Unit 4 Exam

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You are assessing a victim of a gunshot wound to the head. Her eyes are​ open, but she does not follow or track any movement. There is no eye​ blink, and her pupils are fixed and dilated. Her motor response score is a​ 1, and her verbal response is a 1 as well. What is her​ eye-opening score? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2

1 Even though her eyes are​ open, she does not score anything higher than a 1 because the response is involuntary and lacks spontaneity.

If you are computing a Revised Trauma Score and the​ patient's GCS score is 14 with a respiratory rate of​ 30/min, a blood pressure of 102​ systolic, and a heart rate of​ 104, what is the​ patient's total Revised Trauma​ Score? A. 12 B. 10 C. 9 D. 11

11

You suspect that your patient is suffering from severe hypothermia. When checking for a​ pulse, you should check​ for: A. no more than 10 seconds. B. 30 to 45 seconds. C. 6 seconds. D. At least 60 seconds.

30 to 45 seconds. Hypothermic patients may be very bradycardic and may require a pulse check of 30 to 45 seconds.

Which of the following patients will show the effects of a heat or cold emergency sooner than most other​ patients? A. A patient who is 35 years of age B. A patient with a history of hypertension C. A chronically ill patient D. A patient who works outdoors regularly

A chronically ill patient

Which of the following descriptions BEST characterizes heat​ exhaustion? A. An increase in core body temperature above 104 degrees Fahrenheit B. Swelling in the hands and feet with lightheadedness on standing up too quickly C. A condition characterized by fluid and salt loss D. Loss of electrolytes and buildup of lactic acid in the muscles

A condition characterized by fluid and salt loss Prolonged exposure to excessive heat can create an emergency in which the patient presents with​ moist, pale skin that may feel normal or cool to the​ touch, a condition generally known as heat exhaustion. The individual perspires​ heavily, often drinking large quantities of water. As sweating​ continues, the body loses​ salts, bringing on painful muscle cramps​ (sometimes called heat​ cramps). A person who is actively exercising can lose more than a liter of fluid through perspiration per hour.

Your multisystem trauma patient also has a burn injury. Which of the following destinations is​ recommended? A. A designated trauma center B. A burn center C. The closest hospital D. An urgent care center

A designated trauma center

Which of the following assessment findings in a​ head-injured patient MOST likely suggests a worsening​ condition? A. A reduction of a pulse rate from 110 to 80 B. A deteriorating level of consciousness C. Complaints of a headache D. Blood pressure of​ 120/84 with a pulse of 68 and respirations of 18

A deteriorating level of consciousness A decreasing level of consciousness is most suggestive of a worsening condition.

Which of the following patients would MOST likely be triaged to a trauma​ center? A. A pregnant multisystem trauma patient B. A trauma patient with a long bone fracture C. A patient who was injured in a motorcycle accident D. A trauma patient with tachycardia and tachypnea with hypertension

A pregnant multisystem trauma patient

You are evaluating a​ 45-year-old male car wreck victim. Your evaluation of this patient is based on specific characteristics that will be assigned a specific score. What is this score known​ as? A. A trauma score B. A GCS score C. A Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke score D. An APGAR score

A trauma score A trauma score can help the EMT to make patient care​ decisions, such as transport priority and transport destination.

Which of the following is a sign of severe​ hypothermia? A. Tachypnea B. Shivering C. Absence of shivering D. Tachycardia

Absence of shivering

Which of the following may be dangerous if done incorrectly or used when not​ indicated? A. Active rewarming B. Removing wet clothing C. Applying a thermal blanket D. Passive rewarming

Active rewarming Active rewarming may be dangerous. The other interventions listed are passive and appropriate for all hypothermic patients.

At what body temperature does shivering typically​ occur? A. Below 74 degrees Fahrenheit B. Around 79 degrees Fahrenheit C. Around 96 degrees Fahrenheit D. Above 101 degrees Fahrenheit

Around 96 degrees Fahrenheit

Which of the following scenarios is an anatomical criterion for transporting a motor vehicle collision patient to a trauma​ center? A. Unresponsiveness B. Hypotension C. Bilateral femur fractures D. Death of another occupant

Bilateral femur fractures

Which of the following descriptions BEST characterizes deep​ frostbite? A. Body tissues becomes frozen. B. Vasoconstriction and decreasing circulation develop. C. The​ body's core temperature drops below 95 degrees Fahrenheit. D. The epidermis turns red from exposure to the cold.

