UNE Pathophysiology Final

During inflammation, which of the following would be acting as phagocytic cells? A. histamine and interferons B. neutrophils and macrophages C. interleukins and cytokines D. platelets and leukocytes

B. neutrophils and macrophages

While caring for a pregnant patient, the nurse realizes that the hypertrophy of the uterus myometrium is called: A. pathologic hypertrophy B. Physiology hypertrophy C. Stretch hypertrophy D. Trophic Hypertrophy

B. physiologic hypertrophy

A patient has inflammation. What assessment findings should the nurse observe? A. coughing, sneezing, vomiting B. redness, heat, swelling C. pain, cyanosis, wheezing D. jaundice, constipation, vasodilating

B. redness, heat, swelling

Which disorder might be expected in a patient with immunodeficiency? A. allergy B. alloimmunity c. AIDS d. Autoimmunity

C. AIDS

While reviewing arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds that the patient has a high bicarbonate level. Which condition would be expected to be documented on the patients chart? A. acidosis B. hypomagnesemia C. alkalosis D. hyperkalemia

C. Alkalosis

A healthcare provider is discussing the human immunodeficieny virus (HIV) and how is attacks the body. Which answer below correctly completes the following statement? HIV attaches to CD4 receptors found on: A. viruses B. cytotoxic T cells C. helper T cells D. plasma cells

C. Helper T cells

A patient undergoes a kidney transplant. The patient starts to reject the new kidney. Which type of reaction is the patient experiencing? A. antibody b. allergy c. alloimmune d. autoimmune

C. alloimmune

The most common routes of metastasis are through the lymphatic system and: A. lungs B. body cavities C. blood vessels D. connective tissue

C. blood vessels

A patient with mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes would be expected to develop which type of cancer? A. stomach B. cervical C. breast D. liver

C. breast

The _______ phase of the cell cycle is when DNA replication takes place A. M phase B. G1 phase C. G2 phase D. S phase

D. S phase

A patient has poison ivy. Which type of reaction did this patient experience? A. type II B. Type III C. Type I D. type IV

D. Type IV

Which of the following patients would have a transfusion reaction? A. a patient with type AB receiving blood from a person with type B B. a patient with type A receiving blood from a person with type O C. A patient with type B receiving blood from a person with type B D. A patient with type O receiving blood from a person with type AB

D. a person with type O receiving blood from a person with type AB

Which statement correctly describes immortality in cancer cells? A. activation of DNA methylation protects cancer cells from dying B. Activation of oncogenes encourages long lives of cancer cells C. Activation of caretaker genes maintains cancer cell proliferation D. Activation of telomerase allows cancer cells to continue dividing

D. activation of telomerase allows cancer cells to continue dividing

Which statement is true of adaptive immunity? A. helper T cells are involved in only cell-mediated immunity B. antibodies are the primary cells in cell-mediated immunity C. T cells are ultimately responsible for humoral immunity D. Both humoral and cell mediated immunity develop memory cells

D. both humoral and cell mediated immunity develop memory cells

How do cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells? A. by stimulating B cell receptor complex B. by activating the kinin system C. by producing antibodies D. by directly killing infected or malignant cells

D. by directly killing infected or malignant cells

Which statement ending would be FALSE regarding adaptive changes of cells? Cells can adapt to changes in the environment by: A. atrophy B. hypertrophy C. hyperplasia D. catabolism

D. catabolism

A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. Which principle should the nurse remember? When mast cells degranulate, the release: A. toxins B. bradykinin C. antibodies D. histamine

D. histamine

The largest fluid compartment in the body is A. intersitial B. intravascular C. peritoneal D. intracellular

D. intracellular

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk of basal cell carcinoma? A. dark complexion, light eyes, underweight B. light complexion, dark eyes, overweight C. medium complexion, light eyes, smoker D. light complexion, light eyes, fair hair

D. light complexion, light eyes, fair hair

A patient has a phagocyte deficiency. Which of the following cells would be affected? A. basophils B. mast cells C. Helper T cells D. macrophages

D. macrophages

Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) A. calcium B. Chlorine C. sodium D. potassium

D. potassium

Which of the following reactions would occur in the body spontaneously without energy input (ATP)? A. translation B. trascription C. calcium extrusion from the cell D. potassium exiting the cell

D. potassium exiting the cell

S (synthesis)

DNA replication - DNA is synthesized in the Nucleus

M

Mitosis - includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic division

Metabolism

how cells utilize energy to do work

Where does glycolysis occur

in the cytoplasm (anaerobic)

Where does the Citric Acid Cycle occur?

in the mitochondria (aerobic)

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

in the mitochondria (aerobic)

Phase 1 - Digestion

large molecules are broken down into smaller subunits: proteins into amino acids, polysaccharides into simple sugars, ad fats into fatty acids and glycerol. These processes occur outside the cell and are activated by secreted enzymes

