Vet 403

An adequate time period for isolation of a newly-purchased bull before he has contact with the resident herd would last _____ days.

30

List one possible reason a boot bath may not be effective at inactivating disease agents:

Agents might not react to the disinfectant in the boot bath

Anaphylaxis or Endotoxemia: The adverse vaccine effect that occurs more quickly after vaccine administration.

Anaphylaxis

Fresh colostrum can be stored for up to _____ in the refrigerator; _________ in the freezer. A. 1day - 1 week B. 1 week - 1 year C. 1 week - never

B. 1 week - 1 year

In order to assess passive transfer of antibodies, serum should be obtained from a calf at ____ of age A. 0-24 hours B. 1-5 days C. 8-14 days

B. 1-5 days

Which BVDV serum neutralization titer result represents the higher antibody concentration in the animal? A. 1:16 B. 1:4096

B. 1:4096

On average we experience the lag time from an initial vaccination to a measurable immune response in the animal to be about ________, and the time from vaccination to a peak immune response to be about _______. A. 1-2 days, 4-7 days B. 4-7 days, 7-14 days, C. 4-7 weeks, 7-14 weeks, D. 4-7 months, 4-7 months.

B. 4-7 days, 7-14 weeks

If you are adept at getting useful information from an owner about their animal's condition and the events leading up to it, you are good at getting: A. Clinical measurements B. A history C. An incidence rate D. The signalment

B. A history

Which sequence of terms below is listed in the proper order from slowest/longest onset to fastest/shortest onset? A. Chronic - acute - subacute - peracute B. Chronic - subacute - acute - peracute C. Chronic - peracute - subacute - acute D. Peracute - acute - subacute - chronic

B. Chronic - subacute - acute - peracute

Neospora caninum Infections in cattle require ____ in order to complete the protozoal life cycle A. cats B. Dogs C. Raccoons D. Skunks

B. Dogs

A. AGID B. ELISA C. HI D. SN or VN; Uses an antigen-coated well to capture antibodies from a serum sample, which are then treated with another antibody containing an enzyme that will create a color change when the substrate is added

B. ELISA

BVDV strains are more virulent in infected animals that are non-cytopathic strains A. True B. False

B. False

A stainless steel pig feeder contaminated with Salmonella bacteria represents a: A. Biological vector B. Fomite C. Mechanical vector D. Either b or c

B. Fomite

A water tank contaminated with Salmonella bacteria represents a: A. Biological vector B. Fomite C. Mechanical vector D. Either b or c

B. Fomite

The proper order in which to work with animals in a farm operation is (1st to last): A. Healthy older animals - sick animals - healthy younger animals B. Healthy younger animals - Healthy older animals - sick animals C. Sick animals - Healthy older animals - Healthy younger animals

B. Healthy younger animals - Healthy older animals - sick animals

Is non-specific about the disease agents against which it protects the body: A. Acquired immunity B. Innate immunity C. Passive immunity

B. Innate immunity

A. Acidosis B. Ketosis C. Milk fever; Caused by excessive mobilization of body fat when cows are milking

B. Ketosis

A potentially useful antemortem diagnostic sample for detecting respiratory disease agents would be A. Feces B. Nasal swab C. Piece of fresh lung D. Any of the above E. B and C only

B. Nasal swab

Animals are ______ during the incubation period of a disease: A. Clinical B. Sub-clinical

B. Sub-clinical

In a normal population of cattle, the main reservoir for BRDC pathogens is: A. the airspace shared by the animals B. The animals' respiratory tracts C. The bedding on which the animals spend time

B. The animals' respiratory tracts B. The animals' respiratory tracts

A fecal test for Johne's Disease detects: A. Antibodies against the germ that causes Johne's Disease B. The germ that causes Johne's Disease (or its nucleic acid)

B. The germ that causes John's Disease

Transmission fo Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus from an infected dam to her unborn fetus is an example of: A. Horizontal transmission B. Vertical transmission

B. Vertical transmission

Transmission of Neospora caninum from an infected heifer to her unborn fetus is an example of: A. horizontal transmission B. Vertical transmission

B. Vertical transmission

When performing a necropsy on a horse, you find interesting lesions in the liver. You'd like the lab to identify infection disease agents that may be in the tissue, but really don't have any idea which germs could be involved. Possible tests you'd ask the lab to run on a fresh specimen of liver would include: A. Antigen-capture ELISA B. Bacterial culture C. PCR D. All of the above

B. bacterial culture

Which statement is correct regarding cattle persistently infected with BVDV A. in certain instances calves can clear a persistent infection B. Invariably these animals die of mucosal disease if not harvested before then C. persistently infected calves can be visibly detected in a herd D. persistently infected calves may be born that way, or the condition may commence later on in life

B. invariably these animals die of mucosal disease if not harvested before then

Bronchopneumonia or Pleuropneumonia: The term for inflammation of lung (alveolar) tissue along with inflammation of the airways.

