VTNE Prep Animal Nursing 3
How many feline blood types exist? 2 1 4 3 13
- There are three feline blood types: A, B, and AB. Group A is the most common, as 98% of cats are type A. Type B is more rare and seen most often in some exotic breeds. Only approximately 1.7% of cats have type B blood. AB is rare in all breeds. Always crossmatch cats unless you know their blood types. Dogs have 13 blood types.
Which of the following lymph nodes are not palpated peripherally? Perihilar Popliteal Prescapular Mandibular
Above the heart is a triangular depression named the hilum, near which the perihilar lymph nodes are located. They are inside the chest and therefore not palpated peripherally.
Which of the following is the scabies mite in cats? Cheyletiella blakei Notoedres cati Cuterebra Sarcoptes gati
Feline scabies is caused by the mite Notoedres cati. It often causes scaly or scabby facial lesions in cats and is intensely pruritic. It is a highly contagious mite and is closely related to the canine scabies mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is diagnosed via a skin scraping. Demodex gati is the demodex cat mite. Sarcoptes gati is not a real mite. Cuterebra is a fly larva that may infest the skin of domestic animals. Cheyletiella is a surface mite that causes itchy and flaking skin in dogs and cats, also known as "walking dandruff".
What is cholestasis? Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract Inability of the pancreas to produce enzymes Bladder stone stuck in the urethra Rupture of the gall bladder Enlarged liver lobes
Cholestasis is a condition in which the bile has difficulty flowing from the liver into the duodenum. The prefix chole- means bile and the term a??stasisa?? means to stand still. The enzymes associated with cholestasis are alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT).
Through which structures does light pass as it moves from the outside to the inside of the eye? Cornea, iris, retina, lens Cornea, pupil, lens, retina Lens, retina, cornea, vitreous Retina, lens, pupil, cornea
Cornea, pupil, lens, retina The cornea is the clear coating that surrounds the eyeball itself, and light passes through the cornea first. The iris is the colored part of the eye which encompasses the pupil. The iris controls the amount of light coming in to the eye by dilating or constricting the pupil. After passing through the pupil, light reaches the lens, which focuses light onto the retina. The vitreous body is located behind the lens and in front of the retina.
Which of the following mostly produces endotoxins? Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria Intestinal parasites such as roundworms and hookworms Yeast and other fungal organisms
Gram-negative bacteria release endotoxins (which are found in their cell wall) when they die.
How many thoracic vertebrae do horses have? 9 12 18 13
Horses have 18 thoracic vertebrae. Dogs, cats , cows, and sheep have 13 thoracic vertebrae. Pigs have 14-15 thoracic vertebrae. Humans have 12 thoracic vertebrae.
Which animal is seasonally polyestrous? Mare Sow Bitch Queen
Mares are seasonally polyestrous, so they repeatedly cycle during the breeding season. This season occurs around the period when the days are longest (which is late March through September). The estrous cycle of the mare is about 21 days in length. During estrus, the mare is receptive to the stallion and lifts her tail and everts the clitoris, which is called "winking".
What is the term used for increased urine output? Oliguria Polyuria Pollakiuria Anuria
Polyuria is the term that describes increased amount of urination. Pollakiuria refers to an increase in frequency in urination. Oliguria is a decrease in urination. Anuria is the complete absence of urine formation.
An 8-year old cat suffering from intestinal lymphoma has been prescribed TPN. Which of the following is necessary for the administration of TPN? Cephalic catheter A-line Esophagostomy tube Jugular catheter Subcutaneous catheter
Jugular catheter TPN stands for total parenteral nutrition. TPN solutions contain 10% (or greater) dextrose and must be given in a central catheter to avoid phlebitis. TPN solutions cannot be administered through peripheral catheters. Medications should never be injected into A-lines.
The clinician has been unsuccessfully treating a chronic cough. A culture of the lower airways is needed. What is the best method for this? Nebulize the dog and culture the mist in the mask after 10 minutes Transtracheal wash Nasal swab culture Culture of the back of the throat with a sterile swab after coughing episode
Transtracheal wash is used when a culture of the lower respiratory tract is needed. It is typically done under general anesthesia for small dogs or cats or under a local in larger dogs. It is a method of collecting bronchial exudate for culture and cytology. The procedure entails inserting a catheter into the trachea in the ventral neck region between two tracheal rings, and infusing and aspirating sterile saline in order to get a sample.
You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the maximum amount of time this bandage should stay on? 1 hour 30 minutes 4 hours 12 hours
Venous return can become compromised if a compression bandage or pressure wrap is left on for more than 4 hours. It is best to remove the pressure bandage once the bleeding has stopped so that the bandage is not forgotten and venous return is not compromised.
