Week 1 & 2

1. A client has developed malignant hyperthermia. The client weighs 136 pounds. What is the safe dose range for one dose of dantrolene sodium (Dantrium)? (Enter your answer using whole numbers, separated by a hyphen with no spaces.) mg

ANS: 124-186 mg The dose of dantroleneis 2 to 3mg/kg. The client weighs 62kg, so the safe dose range is 124 to 186mg

. A postoperative client has the following orders: IV lactated Ringers 125 mL/hr NG tube to low continuous suction Replace NG output every 4 hours with normal saline over 4 hours Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV push every hour as needed for pain NPO Up in chair tonight At 1600 (4:00 PM), the nurse measures the nasogastric (NG) output from noon to be 200 mL. What is the clients total IV rate for the next 4 hours? (Record your answer using a whole number.) mL/hr

ANS: 175 mL/hr 200 mL of NG output 4 hours = 50 mL/hr. 125 mL/hr + 50 mL/hr = 175 mL/hr.

1. A nurse prepares a client with acute renal insufficiency for a cardiac catheterization. The provider prescribes 0.9% normal saline to infuse at 125 mL/hr for renal protection. The nurse obtains gravity tubing with a drip rate of 15 drops/mL. At what rate (drops/min) should the nurse infuse the fluids? (Record your answer using a whole number, and rounding to the nearest drop.) drops/min

ANS: 31 drops/min

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is intubated and has an intra-aortic balloon pump. The client is restless and agitated. What action should the nurse perform first for comfort? a. Allow family members to remain at the bedside. b. Ask the family if the client would like a fan in the room. c. Keep the television tuned to the clients favorite channel. d. Speak loudly to the client in case of hearing problems.

ANS: A Allowing the family to remain at the bedside can help calm the client with familiar voices (and faces if the client wakes up). A fan might be helpful but may also spread germs through air movement. The TV should not be kept on all the time to allow for rest. Speaking loudly may agitate the client more.

1. A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure? a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident

ANS: A Although most people with heart failure will have failure that progresses from left to right, it is possible to have left-sided failure alone for a short period. It is also possible to have heart failure that progresses from righ to left. Causes of left ventricular failure include mitral or aortic valve disease, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension and chronic cigarette smoking are risk factors for right ventricular failure. A cerebral vascular accident does not increase the risk of heart failure.

1. A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Avoid using salt substitutes. b. Take your medication with food. c. Avoid using aspirin-containing products. d. Check your pulse daily.

ANS: A Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as enalapril inhibit the excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia can be a life-threatening side effect, and clients should be taught to limit potassium intake. Salt substitutes are composed of potassium chloride. ACE inhibitors do not need to be taken with food and have no impact on the clients pulse rate. Aspirin is often prescribed in conjunction with ACE inhibitors and is not contraindicated.

1. A clinic nurse is teaching a client prior to surgery. The client does not seem to comprehend the teaching, forgets a lot of what is said, and asks the same questions again and again. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for anxiety. b. Break the information into smaller bits. c. Give the client written information. d. Review the information again

ANS: A Anxiety can interfere with learning and cooperation. The nurse should assess the client for anxiety. The other actions are appropriate too, and can be included in the teaching plan, but effective teaching cannot occur if the client is highly anxious

1. A postoperative client has just been admitted to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). What assessment by the PACU nurse takes priority? a. Airway b. Bleeding c. Breathing d. Cardiac rhythm

ANS: A Assessing the airway always takes priority, followed by breathing and circulation. Bleeding is part of the circulation assessment, as is cardiac rhythm care unit (PACU)| airway

1. A nurse admits a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the clients respiratory status. b. Draw blood to assess the clients serum electrolytes. c. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix). d. Ask the client about current medications.

ANS: A Assessment of respiratory and oxygenation status is the priority nursing intervention for the prevention of complications. Monitoring electrolytes, administering diuretics, and asking about current medications are important but do not take priority over assessing respiratory status.

1. A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Mid-sternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave

ANS: A Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the clients myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave indicates significant tachycardia and should be assessed to determine the underlying rhythm and cause; this is an important assessment but is not as critical as chest pain, which indicates cardiac cell death.

1. A nursing student is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction. The student is confused because the client states nothing is wrong and yet listens attentively while the student provides education on lifestyle changes and healthy menu choices. What response by the faculty member is best? a. Continue to educate the client on possible healthy changes. b. Emphasize complications that can occur with noncompliance. c. Tell the client that denial is normal and will soon go away. d. You need to make sure the client understands this illness.

ANS: A Clients are often in denial after a coronary event. The client who seems to be in denial but is compliant with treatment may be using a healthy form of coping that allows time to process the event and start to use problem- focused coping. The student should not discourage this type of denial and coping, but rather continue providing education in a positive manner. Emphasizing complications may make the client defensive and more anxious. Telling the client that denial is normal is placing too much attention on the process. Forcing the client to verbalize understanding of the illness is also potentially threatening to the client.

1. A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the clients cardiac rhythm as shown below: What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the clients blood pressure and level of consciousness. b. Call the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team. c. Obtain a permit for an emergency temporary pacemaker insertion. d. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.

ANS: A Clients with an inferior wall MI often have bradycardia and blocks that lead to decreased perfusion, as seen in this ECG strip showing sinus bradycardia. The nurse should first assess the clients hemodynamic status, including vital signs and level of consciousness. The client may or may not need the Rapid Response Team, a temporary pacemaker, or medication; there is no indication of this in the question.

1. A client is in the clinic a month after having a myocardial infarction. The client reports sleeping well since moving into the guest bedroom. What response by the nurse is best? a. Do you have any concerns about sexuality? b. Im glad to hear you are sleeping well now. c. Sleep near your spouse in case of emergency. d. Why would you move into the guest room?

ANS: A Concerns about resuming sexual activity are common after cardiac events. The nurse should gently inquire ifthis is the issue. While it is good that the client is sleeping well, the nurse should investigate the reason for themove. The other two responses are likely to cause the client to be defensive

1. A nurse cares for a client with right-sided heart failure. The client asks, Why do I need to weigh myself every day? How should the nurse respond? a. Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid. b. Daily weights will help us make sure that youre eating properly. c. The hospital requires that all inpatients be weighed daily. d. You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure.

ANS: A Daily weights are needed to document fluid retention or fluid loss. One liter of fluid equals 2.2 pounds. Theother responses do not address the importance of monitoring fluid retention or loss

1. A nurse cares for an older adult client with heart failure. The client states, I dont know what to do. I dont want to be a burden to my daughter, but I cant do it alone. Maybe I should die. How should the nurse respond? a. Would you like to talk more about this? b. You are lucky to have such a devoted daughter. c. It is normal to feel as though you are a burden. d. Would you like to meet with the chaplain?

ANS: A Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially older adults. Having the client talk about his or her feelings will help the nurse focus on the actual problem. Open-ended statements allow the client to respond safely and honestly. The other options minimize the clients concerns and do not allow the nurse to obtain more information to provide client-centered care.

1. A client is on a dopamine infusion via a peripheral line. What action by the nurse takes priority for safety? a. Assess the IV site hourly. b. Monitor the pedal pulses. c. Monitor the clients vital signs. d. Obtain consent for a central line.

ANS: A Dopamine should be infused through a central line to prevent extravasation and necrosis of tissue. If it needs tobe run peripherally, the nurse assesses the site hourly for problems. When the client is getting the central line,ensuring informed consent is on the chart is a priority. But at this point, the client has only a peripheral line, socautionmustbetakentopreservetheintegrityoftheclientsintegumentarysystem.Monitoringpedalpulses and vital signs give indications as to how well the drug is working

1. An emergency room nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure? a. I get short of breath when I climb stairs. b. I see halos floating around my head. c. I have trouble remembering things. d. I have lost weight over the past month.

ANS: A Dyspnea on exertion is an early manifestation of heart failure and is associated with an activity such as stair climbing. The other findings are not specific to early occurrence of heart failure

1. A postoperative client has respiratory depression after receiving midazolam (Versed) for sedation. Which IV-push medication and dose does the nurse prepare to administer? a. Flumazenil (Romazicon) 0.2 to 1 mg b. Flumazenil (Romazicon) 2 to 10 mg c. Naloxone (Narcan) 0.4 to 2 mg d. Naloxone (Narcan) 4 to 20 mg

ANS: A Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and would be the correct drug to use in this situation. The correct dose is 0.2 to 1 mg. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist.

1. A client in the operating room has developed malignant hyperthermia. The clients potassium is 6.5 mEq/L. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer 10 units of regular insulin. b. Administer nifedipine (Procardia). c. Assess urine for myoglobin or blood. d. Monitor the client for dysrhythmias.

ANS: A For hyperkalemia in a client with malignant hyperthermia, the nurse administers 10 units of regular insulin in 50 mL of 50% dextrose. This will force potassium back into the cells rapidly. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and dysrhythmias, and should not be used in a client with malignant hyperthermia. Assessing the urine for blood or myoglobin is important, but does not take priority. Monitoring the client for dysrhythmias is also important due to the potassium imbalance, but again does not take priority over treating the potassium imbalance.

1. A postoperative nurse is caring for a client whose oxygen saturation dropped from 98% to 95%. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess other indicators of oxygenation. b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Notify the anesthesia provider. d. Prepare to intubate the client.

ANS: A If a postoperative clients oxygen saturation (SaO2) drops below 95% (or the clients baseline), the nurse should notify the anesthesia provider. If the SaO2 drops by 10% or more, the nurse should call the Rapid Response Team. Since this is approximately a 3% drop, the nurse should further assess the client. Intubation (if the client is not intubated already) is not warranted.

1. A client is having surgery. The circulating nurse notes the clients oxygen saturation is 90% and the heart rate is 110 beats/min. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients end-tidal carbon dioxide level. b. Document the findings in the clients chart. c. Inform the anesthesia provider of these values. d. Prepare to administer dantrolene sodium (Dantrium).

ANS: A Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but serious reaction to anesthesia. The triad of early signs include decreasedoxygen saturation, tachycardia, and elevated end-tidal carbon dioxide (CO2) level. The nurse should quicklycheck the end-tidal CO2 and then report findings to the anesthesia provider and surgeon. Documentation isvital, but not the most important action at this stage. Dantrolene sodium is the drug of choice if the client doeshave malignant hyperthermia

1. A circulating nurse has transferred an older client to the operating room. What action by the nurse is most important for this client? a. Allow the client to keep hearing aids in until anesthesia begins. b. Pad the table as appropriate for the surgical procedure. c. Position the client for maximum visualization of the site. d. Stay with the client, providing emotional comfort and support.

ANS: A Many older clients have sensory loss. To help prevent disorientation, facilities often allow older clients to keep their eyeglasses on and hearing aids in until the start of anesthesia. The other actions are appropriate for all operative clients.

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The clients pulmonary artery pressure reading is 25/12 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Compare the results with previous pulmonary artery pressure readings. b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low. c. Immediately notify the health care provider of the elevated pressures. d. Document the finding in the clients chart as the only action.

