Unit 4 Exam

Which of the following scenarios would result in long-term immunity? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A healthy individual receiving an MMR vaccination An otherwise healthy individual developing antibodies against Epstein-Barr virus following a case of mononucleosis Administration of an anti-tetanospasmin antitoxin after stepping on a rusted nail A newborn receiving protective IgA anti-pertussis antibodies through her mother's breastmilk

A healthy individual receiving an MMR vaccination An otherwise healthy individual developing antibodies against Epstein-Barr virus following a case of mononucleosis

How are virus-infected cell and antigen-presenting cell presentation similar? Both cells are infected with a pathogen. Both involve phagocytosis. Both cells digest engulfed bacteria for antigen processing. Antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell.

Antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell.

Which type of vaccine could possibly cause a person to develop the disease? Toxoid vaccine Attenuated live vaccine Toxoid vaccine and inactivated killed vaccine Inactivated killed vaccine

Attenuated live vaccine

What role do cytokines play in cell-mediated immunity? Cytokines detect cytotoxic T cells. Cytokines detect pathogens. Cytokines activate other cells of the immune system. Cytokines kill cancer cells.

Cytokines activate other cells of the immune system.

According to the animation, on which day does the production of IgG occur in the secondary response? Day 15 Day 5 Day 2 Day 10

Day 5

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is IgA IgM IgE IgG IgD

IgG

Which of the following does not describe the physical barrier functions of the skin? Lysozyme secreted in sweat Keratin provides water resistance Compacted dead skin cells Lipids lowers skin pH

Lysozyme secreted in sweat

What do you predict a differential white blood cell count on Jackson's blood would reveal? Lymphocytosis Eosinophilia Neutrophilic leukocytosis Basophilia

Neutrophilic leukocytosis

T/F: Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.

TRUE

Which of the following are considered part of the host adaptive defense? cytotoxic T cells inflammation skin complement system antibodies

cytotoxic T cells antibodies

TH2 cells stimulate which of the following cells? cytotoxic T cells NK cells macrophages B cells all of the above none of the above

B cells

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible? Antibodies are produced by plasma cells. Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites. Antibodies can inactivate toxins. Antibodies can recognize bacteria as well as viruses.

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days? Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second. T cells can also produce antibodies. Each plasma cell can proliferate into more plasma cells. Memory B cells can also produce antibodies.

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.

A patient arrives from Africa with cycling fevers and chills. She is diagnosed with malaria. Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Erythrocytes do not produce MHC proteins, and therefore will not display Plasmodium antigens on the surface of their cells. The immune system will respond to the presented Plasmodium antigens using cells with CD8 proteins and T cell receptors. Plasmodium antigens will be displayed on the surface of infected erythrocytes in MHC II proteins. Plasmodium antigens will be displayed on the surface of infected erythrocytes in MHC I proteins. Cytotoxic T cells will not kill/destroy the infected erythrocytes. Cytotoxic T cells will kill/destroy the infected erythrocytes. The immune system will respond to the presented Plasmodium antigens using cells with CD4 proteins and T cell receptors.

Erythrocytes do not produce MHC proteins, and therefore will not display Plasmodium antigens on the surface of their cells. The immune system will respond to the presented Plasmodium antigens using cells with CD8 proteins and T cell receptors. Cytotoxic T cells will not kill/destroy the infected erythrocytes.

Which cells are involved in a secondary response? memory B cells only Memory B cells and plasma cells plasma cells only T cells

Memory B cells and plasma cells

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Natural killer cells destroy virus infected cells. Natural killer cells may bind to the Fc portion of antibodies thereby triggering ADCC. Natural killer cells secrete toxins onto the surface of neoplasms. Natural killer cells are lymphocytes that function as part of the innate immune system. Natural killer cells require activation by T helper cells, and are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

Natural killer cells destroy virus infected cells. Natural killer cells may bind to the Fc portion of antibodies thereby triggering ADCC. Natural killer cells secrete toxins onto the surface of neoplasms. Natural killer cells are lymphocytes that function as part of the innate immune system.