Body tissues becomes frozen.

Which of the following CANNOT be provided effectively while a drowning victim is still in the​ water? A. Rescue breathing B. Bleeding control C. Spinal precautions D. Chest compressions

Chest compressions

Which of the following mechanisms causes the body to lose​ heat? A. Conduction B. Perspiration C. Water chill D. Air chill

Conduction

Which of the following is a poisonous snake native to the United​ States? A. Rat snake B. Garter snake C. Copperhead D. Corn snake

Copperhead

Which of the following describes shock following spinal​ injury? A. Paralysis of the respiratory muscles occurring with injury to the thoracic spine B. Inadequate circulation indicated by a rapid pulse and​ cool, clammy skin C. Paralysis to only one side of the body that does not resolve D. Dilation of the blood vessels resulting in reduction of perfusion to tissues

Dilation of the blood vessels resulting in reduction of perfusion to tissues With a spinal cord​ injury, there can be a severing of the sympathetic nerve​ tracts, which will result in vasodilation and an inability to increase the heart rate. This can result in hypotension from vasodilation and a drop in cardiac​ output, leading to poor peripheral perfusion.

Which of the following is often a precipitating factor in adolescent and adult​ drowning? A. Cardiac dysrhythmias B. Suicide attempts C. Seizures D. Drug or alcohol use

Drug or alcohol use

Which of the following occurs when the body perspires or gets​ wet? A. Conduction B. Respiration C. Evaporation D. Convection

Evaporation

Your patient is a​ 38-year-old female who was mowing the lawn where the outdoor temperature is 96 degrees Fahrenheit with 80 percent humidity. She is sitting outside on the porch complaining of severe cramping in the calves of her legs. Which of the following should be your FIRST step in managing this​ patient? A. Place the patient in a cold water bath. B. Have the patient drink two​ 16-oz. bottles of cold water. C. Get the patient out of the hot environment. D. Assist the patient in gently stretching her calf muscles.

Get the patient out of the hot environment. Removing the patient from the hot environment is the first step in managing a​ heat-related emergency.

You are caring for an unresponsive hypothermic patient who was found outdoors. Once you have determined the scene is​ safe, which of the following is your first​ priority? A. Removing wet clothing from the patient B. Assessing the​ patient's core temperature C. Opening the​ patient's airway D. Getting the patient out of the cold environment

Getting the patient out of the cold environment

A man is spending a day fishing in an area where temperatures are over 90 degrees Fahrenheit. Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to increase his risk of a​ heat-related emergency? A. Wearing a​ light-colored shirt and shorts B. Having a few beers while fishing C. Feeling a light but hot breeze D. Drinking a quart of sports drink every two hours

Having a few beers while fishing

Which of the following components is NOT used during the evaluation of the Revised Trauma​ Score? A. Respiratory rate B. Heart rate C. Glasgow Coma Scale D. Systolic blood pressure

Heart rate In computing the Revised Trauma Score​ (RTS), the​ patient's GCS score​ (eye, motor, and​ verbal), systolic blood​ pressure, and respiratory rate are taken into consideration. The heart rate is not included in the computation.

Which of the following conditions is associated with a breakdown in the​ body's heat-regulating mechanisms and a dramatic and dangerous increase in core body​ temperature? A. Heat collapse B. Heat cramps C. Heat exhaustion D. Heat stroke

Heat Stroke Heat stroke is a​ life-threatening emergency in which the​ body's thermoregulatory mechanisms break down and there is a dramatic and dangerous increase in core body temperature.

What effect does humidity have on the efficiency of evaporative heat​ loss? A. The effect of humidity on heat loss is unpredictable. B. Heat loss is increased by higher humidity. C. Heat loss is not affected by humidity. D. Heat loss is reduced by higher humidity.

Heat loss is reduced by higher humidity. Evaporation is less effective in higher humidity.

You find out that one of your patients from an earlier car wreck suffered bleeding that caused the blood to collect and pool within the​ patient's skull. Based on this​ information, you know that the patient MOST likely suffered which type of brain​ injury? A. Laceration B. Concussion C. Contusion D. Hematoma

Hematoma A collection of blood within the skull or brain is known as a hematoma.