Adult horses rarely have patent infections of Strongyloides westeri except when
larvae harbored in their tissues migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are effective in treatment of S. westeri.
A patient with which condition would be most likely to receive weekly subcutaneous fluid administration? Diabetes mellitus Cardiomyopathy Renal failure Hyperadrenocorticism
- Animals in renal failure are often given subcutaneous fluids on a routine basis. With chronic renal failure, cats commonly lose more fluids than usual through their kidneys as they are trying to excrete waste products from the body. The filtration system is impaired, and the toxins (such as urea, creatinine, and phosphorus) continue to build up. As the disease progresses they become chronically dehydrated and benefit from routine fluid administration.
Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (> 7 days) use in horses? They are the largest They do not require maintenance They are rigid They are the least thrombogenic
- Polyurethane catheters (such as those made by Mila) are the least reactive and thrombogenic and, if placed correctly, can be left in place for more than a week. Polyurethane is a flexible material. All IV catheters require maintenance and monitoring.
In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure? Brachial plexus First cervical vertebrae Suprascapular nerve Radial nerve
- Sweeney is the term for atrophy of the shoulder muscle in the horse. It is caused by damage to the suprascapular nerve. This nerve is responsible for innervation to the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles, which are found in the scapula (shoulder blade).
Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs? Right cranial vena cava Auricular vein Left jugular vein Tail vein
- The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 mLs of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.
An owner brings her 4-year old female Labrador Retriever to your clinic because she believes she might be pregnant. She does not remember when the dog's last heat cycle was. The dog's abdomen appears fairly distended and you take a lateral abdominal radiograph which is shown below. What would be the earliest time you would expect to be able to see fetal skeletons on abdominal radiographs in the dog? 53 days gestation 43 days gestation 23 days gestation 33 days gestation
43 days gestation The correct answer is 43 days gestation. The fetal skeleton ossifies at 42-45 days in the dog and 35-39 in the cat. In the dog, a mineralized fetus can usually be seen around 42-46 days. The scapula, humerus, and femur can be made out around 46-51 days. The ribs can be seen at 52-59 days. Teeth and toes can be seen at 58-63 days.
How tall would a horse that measures 66 inches be, in hands? 16 hands 15 hands 16 - 2 hands 14 - 3 hands
A hand is equivelent to 4 inches. Thus 66 divided by 4 = 16 hands + 2 inches or 16 - 2 hands.
What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite? The animal is where the parasite develops from larval to nymph form The animal is where the parasite develops from nymph to adult form The parasite does not undergo development on the animal The parasite's adult or sexual stage lives on the animal The animal is another vertebrate that serves as a source of infection for humans or domestic animals
A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.
Which breed is most likely to have a portosystemic shunt? Labrador Rottweiler Yorkshire terrier Bedlington terrier
A portosystemic shunt is an abnormal vessel that allows blood to bypass the liver. The Yorkshire terrier is overrepresented for this condition, but the condition can be seen in any breed. It is most common in toy breeds and dogs that are the "runt" of the litter.
Which method is used to determine the sex of young mice? Penile extrusion Distance between the anus and genitalia Tail length Palpation of testicles in males
Anogenital distance is the best way to determine whether juvenile mice are male or female.
Which condition occurs least commonly in the horse? Laminitis Enterolithiasis Urolithiasis Intestinal incarceration
As compared to small animals, urolithiasis is uncommon in horses. If they do develop stones in their bladder, it is usually secondary to formation of calcium oxalate crystals. Enterolithiasis and intestinal incarcerations are common reasons for colic in horses and usually require surgical intervention. Laminitis is a very serious and often life-threatening condition in horses. The pathophysiology of laminitis is poorly understood but involves inflammation of the lamina of the feet. It can involve all feet or even just one foot. There are multiple conditions that can lead to laminitis, such as endotoxemia, grain overload, and pneumonia.
What is the most common swine gastrointestinal parasite? Ascaris suum Trichuris suis Stephanurus dentatus Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Ascaris suum is the large roundworm of pigs. This parasite undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (the egg with L2 is ingested; the larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3, then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed. They molt two more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine). Stephanurus dentatus is the swine kidney worm. Erysipelothrix is a bacterium which causes diamond skin disease in pigs. Trichuris suis is the swine whipworm which lives in the cecum; it is also fairly common but not as common as the roundworm.