Bronchopneumonia

Which of the following is true about worms and protozoa? A. The immune system is not very robust against infestations/infections with these agents B. They usually are very species-specific C. Both of the above are true D. None of the above are true

C. Both of the above are ture

You receive real-time PCR results from the laboratory on several different nasal swab samples taken from pigs, tested for swine influenza virus. Which of the following Ct levels indicates the higher amount of viable swine influenza virus present in the swabs? A. 26.47 B. 37.47 C. Cannot tell from the information given

C. Cannot tell from the information given

Which statement is correct regarding the typical transmission and clinical onset of Johne's Disease? A. Cattle become infected as adults and do not show clinical signs until years later. B. Cattle become infected as adults and show clinical signs after 2-3 week incubation period C. Cattle become infected as young calves and do not show clinical signs until years later. D. Cattle become infected as young calves and show clinical signs after a 2-3 week incubation period.

C. Cattle become infected as young calves and do not show clinical signs until years later.

A. AGID B. ELISA C. HI D. SN or VN; Mix live virus with the serum sample, then add the mixture to a well containing red blood cells; see if sufficient antibodies are present to prevent the virus from making the RBC's clump

C. HI

A. Acidosis B. Ketosis C. Milk fever; Occurs due to a drop in blood calcium levels

C. Milk fever

Which if the following statements if true regarding vaccine administration routes? A. Intramuscular and subcutaneous administration routes can be used interchangeably with no differences in immune response B. Intranasal vaccines by definition are killed/inactivated vaccines C. Only certain vaccines are effective when given in the drinking water D. All of the above are true E. None of the above are true

C. Only certain vaccines are effective when given in the drinking water

An agent that causes mastitis would be expected to enter the body through A. Mouth B. Respiratory tract C. Teat canal D. More than one of the above

C. Teat canal

An antibiotic in the penicillin class affects bacteria in the body by maintaining blood levels above the bacteria's minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for the longest time possible. This makes it a(n): A. AUC-dependent antibiotic B. Concentration-dependent antibiotic C. Time-dependent antibiotic

C. Time-dependent antibiotic

The bacteria that causes Johne's Disease in the cattle is most closely related to the cause of: A. Mycoplasma infections B. Salmonellosis C. Tuberculosis

C. Tuberculosis

Scenarios such as dead mice in hay feeders, dead shorebirds near sloughs, or a raccoon dying in a bunker Silo can result in cases of _________ in animals? A. Anthrax B. blackleg C. botulism D. tetanus

C. botulism

Centered around the large bronchi or Cranioventral: A necropsy exam on the lungs of a calf that died from pneumonia causes you to suspect aspiration pneumonia, because the distribution of the pneumonia lesions is _________.

Centered around the large bronchi

Bronchi, Cranial part of the trachea, Nasal passages: Where in the respiratory tract you would find lesions of diphtheria.

Cranial part of the trachea

Clinical signs/effects of PRRS virus infection is growing pigs include: A. Fever B. Immunosuppression leading to bacterial infections such as Strep. Suis C. "Thumping" (difficult breathing) D. All of the above E. A and C only

D. All of the above

Which of the following is true regarding PRRS vaccination strategies? A. PRRS vaccine is currently used as more of a tool to manage the disease in already infected herds, rather than a preventive measure in non-affected herds. B. Vaccinating a herd with a MLV PPS vaccines may cause the vaccine strain to become endemic in the herd C. Vaccination is challenging because many different strains of PRRS exist, and the vaccine's effect is very strain-specific. D. All of the above are true E. A and C only