ANS: A Normal pulmonary artery pressures range from 15 to 26 mm Hg for systolic and from 5 to 15 mm Hg for diastolic. Although this clients readings are within normal limits, the nurse needs to assess any trends that may indicate a need for medical treatment to prevent complications. There is no need to increase intravenous fluids or notify the provider.

1. An older adult is on cardiac monitoring after a myocardial infarction. The client shows frequent dysrhythmias. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess for any hemodynamic effects of the rhythm. b. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication. c. Notify the provider or call the Rapid Response Team. d. Turn the alarms off on the cardiac monitor.

ANS: A Older clients may have dysrhythmias due to age-related changes in the cardiac conduction system. They may have no significant hemodynamic effects from these changes. The nurse should first assess for the effects of the dysrhythmia before proceeding further. The alarms on a cardiac monitor should never be shut off. The other two actions may or may not be needed.

1. An older client is hospitalized after an operation. When assessing the client for postoperative infection, the nurse places priority on which assessment? a. Change in behavior b. Daily white blood cell count c. Presence of fever and chills d. Tolerance of increasing activity

ANS: A Older people have an age-related decrease in immune system functioning and may not show classic signs of infection such as increased white blood cell count, fever and chills, or obvious localized signs of infection. A change in behavior often signals an infection or onset of other illness in the older client.

1. A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Minimize or abstain from caffeine. b. Lie on your side until the attack subsides. c. Use your oxygen when you experience PACs. d. Take amiodarone (Cordarone) daily to prevent PACs.

ANS: A PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse should explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress. Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first should try lifestyle changes to control them.

A nurse cares for a client with a 40-year smoking history who is experiencing distended neck veins and dependent edema. Which physiologic process should the nurse correlate with this clients history and clinical manifestations? a. Increased pulmonary pressure creating a higher workload on the right side of the heart b. Exposure to irritants resulting in increased inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles c. Increased number and size of mucus glands producing large amounts of thick mucus d. Left ventricular hypertrophy creating a decrease in cardiac output

ANS: A Smoking increases pulmonary hypertension, resulting in cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure. Increased pressures in the lungs make it more difficult for blood to flow through the lungs. Blood backs up into the right side of the heart and then into the peripheral venous system, creating distended neck veins and dependent edema. Inflammation in bronchi and bronchioles creates an airway obstruction which manifests as wheezes. Thick mucus in the lungs has no impact on distended neck veins and edema. Left ventricular hypertrophy is associated with left heart failure and is not caused by a 40-year smoking history.

1. A student is caring for clients in the preoperative area. The nurse contacts the surgeon about a client whose heart rate is 120 beats/min. After consulting with the surgeon, the nurse administers a beta blocker to the client The student asks why this was needed. What response by the nurse is best? a. A rapid heart rate requires more effort by the heart. b. Anesthesia has bad effects if the client is tachycardic. c. The client may have an undiagnosed heart condition. d. When the heartrate goes up, the blood pressure does too

ANS: A Tachycardia increases the workload of the heart and requires more oxygen delivery to the myocardial tissues.This added strain is not needed on top of the physical and emotional stress of surgery. The other statements arenot accurate

1. A client is scheduled for a below-the-knee amputation. The circulating nurse ensures the proper side is marked prior to the start of surgery. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Facilitate marking the site with the client and surgeon. b. Have the client mark the operative site. c. Mark the operative site with a waterproof marker. d. Tell the surgeon it is time to mark the surgical site.

ANS: A The Joint Commission now recommends that both the client and the surgeon mark the operative site together in order to prevent wrong-site surgery. The nurse should facilitate this process.

1. The perioperative nurse manager and the postoperative unit manager are concerned about the increasing number of surgical infections in their hospital. What action by the managers is best? a. Audit charts to see if the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) outcomes were met. b. Encourage staff on both units to provide peer pressure to adhere to hand hygiene policy. c. Hold educational meetings with the nursing and surgical staff on infection prevention. d. Monitor staff on both units for consistent adherence to established hand hygiene practices.

ANS: A The SCIP project contains core measures that are mandatory for all surgical clients and focuses on preventing infection, serious cardiace vents, and venous thromboembolism.The managers should start by reviewing charts to see if the guidelines of this project were implemented. The other actions may be necessary too, but first the managers need to assess the situation

1. A nurse assesses a client who has aortic regurgitation. In which location in the illustration shown below should the nurse auscultate to best hear a cardiac murmur related to aortic regurgitation? a. Location A b. Location B c. Location C d. Location D

ANS: A The aortic valve is auscultated in the second intercostal space just to the right of the sternum.

1. A nurse cares for a client with infective endocarditis. Which infection control precautions should the nurse use? a. Standard Precautions b. Bleeding precautions c. Reverse isolation d. Contact isolation

ANS: A The client with infective endocarditis does not pose any specific threat of transmitting the causative organism. Standard Precautions should be used. Bleeding precautions or reverse or contact isolation is not necessary.

1. A nurse prepares to discharge a client with carterm-105diac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information should be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication reconciliation b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences

ANS: A The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information will not assist the nurse to develop a plan of care for the client.

1. A nurse is concerned that a preoperative client has a great deal of anxiety about the upcoming procedure. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client to describe current feelings. b. Determine if the client wants a chaplain. c. Reassure the client this surgery is common. d. Tell the client there is no need to be anxious.

ANS: A The nurse needs to conduct further assessment of the clients anxiety. Asking open-ended questions about current feelings is an appropriate way to begin. The client may want a chaplain, but the nurse needs to do more for the client. Reassurance can be good, but false hope is not, and simply reassuring the client may not be helpful. Telling the client not to be anxious belittles the clients feelings.

1. A client is on the phone when the nurse brings a preoperative antibiotic before scheduled surgery. The circulating nurse has requested the antibiotic be started. The client wants the nurse to wait before starting it. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Explain the rationale for giving the medicine now. b. Leave the room and come back in 15 minutes. c. Provide holistic client care and come back later. d. Tell the client you must start the medication now.

ANS: A The preoperative antibiotic must be given within 60 minutes of the surgical start time to ensure the proper amount is in the tissues when the incision is made. The nurse should explain the rationale to the client for this timing. The other options do not take this timing into consideration and do not give the client the information needed to be cooperative.

1. While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. b. Document this as a normal finding. c. Call the health care provider immediately. d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.

ANS: A The presence of an S3 gallop is an early diastolic filling sound indicative of increasing left ventricular pressureand left ventricular failure. The other actions are not warranted

1. A nurse assesses a client in the preoperative holding area and finds brittle nails and hair, dry skin turgor, and muscle wasting. What action by the nurse is best? a. Consult the surgeon about a postoperative dietitian referral. b. Document the findings thoroughly in the clients chart. c. Encourage the client to eat more after recovering from surgery. d. Refer the client to Meals on Wheels after discharge.

ANS: A This client has signs of malnutrition, which can impact recovery from surgery. The nurse should consult the surgeon about prescribing a consultation with a dietitian in the postoperative period. The nurse should document the findings but needs to do more. Encouraging the client to eat more may be helpful, but the client needs a professional nutritional assessment so that the appropriate diet and supplements can be ordered. The client may or may not need Meals on Wheels after discharge.

1. A nurse supervises an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement should the nurse provide to the UAP related to this procedure? a. Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed. b. Add gel to the electrodes prior to applying them. c. Place the electrodes on the posterior chest. d. Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client.

ANS: A To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin should be clean and hairs clipped. Electrodes should be placed on the anterior chest, and no additional gel is needed. Oxygen has no impact on electrocardiographic monitoring.

1. A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor displayed the rhythm shown below: Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess airway, breathing, and level of consciousness. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator. d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

ANS: A Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse should first assess if the client is alert and breathing. Then the nurse should call a Code Blue and begin CPR. If this client is pulseless, the treatment of choice is defibrillation. Amiodarone is the antidysrhythmic of choice, but it is not the first action.

1. A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and is hypotensive. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse expect? a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min b. Cool, clammy skin c. Oxygen saturation of 90% d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

ANS: A When a client experiences hypotension, baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense a pressure decrease in thevessels. The parasympathetic system responds by lessening the inhibitory effect on the sinoatrial node. Thisresults in an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. This tachycardia is an early response and is seen even when blood pressure is not critically low. An increased heart rate and respiratory rate will compensate for thelow blood pressure and maintain oxygen saturations and perfusion. The client may not be able to compensatefor long, and decreased oxygenation and cool, clammy skin will occur later

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.) a. Shortness of breath b. Abdominal bloating c. New-onset bradycardia d. Increased ejection fraction e. Hypertension

ANS: A, B, C Clinical manifestations of heart transplant rejection include shortness of breath, fatigue, fluid gain, abdominal bloating, new-onset bradycardia, hypotension, atrial fibrillation or flutter, decreased activity tolerance, and decreased ejection fraction.

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which actions should the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. d. Insert a Foley catheter. e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. f. Insert a central venous catheter

ANS: A, B, C If the client has kidney disease (as indicated by BUN and creatinine results), fluids and Mucomyst may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. The client should be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the clients risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization.

1. A student nurse asks why older adults are at higher risk for complications after surgery. What reasons does the registered nurse give? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased cardiac output b. Decreased oxygenation c. Frequent nocturia d. Mobility alterations e. Inability to adapt to changes

ANS: A, B, C, D Older adults have many age-related physiologic changes that put them at higher risk of falling and other complications after surgery. Some of these include decreased cardiac output, decreased oxygenation of tissues, nocturia, and mobility alterations. They also have a decreased ability to adapt to new surroundings, but that is not the same as being unable to adapt.

1. What actions by the circulating nurse are important to promote client comfort? (Select all that apply.) a. Correct positioning b. Introducing ones self c. Providing warmth d. Remaining present e. Removing hearing aids

ANS: A, B, C, D The circulating nurse can do many things to promote client comfort, including positioning the client correctly and comfortably, introducing herself or himself to the client, keeping the client warm, and remaining present with the client. Removing hearing aids does not promote comfort and, if the client is still awake when they are removed, may contribute to disorientation and anxiety.

1. A client is experiencing pain after leg surgery but cannot yet have more pain medication. What comfort interventions can the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply stimulation to the contralateral leg. b. Assess the clients willingness to try meditation. c. Elevate the clients operative leg and apply ice. d. Reduce the noise level in the clients environment. e. Turn the TV on loudly to distract the client.

ANS: A, B, C, D There are many nonpharmacologic comfort measures for pain, including applying stimulation to the opposite leg, providing opportunities for meditation, elevation of the leg, applying ice, and reducing noxious stimuli in the environment. Participating in diversional activities is another approach, but simply turning the TV on loudly does not provide a good diversion.

1. A nursing student planning to teach clients about risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) would include which topics? (Select all that apply.) a. Advanced age b. Diabetes c. Ethnic background d. Medication use e. Smoking

ANS: A, B, C, E Age,diabetes,ethnicbackground,andsmokingareallriskfactorsfordevelopingCAD;medicationuseisnot

1. A nurse is admitting an older client for surgery to the inpatient surgical unit. The client relates a prior history of acute confusion after a previous operation. What interventions does the nurse include on the clients plan of care to minimize the potential for this occurring? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow family and friends to visit as the client desires. b. Ask the client about coping techniques frequently used. c. Instruct the nursing assistant to ensure the client is bathed. d. Place the client in a room secluded at the end of the hall. e. Provide the client with uninterrupted periods of sleep.