Your dog's histopathology results have arrived and show an adenoma. What is true about an adenoma? Is frequently life-threatening Does not cause morbidity Is always easy to excise and small in nature Is not malignant
Benign tumors are not cancerous. There are many large benign tumors that are difficult to remove or are inoperable that can cause the patient serous morbidity. Just because a lesion is not cancerous does not mean that it will not be large or problematic for the pet.
The menace test will elicit which response? Which two nerves is this testing? Gag reflex, Cranial nerves XII and VIII Smell, Cranial nerves I and IV Ear twitch, Cranial nerves V and III Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII
Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII The menace is when you wave your hand to the eye to try and elicit a blinking response. This is testing vision via the Optic nerve (Cranial nerve II). I-Olfactory nerve (smell) II-Optic nerve III-Oculomotor nerve IV-Trochlear nerve V-Trigeminal nerve (sensory to the face) VI-Abducens nerve VII-Facial nerve VIII-Vestibulocochlear nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory for gag reflex) X-Vagus nerve (motor for gag reflex) XI-Accessory nerve XII-Hypoglossal nerve
What is a good way to assess daily changes in hydration status of a patient that is in the hospital for several days or longer? Body weight Scleral color Respiratory rate Heart rate
Body weight is a good way to assess hydration of a patient. It is especially helpful when monitoring hydration status of hospitalized patients that are weighed daily. Tacky or dry mucus membranes and increased skin tenting are clinical signs of dehydration. Heart rate is often increased when patients are dehydrated, but increased heart rate can also be from other causes, such as stress.
A bird that is laying eggs with thin soft shells likely has: Psittacosis Giardia Hypocalcemia Anemia
Calcium is necessary to construct a rigid egg shell. If the laying bird is hypocalcemic then not enough calcium will be deposited into the shell, resulting in a soft egg. Giardia is a parasitic disease that does not result in soft eggs and usually affects the gastrointestinal tract. Anemia is a decrease in hematocrit below normal levels which may result in pallor and weakness. There are many possible causes for anemia. Pstittacosis is caused by a type of chlamydia bacteria which causes a combination of weakness, ocular discharge, respiratory illness and gastrointestinal disease.
What is cerumen? The oily part of the tear film A mucoid substance secreted by the stomach Oil produced by sebaceous glands Ear wax
Cerumen is the proper term for ear wax. It is the yellowish waxy hydrophobic protective substance that is secreted in the ear canal. Sebum is an oily substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands.
A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following? Pyothorax Hemoabdomen Chylothorax Pericardial effusion
Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and others. If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to determine the effusion is chylous. The necropsy on this animal reveals a chylous effusion. Note the milky appearance of the fluid.
Which intestinal parasite is NOT considered zoonotic to humans? Coccidia Giardia Toxocara Ancylostoma
Coccidia are host-specific. Isospora (the coccida found in dogs and cats) is not infective to humans. The other parasites listed are zoonotic.
What is the average gestation length of a cow? Approximately 285 days Approximately 200 days Approximately 120 days Approximately 350 days
Cows have an average gestation length of 285 days (about 9 months). The average gestation length of dogs and cats is 63 days. Horses have a gestation length of approximately 340 days. Although the average for horses is approximately 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days.
What is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise? Dehydration Small habitat enclosure Poor lighting Ingestion of sand substrate Poor thermoregulation
Dehydration leads to crystallization of urates and causes bladder stone formation. Dehydration and improper diet are the two most common causes of bladder stones in tortoises, but poor husbandry in general may contribute.
What is the name of the reflective layer behind the retina that allows animals to have improved night vision? Image Courtesy of Brad Holmberg, DVM MS PhD DACVO Optic nerve Cornea Lens Tapetum
Domestic animals have a tapetum to help them see in dim light. Pigs do not have a tapetum. The tapetum reflects light back through the retina, increasing the light available to photoreceptors. This is a photo of a normal canine fundus. Note the reflective green tapetum.
Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse? Gasterophilus intestinalis Sarcocystis neurona Haemonchus contortus Micronema deletrix
EPM is caused by the aberrant migration of Sarcocystis neurona through the central nervous system of the horse. This causes variable clinical signs such as ataxia and muscle atrophy in the horse.
What does Eimeria stiedai cause? Cloacal coccidiosis in chickens Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits It is a non-pathogenic coccidia in horses Intestinal coccidiosis in dogs and cats
Eimeria stiedai is the species of Eimeria that causes hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits. The rabbits ingest sporulated oocysts, which contain four sporozoites that hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein to the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. The schizonts in the bile duct cause bile duct hyperplasia; they block the bile duct, causing hepatomegaly, icterus, and liver failure.
Ovulation occurs during which part of the estrous cycle? Proestrus Anestrus Estrus Diestrus
Estrus Ovulation occurs when a mature egg is released from the ovary and is available to be fertilized. It occurs in estrus or just shortly thereafter.