Which of the following combinations of findings makes a patient with a potential​ heat-related emergency the HIGHEST priority for​ transport? A. Profuse perspiration and pale skin B. Cool skin and a weak pulse C. Moist skin and muscle cramps D. Hot skin and altered mental status

Hot skin and altered mental status

Which of the following is used to reduce the pain from injection of venom by a marine​ animal? A. Hot water B. Saline solution C. Cold water D. Ice

Hot water Vinegar can help to inactivate the​ venom, and hot water may further reduce pain.

You just arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving two cars. The passenger of one car is sitting in the front seat unconscious with her chin to her chest. She is having snoring​ respirations, so you carefully position her head in a neutral position to clear her airway. In doing​ so, you notice that her nose is​ bleeding, there is a reddened area on her forehead at the​ hairline, and the windshield is​ starred, with some hair stuck in the fractured glass. What type of cervical injury should you​ suspect? A. Axial loading or hyperextension injury B. Hyperextension or hyperflexion injury C. Axial loading or rotational injury D. Hyperflexion or rotational injury

Hyperextension or hyperflexion injury Given the​ information, hyperextension or hyperflexion injury should be suspected because the mechanism of injury suggests that the head has been extended or flexed beyond its normal range of motion.

In a​ water-related accident, which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to an airway​ obstruction? A. Water in the lungs B. Swollen tissues in the neck C. Foreign matter in the airway D. Hypothermia

Hypothermia

Which of the following steps is included in the emergency care of a patient who was bitten by a poisonous​ snake? A. Applying an ice pack B. Applying a paste of baking soda and water to the sting site C. Applying a tourniquet above and below the injection site D. Keeping any bitten extremities immobilized and still

Keeping any bitten extremities immobilized and still Immobilizing the limb helps to slow systemic spread of the venom. Tourniquets and ice packs can increase tissue damage.

Which of the following is MOST common after an insect​ bite? A. Hypotension B. Hemorrhage C. Seizures D. Localized pain or itching

Localized pain or itching Insect bites can cause systemic problems but typically only cause local signs and symptoms.

You are caring for a​ 19-year-old female patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She sustained blunt force trauma to her face with​ contusions, swelling, and minor bleeding throughout her facial region. Which of the following findings MOST strongly suggests a fractured​ mandible? A. Tenderness to palpation of her zygomatic bone B. Inability to close her mouth from a​ wide-open position C. Bleeding from the nose D. Lower teeth that are out of alignment in the front

Lower teeth that are out of alignment in the front While there are a few​ possibilities, the best possible indicator is that the lower teeth are out of alignment in the front.

For an older trauma​ patient, what is LEAST important to determining the​ patient's priority for triage to a higher level of​ care? A. ​Low-impact injuries B. Medications for chronic conditions C. Systolic blood pressure D. Risk of injury or death

Medications for chronic conditions In determining an older​ patient's priority for triage to a higher level of​ care, you would consider the​ patient's risk of injury or​ death, systolic blood pressure​ (which could indicate​ shock), and any​ low-impact injuries the patient had​ sustained, but medications to manage chronic conditions would be a less important consideration.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about insect bites and​ stings? A. The possibility of death or crippling injury from a scorpion bite is extremely high. B. Most people who are stung by an insect develop an anaphylactic reaction. C. Twenty percent of the population will have an allergic reaction to insect stings and bites. D. Most insect bites and stings are considered minor unless the patient has an allergic reaction.

Most insect bites and stings are considered minor unless the patient has an allergic reaction.

Which of the following is the HIGHEST priority in managing a patient with a​ heat-related emergency? A. Mist the patient with water and fan the patient. B. Apply​ high-flow oxygen by nonrebreather mask. C. Move the patient to a cool environment. D. Remove as much of the​ patient's clothing as possible.

Move the patient to a cool environment.

Which of the following body areas is MOST susceptible to​ frostnip? A. Nose B. Abdominal area C. Medial aspects of the upper arm D. Posterior thighs

Nose Early or superficial local cold injuries​ (sometimes called​ frostnip) are brought about by direct contact with a cold object or exposure to cold air. Wind chill and water chill also can be major factors. In this​ condition, tissue damage is minor and response to care is good. The tip of the​ nose, tips of the​ ears, upper​ cheeks, and fingers​ (all areas that are usually​ exposed) are most susceptible to early or superficial local cold injuries.

