VARSITY TUTOR MCAT SOCIAL AND BEHAVIORAL SCIENCES PRACTICE TEST

If a person were diagnosed with agoraphobia, then which of the following scenarios would best describe their behavior due to the disorder? A. Avoidance of using public transportation B. Refusal to sit on a 3rd-story balcony C. Continuously re-aligning writing utensils on their desk D. Fear of interacting with strangers E. All of these

A. AVOIDANCE OF USING PUBLIC TRANSPORTATION

Jimmy recently watched a television program about Korea. The show ran a segment on a restaurant that served dog meat as a main dish. When jimmy saw this part of the program, he was horrified. Which of the following best describes Jimmy's viewpoint and subsequent reaction? A. None of these B. Ethnocentric C. Discrimination D. Stereotype

"Ethnocentrism" can be described as the act of judging another culture by one's own standards. Jimmy's horror associated with viewing Koreans eating dogs in the program is based on his own experiences and his inability to view the world through the eyes of those individuals in the program. If this situation described a stereotype, then it would have detailed over-generalized notions or ideas about a group, position or other thing. Discrimination is treating someone differently than others because of a characteristic, such as religion or race, and not necessarily merits.

Which of the following terms describes the inability to focus vision on close-up objects? A. Nystagmus B. Strabismus C. Amblyopia D. Presbyopia

"Presbyopia" is the term for the inability to focus the vision on close-up objects. It is most commonly caused by loss of elasticity of the lens of the eye as individuals age. On the other hand, the other choices are incorrect. "Amblyopia" is a general term used to denote cases in which one eye is communicating less visual information to the brain, resulting in a loss of vision in that eye In other words, the brain learns to ignore visual stimulation from the non-dominant eye. A common cause of amblyopia is "strabismus"—commonly known as "lazy eye." It is defined as a lack of coordination between extraocular muscles that prevents the eyes from orienting in the same direction. In this case, there will almost always be a dominant eye, and if the condition is not corrected in childhood, the non-dominant eye generally suffers permanent vision loss. "Nystagmus" is a condition of involuntary eye movement (i.e. the eye seems to shudder, generally in a horizontal plane) that may or may not be associated with visual impairment. It can have numerous etiologies, including nervous system disorders, alcohol or drug reaction, congenital defect, or inner-ear disorder.

Which of the following photoreceptor cell is most sensitive to light? A. Cones B. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells C. Rods D. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells and cones

"Rods" are incredibly sensitive to light, and can be triggered by a single photon. These cells are the primary photoreceptor cells active at very low light. The activation of cone cells requires significantly larger amounts of photostimulation; therefore, they function primarily in interpreting visual information in bright light. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells, a group of cells that make up a very small percentage of overall photoreceptor cells, are less sensitive to photons and have a slower response time than either rods or cones.

Approximately what percent of the total sensory receptors of the body are in the eyes? A. 35% B. 3% C. 70% D. 12%

70% The eyes contain approximately seventy percent of the total sensory receptors of the body. Most of these are located in the retina, which has up to 200,000 photoreceptor cells per square millimeter in its densest location (i.e. the fovea centralis)

Which of the following best represents the typical onset age for obsessive compulsive disorder? A. VOver 45 years old B. 1-9 years old C. 9-25 years old D. 25-45 years old

9-25 While it may occur in children under five, obsessive compulsive disorder generally presents either in childhood (age 10-12) or in early adulthood (ages 18-22). Onset after age 25 is less common, and onset in middle age is rare.

If a person were diagnosed with agoraphobia, then which of the following scenarios would best describe their behavior due to the disorder? A. Avoidance of using public transportation B. Fear of interacting with strangers C. Continuously re-aligning writing utensils on their desk D. All of these E. Refusal to sit on a 3rd-story balcony

A. Avoidance of using public transportation Agoraphobia occurs when a patient fears situations that make them feel trapped, embarrassed, or helpless. They may fear an actual event or even simply the anticipation of an event. This is more likely to occur in a crowded area, such as a subway or metro bus, than it would simply interacting with a few strangers at a given time. In other words, they may experience a lack of desire to interact with strangers to avoid embarrassment, but that is not a situation in which they would feel trapped or helpless.

Which of the following is characteristic of stage 1 of non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep)? A. Eye movements are slow and electroencephalogram (EEG) shows low brain wave activity. B. Eye movement ceases, wave frequency is reduced, and wave amplitude is increased. C. Electroencephalogram records delta activity. D. Electroencephalogram (EEG) activity is increased, with the appearance of spikes called K complexes. E. Deep sleep occurs.

A. Eye movements are slow and electroencephalogram (EEG) shows low brain wave activity. The non-rapid eye movement stage of sleep, NREM or synchronized sleep, involves four stages. The transition from wakefulness to sleep occurs during stage 1. Eye movements are slow and the electroencepalogram (EEG) shows low brain wave activity. In stage 2, EEG activity is increased. Spikes called K complexes are recorded. In stage 3, eye movement ceases. Wave frequency is reduced and amplitude is increased. Delta activity is recorded on the EEG in stage 4. Stages 3 and 4 are considered deep sleep.

Which area of the brain is most directly associated with an individual's overall level of alertness and arousal? A. Reticular formation B. Pons C. Frontal lobe D. Substantia nigra E. Lateral geniculate nucleus

A. Reticular formation The reticular formation is a set of nuclei located in the brainstem that control an individual's level of alertness through its three columns: the raphe nuclei (helps synthesize serotonin for mood control), magnocellular red nucleus (aids in motor coordination), and parvoreticular cellular nucleus (helps breathing control—specifically exhalation). The substantia nigra is a group of dopaminergic neurons located in the basal ganglia that synthesize the majority of the dopamine in the brain. The pons relay signals to the cerebellum from lower brain centers, and deals with sleep, reflexes, taste, facial expressions, facial sensation, and posture. It is located above the medulla oblongata, which houses the olivary nuclei that form the reticular formation. The frontal lobe allows for control of attention, tasks associated with short-term memory, planning, and motivation. It is comprised mainly of dopamine-sensitive neurons, which allows for selection of relevant information from the thalamus. Last, the lateral geniculate nucleus is a thalamic relay center for the visual system. It receives sensory information from the retina via the optic nerve and relays it posteriorly to the occipital lobe.

What is the most likely diagnosis in a 24-year-old man who avoids a job he really wants because of an intense fear that he will be humiliated or rejected when meeting unfamiliar people? A. Social anxiety disorder B. Panic disorder C. Delusional disorder D. Body dysmorphic disorder E. Agoraphobia

A. Social anxiety disorder Social anxiety disorder is the correct answer. The fear is judged to be out of proportion to the actual risk of the social interactions and is causing significant impairment in occupational functioning, which is concerning for social phobia. Social anxiety disorder should be suspected when intense fear of social interactions, in which the individual may be scrutinized by others, is out of proportion to the actual threat of the social situation and causes significant impairment in important areas of functioning, and the fear is not better explained by some other mental disorder.

Which of the following behaviors accurately describes a baby's Babinski reflex? A. The baby moving his big toe upward in response to feeling a stroke on the bottom of his foot. B. The baby sucking in response to feeling something touch the roof of his mouth. C. The baby grasping his hand in response to feeling a stroke on his palm. D. The baby stepping in response to feeling one of his feet touch a flat surface.

A. The baby moving his big toe upward in response to feeling a stroke on the bottom of his foot. The Babinski reflex occurs when a baby moves his or her big toe upward in response to feeling a stroke on the bottom of his or her foot. The other three reflexes described in the answer choices all have different names. When something touches the roof of a baby's mouth, the baby will suck, which is referred to as the sucking reflex. The walking/stepping reflex is when a baby makes a stepping motion after feeling one of his feet touch a flat surface. Finally, the palmar grasp reflex is when a baby grasps his hand in response to feeling a stroke on his palm.

Prior to feeding his hamster, a young boy flicks the side of the hamster's cage so that the hamster hears a "bang" noise. He does this every time before feeding the hamster. Based on the passage and the idea of generalization, what behavior can we expect the hamster to perform upon hearing someone knock on the cage, instead of flicking the cage? A. The hamster will run to his food dish B. The hamster will become fearful and try to escape C. The hamster will proceed to run on his wheel D. The hamster will ignore the stimulus altogether

A. The hamster will run to his food dish According to the idea of generalization, a stimulus similar to the conditioned stimulus will elicit the conditioned response. If this hamster has generalized the stimulus, then he will recognize the knock on his cage as being similar (or the same) as the flick on his cage. As a result, we can expect the hamster to run to his food dish in anticipation of being fed. If the hamster ignored the stimulus, then that would be a good example of discrimination, not generalization. Additionally, while it is possible, we have no reason to believe that the hamster would become fearful or would run on his wheel based on the idea of generalization.