Your neighbor just bought some pet mice and asks you about breeding them. He wants to know how long their estrus and gestation are. Which of the following is most accurate? Estrus 26-28 days, gestation 23-25 days Estrus 14-18 days, gestation 18-20 days Estrus 4-6 days, gestation 19-21 days Mice are induced ovulators, gestation 12-14 days
Estrus 4-6 days, gestation 19-21 days Mice come into estrus every 4-6 days and gestation average is around 20 days.
If a snake is undergoing "dysecdysis", what does this mean? Normal physiologic process of skin sloughing Abnormal shedding of the skin Difficulty breathing External parasitism by mites or ticks Retention of the eye cap or "spectacle" after shedding
Explanation - "Ecdysis" means the shedding or sloughing of the skin and occurs in reptiles including snakes. Dysecdysis is the term used when there is abnormal or incomplete sloughing. In pet reptiles, this is most commonly due to a habitat that is not sufficiently humidified.
Which of the following is required for chinchilla health? A warm (90 degree) basking spot Dust baths Vitamin C Cedar shavings Monthly dental adjustments
Explanation - Chinchillas require dust baths every 1-2 days in order to maintain coat health. The dust bath should not be left in the enclosure at all times since frequent bathing may cause conjunctivitis. Chinchillas are heat-intolerant, and the enclosure should not be kept at temperatures above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. Cedar shavings should be avoided as bedding, since they can cause respiratory irritation. Chinchillas do not require supplemental Vitamin C. Healthy chinchillas do not require dental adjustments, although dental disease is a common problem.
Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal glands? Cortisol Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Growth hormone (GH) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation - Cortisol is a steroid hormone, or glucocorticoid, produced by the adrenal glands. The other hormones listed here are all produced in the pituitary gland.
Which of the following diseases should ferrets be vaccinated against? Canine distemper virus Canine parvovirus Infectious canine hepatitis virus Feline panleukopenia virus
Explanation - Ferrets should be vaccinated against canine distemper virus. Ferrets are not susceptible to the other diseases listed.
What is the cause of hip dysplasia? Poor diet Breed conformation It is a multifactorial disease Genetics Environment
Explanation - Hip dysplasia is multifactorial. Many things such as genetics, environment, nutrition, and breed conformation play a role in the disease. Therefore, the treatment is often multi-modal. This may include an exercise plan, special diet, supplements for cartilage protection, anti-inflammatories, surgery, and/or other treatments.
When a horse is feeling threatened or is resisting restraint, what is its first instinct to do? Bite Raise up on its back legs Run away Kick with the back legs
Explanation - Horses typically will try to run away first if possible, but if they are cornered and feeling threatened with no escape, they will also kick, bite, or rear up. When working with a horse that is not used to handling, it is important to have a plan of attack if the horse is not cooperating to avoid injury.
What is a symptom of myasthenia gravis? Weakness and muscle fatigue Hyperesthesia to touch Papules on the dermis Muscle rigidity
Explanation - In Myasthenia gravis, there are few acetylcholine receptor sites (AChR) on the muscles, and acetylcholine is broken down before it can fully cause muscle stimulus. This results in muscle weakness, and with this condition, animals experience severe muscle fatigue.
Which disease may be transmitted to humans through aerosolization or direct handling of urine from an infected patient? Rabies West Nile Virus Leptospirosis Isospora
Explanation - Leptospirosis is caused by a spirochete bacterium and is most often transmitted through direct contact with infected urine or infected fetus/vaginal discharge. It most commonly causes kidney and liver disease and is one of the most important zoonotic diseases of concern nationwide. It tends to be diagnosed most frequently in areas of high rainfall or where there are lakes or water sources, because the organism may survive in water. Rodents and wildlife are the most common reservoir hosts.
What is the most likely period of time for a scrotal hernia to occur in a stallion? Shortly after heavy jumping Shortly after a trailer ride Shortly after breeding Shortly after a race
Explanation - Newborn foals and breeding stallions are most commonly affected with scrotal hernias. In foals, the hernias may spontaneously resolve as long as they are addressed every time they occur. However, there is a risk that the herniated contents can become incarcerated, resulting in a surgical emergency. In breeding stallions, the contents usually become incarcerated and emergency surgery will be needed.
A practitioner's view of convenience euthanasia is an example of which branch of ethics? Normative ethics Official ethics Administrative ethics Normal ethics
Explanation - Normative ethics is defined as: An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior.