You are caring for a patient with a suspected​ heat-related emergency. The patient is confused and presents with​ cool, moist​ skin, nausea, and vomiting. How should the patient be​ transported? A. On the left side B. Trendelenburg position C. Supine position D. ​Fowler's position

On the left side The patient is nauseated and has vomited and should be placed on the left side to protect the airway.

If you must try to pull a victim in the water to safety with your​ hand, how should you be​ positioned? A. Standing erect B. Seated with legs crossed C. On your stomach D. Bent forward about 45 degrees

On your stomach

Which of the following interventions is indicated for all hypothermic​ patients? A. Heat packs to neck and armpits B. Heat packs to the extremities C. Active rewarming D. Passive rewarming

Passive rewarming

Which of the following statements is​ TRUE? A. Pediatric and geriatric patients are especially at risk for hypothermia. B. Pediatric patients are physiologically well equipped to deal with extreme cold. C. Hypothermia is not a risk unless the ambient temperature is at or near freezing. D. Only patients who are outdoors are at risk for a heat or cold emergency.

Pediatric and geriatric patients are especially at risk for hypothermia. Pediatric and geriatric patients are at especially high risk of developing a heat or cold emergency but for differing reasons.

Which of the following types of patients typically have an ineffective shivering response to​ cold? A. Pediatric patients B. Pregnant patients C. Adolescent patients D. Behavioral patients

Pediatric patients Children have a small muscle mass and do not shiver effectively.

Which pregnant trauma patient is the HIGHEST priority for transport to a trauma​ center? A. Pregnant 20 weeks B. Pregnant 8 weeks C. Pregnant 16 weeks D. Pregnant 24 weeks

Pregnant 24 weeks According to the CDC trauma triage​ guidelines, a trauma patient with a pregnancy of more than 20 weeks should go to a trauma center.

A​ 22-year-old male patient was involved in a physical altercation at a bar. He has no evidence of head trauma and reportedly did not fall or lose consciousness at any time. His only complaint is pain upon deep inspiration along the front of his left rib cage. Given the mechanism of injury and his​ presentation, should this patient be​ immobilized? A. Probably​ so, since he has pain in his chest B. Probably​ not, since he does not have the mechanism of injury or the symptoms to suggest the need C. Probably​ not, since evidence of spinal injury would be obvious D. Probably​ so, since he was at a bar and was likely drinking

Probably​ not, since he does not have the mechanism of injury or the symptoms to suggest the need There is nothing to indicate that the patient is intoxicated or not competent. The mechanism of injury does not indicate the need for spinal precautions.

When you are caring for the victim of multisystem​ trauma, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a part of scene​ treatment? A. Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilations. B. Provide appropriate fluid resuscitation. C. Secure an advanced airway. D. Stop any serious external hemorrhage.

Provide appropriate fluid resuscitation.

If you are caring for a patient with a bee sting and the stinger is still​ present, what is the BEST way to remove​ it? A. Slowly and carefully remove it by hand. B. Leave it in place until arrival at the hospital. C. Use a specially designed tweezer device. D. Remove it quickly.

Remove it quickly. The most important thing is to remove the stingers quickly.

Which of the following is the MOST likely related to cardiac arrest in a drowning​ victim? A. Cardiac dysrhythmias B. Respiratory arrest C. Spinal trauma D. Hypoglycemia

Respiratory arrest Respiratory arrest is often related to cardiac arrest in drowning victims.

A​ 38-year-old male is in the water and requires rescue. Which of the following would be BEST to extend to him to pull him to​ safety? A. A towel B. Fishing line C. Your hand D. Rope

Rope

You are treating a​ 22-year-old male who was stabbed in the neck during a bar fight. What is an important part of the treatment of this​ injury? A. Laying the patient down B. Sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing C. Listening to the lung sounds right away D. Checking for subcutaneous emphysema

Sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing There is a chance of an air​ embolism, so you should quickly seal the wound with an occlusive dressing. Treat for shock and transport as soon as possible.

How many vertebrae does the cervical spine​ comprise? A. Seven B. Three C. Five D. Nine

Seven Seven cervical vertebrae make up the neck region of the spine.

Which of the following is typically a source of heat for the​ body? A. Shivering B. Convection C. Conduction D. Radiation

Shivering

Which of the following statements about the​ body's response to heat loss is​ TRUE? A. The first response to a decrease in body temperature is vasodilation. B. The skin becomes flushed. C. The initial reaction to hypothermia is a drop in heart rate. D. Shivering stops when the patient becomes severely hypothermic.