Though the bond between parent and child begins at birth, attachment patterns can be better identified once the child becomes mobile and is able to walk and explore their surroundings. Thus, birth to 18 months of age is a critical time in which attachment bonds form and in which attachment styles begin to be observed and solidified. Erik Erikson's first stage of development, which also encompasses birth to 18 months of age, coincides nicely with attachment theory and its tenets. Which of the following best describes the basic conflict in Erikson's first stage? A. Trust vs. mistrust B. Industry vs. Inferiority C. Initiative vs. guilt D. None of these E. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt

A. Trust vs. mistrust Each stage reflects a dialectical struggle between two tendencies, resolution of each conflict results in healthy personality and the acquisition of basic virtues. F The first stage occurs during infancy, and its basic conflict is Trust vs. Mistrust. At this stage, the child develops a sense of trust when caregivers provide consistent and reliable care and affection. This is akin to the formation of secure attachment as described by attachment theory. The second stage in Erikson's model occurs during early childhood. During this stage, the child must resolve the conflict of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. Children discover their independence using different skills and abilities (e.g. potty training, learning to tie their own shoes, etc.). Success leads to feelings of autonomy, while failure results in feelings of shame and doubt. The third stage occurs during the preschool years; the conflict to be resolved is Initiative vs. Guilt. Children try to assert control over their environment and begin to feel a sense of purpose when they succeed. If the child experiences disapproval as a result of their attempts, a sense of guilt is instilled. The fourth stage in Erikson's model deals with the conflict of Industry vs. Inferiority. Children are in the midst of coping with new academic and social demands. Success leads to a sense of competence, while failure results in feelings of inferiority.

An individual comes into a clinic after a minor stroke. His family states that since his stroke he has begun to speak in nonsense. His word choice seems random, with nouns and verbs that are unrelated, and bizarre syntax and grammar. He also does not seem to be able to understand when he is addressed directly. His affect has not changed, nor has his basic motor coordination. He likely suffered injury to which of the following areas of the brain? A. Wernicke's area B. Substantia nigra C. Cerebellum D. Broca's area

A. Wernicke's area This individual most likely experienced injury to "Wernicke's area," the part of the brain that is responsible for language comprehension. Damage to this area can result in difficulty understanding speech, and while the ability to produce language may be unaffected, speech is often disordered, non-sensical, or interspersed with inappropriate words or phrases. This is known as Wernicke's aphasia. The other choices are incorrect. Damage to "Broca's area" would result in impairment with producing words (i.e. getting the words out), with no effect on comprehension. Injury to the "cerebellum" may result in balance or physical coordination issues, while destruction of the "substantia nigra" is typically seen in Parkinson's disease.

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the drugs of choice in the treatment of __________. A. depression B. dissociative identity disorder C. bipolar disorder D. psychosomatic disorder E. schizophrenia

A. depression Depression is treated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Serotonin is a neurotransmitter responsible for mood. By allowing more serotonin to be active in the synapses, mood is elevated. Bipolar disorder is treated with the mood stabilizer lithium. Psychosomatic disorder is treated using biofeedback and relaxation techniques to reduce tension and spasm. Schizophrenia is treated with antipsychotic medications, also called major tranquilizers. Risperidone is one of these. The treatment for dissociative identity disorder is psychotherapy.

Diana sees a large man yelling at a woman. He shoves the woman and she tries to run away, but the man grabs her. Even though she is yelling, none of the other pedestrians pay any attention. Which of the following social terms describes the scene that Diana is observing? A. Conformity principle B. Bystander effect C. Anomie D. Domestic exclusivity

B. Bystander effect Also called bystander apathy, the "bystander effect" describes cases where individuals do nothing to help someone in need when other people are around. Many think that if no one else is reacting, then it must mean that the problem is not worth solving. A landmark case occurred in New York when Kitty Genovese was stabbed to death in a public area. Although 38 people witnessed the murder, no one stepped in to help. This scenario is a classic example of the bystander effect. Although the people could be described as conforming to one another, bystander effect is a more specific description.

What is the most likely diagnosis in a 6-year-old child with a speech that is characterized by broken words produced with an excess of physical tension, silent blocking, and sound and syllable repetitions? A. Transient ischemic attack B. Childhood-onset fluency disorder C. Tourette's disorder D. Complex partial seizure E. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor

B. Childhood-onset fluency disorder Childhood-onset fluency disorder is the correct answer. It is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by disturbances in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech that is inappropriate for the child's age. It can also present with anxiety about speaking. The symptoms of frequent repetitions and other speech dysfluencies presented here characterize this disorder.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between classical conditioning and operant conditioning. A. Both operant and classical conditioning pair a behavior with a punishment or a reward. B. Classical conditioning pairs a behavior with an arbitrary stimulus, while operant conditioning pairs a behavior with a punishment or a reward. C. Both operant and classical conditioning pair a behavior with an arbitrary stimulus. D. Operant conditioning pairs a behavior with an arbitrary stimulus, while classical conditioning pairs a behavior with a punishment or a reward.

B. Classical conditioning pairs a behavior with an arbitrary stimulus, while operant conditioning pairs a behavior with a punishment or a reward. Classical conditioning, as described in the passage, pairs a stimulus (e.g. the sound of a bell) with another behavior (e.g. receiving food). Eventually, according to the precepts of classical conditioning the bell will elicit a response (e.g. salivating in anticipation of receiving food). On the other hand, operant conditioning is a type of learning that is mediated by punishments and rewards/reinforcements. The punishment or reinforcement either encourages or discourages the learner from repeating a certain behavior.

Diana takes the subway to and from school every day. Her family's apartment, situated in a low-income neighborhood of New York City, is a thirty-minute walk from the subway station. During her trips to the subway, Diana loves to watch people work, play, and socialize. She feels very safe in her community because she trusts the people around her. On a different occasion, Diana stumbles on a set of stairs and crashes towards the pavement. She reaches out to break her fall and feels a crackling sensation as her hand hits the ground. She finds a large scrape across her palm that does not completely heal for weeks. For months after this event, Diana feels anxious whenever she sees a set of stairs. In terms of classical conditioning, the sight of stairs would be described as which of the following? A. Conditioned response B. Conditioned stimulus C. Unconditioned response D. Unconditioned stimulus

B. Conditioned stimulus When Diana sees a set of stairs, they act as a stimulus to induce anxiety. Since she did not feel this way before the accident, the sight of stairs would be a "conditioned stimulus." Anxiety is the "conditioned response." The initial stumble and injury would be the "unconditioned stimulus" and "response," respectively.

A patient goes to her primary care doctor complaining of mood swings affecting her in such a way that she often feels either very "high" or very "low." She denies any thoughts of worthlessness or of hurting herself, doesn't have trouble concentrating on tasks, and has no psychotic episodes when she is "low." When feeling "high," she has increased energy and happiness. Her symptoms are indicative of which of the following mood disorders? A. Schizoaffective disorder B. Cyclothymic disorder C. Bipolar I D. Bipolar II with rapid cycling E. Major depressive disorder

B. Cyclothymic disorder Cyclothymic disorder is a mild form of bipolar disorder where a person mood swings over a period of years that go from mild depression to elevated mood and excitement. Individuals with any form of bipolar disorder will most likely experience some psychotic episodes. During manic episodes, they will have delusions of grandeur, racing ideas and speech, distractibility and high-risk behaviors. They generally sleep and eat less often during these episodes as well. A patient with cyclothymic disorder lacks the vegetative symptoms associated with major depressive disorders. They can concentrate normally and lack both suicidal ideations and feelings of worthlessness when "low."

Which of the following lobes of the brain is involved in executive functions such as self-control, planning, reasoning, and abstract thought? A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe

B. Frontal lobe While all lobes of the brain directly influence each other and intercommunicate, the "frontal lobe" is the area of the brain most directly involved in executive functions such as self-control, planning, reasoning, and abstract thought.

Sound waves enter the outer ear and vibrate the tympanic membrane, which causes the transmission of sound waves through the ossicles to the inner ear. In what order do the ossicles vibrate? A. Stapes, malleus, and incus B. Malleus, incus, and stapes C. Incus, stapes, and malleus D. Incus, malleus, and stapes

B. Malleus, incus, and stapes M-I-S OR H-A-S (hammer anivl stirrup) The ossicle that attaches directly to the tympanic membrane is the malleus, or "hammer." This bone articulates with the incus, or "anvil," which then articulates with the stapes, or "stirrup" (so called because of it's resemblance to the stirrup of a saddle). The stapes in turn attaches to the oval window of the fluid-filled inner ear.

Which of the following structures of the eye is not responsible for the refraction and focusing of light? A. Cornea B. Retina C. Lens D. Anterior chamber

B. Retina Light is refracted and focused by the cornea, the anterior chamber, and the lens. The retina is a thin layer of nervous system tissue, which receives focused light patterns and transmits those patterns to the brain via photoreceptor cells.

Which type of reinforcement schedule refers to reinforcement occurring after an unpredictable number of behavioral occurrences? A. Variable-interval B. Variable-ratio C. Fixed-interval D. Fixed-ratio

B. Variable-ratio Immediately, both answer choices with the word "fixed" can be eliminated because the problem states that reinforcement occurs after an unpredictable number of occurrences. Additionally, a "variable-interval" schedule refers to reinforcement occurring after an inconsistent amount of time, rather than occurrences. Finally, as the questions asks, a "variable-ratio" schedule is one in which reinforcement occurs after an unpredictable number of behavioral occurrences.

Which of the following correctly matches the researcher with the area in which they famously conducted experiments? A. Stanley Milgram: Classical Conditioning Albert Bandura: Observational Learning B.F. Skinner: Operant Conditioning B. None of these C. Albert Bandura: Observational Learning Stanley Milgram: Obedience Ivan Pavlov: Classical Conditioning D. Stanley Milgram: Obedience Ivan Pavlov: Observational Learning B.F. Skinner: Operant Conditioning Select Philip Zimbardo: Observational Learning Margaret and Harry Harlow: Social Development and Attachment Ivan Pavlov: Operant Conditioning

C. Albert Bandura: Observational Learning Stanley Milgram: Obedience Ivan Pavlov: Classical Conditioning Albert Bandura famously conducted the Bobo doll experiment which demonstrated observational learning. Margaret and Harry Harlow conducted experiments with monkeys, showing the importance of "contact comfort" for healthy social development and attachment. Ivan Pavlov conducted the famous classical conditioning experiment, pairing a bell ringing with food to elicit salivation in dogs. B.F. Skinner conducted experiments demonstrating concepts of operant conditioning. Milgram's famous experiment demonstrated ground-breaking findings involving obedience. Philip Zimbaro's Standford Prison experiment demonstrated shocking psychological effects of the prisoner and guard dynamic.