Which of the following is a classic symptom of pyometra? Increased drinking and urinating Hives Seizures Syncope
Explanation - Pyometra is an infection in which the uterus fills with pus. It is most commonly caused by E. coli. It is an emergency in which ovariohysterectomy must be performed. Clinical symptoms include decreased appetite, lethargy, fever, and polyuria/polydipsia.
A diet high in concentrates or grains may lead to which of the following in cattle? Increased rumen pH Decreased rumen pH Hypocalcemia Hyperlipidemia
Explanation - Rumenal acidosis (decreased pH) may occur when feeding a high concentrate diet. This is due to microbes fermenting the starches in the grains too quickly such that the pH drops dramatically (less than a pH of 5.5). This increased acidity in the rumen can cause severe damage to the rumenal papillae.
Sheep mostly breed during which season? Spring Summer Winter Fall
Explanation - Sheep are polyestrous in the fall so they will give birth in the spring.
A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluid within: 5-8 hours 48 hours 1 hour 24 hours
Explanation - Subcutaneous fluids are most commonly absorbed within 5 to 8 hours of administration. However, fluids are absorbed when they are needed, and absorption is dependent on having adequate SQ blood flow, which can be decreased in severely hypothermic or dehydrated patients.
Rats are known to produce a substance called "red tears" or chromodacyorrhea. Where are red tears produced? Conjunctival gland Retro-orbital gland Nasal tissue gland Harderian gland
Explanation - The Harderian gland produces the substance known as red tears. The red color is from a porphyrin pigment in the tears. Rats under stress may show this red tear production. Due to the connection between the tear ducts and the nasal cavity, the red stain may show up as a nasal discharge. Many owners will think it is blood.
What is the average gestation length of a cat? Approximately 340 days Approximately 60 days Approximately 290 days Approximately 90 days
Explanation - The average gestation length of dogs and cats is 63 days. Horses have a gestation length of approximately 340 days. Although the average for horses is approximately 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days. Cows have an average gestation length of 285 days (about 9 months).
What does the word anhidrosis mean? Hidden disease Without tears Inability to sweat Lack of drinking
Explanation - The cause is unknown, but some horses lack the ability to sweat. This condition in known as anhidrosis. Keep horses with anhidrosis as cool as possible during hot or humid weather. Use of mist, sponging, fans, shade or stall rest can be helpful during exposure to heat.
What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken? 107F 104F 98.8F 102F
Explanation - The deep body temperature of a chicken is around 107 degrees Fahrenheit.
The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Pectorals Muscles of the neck Epaxial muscles
Explanation - The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.
You draw up a canine distemper-parvo combination vaccine. How long is the vaccine considered viable at room temperature? 8 hours 1 hour 24 hours 20 minutes
Explanation - Vaccines should be discarded if they have been left out at room temperature for longer than one hour. Most references state that if they are refrigerated they can be used within 24 hours, but this is controversial. The best option is to use the vaccine shortly after it is drawn up to avoid any concerns.
What is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of an average adult horse? 25 ml 5 ml 15 ml 3 ml
Explanation - Volumes approaching 15mls or over, should be divided into 2 different sites.
Which procedure could be performed without using a surgical scrub, and an alcohol wipe would be sufficient? Joint taps Feline neuter IV catheter placement Fine needle aspiration Bone marrow aspirate
Fine needle aspiration Explanation - Surgical scrubs are needed for all other procedures listed here.
When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last? 3 months 6 months 2 weeks 48 hours
For food-related skin allergies, a food trial should last at least 3 months. For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least 3 weeks. A food trial should consist of a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D is an example of this).
Gout is an accumulation of which of the following? Cholesterol Bilirubin Urea Albumin Uric acid
Gout occurs when uric acid accumulates, usually due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion.
What is of the biggest concern when shipping pigs? Stress-induced diarrhea Gastric dilatation Dehydration Overheating
Heat prostration is of greatest concern when moving and shipping porcine. The same is true when performing medical procedures on them. It is always best to handle swine in the early morning when the temperature is cooler. This is due to their large amount of body fat and lack of sweat glands. The same is true for sheep; they easily over-heat due to their thick coat
You are enrolled in a technician training session at a laboratory primate center and are observing the handling of macaque monkeys for blood sampling. You are required to wear personal protective equipment, mostly to prevent possible exposure to which disease? Hepatitis B Human Immunodeficiency Virus Influenza A Herpes B Virus
Herpes B Virus is a very serious and often deadly zoonotic disease that can be carried by macaque monkeys. It is the disease of most concern in a primate lab animal setting. It causes neurologic signs and can have a mortality rate of around 80% for humans. Bites, scratches, or exposure to mucus membranes including the eyes or mouth from infected saliva can cause transmission. Primates can carry Simian Immunodeficiency Virus (not HIV) and it can be zoonotic.