Antibodies directly interact with which innate defenses? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Phagocytosis Physical barriers of the first line of defense Inflammation The complement system Chemical secretions of the first line of defense

Phagocytosis The complement system

In which of the following scenarios would you expect lysozyme to be an effective chemical barrier? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Preventing the growth of Naegleria fowleri, a brain amoeba, in cerebrospinal fluid Preventing the oral entry of Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm), a helminthic pathogen Preventing the entry of Haemophilus aegyptius, a Gram-negative bacterial pathogen, into the conjunctiva Preventing the growth of Trichophyton rubrum, a fungal pathogen, on the nailbed

Preventing the entry of Haemophilus aegyptius, a Gram-negative bacterial pathogen, into the conjunctiva

Which of the following properties of skin makes it an effective first line of defense? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Skin cells make antimicrobial peptides which destroy a variety of microorganisms. Keratin and lipids allow for skin to be water-resistant. Tightly-packed epithelial cells help to reduce pathogen entry. Skin is relatively alkaline, reducing the growth of neutralophiles.

Skin cells make antimicrobial peptides which destroy a variety of microorganisms. Keratin and lipids allow for skin to be water-resistant. Tightly-packed epithelial cells help to reduce pathogen entry.

Which of the following are mechanisms utilized by cells to resist the effects of an antimicrobial agent? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY They may alter the target of the drug to prevent the antimicrobial from binding to the target. They may secrete enzymes that destroy the chemical structure of the antibiotic. The may change the structure or charge of pore proteins thereby preventing entry of the antimicrobial agent They may abandon metabolic pathways, and instead begin acquiring the metabolite from their environment. They may utilize membrane-localized efflux pumps that act to remove the antimicrobial from the cell.

They may alter the target of the drug to prevent the antimicrobial from binding to the target. They may secrete enzymes that destroy the chemical structure of the antibiotic. They may utilize membrane-localized efflux pumps that act to remove the antimicrobial from the cell.

Genetic mutations in the CD8a gene often result in a CD8 T cell deficiency. Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to occur in a patient with several CD8a gene mutations? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY This patient would be unable to taper off the immune response following pathogen clearance, leading to chronic inflammation. This patient would not be able to produce memory cells. This patient would be unable to produce a humoral response against various pathogenic microorganisms. This patient would be less able to respond to certain viral invaders, such as Epstein Barr Virus.

This patient would be less able to respond to certain viral invaders, such as Epstein Barr Virus.

Your patient is born without a thymus (a genetic defect known as DiGeorge Syndrome). Which of the following statements would you expect to be true for this patient? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY This patient's immune system would be able to respond to both T-independent and T-dependent antigens. This patient's immune system would not be able to respond to T-independent antigens, but would have an immune response to T-dependent antigens. This patient's immune system would not be able to respond to either T-independent nor T-dependent antigens. This patient's immune system would not be able to respond to T-dependent antigens, but would have an immune response to T-independent antigens.

This patient's immune system would not be able to respond to T-dependent antigens, but would have an immune response to T-independent antigens.

Which of the following statements accurately differentiates the adaptive immune system and the innate immune system? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system has the ability to distinguish self from foreign antigens. Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system includes both a cellular and humoral response. Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is able to respond immediately to a pathogen. Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is characterized by memory and specificity.

Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system includes both a cellular and humoral response. Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is characterized by memory and specificity.

What does a vaccine contain? Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen T cells against a pathogen Live active pathogens B cells against a pathogen

Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen

The primary immune response involves a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline. an immediate increase in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a slow decline. a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a rapid decline. an immediate increase in the concentration of antibodies, followed by an immediate and sharp decline.

a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.

Put the following routes of administration in order, from the route that results in the highest concentration of drug in the bloodstream to the route that results in the lowest concentration: a. topical b. intravenous c. oral d. intramuscular b, d, c, a b, c, d, a d, b, a, c a, c, d, b

b, d, c, a IV, IM, oral, topical

Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore, it would NOT affect helminths. fungi. human cells. bacteria. protozoa.

bacteria

Beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins, have an effect on which of the following types of cells? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY helminths protozoan cells bacterial cells fungal cells virus-infected cells

bacterial cells

Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota? anaphylactic shock thrush both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush pseudomembranous colitis black hairy tongue

both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush

The drug metronidazole is effective on both bacteria and some protozoa. It can therefore be described as a ________ drug. narrow spectrum full spectrum general spectrum broad spectrum specific spectrum

broad spectrum

Bacitracin blocks the transport of NAG and NAM across the cytoplasmic membrane to the cell wall. Like other antimicrobials that block cell wall synthesis, this would result in weak cell walls and __________. cell lysis due to the effect of osmotic pressure ibhibition of nucleic acid synthesis less protein synthesis the inability to synthesize flagella

cell lysis due to the effect of osmotic pressure

Which of the following is NOT associated with microbial mechanisms of resistance? porins denaturation of proteins MfpA protein beta-lactamases

denaturation of proteins

The antimicrobial amphotercin B ibhibits nucleic acid synthesis inhibits protein synthesis blocks a metabolic pathway inhibits cell wall synthesis disrupts cytoplasmic membranes

disrupts cytoplasmic membranes

Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when exposure to drugs causes mutations that produce resistance. synergy between medications occurs. exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells. the patient becomes immune to the drug. resistant cells become numerous in a population due to their greater vigor.

exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells.