Cyclins

molecules that gradulaly accumulate during cell cycle, bind to and activate CDK

Phase 3 - Citric Acid Cycle

most of the ATP is generated during this final phase, which begins with the citric acid cycle and ends with oxidative phosphorylation. About 2/3 of the total oxidation of carbon compounds in most cells is accomplished during this phase. The major end products are carbon dioxide and 2 dinucleotides - reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) and the reduced form of flavin adenine dinucleotide (FADH2) - both of which transfer their electrons into the electron-transport chain

Example of paracrine communication

nitric oxide release from endothelial cells causing vasodilation

G2 (Gap 2)

prepare for mitosis and cytokenesis - RNA and protein synthesis occur, the period between the completin of DNA synthesis and the M phase

G1 (Gap 1)

preparing to undergo DNA replication - the period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis

Proliferation

process which cells divide

Signal Transduction

proteins serve as receptors, transporters, enzymes, surface markers, CAMs

Cells respond to environmental stress A. true B. false

A. True

Cancer cells stimulate new blood vessel growth by releasing: A. angiogenic factors B. telomerase C. autocrine growth factors D. lysosomal enzymes

A. angiogenic factors

Macrophages and dendritic cells are what type of cells? A. antigen-presenting cells B. antibody cells C. antigen cells D. maturation cells

A. antigen-presenting cells

Proto-oncogenes A. are normal cellular genes that promote growth B. always code for viral proteins C. are the same as oncogenes D. result from sever mutational events

A. are normal cellular genes that promote growth

A patient has systemic lupus erythematosus. This condition would be classified as an ____________ disease. A. autoimmune B. Antitoxin c. allergen d. alloimmune

A. autoimmune

A patient has cancer involving epithelial tissue. Which diagnosis would be documented on the patients chart? A. carcinoma B. sarcoma C. lymphoma D. leukemia

A. carcinoma

Which patient should the nurse assess first for isotonic fluid excess? A patient with: A. hyper-secretion of aldosterone B. multiple wound drainage sites C. excessive sweating D. decreased fluid intake

A. hypersecretion of aldosterone

Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the A. interstitial spaces B. intracellular spaces C. intercapillary spaces D. intravascular spaces

A. interstitial space

Which of the following cancers is considered to be the most malignant? A. melanoma B. squamous cell carcinoma C. hyperkeratosis D. basal cell carcinoma

A. melanoma

An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a patients cancer. The M part of the system stand for: A. Metastasis B. Mammogram C. Mutagen D. MicroRNA

A. metastasis

Which statement is best at defining an oncogene? A. oncogenes stimulate cancer cell growth B. oncogenes activate P53 C. oncogenes suppress cancer proliferation D. oncogenes cause loss of heterozygosity

A. oncogenes stimulate cell growth

Prostoglandins cause: A. pain B. clotting C. platelet activation D. mannose release

A. pain

Which of the following cells produce antibodies during and immune reaction? A. plasma cells B. macrophages C. T cells D. mast cells

A. plasma cells

The primary aim of burn wound management is to: A. prevent microbial colonization of the wound B. prevent trauma to burned tissue C. keep the wound dru D. prevent premature wound closure

A. prevent microbial colonization of the wound

The energy derived from the transport of electrons along the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane is used to A. synthesize ATP B. produce NADH C. reduce oxygen to water D. oxidize NADH

A. synthesize ATP

Diffusion and osmosis occur passively A. true B. false

A. true

The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane has low permeability to charge and polar molecules A. true B. False

A. true

The P53 gene is best describes as having which function? A. tumor suppresor B. growth stimulator C. Oncogene D. Mutagen

A. tumor suppressor

Osmosis describes the movenment of A. water B. all molecules C. glucose D. sodium

A. water

Phases of Mitosis

- interphase - prophase -metaphase -anaphase -telophase

Check Points of Cell proliferation

-G1 -S -G2 -M

ATP is responsible for

-cellular transport -muscle contraction -enzyme reactions

Three Phases of Catabolism

1. Digestion 2. Glycolysis and oxidation 3. Citric Acid Cycle

Receptors

1. Ligand binds to an intergral protein 2. Ligand bind to a receptor on an ion channel resulting in opening or closing of a channel 3. Ligand binds to receptor

What is ATP made out of?