Which disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening? Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Cushing's disease Portosystemic shunt Addison's disease
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) can cause a high potassium level (hyperkalemia) and can be life-threatening. Addison's occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol, resulting in a crisis. A low heart rate is often associated with high potassium. Sodium chloride is the fluid treatment of choice to help reduce the potassium.
Which electrolyte abnormality is known to cause ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness? Hypercalcemia Hyponatremia Hypokalemia Hypermagnesemia
Hypokalemia (low potassium) can result from various metabolic and endocrine disorders. It causes muscle weakness and can cause cervical ventroflexion. Hypokalemic myopathy has been linked with chronic kidney disease and excessive potassium loss (especially in cats). Hypokalemia can also result from osmotic diuresis, correction of acidosis, or insulin-mediated cell uptake that is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis therapy. Some medications can also contribute to hypokalemia, such as furosemide, which causes excess potassium loss in the urine. Other causes include inadequate potassium intake in the diet, gastrointestinal loss, and hereditary causes; also it is often seen in cases of hepatic lipidosis.
What percentage of hemoglobin should be saturated with oxygen in a healthy animal? >90% >80% >65% >85% >95%
In a healthy animal, 95 to 100% of the hemoglobin should be saturated with oxygen. Below 90%, suggests fairly significant hypoxemia
Which species is particularly aggressive when with her young, and extreme caution must be used? Ewes Sows Mares Cows
In general, pigs are a more aggressive species. The lactating sow is particularly dangerous; and when handling piglets, it is best to remove the sow to a separate area where she cannot hear her piglets.
A bitch with a swollen vulva and bloody vulvar discharge that attracts but will not accept a male is likely in which stage of the estrous cycle? Proestrus Anestrus Diestrus Estrus
In proestrus, vulvar edema is present with a bloody discharge. The bitch is attractive to males but will not stand for mating. A bitch that is in estrus will typically accept a male for mating. During estrus, the vulva is not quite as swollen and the discharge becomes more clear
In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea? In the gastrointestinal tract of the host animal In a tapeworm intermediate host On the surface of the host animal In the environment (off of the host)
In the flea life cycle, the adult female feeds, mates, and lays eggs on the host, but the eggs are smooth and usually fall off into the environment, often where the host typically lies down. After several days to weeks, the eggs hatch into larvae that feed on skin debris or other organic matter in the environment and then create a cocoon and pupate. The pupa then develops over 10 days or can remain in the environment considerably longer before emerging as an adult flea. This fact is important because this is why treating the host for fleas is not enough to eradicate a flea problem, as the environment is frequently contaminated and can re-infest the host after treatment.
A client calls and plans to breed her prized Yorkie Emmy-Lou. She just finished her heat cycle, and the client would like to breed her the next time she comes into heat. She wants to know when this will likely occur. Which of the following statements is most accurate? Dogs are induced ovulators Most dogs have their heat cycle every 6 months Most dogs have their heat cycle every 3 months Most dogs have their heat cycle every 28 to 30 days
Most dogs have their heat cycle every 6 months. Cats are induced ovulators.
Where might you find the parasite Oestrus ovis? Under the skin of a cow Under the skin of a rabbit Nasal cavity of the sheep In the ear of a goat
Oestrus ovis is the sheep nasal bot. Flies deposit their larvae around the nares. They enter the nasal cavity and migrate to the sinuses where they mature. They then leave the nose and pupate in the soil. The word "ovis" should have been a hint that the parasite is likely found in the sheep (ovine). Cuterebra is a bot that can be found under the skin, notably under a hole found on the skin in several different species. Hypoderma bovis is the warble fly whose larvae cause "warbles" or bumps under the skin in cattle.
You are restraining a horse with a harness while the veterinarian is examining a sore on the lateral side of the left pelvic limb. Where should you stand while holding this horse? On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack The horse should be tied up and you should stand to the right of the veterinarian at the hind end of the horse to prevent the horse from kicking On the right side, hold lead rope with little slack On the left side, hold lead rope and leave enough slack so that the horse may turn his head around to see what the veterinarian is doing
On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack When handling a horse, the holder and the person working on the horse should be standing on the same side. If the exam starts on the left, stand on the left; as the examiner moves to the right side, you should also move to the right side. There should be little slack in the lead rope to prevent the horse from moving.