ANS: A, B, C, E Older clients may have difficulty adjusting to the stress of the hospital environment and illness or surgery. Techniques that are helpful include allowing liberal visitation, assisting the client to use successful coping techniques, and keeping the client bathed and groomed. Sleep deprivation can contribute to confusion, so the nurse ensures the client receives adequate sleep. Secluding the client at the end of the hall may lead to sensory deprivation and loneliness.

1. The circulating nurse reviews the days schedule and notes clients who are at higher risk of anesthetic overdose and other anesthesia-related complications. Which clients does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. A 75-year-old client scheduled for an elective procedure b. Client who drinks a 6-pack of beer each day c. Client with a serum creatinine of 3.8 mg/dL d. Client who is taking birth control pills e. Young male client with a RYR1 gene mutation

ANS: A, B, C, E People at higher risk for anesthetic overdose or other anesthesia-related complications include people with a slowed metabolism (older adults generally have slower metabolism than younger adults), those with kidney or liver impairments, and those with mutations of the RYR1 gene. Drinking a 6-pack of beer per day possibly indicates some liver disease; a creatinine of 3.8 is high, indicating renal disease; and the genetic mutation increases the chance of malignant hyperthermia. Taking birth control pills is not a risk factor.

1. A postoperative client is being discharged with a prescription for oxycodone hydrochloride with acetaminophen (Percocet). What instructions does the nurse give the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Check all over-the-counter medications for acetaminophen. b. Do not take more pills each day than you are prescribed. c. Eat a diet that is high in fiber and drink lots of water. d. If this gives you diarrhea, loperamide (Imodium) can help. e. You shouldnt drive while you are taking this medication.

ANS: A, B, C, E Percocet is a common opioid analgesic that contains acetaminophen. The client should be taught to check all over-the-counter medications for acetaminophen and to not take more than the prescribed amount of Percocet,as the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen is 3000 mg. Percocet, like all opioid analgesics, can cause constipation, and the client can minimize this by eating a high-fiber diet and drinking plenty of water. Since Percocet can cause drowsiness, the client taking it should not drive or operate machinery. The medication ismore likely to cause constipation than diarrhea

1. A nurse is teaching a client with premature ectopic beats. Which education should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium

ANS: A, B, D A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms should be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances.

1. A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which clients should the nurse identify as at greatest risk for the development of acute pericarditis? (Select all that apply.) a. A 36-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b. A 42-year-old man recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 59-year-old woman recovering from a hysterectomy d. An 80-year-old man with a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract e. An 88-year-old woman with a stage III sacral ulcer

ANS: A, B, D Acute pericarditis is most commonly associated acute exacerbations of systemic connective tissue disease, including SLE; with Dresslers syndrome, or inflammation of the cardiac sac after cardiac surgery or a myocardial infarction; and with infective organisms, including bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. Abdominal and reproductive surgeries and pressure ulcers do not increase clients risk for acute pericarditis.

1. A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Based on the Heart Failure Core Measure Set, which actions should the nurse complete prior to discharging this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Teach the client about dietary restrictions. b. Ensure the client is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. c. Encourage the client to take a baby aspirin each day. d. Confirm that an echocardiogram has been completed. e. Consult a social worker for additional resources.

ANS: A, B, D The Heart Failure Core Measure Set includes discharge instructions on diet, activity, medications, weight monitoring and plan for worsening symptoms, evaluation of left ventricular systolic function (usually with an echocardiogram), and prescribing an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Aspirin is not part of the Heart Failure Core Measure Set and is usually prescribed for clients who experience a myocardial infarction. Although the nurse may consult the social worker or case manager for additional resources, this is not part of the Core Measures.

1. A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Which questions should the nurse ask to ensure this clients safety prior to discharging home? (Select all that apply.) a. Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor? b. What social support do you have at home? c. Will you be able to afford your oxygen therapy? d. What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery? e. Are you able to accurately weigh yourself at home?

ANS: A, B, D To ensure safety upon discharge, the nurse should assess for structural barriers to functional ability, such as stairs. The nurse should also assess the clients available social support, which may include family, friends, and home health services. The clients ability to adhere to medication and treatments, including daily weights, should also be reviewed. The other questions do not address the clients safety upon discharge.

1. A nursing student studying acute coronary syndromes learns that the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differs from stable angina in what ways? (Select all that apply.) a. Accompanied by shortness of breath b. Feelings of fear or anxiety c. Lasts less than 15 minutes d. No relief from taking nitroglycerin e. Pain occurs without known cause

ANS: A, B, D, E The pain from an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and fear or anxiety. It lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. It occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

1. A client is clearly uncomfortable and anxious in the preoperative holding room waiting for emergent abdominal surgery. What actions can the nurse perform to increase comfort? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow the client to assume a position of comfort. b. Allow the clients family to remain at the bedside. c. Give the client a warm, non-caffeinated drink. d. Provide warm blankets or cool washcloths as desired. e. Pull the curtains around the bed to provide privacy.

ANS: A, B, D, E There are many nonpharmacologic comfort measures the nurse can employ, such as allowing the client toremain in the position that is most comfortable, letting the family stay with the client, providing warmth or cooling measures as requested by the client, and providing privacy. The client in the preoperative holding area is NPO, so drinks should not be provided.

1. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion, restlessness c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Dependent edema e. Cough that worsens at night

ANS: A, B, E Left-sided heart failure occurs with a decrease in contractility of the heart or an increase in afterload. Most of the signs will be noted in the respiratory system. Right-sided heart failure occurs with problems from the pulmonary vasculature onward including pulmonary hypertension. Signs will be noted before the right atrium or ventricle including dependent edema.

1. A nurse teaches a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which instructions should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers. b. Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings. c. If you feel weak, apply pressure over your generator. d. Have your pacemaker turned off before having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). e. Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks.

ANS: A, B, E The client should not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client should be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client should be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client should never apply pressure over the generator and should avoid tight clothing. The client should never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal. The client should be advised to inform all health care providers that he or she has a pacemaker.

1. A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a client with heart failure. Which results should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Hematocrit: 32.8% b. Serum sodium: 130 mEq/L c. Serum potassium: 4.0 mEq/L d. Serum creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL e. Proteinuria f. Microalbuminuria

ANS: A, B, E, F A hematocrit of 32.8% is low (should be 42.6%), indicating a dilutional ratio of red blood cells to fluid. A serum sodium of 130 mEq/L is low because of hemodilution. Microalbuminuria and proteinuria are present, indicating a decrease in renal filtration. These are early warning signs of decreased compliance of the heart. The potassium level is on the high side of normal and the serum creatinine level is normal.

1. A client is having shoulder surgery with regional anesthesia. What actions by the nurse are most important to enhance client safety related to this anesthesia? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing distal circulation to the operative arm after positioning b. Keeping the client warm during the operative procedure c. Padding the clients shoulder and arm on the operating table d. Preparing to suction the clients airway if the client vomits e. Speaking in a low, quiet voice as anesthesia is administere

ANS: A, C After regional anesthesia is administered, the client loses all sensation distally. The nurse ensures client safety by assessing distal circulation and padding the shoulder and arm appropriately. Although awake, the client will not be able to report potential injury. Keeping the client warm is not related to this anesthesia, nor is suctioning or speaking quietly.

1. A nurse collaborates with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide care for a client with congestive heart failure. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the UAP when delegating care for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Reposition the client every 2 hours. b. Teach the client to perform deep-breathing exercises. c. Accurately record intake and output. d. Use the same scale to weigh the client each morning. e. Place the client on oxygen if the client becomes short of breath.

ANS: A, C, D The UAP should reposition the client every 2 hours to improve oxygenation and prevent atelectasis. The UAP can also accurately record intake and output, and use the same scale to weigh the client each morning before breakfast. UAPs are not qualified to teach clients or assess the need for and provide oxygen therapy.

1. A nurse is caring for several clients prior to surgery. Which medications taken by the clients require the nurse to consult with the physician about their administration? (Select all that apply.) a. Metformin (Glucophage) b. Omega-3 fatty acids (Sea Omega 30) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine) e. Warfarin (Coumadin)

ANS: A, C, D, E Although the client will be on NPO status before surgery, the nurse should check with the provider about allowing the client to take medications prescribed for diabetes, hypertension, cardiac disease, seizure disorders, depression, glaucoma, anticoagulation, or depression. Metformin is used to treat diabetes; phenytoin is for seizures; pilocarpine is for glaucoma, and warfarin is an anticoagulant. The omega-3 fatty acids can be held the day of surgery.

1. A student nurse is caring for clients on the postoperative unit. The student asks the registered nurse why malnutrition can lead to poor surgical outcomes. What responses by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. A malnourished client will have fragile skin. b. Malnourished clients always have other problems. c. Many drugs are bound to protein in the body. d. Protein stores are needed for wound healing. e. Weakness and fatigue are common in malnutrition.

ANS: A, C, D, E Malnutrition can lead to poorer surgical outcomes for several reasons, including fragile skin that might break down, altered pharmacokinetics, poorer wound healing, and weakness or fatigue that can interfere with recovery. Malnutrition can exist without other comorbidities.

1. A nurse reviews a clients laboratory results. Which findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL

ANS: A, C, E A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis.

1. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Thrombophlebitis b. Stroke c. Pulmonary embolism d. Myocardial infarction e. Cardiac tamponade

ANS: A, C, E Complications from a right-sided heart catheterization include thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism, and vagal response. Cardiac tamponade is a risk of both right- and left-sided heart catheterizations. Stroke and myocardial infarction are complications of left-sided heart catheterizations.

1. A nurse is caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the client to the chair for meals and to the bathroom. b. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours. c. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices. d. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse. e. Take and record a full set of vital signs per hospital protocol.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse can delegate assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TEDs or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs. The spirometer should be used every hour the day after surgery. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment, although if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse so a more detailed assessment is done.

1. A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in cardiac output b. Increase in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressure d. Increase in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output f. Increase in urine output

ANS: A, D, E Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However,in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall

1. After teaching a client with congestive heart failure (CHF), the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to nutritional intake? (Select all that apply.) a. Ill read the nutritional labels on food items for salt content. b. I will drink at least 3 liters of water each day. c. Using salt in moderation will reduce the workload of my heart. d. I will eat oatmeal for breakfast instead of ham and eggs. e. Substituting fresh vegetables for canned ones will lower my salt intake.

ANS: A, D, E Nutritional therapy for a client with CHF is focused on decreasing sodium and water retention to decrease the workload of the heart. The client should be taught to read nutritional labels on all food items, omit table salt and foods high in sodium (e.g., ham and canned foods), and limit water intake to a normal 2 L/day.

