphylobacillus. c. staphylococcus. d. streptobacillus. e. streptococcus.

streptobacillus.

A reducing medium contain a. extra oxygen. b. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. c. inhibiting agents. d. substances that remove oxygen. e. sugars that can be fermented.

substances that remove oxygen.

The term facultative refers to a. existing in a very narrow niche. b. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. c. using chemicals for energy production. d. using light for energy production. e. using oxygen for metabolism.

the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions.

The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called a. binary fission. b. the culture time. c. the death phase. d. the generation time. e. the growth curve.

the generation time.

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by a. a Southern blot. b. a Western blot. c. DNA sequencing. d. gene probes. e. the polymerase chain reaction.

the polymerase chain reaction.

Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow? a. decomposition of dead matter and wastes b. digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets c. formation of greenhouse gases, CO2 and methane. d. thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior.

thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior.

A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37⁰C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an a. extremophile. b. facultative psychrophile. c. psychrophile. d. thermoduric microbe. e. thermophile.

thermoduric microbe.

What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes? a. blood agar b. sodium chloride c. sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine d. thioglycollate

thioglycollate

Microorganisms require small quantities of ____ for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. a. electrolytes b. growth factors c. macronutrients d. trace elements e. water

trace elements

Which type of medium would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteria from a clinic to a laboratory for testing? a. blood agar b. eosin-methylene blue agar c. thioglycolate medium d. transport medium

transport medium

All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it a. is a type of compound microscope. b. is used to diagnose certain infections. c. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. d. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. e. uses electrons to produce a specimen image.

uses electrons to produce a specimen image.

Among the types of microoganisms, the ____ are noncellular. a. bacteria b. helminths c. protozoans d. viruses

viruses

Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering? a. bacteria b. fungi c. parasites d. viruses e. yeasts

viruses