Upper GI
A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease has just been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). How should the nurse best describe this medication's therapeutic action?
"This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach." Why: -Proton pump inhibitors like Prilosec inhibit the synthesis of stomach acid. PPIs do not increase the durability of the stomach lining, relieve pain, or stimulate tissue repair
A client is diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which statement indicates effective client teaching about hiatal hernia and its treatment?
"I'll eat frequent, small, bland meals that are high in fiber." Why: -In hiatal hernia, the upper portion of the stomach protrudes into the chest when intraabdominal pressure increases. To minimize intra-abdominal pressure and decrease gastric reflux, the client should eat frequent, small, bland meals that can pass easily through the esophagus. Meals should be high in fiber to prevent constipation and minimize straining on defecation (which may increase intra-abdominal pressure from the Valsalva maneuver). Eating three large meals daily would increase intra-abdominal pressure, possibly worsening the hiatal hernia. The client should avoid spicy foods, alcohol, and tobacco because they increase gastric acidity and promote gastric reflux. To minimize intra-abdominal pressure, the client shouldn't recline after meals, lift heavy objects, or bend.
A nurse is preparing a client for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The client asks what this test is used for. Which statements by the nurse explains how ERCP can determine the difference between pancreatitis and other biliary disorders? Select all that apply
"It can evaluate the presence and location of ductal stones and aid in stone removal." "It can assess the anatomy of the pancreas and the pancreatic and biliary ducts." "It can detect unhealthy tissues in the pancreas and assess for abscesses and pseudocysts." Why: - ERCP can determine the difference between pancreatitis and other biliary disorders and is generally used in chronic pancreatitis. It is particularly useful in diagnosis and treatment of clients who have symptoms after biliary tract surgery, clients with intact gallbladders, and clients for whom surgery is particularly hazardous. It can be used to assist with the removal of stones. ERCP is a useful tool in providing anatomic details about the pancreas and biliary ducts. It can evaluate the presence and location of ductal stones and detect changes in the anatomy of the client with pancreatitis, such as obstruction in the pancreatic duct and tissue necrosis due to premature release of pancreatic enzymes, and assess for abscesses and pseudocysts and atrophy of the glands in the body. ERCP is rarely used in the diagnostic evaluation of acute pancreatitis because the clients is acutely ill; however, it may be valuable in treating gallstone pancreatitis
Diagnostic testing has attributed a middle-aged man's peptic ulcer to Helicobacter pylori, and the man has been prescribed a therapeutic drug regimen. Which of the following drug families will form the basis of the man's drug therapy?
Antibiotics Proton pump inhibitors Why: -Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Prokinetics are not used. Antiemetics and antacids may provide some symptom relief, but neither will resolve the underlying health problem
A nurse is providing care for a client who is postoperative day 2 following gastric surgery. The nurse's assessment should be planned in light of the possibility of what potential complications? Select all that apply
Atelectasis Pneumonia Hemorrhage Why: - After surgery, the nurse assesses the client for complications secondary to the surgical intervention, such as pneumonia, atelectasis, or metabolic imbalances resulting from the GI disruption. Malignant hyperthermia is an intraoperative complication. Chronic gastritis is not a surgical complication
A nurse is caring for a client with cholelithiasis. Which sign indicates obstructive jaundice?
Clay-colored stools Why: -Obstructive jaundice develops when a stone obstructs the flow of bile in the common bile duct. When the flow of bile to the duodenum is blocked, the lack of bile pigments results in a clay-colored stool. In obstructive jaundice, urine tends to be dark amber (not straw-colored) as a result of soluble bilirubin in the urine. Hematocrit levels aren't affected by obstructive jaundice. Because obstructive jaundice prevents bilirubin from reaching the intestine (where it's converted to urobilinogen), the urine contains no urobilinogen
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had bariatric surgery and is developing a teaching plan for the patient. Which information is essential for the nurse to include in this teaching?
Eat six small meals daily spaced at equal intervals. Why: - Due to decreased stomach capacity, the patient must consume small meals at intervals to meet nutritional requirements while avoiding a feeling of fullness and complications such as dumping syndrome. The patient should not consume fluids with meals. This practice, as well as consumption of foods high in carbohydrates, contributes to the development of dumping syndrome. The patient should maintain a low-calorie diet
A patient comes to the bariatric clinic to obtain information about bariatric surgery. The nurse assesses the obese patient knowing that, in addition to meeting the criterion of morbid obesity, a candidate for bariatric surgery must also demonstrate what?