Shivering stops when the patient becomes severely hypothermic. Shivering produces more body​ heat, but this mechanism breaks down and shivering stops when the​ body's core temperature drops below 90 degrees Fahrenheit.

You respond to the scene of an explosion to treat a victim with a penetrating injury to the occipital area from shrapnel. For which of the following additional injuries should you have a high level of​ suspicion? A. Carotid artery involvement B. Penetrating thoracic injury C. Transection of the trachea D. Spinal injury

Spinal injury The mechanism suggests that the patient was struck from behind. The force from the projectile penetrating the skull poses a risk to the cervical spine also.

You arrive on scene to a patient with an arterial bleed from his right lower leg. The patient is lethargic and has many other injuries. What should you do​ FIRST? A. Open the​ patient's airway, and ensure that it is patent. B. Administer​ 100% high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask. C. Call for air medical evacuation. D. Stop the hemorrhage with direct pressure.

Stop the hemorrhage with direct pressure. When a patient is bleeding​ heavily, stop the hemorrhage as soon as the scene is safe and you can access the patient. In other​ scenarios, opening the airway and administering oxygen is more appropriate. In this​ situation, however, hemorrhage control should be your first priority. For a multisystem trauma​ patient, your overall goal is to treat immediate threats to life.

Which of the following items is MOST important to have immediately available in managing a drowning​ victim? A. Backup AED B. Nonrebreather mask C. A blood pressure cuff D. Suction

Suction Suction should always be immediately available for a drowning victim because of the risk of vomiting.

The bradycardia and hypotension that accompany spinal shock are due to the inability of what nervous system to innervate certain​ organs? A. Voluntary B. Parasympathetic C. Cholinergic D. Sympathetic

Sympathetic The loss of sympathetic tone in high cord injuries results in the inability of the heart to increase its​ rate, and the blood vessels dilate. This results in a drop in blood pressure and a slowing of the heart rate.

You are caring for an adult trauma patient. Which of the following is a definitive sign that your patient is in​ shock? A. Diastolic BP below 90 mmHg B. Systolic BP below 100 mmHg C. Systolic BP below 90 mmHg D. Diastolic BP above 90 mmHg

Systolic BP below 90 mmHg

Which of the following will help you and your crew BEST manage a multisystem trauma​ patient? A. Teamwork and communication B. An incident commander C. ​Slow, deliberate decision making D. Waiting for ALS personnel to arrive

Teamwork and communication

Which of the following signs is a characteristic of early or superficial​ frostbite? A. The skin of the affected area is grayish blue. B. The affected area is freezing solid. C. The body core temperature is less than 95 degrees Fahrenheit. D. The skin of the affected area is white and waxy.

The skin of the affected area is white and waxy.

Which of the following statements BEST explains conductive heat​ loss? A. The transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without physical contact B. The process of breathing in cold air from the atmosphere C. The transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another through direct contact D. The process of a liquid or solid changing to a vapor

The transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another through direct contact Conduction involves loss of heat down a thermal gradient between two objects that are in contact with each other.

Which of the following would MOST likely be used to determine whether a patient will be transported to a trauma​ center? A. Trauma score B. EMT experience C. Pupillary response D. Patient preference

Trauma score The trauma score can help to identify which patients should go to a trauma center. The trauma score is a system of evaluating trauma patients according to a numerical rating system in order to determine the severity of the​ patient's trauma. It is based on objective data obtained from the scene. While experience is​ valuable, it can introduce bias into any​ decision-making process.

If an individual sustains a head injury and blood has accumulated on top of the brain but beneath the dural lining of the​ skull, this type of injury is​ termed: A. a subdural hematoma. B. an intracerebral laceration. C. an epidural hematoma. D. a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

a subdural hematoma. The injury described here is a subdural hematoma.

In treating a patient with suspected head or spine​ injury, manual stabilization of the head and neck can be​ released: A. when you find a good​ pulse, motor​ function, and sensation in the distal extremities. B. after the cervical collar has been applied. C. only after the cervical spine has been cleared by an​ X-ray. D. after the patient has been secured to a backboard.

after the patient has been secured to a backboard. Maintain manual stabilization even after the collar is in place until the patient has been secured to a​ backboard, because no collar completely restricts motion.