1. A student nurse observing in the operating room notes that the functions of the Certified Registered Nurse First Assistant (CRNFA) include which activities? (Select all that apply.) a. Dressing the surgical wound b. Grafting new or synthetic skin c. Reattaching severed nerves d. Suctioning the surgical site e. Suturing the surgical wound

ANS: A, D, E The CRNFA can perform tasks under the direction of the surgeon such as suturing and dressing surgical wounds, cutting away tissue, suctioning the wound to improve visibility, and holding retractors. Reattaching severed nerves and performing grafts would be the responsibility of the surgeon

1. The nursing student observing in the perioperative area notes the unique functions of the circulating nurse, which include which roles? (Select all that apply.) a. Ensuring the clients safety b. Accounting for all sharps c. Documenting all care given d. Maintaining the sterile field e. Monitoring traffic in the room

ANS: A, E The circulating nurse has several functions, including maintaining client safety and privacy, monitoring traffic in and out of the operating room, assessing fluid losses, reporting findings to the surgeon and anesthesia provider, anticipating needs of the team, and communicating to the family. The circulating nurse and scrub person work together to ensure accurate counts of sharps, sponges, and instruments. The circulating nurse also documents care, but in the perioperative area, the preoperative or holding room nurse would also document care received there. Maintaining the sterile field is a joint responsibility among all members of the surgical team.

1. A client waiting for surgery is very anxious. What intervention can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assess the clients anxiety. b. Give the client a back rub. c. Remind the client to turn. d. Teach about postoperativecare

ANS: B A back rub reduces anxiety and can be delegated to the UAP. Once teaching has been done, the UAP can remind the client to turn, but this is not related to relieving anxiety. Assessing anxiety and teaching are not within the scope of practice for the UAP.

1. A nurse teaches a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Walk until you become short of breath, and then walk back home. b. Gather everything you need for a chore before you begin. c. Pull rather than push or carry items heavier than 5 pounds. d. Take a walk after dinner every day to build up your strength.

ANS: B A client who has heart failure should be taught to conserve energy. Gathering all supplies needed for a chore at one time decreases the amount of energy needed. The client should not walk until becoming short of breath because he or she may not make it back home. Pushing a cart takes less energy than pulling or lifting. Although walking after dinner may help the client, the nurse should teach the client to complete activities when he or she has the most energy. This is usually in the morning.

1. A client has intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes the clients heart rate has increased from 88 to 110 beats/min, and the blood pressure dropped from 120/82 to 100/60 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Allow the client to rest quietly. b. Assess the client for bleeding. c. Document the findings in the chart. d. Medicate the client for pain.

ANS: B A major complication related to intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is hemorrhage from the insertion site. Since these vital signs are out of the normal range, are a change, and are consistent with blood loss, the nurse should assess the client for any bleeding associated with the arterial line. The nurse should document the findings after a full assessment. The client may or may not need pain medication and rest; the nurse first needs to rule out any emergent bleeding.

1. After administering newly prescribed captopril (Capoten) to a client with heart failure, the nurse implements interventions to decrease complications. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement for this client? a. Provide food to decrease nausea and aid in absorption. b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when rising from bed. c. Collaborate with unlicensed assistive personnel to bathe the client. d. Monitor potassium levels and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.

ANS: B Administration of the first dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is often associated with hypotension, usually termed first-dose effect. The nurse should instruct the client to seek assistance before arising from bed to prevent injury from postural hypotension. ACE inhibitors do not need to be taken with food. Collaboration with unlicensed assistive personnel to provide hygiene is not a priority. The client should be encouraged to complete activities of daily living as independently as possible. The nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, especially if the client has renal insufficiency secondary to heart failure.

1. A client received tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) after a myocardial infarction and now is on an intravenous infusion of heparin. The clients spouse asks why the client needs this medication. What response by the nurse is best? a. The t-PA didnt dissolve the entire coronary clot. b. The heparin keeps that artery from getting blocked again. c. Heparin keeps the blood as thin as possible for a longer time. d. The heparin prevents a stroke from occurring as the t-PA wears off.

ANS: B After the original intracoronary clot has dissolved, large amounts of thrombin are released into the bloodstream, increasing the chance of the vessel reoccluding. The other statements are not accurate. Heparin is not a blood thinner, although laypeople may refer to it as such.

1. The circulating nurse and preoperative nurse are reviewing the chart of a client scheduled for minimally invasive surgery (MIS). What information on the chart needs to be reported to the surgeon as a priority? a. Allergies noted and allergy band on b. Consent for MIS procedure only c. No prior anesthesia exposure d. NPO status for the last 8 hours

ANS: B All MIS procedures have the potential for becoming open procedures depending on findings and complications. The clients consent should include this possibility. The nurse should report this finding to the surgeon prior to surgery taking place. Having allergies noted and an allergy band applied is standard procedure. Not having any prior surgical or anesthesia exposure is not the priority. Maintaining NPO status as prescribed is standard procedure.

1. A client has been given hydroxyzine (Atarax) in the preoperative holding area. What action by the nurse is most important for this client? a. Document giving the drug. b. Raise the siderails on the bed. c. Record the clients vital signs. d. Teach relaxation techniques.

ANS: B All actions are appropriate for a preoperative client. However, for client safety, the nurse should raise the siderails on the bed because hydroxyzine can make the client sleepy.

1. A nurse assesses a client who has mitral valve regurgitation. For which cardiac dysrhythmia should the nurse assess? a. Preventricular contractions b. Atrial fibrillation c. Symptomatic bradycardia d. Sinus tachycardia

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation is a clinical manifestation of mitral valve regurgitation and stenosis. Preventricular contractions and bradycardia are not associated with valvular problems. These are usually identified in clients with electrolyte imbalances, myocardial infarction, and sinus node problems. Sinus tachycardia is a manifestation of aortic regurgitation due to a decrease in cardiac output.

1. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease and is a common occurrence after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.

1. A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication should the nurse expect to find on this clients medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol (Betapace) b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Atropine (Sal-Tropine) d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for this complication.

1. A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. Make certain that your bath water is warm. b. Avoid straining while having a bowel movement. c. Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day. d. Avoid strenuous exercise such as running.

ANS: B Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia. The other instructions are not appropriate for this condition.

1. A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. b. You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients. c. A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet. d. If you exercise more frequently, you wont need to change your diet.

ANS: B Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the American Heart Association guidelines to combat obesity and improve cardiac health. The nurse should encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight. High-protein food items are often high in fat and calories. Although the nutritionist can assist with client education, the nurse should include nutrition education and assist the client to make healthy decisions. Exercising and eating nutrient-rich foods are both important components in reducing cardiovascular risk.

1. After teaching a client who is being discharged home after mitral valve replacement surgery, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. Ill be able to carry heavy loads after 6 months of rest. b. I will have my teeth cleaned by my dentist in 2 weeks. c. I must avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach. d. I must use an electric razor instead of a straight razor to shave.

ANS: B Clients who have defective or repaired valves are at high risk for endocarditis. The client who has had valve surgery should avoid dental procedures for 6 months because of the risk for endocarditis. When undergoing a mitral valve replacement surgery, the client needs to be placed on anticoagulant therapy to prevent vegetation forming on the new valve. Clients on anticoagulant therapy should be instructed on bleeding precautions, including using an electric razor. If the client is prescribed warfarin, the client should avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients recovering from open heart valve replacements should not carry anything heavy for 6 months while the chest incision and muscle heal.

1. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the clients heart failure? a. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain? b. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue? c. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night? d. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?

ANS: B Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the clients activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night, and peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the clients heart failure.

1. A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

ANS: B Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance.

1. A client is having robotic surgery. The circulating nurse observes the instruments being inserted, then the surgeon appears to break scrub when going to the console and sitting down. What action by the nurse is best? a. Call a time-out to discuss sterile procedure and scrub technique. b. Document the time the robotic portion of the procedure begins. c. Inform the surgeon that the scrub preparation has been compromised. d. Report the surgeons actions to the charge nurse and unit manager.

ANS: B During a robotic operative procedure, the surgeon inserts the articulating arms into the client, then breaks scrub to sit at the viewing console to perform the operation. The nurse should document the time the robotic portion of the procedure began. There is no need for the other interventions.

1. A client is in stage 2 of general anesthesia. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Keeping the room quiet and calm b. Being prepared to suction the airway c. Positioning the client correctly d. Warming the client with blankets

ANS: B During stage 2 of general anesthesia (excitement, delirium), the client can vomit and aspirate. The nurse must be ready to react to this potential occurrence by being prepared to suction the clients airway. Keeping the room quiet and calm does help the client enter the anesthetic state, but is not the priority. Positioning the client usually occurs during stage 3 (operative anesthesia). Keeping the client warm is important throughout to prevent hypothermia.

1. A nurse assesses a client with mitral valve stenosis. What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility that the clients stenosis has progressed? a. Oxygen saturation of 92% b. Dyspnea on exertion c. Muted systolic murmur d. Upper extremity weakness

ANS: B Dyspnea on exertion develops as the mitral valvular orifice narrows and pressure in the lungs increases. The other manifestations do not relate to the progression of mitral valve stenosis.

1. A home health care nurse is visiting an older client who lives alone after being discharged from the hospita after a coronary artery bypass graft. What finding in the home most causes the nurse to consider additional referrals? a. Dirty carpets in need of vacuuming b. Expired food in the refrigerator c. Old medications in the kitchen d. Several cats present in the home

ANS: B Expired food in the refrigerator demonstrates a safety concern for the client and a possible lack of money to buy food. The nurse can consider a referral to Meals on Wheels or another home-based food program. Dirty carpets may indicate the client has no household help and is waiting for clearance to vacuum. Old medications can be managed by the home health care nurse and the client working collaboratively. Having pets is not a cause for concern.

1. A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse take prior to the initiation of cardioversion? a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side.

ANS: B For safety during cardioversion, the nurse should turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client should be placed in a supine position.

1. A nurse is in charge of the coronary intensive care unit. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client on a nitroglycerin infusion at 5 mcg/min, not titrated in the last 4 hours b. Client who is 1 day post coronary artery bypass graft, blood pressure 180/100 mm Hg c. Client who is 1 day post percutaneous coronary intervention, going home this morning d. Client who is 2 days post coronary artery bypass graft, became dizzy this a.m. while walking

ANS: B Hypertension after coronary artery bypass graft surgery can be dangerous because it puts too much pressure on the suture lines and can cause bleeding. The charge nurse should see this client first. The client who became dizzy earlier should be seen next. The client on the nitroglycerin drip is stable. The client going home can wait until the other clients are cared for.

1. After assessing a client who is receiving an amiodarone intravenous infusion for unstable ventricular tachycardia, the nurse documents the findings and compares these with the previous assessment findings: Vital Signs Nursing Assessment Time: 0800 Temperature: 98 F Heart rate: 68 beats/min Blood pressure: 135/60 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 96% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Time: 1000 Temperature: 98.2 F Heart rate: 50 beats/min Blood pressure: 132/57 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 95% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Time: 0800 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: normal sinus rhythm. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Time: 1000 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: sinus bradycardia. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Client voids 420 mL of clear yellow urine. Based on the assessments, which action should the nurse take? a. Stop the infusion and flush the IV. b. Slow the amiodarone infusion rate. c. Administer IV normal saline. d. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.

ANS: B IV administration of amiodarone may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) block. The correct action for the nurse to take at this time is to slow the infusion, because the client is asymptomatic and no evidence reveals AV block that might require pacing. Abruptly ceasing the medication could allow fatal dysrhythmias to occur. The administration of IV fluids and encouragement of coughing and deep breathing exercises are not indicated, and will not increase the clients heart rate.