Which of the following drugs inhibits nucleic acid synthesis specifically in most bacteria? rifampin 5-fluorocytosine tetracycline actinomycin fluoroquinolones

fluoroquinolones

What types of cells do antigen-presenting cells seek out? viruses virus-infected cells foreign cells in the body phagocytes

foreign cells in the body

The influenza vaccine is an example of a(n) toxoid vaccine. inactivated killed vaccine. DNA vaccine. conjugated vaccine.

inactivated killed vaccine.

What antibacterial chemical is present in tear fluid? defensins antibodies complement lysozyme interferon

lysozyme

AZT and Valaciclovir are antiviral nucleoside analogs that interfere with nucleic acid synthesis. protein synthesis. viral attachment. cell wall synthesis. cell membrane component synthesis.

nucleic acid synthesis.

An antimicrobial disk on a Kirby-Bauer plate that shows no zone of inhibition indicates that the microbe being tested is __________ to the drug. resistant synergistic susceptible intermediate

resistant

Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a fetus? beta-lactams sulfonamides aminoglycosides quinolones tetracyclines

tetracyclines

Antimicrobials known as "attachment antagonists" are particularly useful for preventing virus infection. cell membrane synthesis. nucleic acid synthesis. bacterial protein synthesis. biofilm formation.

virus infection.

Which of the following is an example of passive immunization? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY DNA vaccine Inactivated virus Breast milk Live, attenuated vaccine Natural infection

Breast milk

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are IgG IgE IgM IgA IgD

IgA

Which immunoglobulin class, found in blood, lymph, and the intestine, can cross the placenta and help to protect a fetus? IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE

IgG

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as antibodies. T-dependent antigens. T-independent antigens. BCR.

T-independent antigens.

T/F: Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.

TRUE

Which of the following may act as a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Interference with alanine-alanine bridges. The tRNA docking site. The enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit. The shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit. Movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next.

The tRNA docking site. The enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit. The shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit. Movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next.

A physician wants to stimulate immunological memory in a patient. Which of the following types of immunity would be the most useful? artificially acquired active immunity artificially acquired passive immunity naturally acquired active immunity naturally acquired passive immunity

artificially acquired active immunity

Put the following events in order: 1) Cytotoxic T cell matures. 2) Infected cell recognized at the MHC. 3) Granzymes and perforins released. 4) Helper T cell activates cytotoxic T cell. 5) Apoptosis of infected cell takes place. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

2, 4, 1, 3, 5 2) Infected cell recognized at the MHC. 4) Helper T cell activates cytotoxic T cell. 1) Cytotoxic T cell matures. 3) Granzymes and perforins released. 5) Apoptosis of infected cell takes place.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the mechanisms of antimicrobial action? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function. A single chemotherapeutic agent should work on many different targets on a pathogen. Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on bacterial and fungal cells because they both have cell walls. An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in the cells becoming more susceptible to osmotic pressure. Antisense nucleic acids interfere with protein synthesis. Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process.

An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in the cells becoming more susceptible to osmotic pressure. Antisense nucleic acids interfere with protein synthesis.

What is the function of boosters? Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity. Boosters help to kill the pathogens used in inactivated killed vaccines. Boosters are the highly antigenic portions of the conjugated vaccines. Boosters are vaccines containing no pathogenic portions of the pathogen.

Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity.

The skin and the mucous membranes are similar in which of the following aspects? Both produce mucus. Both have multiple layers of epidermal cells. Both have epithelial cells packed closely together. Both have an outer layer of dead cells.

Both have epithelial cells packed closely together.

What is meant by selective toxicity? Chemotherapeutic agents should act against the pathogen and not the host. Chemotherapeutic agents should work on certain types of pathogens. Chemotherapeutic agents should have only one mode of action. Chemotherapeutic agents should work on many different targets on a pathogen.

Chemotherapeutic agents should act against the pathogen and not the host.