Timing in multisystem trauma management​ involves: A. taking no more than ten seconds to perform any single task involved in the​ patient's care. B. arriving at a definitive diagnosis of each​ patient's condition in the first five minutes of every call. C. the amount of time it takes a paramedic team to stabilize a patient on scene. D. an awareness that time on scene must be efficiently managed in order to expedite transport.

an awareness that time on scene must be efficiently managed in order to expedite transport. Timing in multisystem trauma management involves an awareness that time on scene must be efficiently managed in order to expedite transport. Crew members also must be aware of the importance of moving a multisystem trauma patient to definitive care as soon as possible because it is rarely possible for EMS providers​ (even Paramedics) to truly stabilize a trauma patient in the field.

When caring for the victim of a motor vehicle​ collision, the EMT should suspect critical injuries​ if: A. another occupant was killed. B. another passenger was ejected. C. there was only a solo occupant. D. more than one person was injured.

another occupant was killed. A force that was severe enough to kill one passenger could certainly cause severe injuries to all other passengers in the same collision. In some​ agencies, this is considered a flight criterion for the patient to be evacuated via air medical resources.

If you are neither a strong swimmer nor trained in​ deep-water rescue, you​ should: A. attempt any rescue you can if the need is dire. B. attempt to rescue a patient drowning in 5 feet of water. C. attempt to rescue a patient drowning in 20 feet of water. D. avoid any sort of water rescue.

attempt to rescue a patient drowning in 5 feet of water. Do not attempt a rescue in which you must enter deep water or swim unless you have been trained to do so and are a very good swimmer. Except for shallow pools and open shallow waters with uniform​ bottoms, the problems faced in water rescue are too great and too dangerous for the poor swimmer or untrained person.

During primary assessment of a hypothermic​ patient, you​ should: A. determine the extent of the hypothermia. B. apply active rewarming techniques. C. check an awake​ patient's orientation to​ person, place, and time. D. assume the patient is severely hypothermic.

check an awake​ patient's orientation to​ person, place, and time.

Manual cervical stabilization should be provided to all patients with a significant mechanism of injury​ until: A. completion of the spinal clearance protocol. B. establishment of spinal tenderness. C. completion of a neuromotor examination. D. completion of a sensory examination.

completion of the spinal clearance protocol. Apply manual cervical stabilization until the spinal clearance protocol exam is complete or until mechanical stabilization has been applied.

A patient has​ "the bends" following a deep sea dive. The​ patient's condition is likely due​ to: A. nitrogen narcosis. B. decompression sickness. C. severe hypothermia. D. compression injury.

decompression sickness. Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen becomes trapped in the​ body's tissues. It can occur as a result of rapid ascent following a deep dive. Symptoms include deep muscle and joint​ pain, a condition that is often called​ "the bends."

The regions on the surface of the body that individually are associated with specific pairs of sensory spinal nerves​ (a single nerve for each side of the​ body) are​ called: A. dermatomes. B. nerve tracts. C. myotomes. D. vertebral branches.

dermatomes. The sensory regions that are associated with pairs of spinal nerves are the dermatomes.

When not enough heat is generated to be available to all parts of the​ body, then: A. muscular activity in the form of shivering increases. B. the body reduces perspiration to compensate. C. exposed tissues are damaged and body functions reduce or cease. D. the body reduces circulation to compensate.

exposed tissues are damaged and body functions reduce or cease. When not enough heat is generated to be available to all parts of the​ body, then exposed tissues are damaged and body functions reduce or cease. Reducing perspiration and circulation and shivering are compensatory measures to avoid tissue damage or impaired function.

During transport of a hypothermic patient who is alert and responding appropriately and that local protocols dictate you may actively​ rewarm, you​ should: A. wrap the patient in dry blankets. B. remove all the​ patient's wet clothing. C. remove the patient from the cold environment. D. gently apply heat to the​ patient's body.

gently apply heat to the​ patient's body. During transport of a hypothermic patient who is alert and responding appropriately and that local protocols dictate you may actively​ rewarm, you should gently apply heat to the​ patient's body. Removing the patient from the cold​ environment, removing the​ patient's wet​ clothing, and wrapping the patient in dry blankets would all have happened by the time you are transporting the patient.

The most immediate concern for impalements into the head and brain is that there will​ be: A. a very noticeable scar afterward. B. infection. C. hemorrhage and brain swelling. D. an altered level of consciousness.

hemorrhage and brain swelling. The greatest concern is that there will be hemorrhage and swelling of the brain.