1. A client has hemodynamic monitoring after a myocardial infarction. What safety precaution does the nurse implement for this client? a. Document pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) readings and assess their trends. b. Ensure the balloon does not remain wedged. c. Keep the client on strict NPO status. d. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowlers position.

ANS: B If the balloon remains inflated, it can cause pulmonary infarction or rupture. The nurse should ensure the balloon remains deflated between PAWP readings. Documenting PAWP readings and assessing trends is an important nursing action related to hemodynamic monitoring, but is not specifically related to safety. The client does not have to be NPO while undergoing hemodynamic monitoring. Positioning may or may not affect readings.

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft. The drainage slows significantly. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Increase the setting on the suction. b. Notify the provider immediately. c. Re-position the chest tube. d. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.

ANS: B If the drainage in the chest tube decreases significantly and dramatically, the tube may be blocked by a clot. This could lead to cardiac tamponade. The nurse should notify the provider immediately. The nurse should not independently increase the suction, re-position the chest tube, or take the tubing apart.

An inpatient nurse brings an informed consent form to a client for an operation scheduled for tomorrow. The client asks about possible complications from the operation. What response by the nurse is best? a. Answer the questions and document that teaching was done. b. Do not have the client sign the consent and call the surgeon. c. Have the client sign the consent, then call the surgeon. d. Remind the client of what teaching the surgeon has done.

ANS: B In order to give informed consent, the client needs sufficient information. Questions about potential complications should be answered by the surgeon. The nurse should notify the surgeon to come back and answer the clients questions before the client signs the consent form. The other actions are not appropriate.

1. A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the clients electrocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous diltiazem (Cardizem). b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. d. Assess capillary refill and temperature.

ANS: B In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike should be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse should assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness. The other interventions would not determine if the client is tolerating the loss of capture.

1. A client has received intravenous anesthesia during an operation. What action by the postanesthesia care nurse is most important? a. Assist with administering muscle relaxants to the client. b. Place the client on a cardiac monitor and pulse oximeter. c. Prepare to administer intravenous antiemetics to the client. d. Prevent the client from experiencing postoperative shivering.

ANS: B Intravenous anesthetic agents have the potential to cause respiratory and circulatory depression. The nurse should ensure the client is on a cardiac monitor and pulse oximeter. Muscle relaxants are not indicated for this client at this time. Intravenous anesthetics have a lower rate of postoperative nausea and vomiting than other types. Shivering can occur in any client, but is more common after inhalation agents.

1. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) asks the nurse about taking fish oil supplements. What response by the nurse is best? a. Fish oil is contraindicated with most drugs for CAD. b. The best source is fish, but pills have benefits too. c. There is no evidence to support fish oil use with CAD. d. You can reverse CAD totally with diet and supplements.

ANS: B Omega-3 fatty acids have shown benefit in reducing lipid levels, in reducing the incidence of sudden cardiac death, and for stabilizing atherosclerotic plaque. The best source is fish three times a week or some fish oil supplements. The other options are not accurate.

1. A nurse answers a call light on the postoperative nursing unit. The client states there was a sudden gush of blood from the incision, and the nurse sees a blood spot on the sheet. What action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the clients blood pressure. b. Perform hand hygiene and apply gloves. c. Reinforce the dressing with a clean one. d. Remove the dressing to assess the wound.

ANS: B Prior to assessing or treating the drainage from the wound, the nurse performs hand hygiene and dons gloves toprotect both the client and nurse from infection

1. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who reports discomfort, but denies serious pain and does not want medication. What action by the nurse is best to promote comfort? a. Assess the clients pain on a 0-to-10 scale. b. Assist the client into a position of comfort. c. Have the client sit up in a recliner. d. Tell the client when pain medication is due.

ANS: B Several nonpharmacologic comfort measures can help postoperative clients with their pain, including distraction, music, massage, guided imagery, and positioning. The nurse should help this client into a position of comfort considering the surgical procedure and position of any tubes or drains. Assessing the clients pain is important but does not improve comfort. The client may be more uncomfortable in a recliner. Letting the client know when pain medication can be given next is important but does not improve comfort.

1. A nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure? a. I sleep with four pillows at night. b. My shoes fit really tight lately. c. I wake up coughing every night. d. I have trouble catching my breath.

ANS: B Signs of systemic congestion occur with right-sided heart failure. Fluid is retained, pressure builds in the venous system, and peripheral edema develops. Left-sided heart failure symptoms include respiratory symptoms. Orthopnea, coughing, and difficulty breathing all could be results of left-sided heart failure.

A client has a great deal of pain when coughing and deep breathing after abdominal surgery despite having pain medication. What action by the nurse is best? a. Call the provider to request more analgesia. b. Demonstrate how to splint the incision. c. Have the client take shallower breaths. d. Tell the client a little pain is expected

ANS: B Splinting an incision provides extra support during coughing and activity and helps decrease pain. If the client is otherwise comfortable, no more analgesia is required. Shallow breathing can lead to atelectasis and pneumonia. The client should know some pain is normal and expected after surgery, but that answer alone does not provide any interventions to help the client.

1. A nurse cares for a client recovering from prosthetic valve replacement surgery. The client asks, Why will I need to take anticoagulants for the rest of my life? How should the nurse respond? a. The prosthetic valve places you at greater risk for a heart attack. b. Blood clots form more easily in artificial replacement valves. c. The vein taken from your leg reduces circulation in the leg. d. The surgery left a lot of small clots in your heart and lungs.

ANS: B Synthetic valve prostheses and scar tissue provide surfaces on which platelets can aggregate easily and initiate the formation of blood clots. The other responses are inaccurate.

1. A client has presented to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What action by the nurse is best to meet The Joint Commissions Core Measures outcomes? a. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) now and in the morning. b. Give the client an aspirin. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Prepare to administer thrombolytics.

ANS: B The Joint Commissions Core Measures set for acute MI require that aspirin is administered when a client with MI presents to the emergency department or when an MI occurs in the hospital. A rapid ECG is vital, but getting another one in the morning is not part of the Core Measures set. The Rapid Response Team is not needed if an emergency department provider is available. Thrombolytics may or may not be needed.

1. A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention should the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery? a. Administration of IV furosemide (Lasix) b. Initiation of an external pacemaker c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation d. Placement of central venous access

ANS: B The RCA supplies the right atrium, the right ventricle, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, and the atrioventricular (AV) node. It also supplies the sinoatrial node in 50% of people. If the client totally occludes the RCA, the AV node would not function and the client would go into heart block, so emergency pacing should be available for the client. Furosemide, intubation, and central venous access will not address the primary complication of RCA occlusion, which is AV node malfunction.

1. After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I should wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD. b. I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields. c. I should participate in a strenuous exercise program. d. Now I can discontinue my antidysrhythmic medication.

ANS: B The client being discharged with an ICD is instructed to avoid strong sources of electromagnetic fields. Clients should avoid tight clothing, which could cause irritation over the ICD generator. The client should be encouraged to exercise but should not engage in strenuous activities that cause the heart rate to meet or exceed the ICD cutoff point because the ICD can discharge inappropriately. The client should continue all prescribed medications.

2. A nurse assesses a client with pericarditis. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to find? a. Heart rate that speeds up and slows down b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border c. Presence of a regular gallop rhythm d. Coarse crackles in bilateral lung bases

ANS: B The client with pericarditis may present with a pericardial friction rub at the left lower sternal border. This sound is the result of friction from inflamed pericardial layers when they rub together. The other assessments are not related.

1. The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm below: After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next? a. Perform a pericardial thump. b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line. d. Ask the clients family about code status.

ANS: B The clients rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse should start CPR. A pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation. The clients code status should already be known by the nurse prior to this event.

A nurse is giving a client instructions for showering with special antimicrobial soap the night before surgery What instruction is most appropriate? a. After you wash the surgical site, shave that area with your own razor. b. Be sure to wash the area where you will have surgery very thoroughly. c. Use a washcloth to wash the surgical site; do not take a full shower or bath. d. Wash the surgical site first, then shampoo and wash the rest of your body.

ANS: B The entire proposed surgical site needs to be washed thoroughly and completely with the antimicrobial soap. Shaving, if absolutely necessary, should be done in the operative suite immediately before the operation begins, using sterile equipment. The client needs a full shower or bath (shower preferred). The client should wash the surgical site last; dirty water from shampooing will run over the cleansed site if the site is washed first.

1. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The clients health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. Which action should the nurse take? a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI. b. Notify the health care provider before scheduling the MRI. c. Call the physician and request a laboratory draw for cardiac enzymes. d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI.

ANS: B The magnetic fields of the MRI can deactivate the pacemaker. The nurse should call the health care providerand report that the client has a pacemaker so the provider can order other diagnostic tests. The client does notneed an electrocardiogram, cardiac enzymes, or increased fluids

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with an acute myocardial infarction, pulse 102 beats/min b. Client who is 1 hour post angioplasty, has tongue swelling and anxiety c. Client who is post coronary artery bypass, chest tube drained 100 mL/hr d. Client who is post coronary artery bypass, potassium 4.2 mEq/L

ANS: B The post-angioplasty client with tongue swelling and anxiety is exhibiting manifestations of an allergic reaction that could progress to anaphylaxis. The nurse should assess this client first. The client with a heart rate of 102 beats/min may have increased oxygen demands but is just over the normal limit for heart rate. The two post coronary artery bypass clients are stable.

1. A postoperative client has an abdominal drain. What assessment by the nurse indicates that goals for the priority client problems related to the drain are being met? a. Drainage from the surgical site is 30 mL less than yesterday. b. There is no redness, warmth, or drainage at the insertion site. c. The client reports adequate pain control with medications. d. Urine is clear yellow and urine output is greater than 40 mL/hr.

ANS: B The priority client problem related to a surgical drain is the potential for infection. An insertion site that is free of redness, warmth, and drainage indicates that goals for this client problem are being met. The other assessments are normal, but not related to the drain.

1. A nurse auscultated heart tones on an older adult client. Which action should the nurse take based on heart tones heard? (Click the media button to hear the audio clip.) a. Administer a diuretic. b. Document the finding. c. Decrease the IV flow rate. d. Evaluate the clients medications

ANS: B The sound heard is an atrial gallop S4. An atrial gallop may be heard in older clients because of a stiffened ventricle. The nurse should document the finding, but no other intervention is needed at this time.

1. A nurse teaches a client recovering from a heart transplant who is prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing. b. Avoid large crowds and people who are sick. c. Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension. d. Check your heart rate before taking the medication.

ANS: B These agents cause immune suppression, leaving the client more vulnerable to infection. The medication does not place the client at risk for bleeding, orthostatic hypotension, or a change in heart rate.

1. A client is in the hospital after suffering a myocardial infarction and has bathroom privileges. The nurse assists the client to the bathroom and notes the clients O2 saturation to be 95%, pulse 88 beats/min, and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min after returning to bed. What action by the nurse is best? a. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min. b. Allow continued bathroom privileges. c. Obtain a bedside commode. d. Suggest the client use a bedpan.