What would a virus-infected liver cell in the body have on its surface? Class I MHC with macrophage antigens Class II MHC with liver cell antigens Class I MHC with viral antigens Class II MHC with viral antigens Class II MHC with bacterial antigens

Class I MHC with viral antigens

Predict some of the basic abnormalities that would have been detected upon microscopic evaluation of Kelly's blood before treatment. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Decreased granulocyte counts would lead to an increased risk of infection. Decreased red blood cell counts would cause fatigue since oxygen is not as readily delivered to tissues. Increased platelet counts would lead to an increased risk of blood clots. Increased immature B cell counts would lead to an increased risk of infection.

Decreased granulocyte counts would lead to an increased risk of infection. Decreased red blood cell counts would cause fatigue since oxygen is not as readily delivered to tissues. Increased immature B cell counts would lead to an increased risk of infection.

How are Class II MHC proteins loaded with antigens? Digested fragments are placed directly on the cell surface. Digested fragments are combined with cell-produced antigens prior to MHC protein loading. Digested fragments in one vesicle fuse to another vesicle containing MHC proteins, then are brought to the surface. Digested fragments are loaded onto MHC proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Digested fragments in one vesicle fuse to another vesicle containing MHC proteins, then are brought to the surface.

Targeting inflammation as an infection control mechanism is a double-edged sword. On one side, inflammation evolved to help eliminate and/or contain pathogens. On the other, too great of an inflammatory response will lead to tissue destruction and lasting damage. You decide to focus on the process of margination during inflammation. Which of the following would result from enhanced margination? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Group of answer choices Increased blood flow to the area of infection Enhanced phagocytosis Increased vessel permeability Enhanced tissue repair Increased numbers of leukocytes in tissue spaces Increased diapedesis

Enhanced phagocytosis

T/F: Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process.

FALSE

T/F: If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bactericidal.

FALSE

T/F: Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area.

FALSE

T/F: Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function.

FALSE

T/F: The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.

FALSE

Which of the following statements is true about complement? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Factor C3b acts as an opsonin. C4a triggers inflammation. Factor C5b acts as an opsonin. Factor C3b directs assembly of the membrane attack complex. Factor C5b directs assembly of the membrane attack complex. Factor C3a acts as an opsonin.

Factor C3b acts as an opsonin. C4a triggers inflammation. Factor C5b directs assembly of the membrane attack complex.

Select all of the statements below that are true in regards to fever. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Fever stimulates T lymphocyte activity. Fever accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract. Bacterial toxins may act as endogenous pyrogens to stimulate fever. Fever intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons. Fever may be caused by chemicals released from leukocytes that act as pyrogens.

Fever stimulates T lymphocyte activity. Bacterial toxins may act as endogenous pyrogens to stimulate fever. Fever intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons. Fever may be caused by chemicals released from leukocytes that act as pyrogens.

How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway? Stimulation of the inflammatory response Triggering the release of histamine Disrupting cell wall of pathogens Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them

Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them

How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations? Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes. Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria. Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids. Genetic recombination during sexual reproduction. Exposure to drugs induces immunity.

Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids.

What is the function of the CD8 receptor? It produces granzymes and perforin. It produces IL-2 and gamma-interferon. It recognizes the MHC molecules of infected cells. It recognizes the TCR on cytotoxic T cells. It recognizes the antigen presented on an MHC molecule of infected cells.

It recognizes the MHC molecules of infected cells.

Since Jackson has an MBL deficiency, why is his doctor still convinced that Jackson's immune system will respond to a vaccine against N. meningitidis and provide protection? Select all that apply. Jackson's MBL deficiency should not directly affect the ability of his adaptive immune system to provide vaccine stimulated protection. Jackson's MBL deficiency does not impact his immune system in any way. Jackson's S. pneumoniae infection was likely due to the strain not being covered by Jackson's earlier vaccine regimen, as opposed to a failure of his immune system to be trained by the vaccine. Jackson's classical and alternative complement pathways will provide immunological memory against N. meningitidis.

Jackson's MBL deficiency should not directly affect the ability of his adaptive immune system to provide vaccine stimulated protection. Jackson's S. pneumoniae infection was likely due to the strain not being covered by Jackson's earlier vaccine regimen, as opposed to a failure of his immune system to be trained by the vaccine.