A 24 year old male experiences difficulty forming healthy adult relationships. He has extreme reactions when someone disagrees with him, and may scream or accuse people of abandoning or betraying him. He has an explosive temper and can behave in self-destructive ways, such as driving while intoxicated, binge eating, and engaging in self-deprecating speech. His family states that he tends to form unhealthy opinions of others: he will make a new friend who he puts onto a pedestal, then he will demonize that same individual when they fail to meet his expectations. This individual is exhibiting symptoms of which of the following personality disorders? A. Paranoid personality disorder B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Borderline personality disorder D. Schizotypal personality disorder

C. Borderline personality disorder "Borderline personality disorder" is characterized by difficulty regulating behavior or thoughts, extreme fluctuations in mood, unstable relationships due to idealization or demonization, fear of abandonment or other attachment disorders, and impulsive or reckless behavior. The other choices are incorrect. "Obsessive-compulsive disorder" is typified by repetitive, unwelcome thoughts that compel the individual to perform ritualistic acts. "Paranoid personality disorder" is a condition of pervasive, long-standing paranoia and general mistrust of others. "Schizotypal personality disorder" is an antisocial disorder: individuals experience social anxiety, the urge to isolate themselves from others, and odd behavior or beliefs.

A man wants to teach his puppy to sit. In order to teach the dog, the man tells the puppy "sit" and rewards her with a treat each time she does so successfully. Eventually, he also uses a hand signal while saying the word "sit." After some time, the dog begins to respond to both the word "sit" and to the hand signal. In this example, which of the following can be considered a secondary reinforcer? A. The word sit B. The treat C. Both the word "sit", and the hand signal D. The hand signal

C. Both the word "sit", and the hand signal A secondary reinforcer is learned; therefore, it has no innately desirable attributes. On the other hand, a primary reinforcer is innately pleasing. In this example, the treat is innately pleasing to the dog, and is the primary reinforcer. Both the word "sit", and the hand signal have been paired to each other, as well as to the treat. Because they have been paired to the treat (i.e. the primary reinforcer) they have become secondary reinforcers.

Diana's mother is having trouble seeing clearly. The lens of her eye appears white and cloudy. Which of the following most likely describes this situation? A. Astigmatism B. Kinesthesis C. Cataract D. Conjunctivitis

C. Cataract The symptoms describe a "cataract." Cataracts form when a protein coat builds up and cause a white barrier to form that limits vision. It is normally surgically removed. "Astigmatism" is a misshapen cornea that can also cause vision problems. "Conjunctivitis" is a disorder that is made evident by the inflammation of the sclera, or white part of the eye. Last, "glaucoma" describes damage caused to the optic nerve, usually by a buildup of excess fluid in the eye.

Which pair best represents accurate examples of the concepts of the central route and the peripheral route of information processing, according to the Elaboration Likelihood Model? A. Central Route: The answer is so obvious, it's like being hit by a two-by-four. Peripheral Route: By reading and re-reading the poem, its meaning will slowly reveal itself. B. Central Route: It feels like everywhere I look, I can see the answer. It doesn't even matter what direction I face, the answer is clear. Peripheral Route: The answer is hazy no matter what I do, I can't seem to pull it into focus. C. Central Route: The person on the phone walked me through the calculations and explained to me how much money I would save over the course of ten years through increasing my monthly payment by 20%. Peripheral Route: My best friend is increasing her monthly payments, and she seems to make good life choices, so I am also going to increase my monthly payment. D. Central Route: This is the most efficient form of processing, because it requires the removal of distractions. Think of a car driving down the main artery. Peripheral Route: This is the least efficient form of processing, because it takes a long time to put the pieces of the puzzle together, and many of these pieces are only useful insofar as they provide links to more central concepts.

C. Central Route: The person on the phone walked me through the calculations and explained to me how much money I would save over the course of ten years through increasing my monthly payment by 20%. Peripheral Route: My best friend is increasing her monthly payments, and she seems to make good life choices, so I am also going to increase my monthly payment. The correct answer shows that the central route is when a person deeply understands the message because they have thought about it, understand the logic, and are motivated by it. The correct answer also shows that the peripheral route influences a person through general impressions and requires less thought processing. The effect of peripheral routes is not likely to last as long as central routes. The incorrect answers focus more on elements of time, efficiency, clarity, and focus. These are not central to the definition of elaboration likelihood.

Which of the following is not a primary function of the extrinsic eye muscles? A. Saccadic eye movements B. Convergence C. Dilation of the pupils D. Tracking moving objects

C. DILATION OF PUPILS The extrinsic muscles of the eye are primarily responsible for the mechanical movement of the eyeball. The main movements of the eye are convergence during accommodation, saccadic movements, tracking, and maintenance of a horizontal position. Dilation of the pupils is dependent on intrinsic muscles of the eye.

Joey hates cleaning his room. When his father asks him to clean up, he throws a tantrum. As a result, his father—wanting the tantrum to end—gives up and allows him to continue playing instead of cleaning. The next day Joey's mom walks towards his room, and he anticipates that she is going to ask him to clean his room. As she enters the room, he quickly pretends he isn't feeling well and asks if he can lie down to watch television and she reluctantly agrees. What are the two types of operant conditioning demonstrated in the given scenario? A. Negative punishment following by positive punishment B. Negative reinforcement followed by positive reinforcement C. Escape followed by active avoidance D. Both are examples of classical conditioning. E. Positive punishment followed by negative reinforcement

C. Escape followed by active avoidance The first example demonstrates escape conditioning. Once presented with the aversive stimulus (i.e. being asked to clean his room), Joey learns that a particular behavior (i.e. throwing a tantrum) will allow him to escape from the aversive stimulus. The second example demonstrates active avoidance conditioning. In this situation, Joey anticipates the aversive stimulus (i.e. he hears his mother walking towards his messy room). He learns that a particular behavior (i.e. faking illness) will allow him to avoid the presentation of the aversive stimulus. Both are subtypes of negative reinforcement, which is a type of operant conditioning not classical conditioning. Joey's behaviors are being encouraged through the removal of an unwanted stimulus—cleaning his room.

Which of following is a true statement regarding light and the human eye? A. The retina is a small disc located at the focal point at the back of the eye B. Light will pass through the lens before passing through the cornea C. Light will pass through the aqueous humor before passing through the vitreous humor D. The pigments of the iris contain small numbers of photoreceptors

C. Light will pass through the aqueous humor before passing through the vitreous humor The first structure that light will encounter as it enters the eye is the cornea, a transparent protein disc designed to refract light toward the eye interior. The aqueous humor is the liquid medium between the cornea and the lens of the eye. Light will pass through the aqueous humor and the pupil before hitting the lens. The lens then focuses the light onto the back of the eye. The vitreous humor is the liquid medium between the lens and the retina at the back of the eye. The iris is used to control the shape of the pupil, and does not contain photoreceptors. All photoreceptors are located on the retina, which lines the back wall of the eye. A small region known as the fovea centralis houses a large number of cones (photoreceptors) at the back of the eye, but is part of the greater retinal structure. The only true statement given is that light will pass through the aqueous humor before passing through the vitreous humor.

The facilitator said, "Any other ideas before we move on and make a decision?" As Laila raised her hand, she could see people sigh and roll their eyes. She was always suggesting something that went against the grain; moreover, the longer it takes to make a decision, the hungrier people will get. Laila puts her hand down, thinking that moving the group forward is more important than getting her idea on the table. Given that it was a significant departure from what everyone else was saying, they might miss both lunch and dinner! The example above is best described as an illustration of what concept? A. Bystander Effect B. Group Polarization C. Hallow Effect D. Groupthink E. Stockholm Syndrome

D. GROUPTHINK The correct answer is "groupthink," the concept that individuals stifle their ideas in the group to achieve consensus. Group polarization is not the correct answer, because it means that groups might select options that are more extreme than individual members of that group might select, and this is not illustrated in the example above. The other concepts are concepts of psychology, but are not related to group processes.

Imagine a hypothetical study that asked participants to perceive changes in amplitude of a sound stimulus. In this experiment, the researchers wanted to know how much the amplitude needed to change in order for an individual to detect a difference. They decided to test the just-noticeable difference at three different amplitudes: low, medium, and high. Participants in each category listened to the initial sound, and then the amplitude was increased or decreased slightly until participants detected a difference. The researchers found that the absolute difference in amplitude that needed to occur in order for participants to detect a difference varied by condition (i.e. low, medium, high amplitude). This observation best illustrates which of the following? A. Sensory adaptation because as the body is continually exposed to a stimulus, the nerve receptors fire more frequently. B. Weber's law because the just-noticeable difference necessary to detect a change in the magnitude of a comparison stimulus is always half the magnitude of the initial stimulus. C. Weber's law because the just-noticeable difference necessary to detect a change in the magnitude of a comparison stimulus (i.e., the amplitude) is a constant proportion of the initial stimulus. D. Sensory adaptation because as the body is continually exposed to a stimulus, the nerve receptors fire less frequently.