ANS: B This clients physiologic parameters did not exceed normal during and after activity, so it is safe for the client to continue using the bathroom. There is no indication that the client needs oxygen, a commode, or a bedpan.

1. A nurse is giving a preoperative client a dose of ranitidine (Zantac). The client asks why the nurse is giving this drug when the client has no history of ulcers. What response by the nurse is best? a. All preoperative clients get this medication. b. It helps prevent ulcers from the stress of the surgery. c. Since you dont have ulcers, I will have to ask. d. The physician prescribed this medication for you.

ANS: B Ulcer prophylaxis is common for clients undergoing long procedures or for whom high stress is likely. The nurse is not being truthful by saying all clients get this medication. If the nurse does not know the information, it is appropriate to find out, but this is a common medication for which the nurse should know the rationale prior to administering it. Simply stating that the physician prescribed the medication does not give the client any useful information.

1. A postoperative client vomited. After cleaning and comforting the client, which action by the nurse is most important? a. Allow the client to rest. b. Auscultate lung sounds. c. Document the episode. d. Encourage the client to eat dry toast.

ANS: B Vomiting after surgery has several complications, including aspiration. The nurse should listen to the clients lung sounds. The client should be allowed to rest after an assessment. Documenting is important, but the nurse needs to be able to document fully, including an assessment. The client should not eat until nausea has subsided.

1. A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is newly admitted to the medical unit. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the presence of edema? a. I wake up to go to the bathroom at night. b. My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day. c. I seem to be feeling more anxious lately. d. I drink at least eight glasses of water a day.

ANS: B Weight gain can result from fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces. This is known as edema. The nurse should note whether the client feels that his or her shoes or rings are tight, and should observe, when present,an indentation around the leg where the socks end. The other answers do not describe edema

1. A postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse is assessing a postoperative client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. What laboratory values would warrant intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood glucose: 120 mg/dL b. Hemoglobin: 7.8 mg/dL c. pH: 7.68 d. Potassium: 2.9 mEq/L e. Sodium: 142 mEq/L

ANS: B, C, D Fluid and electrolyte balance are assessed carefully in the postoperative client because many imbalances can occur. The low hemoglobin may be from blood loss in surgery. The higher pH level indicates alkalosis, possibly from losses through the NG tube. The potassium is very low. The blood glucose is within normallimits for a postsurgical client who has been fasting. The sodium level is normal

1. A nurse recently hired to the preoperative area learns that certain clients are at higher risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which clients are considered at high risk? (Select all that apply.) a. Client with a humerus fracture b. Morbidly obese client c. Client who underwent a prolonged surgical procedure d. Client with severe heart failure e. Wheelchair-bound client

ANS: B, C, D, E All surgical clients should be assessed for VTE risk. Those considered at higher risk include those who are obese; are over 40; have cancer; have decreased mobility, immobility, or a spinal cord injury; have a history of any thrombotic event, varicose veins, or edema; take oral contraceptives or smoke; have decreased cardiac output; have a hip fracture; or are having total hip or knee surgery. Prolonged surgical time increases risk due to mobility and positioning needs.

1. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Hypertension c. Obesity d. Smoking e. Stress

ANS: B, C, D, E Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor.

1. A nurse working in the preoperative holding area performs which functions to ensure client safety? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow small sips of plain water. b. Check that consent is on the chart. c. Ensure the client has an armband on. d. Have the client help mark the surgical site. e. Allow the client to use the toilet before giving sedation.

ANS: B, C, D, E Providing for client safety is a priority function of the preoperative nurse. Checking for appropriately completed consent, verifying the clients identity, having the client assist in marking the surgical site if applicable, and allowing the client to use the toilet prior to sedating him or her are just some examples of important safetymeasures. The preoperative client should be NPO, so water should not be provided

1. A nurse assesses a client who is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Night sweats c. Cardiac murmur d. Abdominal bloating e. Oslers nodes

ANS: B, C, E Clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis include fever with chills, night sweats, malaise and fatigue, anorexia and weight loss, cardiac murmur, and Oslers nodes on palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Abdominal bloating is a manifestation of heart transplantation rejection.

1. A new perioperative nurse is receiving orientation to the surgical area and learns about the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) goals. What major areas do these measures focus on preventing? (Select all that apply.) a. Hemorrhage b. Infection c. Serious cardiac events d. Stroke e. Thromboembolism

ANS: B, C, E The SCIP project includes core measures to prevent infection, serious cardiac events, and thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis.

1. An emergency room nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion d. Abdominal pain e. Shortness of breath

ANS: B, C, E Women may not have chest pain with myocardial infarction, but may feel discomfort or indigestion. They often present with a triad of symptomsindigestion or feeling of abdominal fullness, feeling of chronic fatigue despite adequate rest, and feeling unable to catch their breath. Frequently, women are not diagnosed and therefore are not treated adequately. Hypertension and abdominal pain are not associated with acute coronary syndrome.

1. A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. Which actions should the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the provider to place a central venous access device. b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. c. Administer the clients prescribed beta blocker. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

ANS: B, D, E Clients receiving a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram will need peripheral venous access and continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. The client must be NPO 3 to 6 hours prior to the procedure. Education about dobutamine, which will be administered during the procedure, should be performed. Beta blockers are often held prior to the procedure.

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L c. Warmth and redness at the site d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor

ANS: B, D, E In the first few hours postprocedure, the nurse monitors for complications such as bleeding from the insertion site, hypotension, acute closure of the vessel, dye reaction, hypokalemia, and dysrhythmias. The clients blood pressure is slightly elevated but does not need immediate action. Warmth and redness at the site would indicate an infection, but this would not be present in the first few hours.

1. A nurse on the postoperative nursing unit provides care to reduce the incidence of surgical wound infection. What actions are best to achieve this goal? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering antibiotics for 72 hours b. Disposing of dressings properly c. Leaving draining wounds open to air d. Performing proper hand hygiene e. Removing and replacing wet dressings

ANS: B, D, E Interventions necessary to prevent surgical wound infection include proper disposal of soiled dressings, performing proper hand hygiene, and removing wet dressings as they can be a source of infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are given to clients at risk for infection, but are discontinued after 24 hours if no infection is apparent. Draining wounds should always be covered.

1. A client is 1 day postoperative after a coronary artery bypass graft. What nonpharmacologic comfort measures does the nurse include when caring for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medication before ambulating. b. Assist the client into a position of comfort in bed. c. Encourage high-protein diet selections. d. Provide complementary therapies such as music. e. Remind the client to splint the incision when coughing.

ANS: B, D, E Nonpharmacologic comfort measures can include positioning, complementary therapies, and splinting the chest incision. Medications are not nonpharmacologic. Food choices are not comfort measures.

1. A nurse orienting to the postoperative area learns which principles about the postoperative period? (Select all that apply.) a. All phases require the client to be in the hospital. b. Phase I care may last for several days in some clients. c. Phase I requires intensive care unit monitoring. d. Phase II ends when the client is stable and awake. e. Vital signs may be taken only once a day in phase III.

ANS: B, D, E There are three phases of postoperative care. Phase I is the most intense, with clients coming right from surgery until they are completely awake and hemodynamically stable. This may take hours or days and can occur in the intensive care unit or the postoperative care unit. Phase II ends when the client is at a presurgical level of consciousness and baseline oxygen saturation, and vital signs are stable. Phase III involves the extended care environment and may continue at home or in an extended care facility if needed.

1. A nursing instructor is teaching students about different surgical procedures and their classifications. Which examples does the instructor include? (Select all that apply.) a. Hemicolectomy: diagnostic b. Liver biopsy: diagnostic c. Mastectomy: restorative d. Spinal cord decompression: palliative e. Total shoulder replacement: restorative

ANS: B, E A diagnostic procedure is used to determine cell type of cancer and to determine the cause of a problem. An example is a liver biopsy. A restorative procedure aims to improve functional ability. An example would be a total shoulder replacement or a spinal cord decompression (not palliative). A curative procedure either removes or repairs the causative problem. An example would be a mastectomy (not restorative) or a hemicolectomy (not diagnostic). A palliative procedure relieves symptoms but will not cure the disease. An example is an ileostomy. A cosmetic procedure is done to improve appearance. An example is rhinoplasty (a nose job).

1. A client is receiving an infusion of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). The nurse assesses the client to be disoriented to person, place, and time. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients pupillary responses. b. Request a neurologic consultation. c. Stop the infusion and call the provider. d. Take and document a full set of vital signs.

ANS: C A change in neurologic status in a client receiving t-PA could indicate intracranial hemorrhage. The nurse should stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately. A full assessment, including pupillary responses and vital signs, occurs next. The nurse may or may not need to call a neurologist.

1. A client had a surgical procedure with spinal anesthesia. The nurse raises the head of the clients bed. The clients blood pressure changes from 122/78 mm Hg to 102/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best? a. Call the Rapid Response Team. b. Increase the IV fluid rate. c. Lower the head of the bed. d. Nothing; this is expected.

ANS: C A client who had epidural or spinal anesthesia may become hypotensive when the head of the bed is raised. If this occurs, the nurse should lower the head of the bed to its original position. The Rapid Response Team is not needed, nor is an increase in IV rate.

1. A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability

ANS: C A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less with widened QRS complexes could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse should assess for level of consciousness, light- headedness, confusion, syncope, and seizure activity. Although the other assessments should be completed, the clients level of consciousness is the priority.

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a left-sided cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a. Urinary output less than intake b. Bruising at the insertion site c. Slurred speech and confusion d. Discomfort in the left leg

ANS: C A left-sided cardiac catheterization specifically increases the risk for a cerebral vascular accident. A change in neurologic status needs to be acted on immediately. Discomfort and bruising are expected at the site. If intake decreases, a client can become dehydrated because of dye excretion. The second intervention would be to increase the clients fluid status. Neurologic changes would take priority.

1. The provider requests the nurse start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How does the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse? a. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow. b. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart. c. It increases the force of the hearts contractions. d. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.

ANS: C A positive inotrope is a medication that increases the strength of the hearts contractions. The other options are not correct.

1. A preoperative nurse is reviewing morning laboratory values on four clients waiting for surgery. Which result warrants immediate communication with the surgical team? a. Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL b. Hemoglobin: 14.8 mg/dL c. Potassium: 2.9 mEq/L Sodium:134mEq/

ANS: C A potassium of 2.9 mEq/L is critically low and can affect cardiac and respiratory status. The nurse should communicate this laboratory value immediately. The creatinine is at the high end of normal, the hemoglobin is normal, and the sodium is only slightly low (normal low being 136 mEq/L), so these values do not need to be reported immediately

1. A client in the cardiac stepdown unit reports severe, crushing chest pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer an aspirin. b. Call for an electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Maintain airway patency. d. Notify the provider.

ANS: C Airway always is the priority. The other actions are important in this situation as well, but the nurse should stay with the client and ensure the airway remains patent (especially if vomiting occurs) while another person calls the provider (or Rapid Response Team) and facilitates getting an ECG done. Aspirin will probably be administered, depending on the providers prescription and the clients current medications.