Emotional stability and understanding of required lifestyle changes Why: - Patients seeking bariatric surgery must be evaluated by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or advanced practice mental health nurse to establish that they are free of serious mental disorders and are motivated to comply with lifestyle changes related to eating patterns, dietary choices, and elimination. Obese patients are often unlikely to have a positive body image due to the social stigma associated with obesity. While assessment of knowledge about causes of obesity and its associated risks, as well as insight into the reasons why previous diets have been ineffective are included in the patient's plan of care, these do not predict positive patient outcomes following bariatric surgery. Most obese patients have an impaired body image and alteration in self-esteem. An obese patient with a positive body image would be unlikely to seek this surgery unless she or he was experiencing significant comorbidities
Cancer of the esophagus is most often diagnosed by which of the following?
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with biopsy and brushings Why: -Currently, diagnosis is confirmed most often by EGD with biopsy and brushings. The biopsy can be used to determine the presence of disease and cell differentiation. X-ray, barium swallow, and fluoroscopy are used in the diagnosis of hiatal hernia
A nurse is assisting with serving dinner trays on the unit. Upon receiving the dinner tray for a client admitted with acute gallbladder inflammation, the nurse will question which of the following foods on the tray?
Fried chicken Why: -The diet immediately after an episode of acute cholecystitis is initially limited to low-fat liquids. Cooked fruits, rice or tapioca, lean meats, mashed potatoes, bread, and coffee or tea may be added as tolerated. The client should avoid fried foods such as fried chicken, as fatty foods may bring on an episode of cholecystitis
A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus and has been admitted to a medical unit. The nurse is writing a care plan for this patient. What information is essential to include?
He will need to undergo an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. Why: -In the patient with Barrett's esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. To facilitate early detection of malignant cells, upper endoscopies may be performed every 6 to 12 months. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for patients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or which are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for patients with GERD, they should be taken as ordered whether or not the patient is symptomatic.
A client's abdominal ultrasound indicates cholelithiasis. When the nurse is reviewing the client's laboratory studies, what finding is most closely associated with this diagnosis?
Increased bilirubin Why: - If the flow of blood is impeded, bilirubin, a pigment derived from the breakdown of red blood cells, does not enter the intestines. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood increase. Cholesterol, BUN, and alkaline phosphatase levels are not typically affected
A client presents to the clinic reporting vomiting and burning in her mid epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the health care provider is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what?
Infection with Helicobacter pylori Why: - H. pylori infection may be determined by endoscopy and histologic examination of a tissue specimen obtained by biopsy, or a rapid urease test of the biopsy specimen. Excessive stomach acid secretion leads to gastritis; however, peptic ulcers are caused by colonization of the stomach by H. pylori. Sphincter dysfunction and acid-base imbalances do not cause peptic ulcer disease
A client with a cholelithiasis has been scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Why is laparoscopic cholecystectomy preferred by surgeons over an open procedure?
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy poses fewer surgical risks than an open procedure Why: - Open surgery has largely been replaced by laparoscopic cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder through a small incision through the umbilicus). As a result, surgical risks have decreased, along with the length of hospital stay and the long recovery period required after standard surgical cholecystectomy. Both approaches allow for removal of the entire gallbladder and must be performed under general anesthesia in an operating theater
A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD?
Lower esophageal sphincter Why: -The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum
A client with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the client may be prescribed what drug?
Metoclopramide Why: -Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprazole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Calcium carbonate does not affect gastric emptying.
Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a client with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication?
Peritonitis Why: -Perforation is the erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning. Chemical peritonitis develops within a few hours of perforation and is followed by bacterial peritonitis. Gastritis, reflux, and pancreatitis are not acute complications of a perforated ulcer.
A nurse is completing a health history on a client whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the client's health problem?
Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. Why: -Nicotine reduces secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate, which inhibits neutralization of gastric acid and can underlie gastritis. Protein drinks do not result in gastric inflammation. Antacid use is a response to experiencing symptoms of gastritis, not the etiology of gastritis. Alcohol ingestion can lead to gastritis; however, this generally occurs in clients with a history of consumption of alcohol on a daily basis.
A client who experienced an upper GI bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and the client's condition is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this client should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence?
Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea Why: -Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of recurrent bleeding. Clients who have had one GI bleed are at risk for recurrence. Tarry stools are expected short-term findings after a hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is not normally associated with sudden thirst or diaphoresis.
The nurse is admitting a client whose medication regimen includes regular injections of vitamin B12. The nurse should question the client about a history of:
Total gastrectomy Why: - If a total gastrectomy is performed, injection of vitamin B12 will be required for life, because intrinsic factor, secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, binds to vitamin B12 so that it may be absorbed in the ileum. Bariatric surgery, diverticulitis and GERD do not necessitate total gastrectomy and subsequent vitamin B12 supplementation.