C. Weber's law because the just-noticeable difference necessary to detect a change in the magnitude of a comparison stimulus (i.e., the amplitude) is a constant proportion of the initial stimulus. Weber's law states that the change in a stimulus that will be just noticeable is a constant ratio of the original stimulus. Because the original stimulus changes in each condition (i.e. low, medium, high), the ratio for the just-noticeable difference also changes; therefore, the magnitude necessary to detect a change will vary by condition.

Which muscle is responsible for changing the shape of the lens during accommodation? A. Medial rectus muscle B. Ciliary muscle C. Dilator pupillae D. Sphincter pupillae

CILIARY MUSCLE The structure responsible for changing the shape of the lens during accommodation is the ciliary muscle. This is a ring of smooth muscle in the middle layer of the eye that is attached to the lens via the suspensory ligament. Contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscle will cause the suspensory ligament to tighten (in the case of relaxation of the ciliary muscle) or relax (in the case of contraction of the ciliary muscle). This affects the thickness of the lens, allowing for accommodation. The sphincter pupillae and dilator pupillae are both responsible for changing the shape of the iris, rather than the lens, and the medial rectus muscle is an extrinsic eye muscle that moves the whole eye medially.

Which of the following physiological responses does not occur during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep? A. Breathing is more irregular B. Muscle paralysis normally occurs C. Blood flow to the brain is increased D. Pulse become slower and more regular E. Metabolic rate increases

D. Pulse become slower and more regular During non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep, when the transition from wakefulness to sleep occurs, the pulse becomes slower and more regular. During rapid eye movement sleep (REM sleep), dreams occur, blood flow to the brain increases, breathing is more irregular, metabolic rate increases, and muscle paralysis occurs.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of rapid eye movement sleep (REM sleep)? A. Respirations become more rapid and less regular B. Dreams occur C. Blood flow to the brain is increased D. Penile erections may occur E. Transition from wakefulness to sleep occurs

E. TRANSITION FROM WAKEFULNESS TO SLEEP OCCURS During rapid eye movement sleep (REM sleep), dreaming can occur. Blood flow to the brain is increased and breathing is more irregular. Penille erections may occur. The transition from wakefuness to sleep occurs during non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep).

George is speaking with his friends after the school football game. His attention is focused on their conversation, but suddenly he turns to the group next to him because he hears his brother's name mentioned. Which of the following concepts best accounts for George hearing his brother's name? A. Cocktail party effect B. Primacy effect C. Schemas D. Heuristics E. Divided attention

Cocktail party effect The "cocktail party effect" accounts for the fact that we are able to hear personally important information even if we are not involved with it. In this example, George was in a conversation amongst his friends, and not involved with the conversation of the group nearby. The cocktail party effect explains that even though he was not directly paying attention to the nearby conversation, he did not completely filter the information out. Instead, it is was if he "turned the volume down" and paid attention once the information became personally relevant, such as the mentioning of his brother's name. "Divided attention" is when an individual focuses on multiple tasks at once. While it could be argued that George is attending to two conversations at once, the cocktail party effect best describes the reason he is able to hear his brother's name without any attempt to listen to two conversations at once. The "primacy effect" concerns our tendency to have better memory for things at the beginning of a list (e.g. if you are given a list of words to remember, you will be more likely to remember the ones at the beginning rather than ones in the middle of the list). "Heuristics" are short cuts used for problem solving. Last, "schemas" are mental frameworks we use for understanding new experiences.

Which photoreceptor cell is primarily responsible for detecting nuances in color? A. Rods B. Cones C. Cones and rods D. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells

Cones Cones are the primary photoreceptor cells responsible for transmitting information about color. They are the only photoreceptor cell type that is capable of differentiating between colors. Rod cells are not capable of color vision and primarily transmit information in regards to contrast. They are most active in very low light, while cone cells are most active in levels of high light. This is why it is difficult to perceive color at very low light levels. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells do not transmit visual information to the brain - rather, they are involved in physiological processes such as pupillary reflex and circadian rhythms.

In myopia, which of the following abilities is impaired? A. Ability to shift focus from distant objects to close objects B. Ability to discern color C. Ability to focus on close objects D. Ability to focus on distant objects

D. Ability to focus on distant objects Myopia, often called nearsightedness, is an inability to being distant objects into clear focus. This may be due either to excess curvature of the cornea or to length of the eyeball itself causing the focal point of light rays to fall in front of the retina, rather than against it.

Which of the following is the term for the process by which the eye's lens changes shape to bring close or distant objects into focus on the retina? A. Mydriasis B. Contrast C. Convergence D. Accommodation

D. Accommodation The lens of the eye must be able to change its shape in order to re-focus the vision on near or far objects as the eye moves. This process is called "accommodation." On the other hand, "convergence" is the ability of the eyes to move toward one another in order to focus on objects that are very close up. "Mydriasis" is the term for dilation of the pupil, and "contrast" is a visible quality of difference in color or brightness of objects, and not a function of the eye itself.

Which of the following best represents the James-Lange theory of emotion? A. Physiological arousal will result in different emotional sensations depending on available environmental cues B. An external stimulus engages the thalamus, which results in simultaneous physiological arousal and emotional sensation C. An external stimulus will be carried to the brain through afferent neurons, processed in the thalamus, and a response will be sent via efferent neurons D. An external stimulus causes physiological arousal, which causes emotional sensation E. The purpose of emotional sensation adapted as a learning mechanism

D. An external stimulus causes physiological arousal, which causes emotional sensation Three of these answer choices represent key theories on the ways that emotional sensation is processed and perceived. The James-Lange theory is represented by the answer choice that states "an external stimulus causes physiological arousal, which causes emotional sensation." The Cannon-Bard theory is represented by the answer choice that states "an external stimulus engages the thalamus, which results in simultaneous physiological arousal and emotional sensation." The Schachter-Singer theory is represented by the answer choice that states "physiological arousal will result in different emotional sensations depending on available environmental cues." The answer choice regarding neurons is accurate for the processing of stimuli, but is not discussed in emotional theories with the minor exception of the role of thalamic processing in the Cannon-Bard theory. The answer choice regarding the evolutionary and adaptive role of emotion is not related to any of these theories.

Which of the following is recorded on electroencephalogram during deep sleep? A. K complexes B. Decreased wave amplitude C. Increased wave frequency D. Delta activity E. Low brain wave activity

D. Delta activity Stages 3 and 4 of non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep) are considered deep sleep. Stage 3 is characterized by an increase in amplitude and a reduction of wave frequency. During stage 4 sleep, delta activity is recorded. Stage 1 is the transition from wakefulness to sleep. The EEG shows low brain wave activity. In stage 2, EEG activity is increased, with the appearance of spikes called K complexes.

The tendency of a farmer to "not easily keep in touch with rapid modern development" may seem strange to a teenage boy raised in a suburban community where technology is utilized in almost all daily actions. This labelling of the farmer's actions as "strange" would be due to which of the following? A. Cultural relativism B. Discrimination C. Affluenza D. Ethnocentrism

D. ETHNOCENTRISM The teenager's judgement of the farmer's tendency is based on his own suburban cultural experience. Judging the actions of another in the context of one's own culture is known as ethnocentrism. Discrimination would drive the boy to make an institutional policy against the farmer, not merely think he was strange. Cultural relativism would meant that the boy would judge the farmer by a farmer's standards. Affluenza is a legal term describing an inability to understand one's actions because of a privileged upbringing.

As they embarked upon deliberations, nine jurors were leaning towards finding a defendant guilty while three jurors thought the defendant was not guilty. It was observed that during deliberations, the nine who believed the defendant was guilty tended to confer, while the three who believed he was innocent also discussed more with each other. This resulted in the jury members each becoming more entrenched in their initial positions than they had been before. This scenario exemplifies which of the following concepts in social psychology? A. Social categorization B. Cognitive appraisal C. Self-serving bias D. Group polarization E. Informational influence

D. Group polarization Group polarization describes the phenomenon when individuals make more extreme decisions when acting together as a group than they would by themselves. In this scenario, as individuals—the jurors—believed in their respective points of view from the beginning; however, after they formed oppositional groups, they became even more entrenched in their points of view. The other choices are incorrect due to various reasons. Cognitive appraisal is a process where a physiological arousal is assessed in the brain and processed for the appropriate physiological and psychological coping strategies. It has nothing to do with the juror situation. Informational influence is a group effect arising from a group's desire to be correct and to understand how to act best in a given situation. While this may play a role here—because the jury may be trying to be correct and act in the interest of justice—it has split into two opposing camps and one group will not "act correctly." Social categorization is the process by which people sort themselves into categories. This may be happening in this situation when the jury broke into two camps—those who believe the defendant is guilty and those who believe the defendant is not guilty—but it is not the primary effect. The self-serving bias describes the attribution of positive experiences to our own character and actions but negative experiences to factors external to our own character and actions. While this may affect the jurors' interpretations of their own opinions and actions, it does not explain why they are more entrenched in their beliefs after discussing the matter with others who believe the same thing they do. « Return To Question

According to the principle of overjustification, what is the likely result over time of immediately assigning jobs and careers to people based on areas of initial interest? A. Interest in that area will increase and job satisfaction will decrease. B. Interest in that area will increase and job satisfaction will increase C. Interest in that area will not increase and job satisfaction will increase D. Interest in that area will not increase and job satisfaction will decrease.