A patient with more than one serious​ injury: A. is a multiple trauma patient. B. has a triage score of 3. C. is a multisystem trauma patient. D. is a triage patient.

is a multiple trauma patient.

Cooling or freezing particular parts of the body​ is: A. air chill. B. wind chill. C. local cooling. D. conduction.

local cooling.

In a hot​ environment, the air being​ inhaled: A. is still much colder than the air being exhaled. B. is always the same temperature as exhaled air. C. is cooled when it is exhaled. D. might be warmer than the air being exhaled.

might be warmer than the air being exhaled. In a hot​ environment, air being inhaled is​ warm, possibly warmer than the air being exhaled.

Blunt trauma​ is: A. more common in urban areas. B. generally a matter for police intervention. C. associated with stab wounds and gunshot wounds. D. more common in rural and suburban areas.

more common in rural and suburban areas. Blunt​ trauma, which is more common in rural and suburban​ areas, can be associated with such dangers as bent power​ poles, leaking​ fuel, sharp glass and metal​ edges, and passing traffic.

A brain injury is classified as nontraumatic if it​ is: A. not serious. B. not assessable on the Glasgow Coma Scale. C. not attributable to an external cause. D. not permanent.

not attributable to an external cause. A brain injury is classified as nontraumatic if it is not attributable to an external cause.

When performing active​ rewarming, you​ should: A. keep the patient moving. B. massage the​ patient's extremities. C. intermittently remove and apply heat packs. D. not delay transport.

not delay transport.

Venom is a​ toxin: A. manufactured by humans. B. secreted by plants. C. produced by certain animals. D. produced as a byproduct of chemical process.

produced by certain animals. Venom is a toxin produced by certain animals such as​ snakes, spiders, and some marine life forms.

For a patient with severe​ hypothermia, you: A. provide passive rewarming but do not actively rewarm the patient. B. should avoid both passive and active rewarming until reaching the emergency department. C. should actively rewarm the patient as soon as possible. D. provide both passive and active rewarming to the patient.

provide passive rewarming but do not actively rewarm the patient. A patient who is unresponsive or not responding appropriately has severe hypothermia. For this​ patient, provide passive rewarming. Do not try to actively rewarm the patient with severe hypothermia. Remove the patient from the​ environment, and protect him from further heat loss. Active rewarming may cause the patient to develop ventricular fibrillation and other complications. Active rewarming can be initiated after arrival at the emergency department in a more monitored setting.

Ventilating a drowning victim too quickly or forcefully will likely​ cause: A. increased cardiac output. B. anxiety in the patient. C. significant gastric distention. D. improved BVM compliance.

significant gastric distention. Hyperventilation increases the risk of vomiting due to gastric distention and decreases the effectiveness of CPR. If gastric distention interferes with artificial​ ventilation, place the patient on his left side. With suction immediately​ available, the EMT should place his hand over the epigastric area of the abdomen and apply firm pressure to relieve the distention. This procedure should be done only if the gastric distention interferes with the​ EMT's efforts to artificially ventilate the patient in an effective manner.

High​ humidity: A. warms inhaled air. B. absorbs more heat. C. slows evaporation. D. increases convection.

slows evaporation.

Knowing what you will do on scene and how that relates to what your partner will do is part​ of: A. timing. B. teamwork. C. trauma. D. transport.

teamwork. These decisions are made easier when your crew works well together and each member knows what to expect from another. This is called teamwork.

The region where the jaw articulates with the remainder of the head is termed​ the: A. parietomandibular joint. B. angle of the mandible. C. frontomandibular joint. D. temporomandibular joint.

temporomandibular joint. That joint is the temporomandibular joint.

During an environmental​ emergency, patients who are under the influence of​ alcohol: A. are more acutely aware of the effects of heat and cold. B. tend to be affected more rapidly and severely. C. tend to better tolerate excessive heat and cold. D. are better able to conserve body heat.

tend to be affected more rapidly and severely.

The term​ "golden hour" refers to the importance of getting critical trauma patients to surgery within one hour of the time​ when: A. the injury occurred. B. EMS was activated. C. EMS arrived on scene. D. the patient was transported.

the injury occurred.

The difference between a multisystem trauma patient and a multiple trauma patient​ is: A. the number of body systems affected. B. whether the injuries involve blood loss. C. whether the injuries involve the cardiovascular system. D. the seriousness of injuries.

the number of body systems affected.