Assuming Kelly did have a bacterial infection when she went to the urgent care center, what would her likely antibody isotypes and general titer profiles possibly have looked like compared with those of an immunocompetent patient? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Kelly would have significantly increased titers of IgA antibody compared to an infected individual with a competent immune system. Kelly would have significantly increased titers of IgD antibody compared to an infected individual with a competent immune system. Kelly would have slightly higher antibody titers of IgG compared to baseline, but these titers would be significantly decreased compared to an infected, immunocompetent individual. Kelly would have slightly higher antibody titers of IgE compared to baseline, but these titers would be significantly decreased compared to an infected, immunocompetent individual. Kelly would have slightly higher antibody titers of IgM compared to baseline, but these titers would be significantly decreased compared to an infected, immunocompetent individual.

Kelly would have slightly higher antibody titers of IgG compared to baseline, but these titers would be significantly decreased compared to an infected, immunocompetent individual. Kelly would have slightly higher antibody titers of IgM compared to baseline, but these titers would be significantly decreased compared to an infected, immunocompetent individual.

When a person has previously been vaccinated against a viral pathogen, which cells are activated if that same pathogen re-enters the host's cells months or years later? Helper T cells Memory B cells Memory cytotoxic T cells Bacterial pathogens

Memory cytotoxic T cells

Why do antimicrobial agents active against mycobacteria have to be administered for months or years rather than the typical 10-30 days prescribed to treat other infections? Mycobacteria do not have cell walls. They are too toxic to be used on a more rapid administration schedule. Mycobacteria reproduce very slowly. The only available agents are relatively ineffective drugs.

Mycobacteria reproduce very slowly.

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Group of answer choices Plasma cells neutralize toxins. Plasma cells engulf viruses. Plasma cells are phagocytes. Plasma cells activate the complement system. Plasma cells produce antibodies

Plasma cells produce antibodies

Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE? TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.

TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes.

Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) The antibodies may coat the surface of the bacteria (opsonization), allowing for it to be tagged for phagocytosis. The antibodies may stick to multiple bacteria, causing agglutination. The antibodies cause cytolysis of infected cells. The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host. The antibodies may cause perforations and trigger apoptosis of virally infected cells.

The antibodies may coat the surface of the bacteria (opsonization), allowing for it to be tagged for phagocytosis. The antibodies may stick to multiple bacteria, causing agglutination. The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host. The antibodies may bind to a pathogen triggering complement via the alternative pathway. The antibodies bound to a pathogen may catalyze the production of hydrogen peroxide, which will then kill the pathogen.

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection? The production of identical B cells producing antibodies to different antigens. The production of the same antigen by the different B cells. The production of identical T cells producing the same antibody The production of different antigens by the same B cell. The production of identical B cells producing antibodies to the same antigen.

The production of identical B cells producing antibodies to the same antigen.

How do the cells of the immune system detect internal proteins without entering the cell? The proteins are processed and displayed on the cell surface of MHC proteins. The proteins are secreted directly from the cell to the immune cell. The immune cells take peptides 8-10 amino acids long directly from the cytosol of the cell. The proteins are processed and displayed on the cell surface by the endoplasmic reticulum.

The proteins are processed and displayed on the cell surface of MHC proteins.

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood? The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response. There is no difference with regard to antibody concentration in the blood. The secondary response is faster, but does not produce more antibodies than the primary response. The secondary response is slower, but produces more antibodies than the primary response.

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells. They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite. They produce defensins. They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. They identify and spare normal cells.

They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite.

Which of the following is not a role T lymphocytes play in cell-mediated immunity? They destroy abnormal cells. They destroy infected cells. They produce cytokines to activate other immune system cells. They phagocytose bacterial pathogens.

They phagocytose bacterial pathogens.

Kelly's mom asks you why siblings aren't guaranteed to be good tissue matches. As a member of Kelly's healthcare team, what would you say? Tissue matches require that the donor and the recipient are roughly the same age, because different aged tissues may be viewed as foreign by lymphocytes. Tissue matches require that the donor and recipient have similar antibody titers; otherwise, one antibody will outcompete the other and facilitate tissue destruction. Tissue matches require that the donor and recipient be the same sex, because members of the opposite sex are viewed as foreign by lymphocytes. Tissue matches are determined by matching MHC markers; since siblings are not genetically identical, the different MHC markers may be recognized as non-self by lymphocytes.

Tissue matches are determined by matching MHC markers; since siblings are not genetically identical, the different MHC markers may be recognized as non-self by lymphocytes.

Why is it difficult to find good chemotherapeutic agents against viruses? Viruses are not cells, and therefore not sensitive to such compounds. Viruses infect both bacteria and human cells. Viruses depend on the host cell's machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected. There is no effective way to deliver the drug to the virus.