1. A client in the preoperative holding room has received sedation and now needs to urinate. What action by the nurse is best? a. Allow the client to walk to the bathroom. b. Delegate assisting the client to the nurses aide. c. Give the client a bedpan or urinal to use. d. Insert a urinary catheter now instead of waiting

ANS: C Although possibly uncomfortable or embarrassing for the client, the client should not be allowed out of bed after receiving sedation. The nurse should get the client a bedpan or urinal. The client may or may not need a urinary catheter.

1. A nurse is monitoring a client after moderate sedation. The nurse documents the clients Ramsay Sedation Scale (RSS) score at 3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients gag reflex. b. Begin providing discharge instructions. c. Document findings and continue to monitor. d. Increase oxygen and notify the provider.

ANS: C An RSS score of 3 means the client is able to respond quickly, but only to commands. The client has not had enough time to fully arouse. The nurse should document the findings and continue to monitor per agency policy. If the client had an oral endoscopy or was intubated, checking the gag reflex would be appropriate prior to permitting eating or drinking. The client is not yet awake enough for teaching. There is no need to increase oxygen and notify the provider.

1. After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, Why is this important? How should the nurse respond? a. Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out your internal vascular sutures. b. Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure and dizziness. c. Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes. d. While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain, increasing the risk for strokewhen you stand up.

ANS: C Because the new heart is denervated, the baroreceptor and other mechanisms that compensate for blood pressure drops caused by position changes do not function. This allows orthostatic hypotension to persist in the postoperative period. The other options are false statements and do not correctly address the clients question.

1. A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis

ANS: C Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia, hypotension, dyspnea, and chest pain. Adenosine has no conclusive impact on intraocular pressure.

1. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning. How should the nurse respond? a. Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it. b. The provider has prescribed an antacid for you to take every morning. c. What do you understand about what happened to you? d. When did you start experiencing this indigestion?

ANS: C Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse should ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her. The other responses do not address the clients misconception about recent pain and the cause of that pain.

1. A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What interventions should the nurse implement to address this clients concerns? a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula. b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest. c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. d. Ask unlicensed assistive personnel to help bathe the client.

ANS: C Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse should schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue. The other interventions will not assist the client with self-care activities.

1. The nurse asks a client who has experienced ventricular dysrhythmias about substance abuse. The client asks, Why do you want to know if I use cocaine? How should the nurse respond? a. Substance abuse puts clients at risk for many health issues. b. The hospital requires that I ask you about cocaine use. c. Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias. d. We can provide services for cessation of substance abuse.

ANS: C Clients who use cocaine or illicit inhalants are particularly at risk for potentially fatal dysrhythmias. The other responses do not adequately address the clients question

1. A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left- sided heart failure? a. I have been drinking more water than usual. b. I am awakened by the need to urinate at night. c. I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath. d. I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions.

ANS: C Clients with left-sided heart failure report weakness or fatigue while performing normal activities of daily living, as well as difficulty breathing, or catching their breath. This occurs as fluid moves into the alveoli. Nocturia is often seen with right-sided heart failure. Thirst and blurred vision are not related to heart failure.

1. A client has an intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring line. The nurse notes bright red blood on the clients sheets. What action should the nurse perform first? a. Assess the insertion site. b. Change the clients sheets. c. Put on a pair of gloves. d. Assess blood pressure.

ANS: C For the nurses safety, he or she should put on a pair of gloves to prevent blood exposure. The other actions are appropriate as well, but first the nurse must don a pair of gloves

1. A nurse assesses an older adult client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect? a. Excruciating pain on inspiration b. Left lateral chest wall pain c. Disorientation and confusion d. Numbness and tingling of the arm

ANS: C In older adults, disorientation or confusion may be the major manifestation of myocardial infarction caused bypoor cardiac output. Pain manifestations and numbness and tingling of the arm could also be related to the myocardial infarction. However, the nurse should be more concerned about the new onset of disorientation or confusion caused by decreased perfusion

1. A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site. b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids. c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. d. Document the finding as left pedal pulse of +1/4.

ANS: C Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction. The pulse may be faint because of edema. The left pulse should be compared with the right, and pulses should be compared with previous assessments, especially before the procedure. Assessing color (pale, cyanosis) and temperature (cool, cold) will identify a decrease in circulation. Once all peripheral and vascular assessment data are acquired, the primary health care provider should be notified. Simply documenting the findings is inappropriate. The leg should be positioned below the level of the heart or dangling to increase blood flow to the distal portion of the leg. Increasing intravenous fluids will not address the clients problem.

1. A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The clients heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the chart. b. Initiate external pacing. c. Assess the clients medications. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

ANS: C Pacemaker cells in the conduction system decrease in number as a person ages, resulting in bradycardia. The nurse should check the medication reconciliation for medications that might cause such a drop in heart rate, then should inform the health care provider. Documentation is important, but it is not the priority action. The heart rate is not low enough for atropine or an external pacemaker to be needed.

1. A client had an acute myocardial infarction. What assessment finding indicates to the nurse that a significant complication has occurred? a. Blood pressure that is 20 mm Hg below baseline b. Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air c. Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin d. Urine output of 1.2 mL/kg/hr for 4 hours

ANS: C Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin may be signs of impending cardiogenic shock and should be reported immediately. A blood pressure drop of 20 mm Hg is not worrisome. An oxygen saturation of 94% is just slightly below normal. A urine output of 1.2 mL/kg/hr for 4 hours is normal.

1. A client who collapsed during dinner in a restaurant arrives in the emergency department. The client is going to surgery to repair an abdominal aortic aneurysm. What medication does the nurse prepare to administer as a priority for this client? a. Hydroxyzine (Atarax) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Metoclopramide (Reglan) d. Morphine sulfate

ANS: C Reglan increases gastric emptying, an important issue for this client who was eating just prior to the operation.The other drugs are appropriate for any surgical client

1. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM) The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory abilities. To meet The Joint Commissions Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed? a. 1530 (3:30 PM) b. 1600 (4:00 PM) c. 1630 (4:30 PM) d. 1700 (5:00 PM)

ANS: C The Joint Commissions Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Therefore, the client should have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM).

1. The circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is frayed. What action by the nurse is best? a. Call maintenance for repair. b. Check the machine before using. c. Get another piece of equipment. d. Notify the charge nurse.

ANS: C The circulating nurse is responsible for client safety. If an electrical cord is frayed, the risk of fire or sparking increases. The nurse should obtain a replacement. The nurse should also tag the original equipment for repair as per agency policy. Checking the equipment is not important as the nurse should not even attempt to use it. Calling maintenance or requesting maintenance per facility protocol is important, but first ensure client safety by having a properly working piece of equipment for the procedure about to take place. The charge nurse probably does need to know of the need for equipment repair, but ensuring client safety is the priority.

1. A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma b. A 32-year-old Asian-American man with colorectal cancer c. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who is on hormone therapy

ANS: C The incidence of coronary artery disease and hypertension is higher in American Indians than in whites or Asian Americans. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for hypertension and coronary artery disease in people o any race or ethnicity. Asthma, colorectal cancer, and hormone therapy do not increase risk for cardiovascular disease.

1. A nurse prepares a client for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client states, I am afraid I might die. How should the nurse respond? a. This is a routine surgery and the risk of death is very low. b. Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to surgery? c. Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery. d. What support systems do you have to assist you?

ANS: C The nurse should discuss the clients feelings and concerns related to the surgery. The nurse should not provide false hope or push the clients concerns off on the chaplain. The nurse should address support systems after addressing the clients current issue.

A nurse works on the postoperative floor and has four clients who are being discharged tomorrow. Which one has the greatest need for the nurse to consult other members of the health care team for post-discharge care? a. Married young adult who is the primary caregiver for children b. Middle-aged client who is post knee replacement, needs physical therapy c. Older adult who lives at home despite some memory loss d. Young client who lives alone, has family and friends nearby

ANS: C The older adult has the most potentially complex discharge needs. With memory loss, the client may not be able to follow the prescribed home regimen. The clients physical abilities may be limited by chronic illness. This client has several safety needs that should be assessed. The other clients all have evidence of a support system and no known potential for serious safety issues.

1. The postanesthesia care unit (PACU) charge nurse notes vital signs on four postoperative clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with a blood pressure of 100/50 mm Hg b. Client with a pulse of 118 beats/min c. Client with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min d. Client with a temperature of 96 F (35.6 C)

ANS: C The respiratory rate is the most critical vital sign for any client who has undergone general anesthesia or moderate sedation, or has received opioid analgesia. This respiratory rate is too low and indicates respiratory depression. The nurse should assess this client first. A blood pressure of 100/50 mm Hg is slightly low and may be within that clients baseline. A pulse of 118 beats/min is slightly fast, which could be due to several causes, including pain and anxiety. A temperature of 96 F is slightly low and the client needs to be warmed. But none of these other vital signs take priority over the respiratory rate.

1. A registered nurse (RN) is watching a nursing student change a dressing and perform care around a Penrose drain. What action by the student warrants intervention by the RN? a. Cleaning around the drain per agency protocol b. Placing a new sterile gauze under the drain c. Securing the drains safety pin to the sheets d. Using sterile technique to empty the drain

ANS: C The safety pin that prevents the drain from slipping back into the clients body should be pinned to the clients gown, not the bedding. Pinning it to the sheets will cause it to pull out when the client turns. The other actions are appropriate.

1. The circulating nurse is in the operating room and sees the surgeon don gown and gloves using appropriate sterile procedure. The surgeon then folds the hands together and places them down below the hips. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Ask the surgeon to change the sterile gown. b. Do nothing; this is acceptable sterile procedure. c. Inform the surgeon that the sterile field has been broken. d. Obtain a new pair of sterile gloves for the surgeon to put on.

ANS: C The surgical gown is considered sterile from the chest to the level of the surgical field. By placing the hands down by the hips, the surgeon has broken sterile field. The circulating nurse informs the surgeon of this breach Changing only the gloves or only the gown does not restore the sterile sections of the gown. Doing nothing is unacceptable.

1. A nurse performs an admission assessment on a 75-year-old client with multiple chronic diseases. The clients blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg and oxygen saturation is 94% on 2 liters per nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the clients rhythm on the cardiac monitor and observes the reading shown below: Which action should the nurse take first? a. Begin external temporary pacing. b. Assess peripheral pulse strength. c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

ANS: C This client is stable and therefore does not require any intervention except to determine the cause of the bradycardia. Bradycardia is often caused by medications. Clients who have multiple chronic diseases are often on multiple medications that can interact with each other. The nurse should assess the clients current medications first.

1. Ten hours after surgery, a postoperative client reports that the antiembolism stockings and sequential compression devices itch and are too hot. The client asks the nurse to remove them. What response by the nurse is best? a. Let me call the surgeon to see if you really need them. b. No, you have to use those for 24 hours after surgery. c. OK, we can remove them since you are stable now. d. To prevent blood clots you need them a few more hours.

ANS: D According to the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP), any prophylactic measures to prevent thromboembolic events during surgery are continued for 24 hours afterward. The nurse should explain this to the client. Calling the surgeon is not warranted. Simply telling the client he or she has to wear the hose and compression devices does not educate the client. The nurse should not remove the devices.