D. Interest in that area will not increase and job satisfaction will decrease. The principle of overjustification states that when an external incentive, such as money, is applied to a task, the internal motivation decreases. For example, a boy that loves to build birdhouses for fun will begin to enjoy the task less and less as he is paid for them. In the context of careers, overjustification would suggest that an interest in a given area would decrease over time, leading to a decrease in job satisfaction.

Jimmy and Nate both volunteer at the dog pound. Jimmy loves animals of all kinds and loves the chance to be around dogs. Nate doesn't particularly like animals, but he needs service hours for a club he is in at school. The managers of the dog pound offer to start paying Jimmy and Nate. Who is more likely to experience a decrease in job satisfaction? A. Nate; the intrinsic value of being with dogs is decreased by the overjustification of being paid B. Nate; the extrinsic value of being with dogs is decreased by the overjustification of being paid C. Jimmy; the extrinsic value of being with dogs is decreased by the overjustification of being paid D. Jimmy; the intrinsic value of being with dogs is decreased by the overjustification of being paid

D. Jimmy; the intrinsic value of being with dogs is decreased by the overjustification of being paid The value of being with dogs is an intrinsic value for Jimmy; he genuinely likes being with them. Nate's value associated with being with dogs has an extrinsic value of obtaining service hours. Overjustification is a sociological effect that occurs when intrinsic value decreases because extrinsic values, such as money, are introduced to the situation. Since Jimmy's value is highly intrinsic, he is more likely to experience the effects of overjustification.

Major depression is classified as which type of disorder? A. Dissociative B. Psychosomatic C. Impulse control D. Mood E. Anxiety

D. MOOD Affective disorders are a group of disorders marked by a disturbance of mood. Included in the category is major depression. People with major depression see nothing but sorrow in the future and may not wish to live anymore. Anxiety disorders are characterized by unreasonable anxiety or fear that is inappropriate to the circumstances and disrupts the person's life. Psychosomatic disorder is a real physical disorder that has a psychological cause, such as tension headaches. Dissociative disorder is a type of personality disorder that involves a disassociation of past experiences from present memory. The origin of dissociative disorders is a need to escape extreme trauma, usually some form of abuse. Impulse control disorders are an inability to resist an impulse to perform an action that is harmful to others. Includes in this category are kleptomania and pyromania.

Deficits in which cranial nerve could cause ptosis (i.e. the drooping of the upper eyelid)? A. CN VI (the abducens nerve) B. CN VII (the facial nerve) C. CN IV (the trochlear nerve) D. CN III (the oculomotor nerve)

D. OCULOMOTOR The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle responsible for elevating the upper eyelid. It is innervated by CN III, the oculomotor nerve. CN IV (the trochlear nerve) and CN VI (the abducens nerve) are both responsible for innervation of various other muscles of eye movement, while the facial nerve (CN VII) is primarily responsible for control of the muscles of expression, for taste, and for motor innervation to the muscles of the inner ear.

Alice's dog hates vacuum cleaners. He has been conditioned to bark every time she opens the closet door because usually, this means she will begin vacuuming. She begins storing her shoes in the closet and keeps the vacuum in the basement; however, he continues to bark when she opens the closet door. Consider the given processes associated with the scenario. Process A If Alice continues to open the closet door without beginning to vacuum, then eventually the dog will stop barking. Process B If Alice then stops using the closet altogether for several months, and then suddenly opens it again, the dog will begin barking. What are the two processes (A and B) that best describe this scenario? A. Process A: Spontaneous recovery Process B: Generalization B. Process A: Discrimination Process B: Acquisition C. Process A: Generalization Process B: Discrimination D. Process A: Extinction Process B: Spontaneous recovery E. Process A: Extinction Process B: Acquisition

D. Process A: Extinction Process B: Spontaneous recovery The process of repeatedly seeing the conditioned stimulus (e.g., the opening of the closet door) without the unconditioned stimulus (e.g., vacuuming) is extinction. The dog has stopped associating the opening of the closet door with the frightening vacuum. If the subject is not exposed to the conditioned stimulus (e.g. opening the closet door) for a period of time (e.g. several months, though this could be shorter or longer depending on the situation) and then is suddenly re-exposed to the conditioned stimulus, then spontaneous recovery can occur. The conditioned response suddenly occurs again when exposed to the conditioned stimulus. In this case, Alice opens the door several months later and the dog barks again. If she continues to open the door again, without using the vacuum, the extinction process will occur again. "Acquisition" is the initial process of conditioning, during which the neutral stimulus (e.g. opening of the closet door) is paired with the unconditioned stimulus (e.g. vacuuming). "Generalization" is when similar stimuli to the conditioned stimulus trigger the conditioned response. For example, if the dog began barking when Alice opened any door. "Discrimination" is when only the specific conditioned stimulus triggers the conditioned response (i.e. only the opening of the closet door, not any other, door) elicits the barking.

What is the most likely diagnosis in a 24-year-old man who avoids a job he really wants because of an intense fear that he will be humiliated or rejected when meeting unfamiliar people? A. Agoraphobia B. Body dysmorphic disorder C. Panic disorder D. Social anxiety disorder E. Delusional disorder

D. Social anxiety disorder Social anxiety disorder is the correct answer. The fear is judged to be out of proportion to the actual risk of the social interactions and is causing significant impairment in occupational functioning, which is concerning for social phobia. Social anxiety disorder should be suspected when intense fear of social interactions, in which the individual may be scrutinized by others, is out of proportion to the actual threat of the social situation and causes significant impairment in important areas of functioning, and the fear is not better explained by some other mental disorder.

Which of the following proteins become "tangled" in Alzheimer's disease patients? A. Prion proteins (PrP) B. Lewy bodies C. C-reactive proteins D. Tau proteins

D. TAU PROTEIN "Tau proteins," proteins that aid in the cellular transport system of neurons, often become tangled in the brains of Alzheimer's disease, resulting in loss of cellular nutrient and waste transport and eventual cell death. The other choices are incorrect. "Prion proteins" are found in various prion diseases such as bovine spongiform encephalopathy. "Lewy bodies" are symptomatic of Parkinson's disease, while "C-reactive proteins" are elevated in any condition associated with inflammation.

In which lobe of the brain is the primary auditory cortex located? A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe

D. TEMPORAL The primary auditory cortex, the area of the brain responsible for processing auditory information, is located bilaterally in the temporal lobes in Brodmann areas 41 and 42.

Which division of the nervous system controls the dilator pupillae and is known as the iris dilator muscle? A. The sensory division of the peripheral nervous system B. The somatic division of the peripheral nervous system C. The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

D. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system : Control of the muscles responsible for dilation of the pupil is mediated by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. During states of fear, sexual arousal, or heightened attention, the pupil will dilate due to the stimulation of the dilator pupillae, or iris dilator muscle.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of NON-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep)? Select Comprises approximately 75% of the sleep cycle A. Delta waves are recorded on an electroencephalogram (EEG) B. Dreaming C. Is also termed synchronized sleep D. Respiration becomes slower and more regular

DREAMING Sleep has two states: one with no rapid eye movement (NREM or synchronized sleep, which involves four stages) and one with rapid eye movements (REM or dreaming sleep). NREM sleep comprises approximately 75% of the sleep cycle. During NREM sleep, respiration becomes slower and more regular as transition from wakefulness to sleep occurs. During stage 4, or deep sleep, delta activity is recorded on the EEG.

While completing a ritual, such as the repeated locking and unlocking of the front door, an individual with obsessive-compulsive disorder would most likely feel which of the following? A. Distress B. Dismissive C. Relaxed D. Content E. Relief for the rest of the day

Distress People with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel the need to perform certain rituals or routines repeatedly. These individuals are often compelled by intrusive thoughts. An individual compelled to perform repeated behavior, such as continually locking and unlocking a door, will often feel distressed by these intrusive thoughts and the need to perform certain behaviors. Someone with obsessive-compulsive disorder cannot simply feel dismissive toward these thoughts, which is part of the distress they experience. While performing these rituals can sometimes cause a temporary sense of relief, this relief does not last for the rest of the day. It is only a transient sense of relief that may come from temporarily satisfying the intrusive thoughts. An individual compelled to perform repeated behavior would have no particular reason to feel content or relaxed.

Which of the following would not contribute to increasing globalization? A. Increased international communication B. Decreased restrictions on immigration C. Increased international investments D. Increased international trade E. Decreased dependence on international resources

E. Decreased dependence on international resources

Muscle paralysis normally occurs during __________. A. stage 3 non-rapid eye movement sleep B. stage 4 non-rapid eye movement sleep C. stage 2 non-rapid eye movement sleep D. stage 1 non-rapid eye movement sleep E. rapid eye movement sleep

E. REM SLEEP In rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, an electroencephalogram (EEG) shows low brain activity and muscle paralysis normally occurs. During non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM), stage 1 eye movements are slow. EEG activity increases during NREM stage 2. Eye movement ceases during NREM stage 3. Delta wave activity occurs on EEG readings during NREM stage 4. NREM stages 3 and 4 are considered deep sleep.

As a part of a research study, Carlos was presented with a sound. He was instructed to press "S" (for "same") every time that he heard the same sound, and to press "D" (for "different") every time he heard a different sound. At the end of the test, Carlos was informed that he correctly pressed "S" for every same sound, but incorrectly identified many of the different sounds as "same sounds." Carlos' ability to detect signals would be described as which of the following? A. None of these B. Excellent selectivity, but poor sensitivity C. Excellent sensitivity, but poor selectivity D. Equal sensitivity and selectivity

Excellent sensitivity, but poor selectivity Sensitivity is the ability to detect a true signal. Carlos correctly identified all of the "S" sounds; however, he missed many of the "D" sounds, indicating that his selectivity is poor. In medicine, doctors desire that screening instruments (e.g. mammograms as a screening for breast cancer) have high sensitivity so that no cases or symptoms are missed. Selectivity is less important for screening.