Viruses depend on the host cell's machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected.

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? amphotericin B penicillin bacitracin polymyxin cephalosporin

amphotericin B

Which of the following antifungals works by binding to ergosterol in membranes? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY griseofulvin vancomycin fluconazole penicillin amphotericin B nystatin turbinafine

amphotericin B nystatin

The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virus-infected cells. increase in allergies and helminth infection. release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. are specialists in killing bacteria. respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement.

are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virus-infected cells.

The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to triggering inflammation and release of interferons. both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. triggering inflammation. triggering release of interferons.

both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

Strong acids in the stomach are an example of a __________ barrier of the first-line defenses. physical mechanical competitive chemical

chemical

Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever. exogenous pyrogens interferons endogenous pyrogens complement

exogenous pyrogens

Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and production of nitric oxide formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and release of histamines enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide release of histamines formation of neutrophil extracellular traps

formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and production of nitric oxide

Which of the following is NOT a direct mode of action of antimicrobial drugs? inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis inhibition of protein synthesis inhibition of cell wall synthesis inhibition of flagella formation

inhibition of flagella formation

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis? the tRNA docking site interference with alanine-alanine bridges movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit

interference with alanine-alanine bridges

Humoral immunity ____________________. involves B-cell activity. is part of the adaptive immune response. involves antibodies. is a category of cell-mediated immunity. is part of the innate immune response.

involves B-cell activity. is part of the adaptive immune response. involves antibodies.

Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain mycolic acid? isoniazid vancomycin bacitracin methicillin penicillin

isoniazid

Which of the following is an antiprotozoan drug that interferes with anaerobic metabolism? erythromycin chloroquine metronidazole acyclovir

metronidazole

Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? neutrophil basophil monocyte lymphocyte eosinophil

monocyte

A microbe resistant to a variety of different antimicrobials is said to have ______________ resistance. cross antibiotic synergistic antagonistic multiple

multiple

Innate defenses include SELECT ALL THAT APPLY physical barriers plasma cells interferons phagocytic cells complement antibodies memory cells inflammation

physical barriers interferons phagocytic cells complement inflammation

How do immune system cells identify virus-infected cells? presentation of viral antigens by the infected cell change in cell morphology presentation of viral antigens on a noninfected antigen-presenting cell presence of viral nucleic acid in the nucleus

presentation of viral antigens by the infected cell

The main goal of first-line defenses is to: engulf and destroy invading pathogens prevent pathogen entry create antibodies against invading pathogens compete against invading pathogens

prevent pathogen entry

Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? gastroferritin siderophores hemolysin ferritin transferrin

siderophores

The characteristic of adaptive immunity by which the adaptive immune response acts against one molecular shape and no others is called __________. memory clonality specificity inducibility

specificity

Which of the following factors contributes to the rise of antibiotic resistance? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY intron removal spontaneous mutations induced mutations selective pressure horizontal gene transfer

spontaneous mutations horizontal gene transfer

A drug is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis. It is most likely a(n) nucleic acid analog. tetracycline. penicillin. azole. sulfonamide.

sulfonamide.

The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid, a β-lactamase inhibitor, is known as cross resistance. antimetabolism. chemotherapy. synergism. selective toxicity.

synergism.

Which of the following activities can be shown to increase resistance among microbial populations? taking antibacterial drugs for viral infections taking an antimicrobial drug for the entire prescribed time developing second- and third-generation versions of antimicrobial drugs taking a combination of antimicrobial drugs

taking antibacterial drugs for viral infections

Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) the lectin pathway the alternative pathway the classical pathway none of the pathways

the classical pathway

Opsonization is nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. damage resulting in cell lysis. phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs. the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis.

the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis.

The antigen-binding site of an antibody is made up of the light chains only. one heavy chain. the variable regions of both light and heavy chains. the variable regions of the heavy chains. portions of both of the heavy chains only.

the variable regions of both light and heavy chains.

It is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because these diseases are transmitted by endospores, which are difficult to kill. these diseases are caused by viruses. these diseases exhibit cross resistance. these diseases can act synergistically with each other. the microbes involved can develop resistance rapidly.

these diseases are caused by viruses.

The first antimicrobial widely available for treatment of bacterial infections was a synthetic compound which was a nucleotide analog. disrupted cytoplasmic membranes. was an attachment antagonist. interfered with bacterial cell wall synthesis. was an antimetabolic analog.

was an antimetabolic analog.