1. A client on the postoperative nursing unit has a blood pressure of 156/98 mm Hg, pulse 140 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. The client denies pain, has normal hemoglobin, hematocrit, and oxygen saturation, and shows no signs of infection. What should the nurse assess next? a. Cognitive status b. Family stress c. Nutrition status d. Psychosocial status

ANS: D After ensuring the clients physiologic status is stable, these manifestations should lead the nurse to assess the clients psychosocial status. Anxiety especially can be demonstrated with elevations in vital signs. Cognitive and nutrition status are not related. Family stress is a component of psychosocial status

1. An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A 42-year-old female who describes her pain as a dull ache with numbness in her fingers b. A 49-year-old male who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration c. A 53-year-old female who reports substernal pain that radiates to her abdomen d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across his chest

ANS: D All clients who have chest pain should be assessed more thoroughly. To determine which client should be seen first, the nurse must understand common differences in pain descriptions. Intense stabbing, vise-like substernal pain that spreads through the clients chest, arms, jaw, back, or neck is indicative of a myocardial infarction. The nurse should plan to see this client first to prevent cardiac cell death. A dull ache with numbness in the fingers is consistent with anxiety. Pain that gets worse with inspiration is usually related to a pleuropulmonaryproblem. Pain that spreads to the abdomen is often associated with an esophageal-gastric problem, especially when this pain is experienced by a male client. Female clients may experience abdominal discomfort with a myocardial event. Although clients with anxiety, pleuropulmonary, and esophageal-gastric problems should be seen, they are not a higher priority than myocardial infarction

1. A nurse is preparing a client for discharge after surgery. The client needs to change a large dressing and manage a drain at home. What instruction by the nurse is most important? a. Be sure you keep all your postoperative appointments. b. Call your surgeon if you have any questions at home. c. Eat a diet high in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamin C. d. Wash your hands before touching the drain or dressing.

ANS: D All options are appropriate for the client being discharged after surgery. However, for this client who is changing a dressing and managing a drain, infection control is the priority. The nurse should instruct the client to wash hands often, including before and after touching the dressing or drain.

1. A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to this procedure? a. Clients level of anxiety b. Ability to turn self in bed c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate d. Allergies to iodine-based agents

ANS: D Before the procedure, the nurse should ascertain whether the client has an allergy to iodine-containing preparations, such as seafood or local anesthetics. The contrast medium used during the procedure is iodine based. This allergy can cause a life-threatening reaction, so it is a high priority. Second, it is important for the nurse to assess anxiety, mobility, and baseline cardiac status.

1. A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment should the nurse expect to find? a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 mm Hg to 132/60 mm Hg b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 breaths/min to 14 breaths/min c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96% d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min

ANS: D Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1-adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or-flight)response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time. It usually does not have effects on beta2-adrenergic receptor sites. Cardiac output will drop because of decreased HR.

1. A nurse teaches a client who has a history of heart failure. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts of liquids each day. b. Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals. c. When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic. d. Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing.

ANS: D Clients with heart failure are instructed to weigh themselves daily to detect worsening heart failure early, and thus avoid complications. Other signs of worsening heart failure include increasing dyspnea, exercise intolerance, cold symptoms, and nocturia. Fluid overload increases symptoms of heart failure. The client should be taught to eat a heart-healthy diet, balance intake and output to prevent dehydration and overload, and take medications as prescribed. The most important discharge teaching is daily weights as this provides the best data related to fluid retention.

1. An older adult has been transferred to the postoperative inpatient unit after surgery. The family is concerned that the client is not waking up quickly and states She needs to get back to her old self! What response by the nurse is best? a. Everyone comes out of surgery differently. b. Lets just give her some more time, okay? c. She may have had a stroke during surgery. d. Sometimes older people take longer to wake up.

ANS: D Due to age-related changes, it may take longer for an older adult to metabolize anesthetic agents and pain medications, making it appear that they are taking too long to wake up and return to their normal baseline cognitive status. The nurse should educate the family on this possibility. While everyone does react differently, this does not give the family any objective information. Saying Lets just give her more time, okay? sounds patronizing and again does not provide information. While an intraoperative stroke is a possibility, the nurse should concentrate on the more common occurrence of older clients taking longer to fully arouse and awake.

1. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Avoid taking aspirin or aspirin-containing products. b. Increase your intake of foods that are high in potassium. c. Hold this medication if your pulse rate is below 80 beats/min. d. Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid.

ANS: D Gastrointestinal absorption of digoxin is erratic. Many medications, especially antacids, interfere with its absorption. Clients are taught to hold their digoxin for bradycardia; a heart rate of 80 beats/min is too high for this cutoff. Potassium and aspirin have no impact on digoxin absorption, nor do these statements decrease complications of digoxin therapy.

1. A client has arrived in the postoperative unit. What action by the circulating nurse takes priority? a. Assessing fluid and blood output b. Checking the surgical dressings c. Ensuring the client is warm d. Participating in hand-off report

ANS: D Hand-offs are a critical time in client care, and poor communication during this time can lead to serious errors. The postoperative nurse and circulating nurse participate in hand-off report as the priority. Assessing fluid losses and dressings can be done together as part of the report. Ensuring the client is warm is a lower priority.

1. A nurse assesses a clients electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How should the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The clients chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

ANS: D Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular tachycardia, or disconnection of leads.

1. A client undergoing hemodynamic monitoring after a myocardial infarction has a right atrial pressure of 0.5 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Level the transducer at the phlebostatic axis. b. Lay the client in the supine position. c. Prepare to administer diuretics. d. Prepare to administer a fluid bolus.

ANS: D Normal right atrial pressures are from 1 to 8 mm Hg. Lower pressures usually indicate hypovolemia, so the nurse should prepare to administer a fluid bolus. The transducer should remain leveled at the phlebostatic axis. Positioning may or may not influence readings. Diuretics would be contraindicated.

1. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis who reports substernal precordial pain that radiates to the left side of the neck. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure should the nurse implement? a. Apply an ice pack to the clients chest. b. Provide a neck rub, especially on the left side. c. Allow the client to lie in bed with the lights down. d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on.

ANS: D Pain from acute pericarditis may worsen when the client lays supine. The nurse should position the client in a comfortable position, which usually is upright and leaning slightly forward. Pain is decreased by using gravity to take pressure off the heart muscle. An ice pack and neck rub will not relieve this pain.

1. A client is in the preoperative holding area prior to an emergency coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The client is yelling at family members and tells the doctor to just get this over with when asked to sign the consent form. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the family members to wait in the waiting area. b. Inform the client that this behavior is unacceptable. c. Stay out of the room to decrease the clients stress levels. d. Tell the client that anxiety is common and that you can help.

ANS: D Preoperative fear and anxiety are common prior to cardiac surgery, especially in emergent situations. The client is exhibiting anxiety, and the nurse should reassure the client that fear is common and offer to help. The other actions will not reduce the clients anxiety.

1. A nurse assesses a clients electrocardiogram (ECG) and observes the reading shown below: How should the nurse document this clients ECG strip? a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs) d. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

ANS: D Sinus rhythm with PVCs has an underlying regular sinus rhythm with ventricular depolarization that sometimes precede atrial depolarization. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation rhythms would not have sinus beats present. Premature atrial contractions are atrial contractions initiated from another region of the atria before the sinus node initiates atrial depolarization.

A preoperative nurse is assessing a client prior to surgery. Which information would be most important for the nurse to relay to the surgical team? a. Allergy to bee and wasp stings b. History of lactose intolerance c. No previous experience with surgery d. Use of multiple herbs and supplements

ANS: D Some herbs and supplements can interact with medications, so this information needs to be reported as the priority. An allergy to bee and wasp stings should not affect the client during surgery. Lactose intolerance should also not affect the client during surgery but will need to be noted before a postoperative diet is ordered.Lack of experience with surgery may increase anxiety and may require higher teaching needs, but is not the priority over client safety

1. A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, I am having trouble sleeping at night. How should the nurse respond? a. I will consult the provider to prescribe a sleep study to determine the problem. b. You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will help. c. A continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, breathing mask will help you breathe at night. d. Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping.

ANS: D The client is experiencing orthopnea (shortness of breath while lying flat). The nurse should teach the client to elevate the head and chest with pillows or sleep in a recliner. A sleep study is not necessary to diagnose this client. Oxygen and CPAP will not help a client with orthopnea.

1. A nurse cares for a client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant. The client appears depressed and states, I know a transplant is my last chance, but I dont want to become a vegetable. How should the nurse respond? a. Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain? b. I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you. c. Do you want to come off the transplant list? d. Would you like information about advance directives?

ANS: D The client is verbalizing a real concern or fear about negative outcomes of the surgery. This anxiety itself can have a negative effect on the outcome of the surgery because of sympathetic stimulation. The best action is to allow the client to verbalize the concern and work toward a positive outcome without making the client feel as though he or she is crazy. The client needs to feel that he or she has some control over the future. The nurse personally provides care to address the clients concerns instead of pushing the clients issues off on a chaplain or psychiatrist. The nurse should not jump to conclusions and suggest taking the client off the transplant list, which is the best treatment option.

1. A circulating nurse wishes to provide emotional support to a client who was just transferred to the operating room. What action by the nurse would be best? a. Administer anxiolytics. b. Give the client warm blankets. c. Introduce the surgical staff. d. Remain with the client.

ANS: D The nurse can provide emotional support by remaining with the client until anesthesia has been provided. An extremely anxious client may need anxiolytics, but not all clients require this for emotional support. Physical comfort and introductions can also help decrease anxiety.

1. A nurse is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears the following sound. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? (Click the media button to hear the audio clip.) a. Assess for further chest pain. b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Have the client sit upright. d. Listen to the clients lung sounds.

ANS: D The sound the nurse hears is an S3 heart sound, an abnormal sound that may indicate heart failure. The nurse should next assess the clients lung sounds. Assessing for chest pain is not directly related. There is no indication that the Rapid Response Team is needed. Having the client sit up will not change the heart sound.

1. A nurse assesses a client after administering isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur). The client reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take? a. Initiate oxygen therapy. b. Hold the next dose of Imdur. c. Instruct the client to drink water. d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.

ANS: D The vasodilating effects of isosorbide mononitrate frequently cause clients to have headaches during the initial period of therapy. Clients should be told about this side effect and encouraged to take the medication with food. Some clients obtain relief with mild analgesics, such as acetaminophen. The clients headache is not related to hypoxia or dehydration; therefore, these interventions would not help. The client needs to take the medication as prescribed to prevent angina; the medication should not be held.

1. A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which priority intervention should the nurse perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 joules. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.

ANS: D To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock. A precordial thump can be delivered when no defibrillator is available. Defibrillation is done in asynchronous mode. Equipment should not be tested before a client is defibrillated because this is an emergency procedure; equipment should be checked on a routine basis. Epinephrine should be administered after defibrillation.

1. The nurse is preparing to change a clients sternal dressing. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess vital signs. b. Don a mask and gown. c. Gather needed supplies. d. Perform hand hygiene.

ANS: D To prevent a sternal wound infection, the nurse washes hands or performs hand hygiene as a priority. Vital signs do not necessarily need to be assessed beforehand. A mask and gown are not needed. The nurse should gather needed supplies, but this is not the priority.