D. All of the above are true

Returning home to visit, you are greeted by your 10 month old black lab, who is very excited to see you. To your surprise, after she calms down, she starts coughing in a very harsh, honking manner. Otherwise she is very health-appearing and active. Which of the following possibilities is the most likely diagnosis? A. Calicivirus infection B. Canine influenza C. Canine rhinopneumonitis D. Kennel cough

D. Kennel cough

A. AGID B. ELISA C. HI D. SN or VN; Mix live virus with the serum sample, then add the mixture to a well containing live animal cells; see if sufficient antibodies are present to prevent the virus from infecting the cells

D. SN or VN

Strangles in young horses is characterized by abscess formation in the head and neck region. It's caused by: A. Equine Herpesvirus-1 B. Equine Herpesvirus-4 C. Rhodococcus equi D. Streptococcus equi

D. Streptococcus equi

The incubation period for rabies in domestic animals is A. generally in the 14 to 80 day range B. dependent upon the location of the infecting bite C. shorter as the amount of virus introduced into the bite wound increases D. all of the above E. B&C only

D. all of the above

Which if the following statements about autogenous vaccines is true? A. Their minimum order size from the manufacturer usually makes them impractical for small operations B. They are typically modified-live vaccines C. With a few exceptions, they are only approved for use in the operation from which the agents originated D. All of the above E. A and C only

E. A and C only

Which of the following are "yes/no" tests for which you need to specify the agent you're looking for in the lab? A. Antigen-capture ELISA B. Bacterial culture C. PCR D. All of the above E. A and C only

E. A and C only

Which of the following statements are true concerning Mycoplasma respiratory infections in pigs and cattle? A. They are slowly progressing, chronic conditions in both pigs and cattle B. Vaccination is effective in cattle but not in pigs. C. Vaccination is effective in pigs but not in cattle D. A and B only E. A and C only

E. A and C only

Which of the following would increase the prevalence of a particular disease in an animal population? A. Increasing number of new cases B. Decreasing number of new cases C. An increase in the average duration of a disease D. A decrease in the average duration of a disease E. A and C only F. A and D only

E. A and C only

Diagnostic tests to determine whether a cow or bull is infected with the germ causing Johne's Disease are generally low sensitivity but high specificity. What does this mean? A. If the test is negative, there's still a good chance the animal has it. B. If the test is negative, you can be pretty sure the animal doesn't have it. C. If the test is positive, there's still a good chance that animal doesn't have it. D. If the test is positive, you can be pretty sure the animal has it. E. A and D only F. B and C only

E. A and D only

Transmission of a disease such as trichomoniasis from a bull to a cow through the breeding process is an example of: A. Direct contact transmission B. Horizontal transmission C. Venereal transmission D. Vertical transmission E. A, B and C only F. A, C and D only

E. A, B and C only

Consideration for using dart guns to deliver antibiotics to cattle include: A. increase difficulty in delivering the injection to the BQA-approved site in the neck B. Research that indicated increase variability in antibiotic absorption compared to conventional injections C. The ability to treat animals with bacterial infections when working facilities are far away D. The limited capacity of the dart limits the choices of antibiotics (volume of the dose) that can be used E. All of the above F. None of the above

E. All of the above

Documented benefits of adequate colostrum consumption in calves include: A. Decrease neonatal; morbidity B. Decrease pre-weaning mortality C. Decrease pre-weaning morbidity D. Decrease post-weaning morbidity (in the feedlot) E. All of the above

E. All of the above

A reasonable way to approach the results of antibiotic sensitivity testing in practice would be: A. If the lab says the bacteria is sensitive to the antibiotic, the antibiotics will work in the animal B. If the lab says the bacteria is sensitive to the antibiotic, the antibiotic might work in the animal C. If the lab says the bacteria is resistant to the antibiotic, the antibiotic will not work in the animal D. A and C only E. B and C only

E. B and C only

which of the following statements are correct regarding trichomoniasis A. bulls often clear their infection over the course of two to four months B. cow often clear their infections over the course of two to four months C. in South Dakota open cows are not allowed to be sold back into greeting cards, largely because of the chance they would be harboring trichomoniasis D. A&C only E. B&C only

E. B&C only

The usual, or expected level of disease in an animal population: A. Endemic B. Enzootic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic E. Either A or B

E. Either A or B

Birth defects that could indicate the fetus was infected in utero with bvdv include A. inability to stand or walk due to cerebral hypoplasia B. abnormally small eyes C. cataracts D. hydrocephalus (water on the brain) E. all of the above D. A, B, &D only

E. all of the above

Emphysema or Interstitial pneumonia: The term for abnormal accumulations of air within the lung parenchyma.