Which of the following best represents a class of psychiatric disorders in which an individual knowingly fabricates or exaggerates illness in order to receive medical treatment, sympathy, or care? A. Hypochondriasis B. Somatic symptom disorders C. Conversion disorders D. Factitious disorders

Factitious disorders "Factitious disorders" are psychiatric or behavioral conditions in which an individual knowingly fabricates or exaggerates illness in order to receive medical treatment, sympathy, or care. Factitious disorders are distinguished from "hypochondriasis," "conversion disorders," and "somatic symptom disorders" in that the individual is consciously creating their symptoms, while in the other disorders listed they are not.

In which of the following parts of the retina is visual acuity the highest? A. Optic disc B. Lens C. Cornea D. Fovea

Fovea The fovea centralis is a zone of densely packed cone cells in the center of the macula lutea of the retina. Because of this it is the region capable of the highest degree of visual acuity. The optic disc is the point of exit for ganglion cell axons of the optic nerve. This is an area absent of rods or cones, and so is considered a "blind spot" of the eye. Last, the cornea and lens are not part of the retina.

Which of the following psychological disorders listed would be categorized as dissociative disorders? I. Schizophrenia II. Schizoid personality disorder III. Depersonalization disorder IV. Post-traumatic stress disorder A. I, II, and III B. II and IV C. I and II D. III only E. III and IV

III only Dissociative disorders are characterized by periods of altered mental status (e.g. disruptions in memory, perception, self-identity, and/or awareness) that occur frequently enough to disrupt a person's ability to function normally. They are thought to be potential results of psychological trauma, but may also result from medication and/or drug use. Dissociative identity disorder, dissociative amnesia, and depersonalization disorder are all considered dissociative disorders. On the other hand, schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder; although it may include occasional episodes of dissociation, the episodes where individuals lose touch with reality are characterized more by delusions and hallucinations, not a loss of memory or awareness. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder—which is a personality disorder, not a dissociative disorder—have little interest in close relationships with others and are generally "cold" or detached in affect. Post-traumatic stress disorder is an anxiety disorder characterized by sudden episodes of worry, unease, apprehension, and fear due to some emotional trigger that causes flashbacks to the traumatic event and hyperarousal during the event.

Which of the following is not a cause of a conductive hearing loss? A. Foreign body in the external ear canal B. Acute otitis media C. Impacted cerumen D. Loud noises E. Perforated eardrum

LOUD NOISES Conductive hearing loss occurs when sound is not conducted through the external auditory canal to the tympanic membrane and the ossicles. Causes include acute otitis media, performated eardrum, impacted cerumen (earwax), or a foreign body in the external canal. A sensorineural hearing loss occurs when there is damage to the fine hairs in the cochlea caused by loud noise.

Which of following is a true statement regarding light and the human eye? The pigments of the iris contain small numbers of photoreceptors Light will pass through the aqueous humor before passing through the vitreous humor The retina is a small disc located at the focal point at the back of the eye Light will pass through the lens before passing through the cornea

Light will pass through the aqueous humor before passing through the vitreous humor. The first structure that light will encounter as it enters the eye is the cornea, a transparent protein disc designed to refract light toward the eye interior. The aqueous humor is the liquid medium between the cornea and the lens of the eye. Light will pass through the aqueous humor and the pupil before hitting the lens. The lens then focuses the light onto the back of the eye. The vitreous humor is the liquid medium between the lens and the retina at the back of the eye. The iris is used to control the shape of the pupil, and does not contain photoreceptors. All photoreceptors are located on the retina, which lines the back wall of the eye. A small region known as the fovea centralis houses a large number of cones (photoreceptors) at the back of the eye, but is part of the greater retinal structure. The only true statement given is that light will pass through the aqueous humor before passing through the vitreous humor.

If an individual displays behaviors consistent with trichotillomania (i.e. hair-pulling), then he or she would be classified under which of the following behavioral disorder subsets? A. Anxiety disorder spectrum B. Autism spectrum C. Bipolar spectrum D. None of these E. Obsessive-compulsive spectrum

Obsessive-compulsive spectrum Trichotillomania is associated with irresistible urges to perform unwanted repetitive behavior, which falls under the obsessive-compulsive spectrum. Although the disorder may cause anxiety to an individual, it does not fit on the anxiety spectrum of behavioral disorders. The autism and bipolar disorder spectrums do not include behaviors or characteristics that are associated with trichotillomania.

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) has been used to compare the brains of people who have depression with those who do not have depression. Which is the correct list of areas of the brain that show up differently on MRIs depending on whether a person has, or does not have, depression? A. Mood, vision, sleep, appetite, and behavior B. Vision, movement, memory, speech, sleep C. Mood, thinking, sleep, appetite, and behavior D. Speech, mood, thinking, sleep, and appetite E. Mood, thinking, sleep, movement, appetite

Mood, thinking, sleep, appetite, and behavior The correct answer is mood, thinking, sleep, appetite, and behavior. Other functions, such as speech, memory, and movement do not appear different depending on whether the patient is depressed.

Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation? A. Being able to see a candle flame at thirty miles on a dark clear night B. Needing more of a drug to feel its effects after taking it for a while C. None of these D. Music at a concert seems less loud at the end of the night

Music at a concert seems less loud at the end of the night Sensory adaptation is the gradual alteration in sensitivity with prolonged stimulation or the absence of stimulation. Being able to see the candle flame is an example of "absolute threshold," which is the minimum intensity of a stimulus for humans to be able to detect the stimulus fifty percent of the time. Last, needing more of a drug to feel its effects is an example of tolerance.

With regard to stages of sleep and consciousness, delta waves are most commonly associated with which of the following? A. Wakefulness B. N2 C. REM D. N1 E. N3

N3 The stages of sleep include three non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages and one rapid eye movement (REM) stage. The stages proceed in the following order and cycle such that N1 follows REM: N1, N2, N3, REM. During N1, the individual loses sensation of his or her environment and becomes more relaxed, both mentally and physiologically. Brain waves slowly transition from alpha waves (characteristic of wakefulness) to lower frequency theta waves. During N2, environmental awareness completely disappears. Brain waves are characterized by sleep spindles and K-complexes, which are short bursts of higher frequency waves. General wave patterns follow theta wave trends, with the exception of these interruptions. During N3, the individual enters deep sleep. Brain activity is characterized by a high presence of very low frequency delta waves. Parasomnias, such as sleepwalking and night terrors, can occur during stage N3 sleep. REM sleep is characterized by neural acetylcholine secretions, which cause brain waves to increase in frequency and resemble alpha forms. The body's muscles are paralyzed, though the brain's activity is elevated. Dreams occur during this stage, and muscle paralysis is thought to prevent the sleeping individual from attempting to interact with their dreams. Delta waves are most concretely linked to the N3 stage of sleep.

Which of the following is not a type of photoreceptor cell? A. None of these B. Cones C. Rods D. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells

NONE OF THESE There are three types of photoreceptor cells in the retina: "rods," "cones," and "photosensitive retinal ganglion cells." While rods and cones directly communicate information about sight (e.g. contrast, brightness, and color), photosensitive retinal ganglion cells do not directly communicate visual information to the brain. Rather, they are involved in the pupillary reflex.

Myopia is a very common condition. What is myopia and which type of lens can correct it? A. Nearsightedness; convex (i.e. converging) lens B. Nearsightedness; concave (i.e. diverging) lens C. Farsightedness; convex (i.e. converging) lens D. Farsightedness; concave (i.e. diverging) lens

Nearsightedness; concave (i.e. diverging) lens Myopia is nearsightedness, meaning the focal length is too short. This can be caused by too much refraction at the eye's lens or if the eyeball is too long. Myopia can be corrected using a concave (i.e. diverging) lens, which will increase the focal length as shown in the figure.

Ciliary and pupillary muscles are innervated by which cranial nerve? A. The abducens nerve (CN IV) B. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) C. The ocular nerve (CN II) D. The oculomotor nerve (CN III)

OCULOMOTOR NERVE Ciliary and pupillary muscles are innervated by CN III, the oculomotor nerve. This nerve is also responsible for elevation of the upper eyelid, and innervation of the superior rectus, medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles of the eye. The abducens nerve (CN VI) innervates a single extraocular muscle: the lateral rectus. The optic nerve is primarily involved in transmission of visual signals from the retina to the brain, and the trigeminal nerve is not directly involved in ocular movement or function.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is commonly depressed in patients with obsessive compulsive disorder? A. Oxytocin B. Adrenaline C. Noradrenaline D. Serotonin

Obsessive compulsive disorder, or OCD, is related to a decrease in bioavailable "serotonin" levels. This may be due to alterations serotonin transporter (SERT) function, which increase SERT activity, thus clearing serotonin from the synaptic cleft more rapidly and leading to a shorter duration of effect. While any of the other signaling molecules listed may affected in OCD, serotonin is the only neurotransmitter known to have a direct association with the disorder.