Bone is made by which type of cell? Chondrocytes Osteoclasts Osteoblasts Osteocytes
Osteoblasts Osteoblasts are mononucleate cells that are responsible for bone formation and come from the bone marrow. Osteocytes are actually cells inside of the bone. Osteoclasts are large cells that dissolve the bone. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
What are two effective treatments for Strongyloides westeri
Oxivendazone, Ivermectin
Which of the following parasites can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in the foal? Parelaphostrongylus tenuis Parascaris equorum Echinococcus equinus Cryptosporidium
Parascaris equorum, or the equine ascarid (roundworm), typically only infests foals and can cause ill thrift, coughing, pneumonia, and colic. If a foal has a heavy burden of roundworms and is subsequently given an anthelmintic, impaction colic can result from a mass of dead worms obstructing the intestinal tract. Foals develop immunity to this organism as they age and are typically free of infestation as adults.
Which of the following is a general term for giving birth that can be applied to all species? Parturition Pyometra Queening Whelping
Parturition is the act of giving birth. Pyometra is a life-threatening uterine infection. Whelping is the term for giving birth in dogs. Queening is the term for giving birth in cats.
What is the most accurate method to estimate a horse's weight out on a farm call? Pick up a foot and use that weight to approximate the weight Use a weight measuring tape Approximate the weight by height Approximate the weight based on body condition score
Specialized measuring tapes are commonly used to approximate the weight of a horse. There are markings that show weights and the tape is wrapped around the barrel of the horse just caudal to the withers.
Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse? Strongylus equorum Strongylus equinus Strongylus edentatus Strongylus vulgaris
Strongylus equorum - Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus, and Strongylus equinus are the large strongyles of horses. Strongylus equorum does not exist. Although Parascaris equorum is a relevant parasite (round worm) in foals,
On a routine urinalysis an abundant amount of colorless prism-like crystals that have a coffin lid appearance are observed. What type of crystals are these? Struvite Calcium oxalate Ammonium biurate Cysteine
Struvite Struvite crystals are clear/colorless and have a rectangular appearance. They are commonly described as having a "coffin lid" appearance. Ammonium biurate crystals are round and brownish in color. They have spicules coming off of them. Calcium oxalate crystals have a clear-colored square appearance with an X across the surface.
A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive: Diet with low fat Acidifying diet Alkalinizing diet Diet with low protein
Struvite crystals form when the pH of the urine is high or alkaline. Therefore, an acidifying diet would help to decrease the pH of the urine and prevent formation of the crystals. It can often be of benefit in cases of FLUTD in addition to increasing water intake (canned diets can help with this) and decreasing stress in the home.
What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called? Patagium Choana Carapace Plastron Cloaca Scute
The carapace is the top shell and the plastron is the bottom shell. Patagium is the skin or membrane that extends between the body and a limb or wing (such as seen in a flying squirrel or wing of a bat). A scute is a bony external plate or scale. A choana is either of the pair of posterior openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx. The cloaca is the posterior opening that serves to pass feces, urine, and reproductive excretions (connects the rectum, vagina, and urethra into a single channel), such as in reptiles and birds.
What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called? Choana Plastron Scute Cloaca Patagium Carapace
The carapace is the top shell and the plastron is the bottom shell. Patagium is the skin or membrane that extends between the body and a limb or wing (such as seen in a flying squirrel or wing of a bat). A scute is a bony external plate or scale. A choana is either of the pair of posterior openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx. The cloaca is the posterior opening that serves to pass feces, urine, and reproductive excretions (connects the rectum, vagina, and urethra into a single channel), such as in reptiles and birds. Next Question End Practice
Meningoencephalomyelitis is an inflammatory neurologic condition that affects the central nervous system. What comprises the central nervous system? The vagus nerve The peripheral nerves The cerebellum alone The lower motor neurons The brain and spinal cord
The central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. In most cases, when a neurologic disease is said to be a "central" problem, it is suspected to involve the brain. The peripheral nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Sensory and motor neurons make up the PNS. Lower motor neurons are what connect the spinal cord to the muscles and relay the signals. The vagus nerve (cranial nerve 10) is an important peripheral nerve in the PNS. The cerebellum is part of the brain and is located just above the brainstem. It is responsible for coordination of voluntary movement.
How is tularemia transmitted (what is the vector)? Leeches Mosquitoes Ticks Lice
The correct answer is ticks. Ticks are the usual vector, although flies and fleas may be able to transmit Francisella tularensis as well.
What is the meaning of the term multiparous? Born with more than one uterus Has had multiple pregnancies producing offspring Has more than one offspring at birth Ovulates multiple times during a cycle
The definition of multiparous is having two or more offspring at birth.