Emphysema

Side effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in animals may include: A. Gastrointestinal bleeding B. immunosuppression C. Renal or hepatic toxicity D. All of the above E. A and B only F. A and C only

F. A and C only

The Sandhills System of calving management features: A. Establishment of smaller, age-similar calf groups within the larger populations B. Moving cow-calf pairs to new pastures as the calving season continues C. Moving pregnant cows to new pastures as the calving season continues D. All of the above E. A and B only F. A and C only

F. A and C only

Which of the following are feature/structures of bacteria that can be exploited by the classes of antibiotics we discussed in class? A. Cell membranes B. Pili C. Enzymes that help unwind nucleic acid molecules in the translation process D. Ribosomes that help translate nucleic acid into proteins E. All of the above F. A, C and D only G. B, C and D only

F. A, C and D only

In reference to biosecurity in swine units, "downtime" is: A. Commonly 30-66 days in length B. Commonly 48-72 hours in length C. The length of time new gilts must be isolated before they enter the facility D. The length of time since a person has been in contact with other pigs or swine farms. E. A and C only F. B and D only G. None of the above

F. b and d only

T or F The "iceberg concept of disease" specifically refers to infectious diseases only.

False

T or F When bringing a bred (pregnant) cow into a herd, results of diagnostic tests performed on the cow will also reflect the disease status of the fetus.

False

T or F the withdrawal time of a drug is based upon the length of time between the last administration of the drug and the point at which the drug residue is no longer detectable in the meat, milk, or eggs from the animal.

False

True or False As is the case with BRDC, swine respiratory disease most commonly affects pigs right after weaning.

False

Gram-negative or Gram-positive: In order to minimize risk of endotoxemia, don't administer more than 2 vaccines containing _________ bacterial antigens at the same time.

Gram-negative

Histophilus somni, Mannheimia hemolytica, Mycoplasma bovis: In addition of pneumonia, this bacteria can be associated with thrombosis and necrosis in the bovine heart muscle.

Histophilus somni

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines Vaccine antigen interacts with Class II MHC molecules within antigen presenting cells in order to produce an immune response

Killed/inactivated vaccines

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines more likely to require a booster 2-4 weeks following the initial administration

Killed/inactivated vaccines

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines must contain an adjuvant?

Killed/inactivated vaccines

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines subunit vaccines would behave immunologically similar to this type of vaccine

Killed/inactivated vaccines

List a clinical sign you might see in an animal.

Labored breathing

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines better at stimulating cell-mediated immunity?

Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines

Mannheimia hemolytica, Mycoplasma bovis, Pasturella multocida: Leukotoxin is a major virulence factor of the pneumonia causing bacteria

Mannheimia hemolytica

The term for mass medication of a group of incoming animals in order to simultaneously treat clinically ill animals as well as to control and prevent illness in subclinical animals is:

Metaphylaxis

List the two remaining general methods of preventing effective contacts: Minimize dose-load

Minimize contact time, Physical separation

Killed vaccine or Modified live vaccine: Use a _______ within 1-3 hours after reconstitution in order to ensure potency.

Modified Live vaccine

Histophilus somni, Mannheimia hemolytica, Mycoplasma bovis: The bacteria associated with inner ear infections in calves.

Mycoplasma bovis

Mannheimia hemolytica, Mycoplasma bovis, Pasturella multocida: Would not be affected by antibiotics that inhibit cell-wall synthesis.

Mycoplasma bovis

Histophilus somni, Mannheimia hemolytica, Pasturella multocida: The bacteria associated with endemic, slowly-progressing "calf barn" pneumonia.

Pasturella multocida

List the three general methods of preventing effective contacts:

Physical separartion, Minimize contact time, minimize dose load

Interstitial pneumonia or Pleuritis: The term for inflammation of the exterior lung surface.

Pleuritis

Prevention of disease or Prevention of infection: The label claim that represents the higher level of vaccine efficacy.

Prevention of infection

The milk-related term for white blood cells in the milk:

Somatic cell

T or F The term "infection" sometimes - but not always - implies there is active cellular damage occurring in the infected animal.