If your trauma patient had an initial GCS score of 13 and now has a score of​ 10, this implies​ that: A. someone miscalculated the first GCS​ score, as the maximum score is 10. B. the patient is deteriorating. C. the patient is improving. D. the patient is still stable.

the patient is deteriorating. The GCS is a neurological assessment tool that ranks the​ patient's response numerically. The scores range from 3​ (indicating that the patient has no neurological​ findings) to 15​ (which means that the patient is neurologically​ intact).

A victim is in the water and requires rescue. She is too far to pull to safety. You​ should: A. instruct her to attempt to float on her back. B. walk her through a simple swim stroke. C. tell her to control her breathing. D. throw her something that floats.

throw her something that floats. Provide the victim something that can be used as a floatation device.

Your patient fell 15 feet from a roof. He has a deformed lower leg and a decreased level of consciousness. You designate the patient as a multisystem trauma patient who should be taken to a nearby trauma center. This is​ a: A. transport decision. B. physical examination. C. secondary assessment. D. primary assessment.

transport decision.

Calculating the trauma score may help to determine whether a patient should go to​ a: A. emergency department. B. burn center. C. hospital. D. trauma center.

trauma center.

When you are stabilizing an impaled object in the​ head, always: A. use bulky and rigid support. B. avoid wrapping the dressing around the​ head, as this may increase pressure in the head. C. cover both the​ patient's eyes as well. D. use a​ pressure-type dressing such as elastic wrap to hold the object in place.

use bulky and rigid support. In stabilizing an impaled​ object, you should always use bulky and rigid support.

Rough handling of a hypothermic patient may lead​ to: A. ventricular fibrillation. B. tachycardia. C. spontaneous fractures. D. hypertension.

ventricular fibrillation. Rough handling can cause cardiac​ dysrhythmias, especially ventricular fibrillation.

You have established manual​ in-line cervical spine stabilization of an unconscious trauma patient. You may release manual​ stabilization: A. when the patient is placed on the backboard. B. once a cervical collar has been applied. C. when the patient arrives at the hospital emergency department. D. when immobilization has been completed.

when immobilization has been completed. Only when the patient is fully immobilized and secured to the backboard can the EMT who is manually holding the​ patient's cervical spine let go.

You may encounter airway resistance as you ventilate a drowning victim. This means​ that: A. attempts at ventilating a drowning victim are unlikely to be successful. B. you will probably have to ventilate more forcefully than with other patients. C. you should attempt to suction away water from inside the patient prior to providing ventilations. D. vomiting is unlikely and so airway management is easier.

you will probably have to ventilate more forcefully than with other patients.

Which of the following patients is the MOST critical based on trauma triage​ guidelines? A. ​16-year-old male driver with neck and back pain post motor vehicle collision B. ​31-year-old male construction site fall victim who fell approximately 2 stories and demonstrates signs and symptoms of shock C. ​26-year-old assault victim with multiple​ self-controlled lacerations across the face and neck with a systolic blood pressure of 110 D. ​46-year-old car crash victim with possible right ankle fracture

​31-year-old male construction site fall victim who fell approximately 2 stories and demonstrates signs and symptoms of shock It is believed that the most valuable findings during an assessment are the​ patient's physiologic conditions. Any time you have a patient with an altered mental​ status, hypotension, or an abnormally slow or rapid respiratory​ rate, you should place this patient at a high priority and transport him promptly to a trauma center when available and following your local protocols.

What is the correct order of procedures for a water​ rescue? A. ​Go, throw and​ tow, row, and reach B. Throw and​ tow, reach,​ go, and row C. Throw and​ tow, reach,​ row, and go D. ​Reach, throw and​ tow, row, and go

​Reach, throw and​ tow, row, and go The order of procedures for a water​ rescue, most of which can be performed short of going into the​ water, are reach to the​ patient, throw a flotation device to the patient and tow the patient to​ safety, row to the​ patient, and as a last resort go to the patient by swimming.

You suspect that your patient has deep frostbite. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you​ expect? A. Reddened or lightened skin B. Skin that remains soft but is cold to the touch C. ​White, waxy-appearing skin D. Numbness of the affected area

​White, waxy-appearing skin ​White, waxy, firm or hard skin is characteristic of deep frostbite.


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