Which of the following structures is the main sensory organ associated with hearing? A. Eustachian tube B. Tympanic membrane C. The scala tympani D. Organ of Corti E. Bony labyrinth

Organ of Corti The main sensory organ of hearing is a small structure within the cochlea called the "organ of Corti." It contains hair cells, which are sensory receptor cells capable of responding to changes in pressure of the fluid of the inner ear. The organ of Corti is sandwiched between the three fluid-filled chambers, or scalae: the scala vestibuli, the scala tympani, and the scala media. The "bony labyrinth" is a separate part of the inner ear that plays a role in balance and equilibrium. The "eustachian tube" is not a part of the inner ear, but rather a channel between the middle ear and the pharynx.

Suppose that Steve volunteers to help out on his uncle's cargo ship. After two weeks of working for free, Steve's uncle decides to start paying Steve. Steve is excited to be paid, but he finds the work much less satisfying than it was before. What motivational principle does this example best demonstrate? A. Overjustification B. Delayed gratification C. Extrinsic motivation D. Intrinsic motivation

Overjustification is the principle best illustrated in this example. Overjustification is defined as the effect of an extrinsic reward diminishing an intrinsic reward. In this example, Steve at first finds the work aboard his Uncle's ship satisfying (intrinsic), but when he starts receiving pay (extrinsic), that satisfaction decreases. Thus, overjustification is best illustrated. Delayed gratification is not demonstrated in this example; it assumes that accessing a reward later will lead to more satisfaction than now.

Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear? A. Incus B. Stapes C. Pinna D. Malleus

PINNA The "malleus," "incus," and "stapes" are the three bones that make up the ossicles of the middle ear. Together they work to transform sound waves into mechanical vibrations. The "pinna" is not a bone at all, but rather the anatomical term for the fleshy, cartilaginous outer ear.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition for the term "obsession" in relation to obsessive compulsive disorder? A. Persistent or recurrent involuntary thoughts and/or images which are intrusive and cause marked distress or anxiety. B. Repetitive motions, such as hand-flapping or rocking, with no obvious physiological cause. C. Repetitive behavior that an individual feels driven to perform according to rigid rules or rituals. D. Excessive preoccupation with a particular subject or individual, such as a sport or a film actor.

Persistent or recurrent involuntary thoughts and/or images which are intrusive and cause marked distress or anxiety. In the context of obsessive compulsive disorder, an obsession refers to "persistent or recurrent involuntary thoughts and/or images which are intrusive and cause marked distress or anxiety." These thoughts often lead to compulsions, or repetitive behavior that an individual feels driven to perform according to rigid rules or rituals.

Which of the following is the term for the light-sensitive cells of the retina? A. Photophilic cells B. Aural cells of the retina C. Photoreceptor cells D. Photogenic receptor cells

Photoreceptor cells : The light sensitive cells of the retina are called "photoreceptor cells." This is a group of cells with various functions regarding the transmission of information about brightness, color, and contrast. None of the other structures listed are cell types of the eye.

Which of the following is not a function of the eustachian tube? A. Production of perilymph B. Removal of cellular and bacterial waste C. Drainage of fluid from the middle ear D. Equalization of pressure in the middle ear

Production of perilymph The eustachian tube primarily functions to equalize pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, remove cellular and bacterial waste from the middle ear, and to drain fluid from the middle ear into the pharynx. Cells within the inner ear produce perilymph.

In early infancy, movement is almost entirely considered to be which of the following? A. Reflexive B. Exploratory C. Autonomic D. All of these E Functional

REFLEXIVE When we are infants, our movements are almost exclusively reflexive—healthy babies demonstrate the same general response to a specific type of stimuli. While most of these movements are technically functional (i.e. the rooting reflex serves the function of aiding in child in being able to eat), not all serve a specific purpose. On the other hand, "autonomic" does not apply to movement, but rather to unconscious actions that keep our bodies in homeostasis, like our breathing. Very young infants have not yet developed the nervous system capabilities that allow for exploratory movements.

a.People in their late teens and twenties who have incoherent and disorganized speech, hallucinations, and delusions are exhibiting the symptoms of __________. A. bipolar disorder B. impulse control disorders C. generalized anxiety disorder D. social phobias E. schizophrenia

SCHIZOPHRENIA People with schizophrenia have hallucinations, delusions, and difficulty concentrating. Symptoms of schizophrenia typically begin to appear in the late teens and twenties. Social phobias involve fear of being embarrassed in social situations. The most common is fear of public speaking. People with generalized anxiety disorder are frightened of something but are unable to speak about a specific fear. They develop physical fear reactions. Alterations of episodes of depression with episodes of mania is called bipolar disorder. The inability to resist and impulse to perform an action that is harmful to the individual or to others is an impulse control disorder. Examples are kleptomania and pyromania.

Hallucinations, paranoia, and inappropriate behavior are associated with which of the following mental disorders? A. Trichotillomania B. Somatoform disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Dissociative identity disorder E. Schizophrenia

Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a mental disorder where people perceive things without a stimulation—hallucinations. These people also suffer paranoid delusions, and their behaviors can be totally inappropriate. The development of distinctly separate personalities is called dissociative identity disorder (DID). People with schizophrenia do not have a split personality. People with bipolar disorder alternate between episodes of depression and mania. Trichotillomania is characterized by the repeated urge to pull out body hair. When there is no identifiable physical cause to explain physical disorders that are real to the patient, somatoform disorder may be diagnosed.

Alan Baddeley's model for working memory is comprised of four parts. Which of the following is not one of the four components of the model? A. Episodic buffer B. Phonological loop C. Semantic buffer D. Central executive E. Visuospatial sketchpad

Semantic buffer Baddeley's Model of Working Memory consists of the following four parts: the central executive, phonological loop, episodic buffer, and visuospatial sketchpad. The semantic buffer does not exist in his model, and is the correct answer. The central executive acts like the "boss" of the other three components and directs our attention. The phonological loop gives us the ability to temporarily hold spoken or written information in our memory through repetition; for example, you use this when trying to remember a phone number. The visuospatial sketchpad allows us to temporarily remember visuospatial information via mental images. For example, you may use this when navigating through a room to remember there is a chair to your left even when it is out of sight. Last, the episodic buffer is used to relate current experiences to memories of the past. For example, if you see a house and realize it looks similar to your childhood home.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is commonly depressed in patients with obsessive compulsive disorder? A. Adrenaline B. Oxytocin C. Noradrenaline D. Serotonin

Serotonin Obsessive compulsive disorder, or OCD, is related to a decrease in bioavailable "serotonin" levels. This may be due to alterations serotonin transporter (SERT) function, which increase SERT activity, thus clearing serotonin from the synaptic cleft more rapidly and leading to a shorter duration of effect. While any of the other signaling molecules listed may affected in OCD, serotonin is the only neurotransmitter known to have a direct association with the disorder.

In order to make the diagnosis of intellectual disability, the intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits must be distinct from those characterized by autism spectrum disorder, communication disorders, specific learning disorders, and the neurocognitive disorders. To make the diagnosis of intellectual disability from the differential diagnoses, then which of the following would be the most logical action to take? A. Link the intellectual disability to a genetic syndrome B. Show deficits specific to the learning domains C. Show onset of disability during the developmental period D. Show IQ scores are unstable E. Show a loss of cognitive functioning, such as following a head injury

Show onset of disability during developmental period The diagnosis of intellectual disability is made when the onset of intellectual and adaptive function deficits is in the developmental period. The neurocognitive disorders are characterized by a loss of cognitive functioning and may occur with intellectual disability. Specific learning disorder is specific to the learning domains and does not show deficits in intellectual function and adaptive behaviors.

In order to successfully accommodate for changes in depth of field, lens of the eye must perform which of the following functions when re-focusing on a closer object? A. Tilt B. Thicken C. Rotate D. Flatten

THICKEN When looking at objects that are close, the lens of the eye must "thicken" to accommodate changes in depth of field. This is accomplished by contraction of the ciliary muscle, which allows the suspensory ligament to stretch. The lack of tension then allows the lens to draw up into its thicker resting state. If the vision is shifted to a far object, then ciliary muscles will relax, which increases tension on the lens via the suspensory ligament and causes it to "flatten." The lens does not "tilt" or "rotate."

A team of perception researchers decided to test the difference between sensation and perception by testing the reading speed of a paragraph in three conditions. In the first condition, the researchers correctly spelled the words in the sentences. In the second condition, they had the same words with the letters randomly jumbled within each word; however, the first and last letter of each word remained in the correct position. In the third condition, researchers used the same words and randomly jumbled every letter in each word, including the first and last letters. Sample sentences from the paragraphs are below: 1). Mary crossed the street to purchase a cookie after lunch. 2). Mray csorsed the sretet to pruachse a ckooie atfer lnuch. 3). Rmya rsocsed het teerst to curaepshs a okocei feart culhn. The researchers timed how long it took for the participants to correctly say a sentence fluently. They found that participants in condition three took significantly more time to read the sentence fluently, whereas they found no significant difference in the average amount of time it took participants to read the passage in condition one compared to condition two. Suppose the researchers wanted to test the Gestalt principle of proximity. In order to do this, they might consider which of the following options? A. Test if varying the size of the words impacted reading fluency. B. Test if varying the amount of space between words impacted reading fluency. C. Test if varying the color of words impacted reading fluency. D. Test if varying the font of words impacted reading fluency.

Test if varying the amount of space between words impacted reading fluency. The Gestalt principle of proximity suggests that the closer objects are to one another, the more likely they will be grouped together. This is why we leave larger spaces between words than we do letters. Testing if varying the amount of space between words impacted reading fluency would be testing proximity whereas varying color, font, or size would be testing the Gestalt principle of similarity, which posits that objects that are visually similar (in size shape or color) are likely to be grouped together.