True

Lower respiratory tract or Upper respiratory tract: Contains ciliated epithelial cells.

Upper respiratory tract

A disease that can naturally pass from animals to people is called a(n)

Zoonotic disease

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-line/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines require a slaughter withdrawal wen used in food animals

both killed and live vaccines

Are killed/inactivated vaccines, Live/modified-live/attenuated vaccines, or both killed and live vaccines should be stored at refrigerator temperature

both killed and live vaccines

Which of the following statements are true regarding the use of antibiotics to treat Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex? A. A "treatment moratorium" refers to a time period after antibiotic administration during which no other treatments are given, in order to allow the antibiotic to work and for the animal's immune system to respond. B. Most of the commonly-used injectable antibiotics are available as over-the -counter medications C. There is a greater variety of choices for feed and water medications compared to injectable medications.

A. A "treatment moratorium" refers to a time period after antibiotic administration during which no other treatments are given, in order to allow the antibiotic to work and for the animal's immune system to respond.

A. AGID B. ELISA C. HI D. SN or VN; Add the serum sample to a well in a plate where the serum sample leaches out into a matric containing antigen; see if a precipitation line forms to indicate an antigen-antibody complex

A. AGID

A. Acidosis B. Ketosis C. Milk fever; Associated with excessive intake of carbohydrates and their subsequent digestion and metabolism

A. Acidosis

Which of the following factors is not considered by the USDA when approving a vaccine for use in animals? A. Antibiotic resistance potential of the product B. Efficacy of the product C. Potency of the product, D. Safety for the animal E. All of the above are considered

A. Antibiotic resistance potential of the product

In order to allow sufficient time for a ______ to take place after a TB test, the injection site should be palpated _______ after the injection of tuberculin antigen. A. Cell-mediated immune response - 3 days B. Cell-mediated immune response - 24 hours C. Humoral immune response - 3 days D. Humoral immune response - 24 hours

A. Cell-mediated immune response - 3 days

Early weaning in swine operations is effective for: A. Certain bacterial diseases of pigs B. Certain viral disease of pigs C. PRRS

A. Certain bacterial diseases of pigs

A term we did not discuss in class is the "attack rate" of a disease. The attack rate is very similar to incidence, except it's normally used in describing the number of new disease cases in a short time. In today's animal populations, which of the following categories of animal disease would you not normally expect to see a high attack rate? A. Degenerative B. Infectious C. Toxic D. Neither a nor c would have high attack rates E. None of the above would have high attack rates

A. Degenerative

You're visiting with a classmate about a disease process in some of her cattle back home. She mentions that the disease is occurring more in older animals that have been subject to a lot of activity over the years, and commonly can be localized to a specific part of the body (usually in one of the limbs.) They've taken temperatures on some of them and they aren't running fevers. It strikes you that this process is probably _____ in nature. A. Degenerative B. Infectious C. Metabolic D. Toxic

A. Degenerative

Just because you're curious, you surreptitiously swab the mud on the floor of one of the local convenience stores in your swine-dense county back home. You submit the swab to the SDSU ADRDL for real time PCR testing for Porcine Epidmeic Diarrhea Virus (PEDV). The test is positive, with a Ct level of 30.91. What can you definitively say about this situation? A. There could be viable PEDV on the floor, which potentially could cause illness in pigs if the mud is tracked into a swine barn. B. There is not viable PEDV on the floors, and no danger of it causing illness due to PEDV if the mud is tracked into a swine barn. C. There was vialbe PEDV on the floor, which potentially could cause illness in pigs if the mud is tracked into a swine barn D. There is not sufficient information to support any of the statements above.

A. There could be viable PEDV on the floor, which potentially could cause illness in pigs if the mud is tracked into a swine barn.

Vaccines are available to prevent problems due to _____ in animals A. anthrax B. Neospora canium C. Trichomoniasis

A. anthrax

Which of the following sequences is properly arranged from the easiest agent to inactivate with disinfectants to the most difficult? A. enveloped virus - non-enveloped viruses - bacterial spores B. Non-enveloped viruses - enveloped viruses - bacterial spores C. Prions - enveloped viruses - non-enveloped viruses

A. enveloped virus - non-enveloped viruses - bacterial spores