Where is the hypothalamus is located? Mid-brain Mediastinum Brain stem Diencephalon
The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland. The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain adjoining the brain and spinal cord. Most of the cranial nerves originate in the brain stem. The brain stem includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and the midbrain. The thymus is located in the mediastinum. The mesencephalon is the mid-brain (part of the brain stem).
The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Muscles of the neck Epaxial muscles Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Pectorals
The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.
Which of the following small mammals has the longest life expectancy? Guinea pig Rabbit Chinchilla Hamster Rat
The life expectancy of a chinchilla is 10 to 15 years. This exceeds the life expectancy of most other small mammals including rabbits (5 to 8 years depending on species), rats (3 years), guinea pigs (4 to 7 years) and hamsters (1.5 to 2 years). Other small mammals with relatively long life expectancies are ferrets (8 to 10 years) and sugar gliders (8 to 10 years).
Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs? Right cranial vena cava Tail vein Left jugular vein Auricular vein
The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 mLs of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.
Where would you give a sub Q injection in a snake? The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales. Visually divide the snake in half, inject into the distal 1/2 Near the vent, proximal to the opening Distal 1/3 of the body, along the lateral edge of the ventral scales
The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales. Explanation - Due to the portal system of reptiles, it is important to give injections towards the head. The drug will distribute much more slowly and evenly. The dorsal and ventral scales meet along the lateral sides. This is where the drug can be injected.
Which of the following instruments is best suited for removing bone, such as may be done when removing the dorsal spinous process during spinal surgery? Rongeur Mallet Rochester-Carmalt forceps Kern forceps
The rongeur can have a single-action or double-action mechanism that allows for relatively easy removal of dense material such as bone. It comes with a sharp, scoop-shaped tip. The kern forceps is used to help hold bone fragments in reduction during a fracture repair. Rochester-Carmalt forceps are used to grasp masses of tissue or vessels. A mallet is a device similar to a hammer used in surgery.
What device or instrument is typically used to help diagnose glaucoma? Schirmer Tear Test Slit lamp Ophthalmoscope Tonometer
The tonometer (Tonopen) is used to measure intraocular pressures. Glaucoma is the condition of raised intraocular pressures. Normal eye pressures for dogs is typically between 10-20 and for cats 10-25 but these must be interpreted in light of clinical symptoms. Eye pressures lower than 10 can be caused by uveitis (inflammation in the eye).
What does the term "euthanasia" literally mean? The good death To stop the breath of life Stopping of the heartbeat Cardiac arrest
The word euthanasia is Greek and means "good death". Euthanasia is defined as an easy and painless death, or an act or method of causing death painlessly, to end suffering. The term for ceasing of the heartbeat is asystole.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? 10 8 15 12
There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves. They are designated by Roman numerals as follows: I - Olfactory nerve II - Optic nerve III - Oculomotor nerve IV - Trochlear nerve V - Trigeminal nerve VI - Abducens nerve VII - Facial nerve VIII - Vestibulocochlear nerve IX - Glossopharyngeal nerve X - Vagus nerve XI - Accessory nerve XII - Hypoglossal nerve
Which breed is most at risk for developing Degenerative Myelopathy? Corgi Standard Poodle Golden Retriever German Shepherd Dachshund
This is a progressive spinal cord disease that causes that myelin sheath around the nerves to degenerate. German Shepherds are over-represented for this condition. Dachshunds most commonly get intervertebral disk disease.
Which of the following correctly lists the species in order from shortest to longest gestation length? Ferret, Dog, Sheep, Pig, Horse Dog, Pig, Sheep, Horse, Llama Cat, Ferret, Sheep, Cow, Horse Pig, Sheep, Horse, Cow, Llama
This list of gestations should be committed to memory: Llama 1 year (350 days), Horse 11 months (330 days), Cow 9 months (280 days), Sheep/Goat 5 months (150 days), Pig 4 months (114 days), Dog/Cat 2 months (63 days), Ferret 1.5 months (42 days)
How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administered? Intravenous Esophagostomy tube PEG tube Jejunostomy tube
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is feeding exclusively intravenously, bypassing the GI tract. It is very useful in cases when animals are unable to eat or will not eat for an extended time period. The other choices listed are all feeding tubes that enter the GI tract. Esophagostomy tubes go into the esophagus, PEG tubes go into the stomach, and jejunostomy tubes go into the jejunum (intestine).
A dog refuses a rectal temperature. You take his temperature under the axillary region and get a reading of 99.5F. What is likely his core body temperature? 99.5F 102.1F 101.5F 98.7F
Typically a temperature taken in the ear or under a peripheral limb reads 1 to 2 degrees lower than rectal temperature, or core body temperature.
how are Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals
mare's milk