Which part of the brain is chiefly responsible for planning and problem solving? A. Occipital lobe B. Cerebellum C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Parietal lobe

The "frontal lobe" is involved in more complex reasoning (e.g. planning & problem solving) as well as voluntary movement. It contains the primary motor cortex in which voluntary movements are initiated. The "occipital lobe" is important for visual processing. The "parietal lobe" contains the somatosensory cortex and thus is highly important for sensation. The "temporal lobe" is important for auditory and olfactory processing as well as language (i.e. Wernicke's area) and memory (i.e. the hippocampus). Last, the "cerebellum" is responsible for balance and coordinating movements.

What is the definition of a "just-noticeable difference"? A. The amount by which a stimulus needs to change for a human to perceive a difference at least fifty percent of the time B. The amount by which a stimulus needs to change for a human to perceive a difference at least twenty-five percent of the time C. The amount by which a stimulus needs to change for a human to perceive a difference all of the time D. The amount by which a stimulus needs to change for a human to perceive a difference at least seventy-five percent of the time

The amount by which a stimulus needs to change for a human to perceive a difference at least fifty percent of the time Just-noticeable difference (JND) is the amount that a stimulus needs to change for someone to be able to notice it at least half the time. For example, the JND needed to perceive that a light is brighter is a two percent change in the brightness of the light's illumination. This means that when the brightness goes up by two percent, we would be able to notice a difference half of the time or more.

Alice is watching videos on her cellular phone during math class and her teacher notices. Her teacher scolds her to stop and tells her she must write an essay about why math is important. Which type of operant conditioning is the teacher using? A. Positive reinforcement B. Negative punishment C. Negative reinforcement D. None of these E. Positive punishment

The correct answer is "positive punishment." The teacher is adding the essay assignment making it positive, and she is aiming to decrease the behavior of watching videos in class making it a punishment. As shown in the figure, if something is removed (e.g. loss of computer privileges) this would be negative, and if the aim is to increase the behavior (e.g., a parent trying to make a student study more) it is considered to be reinforcement. Classical conditioning involves the pairing of a new stimulus to the desired response. A famous example is Pavlov's dogs that salivated (i.e. unconditioned response) in response to seeing food (i.e. unconditioned stimulus). During the conditioning period, a neutral stimulus (e.g. a bell) is rung while showing the food to the dogs; that is, the neutral stimulus is paired with the unconditioned stimulus. Following the conditioning period, the bell alone (i.e. without the presence of food) triggers salivation in the dogs. The bell becomes the conditioned stimulus and the salivation becomes the conditioned response.

Which of the following is not a common symptom in borderline personality disorder? A. The desire to isolate socially B. A pattern of tumultuous relationships with family, friends, and romantic interests, often vacillating from extreme idealization to extreme dislike or devaluation. C. Extreme reactions to abandonment, real or perceived D. Chronic feelings of emptiness and/or boredom

The desire to isolate socially The DSM IV criteria for diagnosis of borderline personality disorder includes at least five of the following symptoms: Extreme reactions to abandonment, real or perceived A pattern of tumultuous relationships with family, friends, and romantic interests, often vacillating from extreme idealization to extreme dislike or devaluation. Distorted and unstable self-image, which can result in sudden changes in feelings, opinions, values, plans, or goals Impulsive and destructive behaviors, such as spending sprees, unsafe sex, substance abuse, reckless driving, and binge eating Recurring suicidal behaviors or self-harming behavior Intense and highly changeable moods Chronic feelings of emptiness and/or boredom Inappropriate, intense anger or problems controlling anger Having stress-related paranoid thoughts or severe dissociative symptoms, such as feeling cut off from oneself, observing oneself from outside the body, or losing touch with reality.

Panic disorders are considered to be one of the most frequent groups of anxiety disorders. Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of panic disorders? A. The fear of attacks of terror, which are overwhelming and sudden B. The irrational fear of specific situations or objects C. None of these D. The unfocused and constant fear that is not associated with any specific situation or object E. The fear of being in situations in which escape may not be possible

The fear of attacks of terror, which are overwhelming and sudden Individuals with a panic disorder suffer from sudden, overwhelming and repeated attacks of terror, which can occur out of nowhere. Major changes in behavior and persistent anxiety over having further attacks are characteristic of panic disorders. Often external stimuli or internal thoughts can trigger these attacks. The other choices are incorrect. The fear of no escape possibilities in crowded situations is considered to be one criteria of agoraphobia, not of panic disorder. The exaggerated fear of specific objects or situations is characteristic for phobic disorders, not of panic disorder. Last, generalized anxiety disorder is marked by the diffuse state of general worries and fears, which are not based on a specific object or event. This is not the best description listed to fit the characteristics for panic disorder

Lithium is a medication that is effective in the treatment of __________. A. post-traumatic stress disorder B. obsessive-compulsive disorder C. schizophrenia D. bipolar disorder E. panic disorder

bipolar disorder The manic and depressive phases of bipolar disorder can be treated with the mood stabilizer lithium. Lithium is used for the prevention of future depression and suicide and for the prevention of future mania. Schizophrenia is treated with antipsychotic medications. Medications to reduce nightmares, insomnia, and startle reactions are used in the treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder. Benzodiazepines and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are used to treat panic disorders. SSRIs are also used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Recurrent thoughts, fears, impulses, and actions are the symptoms of __________. A. antisocial personality disorder B. somatoform disorder C. schizophrenia D. obsessive-compulsive disorder E. impulse control disorders

obsessive-compulsive disorder In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), patients have obsessions and compulsions. The obsessions are recurrent thoughts, fears, images, or impulses. The compulsions are recurrent, irresistible actions such as counting, hand washing, or systematically arranging things. People with schizophrenia have hallucinations and suffer from delusions. When there is no identifiable physical cause to explain physical symptoms, a somatoform disorder may be the diagnosis. People who lie, cheat, steal, and have no sense of responsibility exhibit the symptoms of antisocial personality disorder. Impulse control disorders are an inability to resist an impulse to perform an act that is harmful to the individual or others. Substance abuse and chemical dependence fall under this category.

Recurrent thoughts, fears, impulses, and actions are the symptoms of __________. A. impulse control disorders B. somatoform disorder C. obsessive-compulsive disorder D. antisocial personality disorder E. schizophrenia

obsessive-compulsive disorder In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), patients have obsessions and compulsions. The obsessions are recurrent thoughts, fears, images, or impulses. The compulsions are recurrent, irresistible actions such as counting, hand washing, or systematically arranging things. People with schizophrenia have hallucinations and suffer from delusions. When there is no identifiable physical cause to explain physical symptoms, a somatoform disorder may be the diagnosis. People who lie, cheat, steal, and have no sense of responsibility exhibit the symptoms of antisocial personality disorder. Impulse control disorders are an inability to resist an impulse to perform an act that is harmful to the individual or others. Substance abuse and chemical dependence fall under this category.

People in their late teens and twenties who have incoherent and disorganized speech, hallucinations, and delusions are exhibiting the symptoms of __________. A. generalized anxiety disorder B. bipolar disorder C. schizophrenia D. impulse control disorders E. social phobias

schizophrenia People with schizophrenia have hallucinations, delusions, and difficulty concentrating. Symptoms of schizophrenia typically begin to appear in the late teens and twenties. Social phobias involve fear of being embarrassed in social situations. The most common is fear of public speaking. People with generalized anxiety disorder are frightened of something but are unable to speak about a specific fear. They develop physical fear reactions. Alterations of episodes of depression with episodes of mania is called bipolar disorder. The inability to resist and impulse to perform an action that is harmful to the individual or to others is an impulse control disorder. Examples are kleptomania and pyromania.

A team of perception researchers decided to test the difference between sensation and perception by testing the reading speed of a paragraph in three conditions. In the first condition, the researchers correctly spelled the words in the sentences. In the second condition, they had the same words with the letters randomly jumbled within each word; however, the first and last letter of each word remained in the correct position. In the third condition, researchers used the same words and randomly jumbled every letter in each word, including the first and last letters. Sample sentences from the paragraphs are below: 1). Mary crossed the street to purchase a cookie after lunch. 2). Mray csorsed the sretet to pruachse a ckooie atfer lnuch. 3). Rmya rsocsed het teerst to curaepshs a okocei feart culhn. The researchers timed how long it took for the participants to correctly say a sentence fluently. They found that participants in condition three took significantly more time to read the sentence fluently, whereas they found no significant difference in the average amount of time it took participants to read the passage in condition one compared to condition two. The observation that participants did not differ in reading time between conditions one and two illustrates that humans rely on which of the following principles when reading? A. Inattentional blindness B. Top-down processing C. Bottom-up processing D. Phi phenomenon

topdown Top-down and bottom-up processing are both examples of feature analysis, which allows us to detect specific elements and assemble them into a more complex visual form. A top-down process is a progression from the WHOLE to the DETAILS(in this case, from the whole word to the individual letters). Bottom-up processing is the opposite; it is the progression from individual elements to the whole. Because participants in condition two were still reading as quickly as those in condition one, it suggests that in reading, humans process the whole word rather than each individual letter (i.e. top-down process). The Phi Phenomenon is the illusion of movement created by presenting visual stimuli in rapid succession (e.g. a cartoon flip book). Inattentional blindness occurs when someone is hyper-focused on one stimulus and unable to take in other information.