ADP + Pi + energy

A nurse is planning care for patients with potassium disorders. Which assessment is priority for these patients? A. vision B. cardiac C. Skin D. gastrointestinal

B. Cardiac

Which cancer would be expected in a patient who has chronic infection by the Human Papilloma virus (HPV) A. lung B. cervical C. Gastric D. liver

B. Cervical

GTP-binding proteins (G proteins) function to A. activate receptors on the extracellular surface B. activate intracellular enzyme systems C. degrade second-messenger molecues D. synthesize ATP

B. activate intracellular enzyme systems

Which statement best describes antibodies? A. antibodies can stimulate vasodilation and vasopermeability during inflammation B. antibodies can neutralize, agglutinate, or precipitate infectious organisms or their toxins C. antibodies are ultimately responsible for cell-mediated immunity D. antibodies are another name for natural killer cells that circulate in the body

B. antibodies can neutralize, agglutinate, or precipitate infectious organisms or their toxins

Benign Tumors: A. are referred to as cancer B. are usually encapsulated C. metastasize to distant sites D. will travel to lymph nodes

B. are usually encapsulated

A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to: A. renal failure B. fluid movement out of the vascular space C. increased vascular protein secondary to increased metabolism D. sickle cell syndrome

B. fluid movement out of the vascular space

A diet that has which of the following would increase cancer risk? A. fruits and vegetables B. grilled blackened meats C. high fiber content D. whole grains and nuts

B. grilled blackened meats

Most of the manifestations of burn shock can be attributed to: A. decrease capillary permeability B. hypovolemia C. infection D. Cardiac depression

B. hypovolemia

A nurse is describing the allergic response. Which information should the nurse include? After degranulation, the mast cells release histamine that performs the function of: A. dehydration and opsonization of bacteria B. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability C. decreased gastric secretions and attraction of viruses D. bronchodilation

B. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

Catabolism

Break down reactions -energy released as ATP

The first priority in rescuing a burning individual is A. removing his or her clothing B. establishing a patent airway C. eliminating the source of the burn D. covering the wounds

C. eliminating the source of the burn

One of the functions of the complement system is: A. histamine chemotaxis B. leukocyte degranulation C. opsonization D. cell regeneration

C. opsonization

What is one of the purposes of inflammation? A. encourages infection B. concentrate toxins C. prepares an injured area for healing D. inhibits adaptive immune response

C. prepares an injured area for healing

A patient asks what aldosterone does. How should the nurse respond? Aldosterone: A. promotes sodium and water excretion B. promotes potassium and water retention C. promotes sodium and water retention D. promotes potassium and water excretion

C. promotes sodium and water retention

Plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure is maintained by the quantity of plasma A. lipids B. sodium C. proteins D. glucose

C. proteins

Which of the following burns is most painful? A. deep partial thickness B. Third degree C. superficial partial thickness D. first degree

C. superficial partial thickness

A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. When the nurse assesses the skin, fluid-filled blisters surrounded by redness (hives) are noted. Which medical term should the nurse use to describe this finding? A. erythema B. anaphylaxis C. uticaria D. pruritus

C. uticaria

Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form A. 34 ATP B. CO2 and H2O C. oxygen and ATP D. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate

D. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate

An oncologist is describing the process of gene silencing. Which process will the oncologist discuss A. gene anaplasia B. mutagen amplification C. chromosome translocation D. DNA methylation

D. DNA methylation

A nurse is checking EKG results and notices a tall T wave. What does the nurse suspects the patient is experiencing? A. hypokalemia B. Hpyonatremia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia

D. Hyperkalemia

Phase 3

Production of NADH yeilding ATP via electron transport; waste products (H2O, CO2, NH3, and urea) are excreted

Receptor Modulation

ability to dine tune signals in cells

Ligand

a signalling molecule specific to a receptor

Example of anabolism

amino acids made into proteins

Membrane functions

barrier structure organize transport across the barrier signal transduction

Anabolism

building reaction where we take small molecule and construct macromolecules - ATP is used

Energy

capacity to do work -cannot be destroyed -can be transformed

Contact Dependent communication

cell interacting with receptor of target cell

Neurohormone

chemical signals released from nervecells rather than a gland

Cellular Respiration

combustion of glucose in the presence of oxygen CO2 & H2O & energy

Phase 1

extracellular digestion of large marcomolecules to simple subunits

Phase 2

intracellular breakdown of subunits to acetyl CoA accompanied by production of limited ATP and NADH

Paracrine and Apocrine communication

involve release of a chemical in close proximity to a target cell

Example of neurohormones

release of ATP from the pituitary gland

Hormonal

release of chemical signals from glandular cells transported to target cell through circulation system

Example of Autocrine communication

release of estrogen from follicular cells

Neurotransmitter

release of neurotransmitter through a synapse to a target receptor cell

Oxidation

removal of energy rich elevtrons

Phase 2 - Glycolysis and Oxidation

the most important part of phase 2 is glycolysis, the splitting of glucose. Glycolysis produces 2 molecules of ATP per glucose molecule through oxidation, or the removal and transfer of a pair of electrons. the total process is called oxidative cellular metabolism and involves ten biochemical reactions.