Workshop Questions

1.) Postpartum blues occur in about _____ of new mothers a. 0-3% b. 10-15% c. 30-50% d. 50-80%

a. 50-80% b. Postpartum blues or baby blues tend to be widespread, occurring in 50%-80% of new mothers. Typically, postpartum blues begin within a few days after birth and last from several days to a couple of weeks. Postpartum blues involve moodiness, sadness, difficulty sleeping, irritability, appetite changes, concentration problems, and a sense of emotional vulnerability. In comparsion with major depressive disorder with peripartum onset, the symptoms of postpartum blues are much less severe and more short-lived. Major depressive disorder with peripartum onset, which can continue for months if untreated, occurs in about 10% to 15% of new mothers (Response 2). In addition to depressed mood and/or loss of interest or pleasure, major depressive disorder with peripartum onset commonly involves severe anxiety, irritability, insomnia, disinterest in the infant, guilt, suicidal ideation, poor concentration, as well as weepiness and sadness. Postpartum psychosis occurs in less than 1% of new mothers (Response 1)

1.) An MMPI-2 profile indicates an elevated score on scales K and L, along with a low score on F. Who is most likely to present such a profile? a. A patient applying for disability b. A father suing for full legal custody of his child c. The client of an attorney who intends to argue mitigating circumstances on the client's behalf d. A defendant who is pleading "not guilty by reason of insanity."

a. A father suing for full legal custody of his child a. The profile described in this question is consistent with someone who is trying to look as good as possible. The L scale represents a naïve attempt to look good. The K scale represents more sophisticated guardedness. The F scale represents items infrequently endorsed; a low score indicates low levels of distress and psychopathology. Taken together, this profile indicates a person who is trying to look as healthy and normal as possible. When custody is being sought, parents do, in fact, attempt to present themselves in the most favorable light. In all the other responses (1, 3, and 4) the people have a motive to exaggerate their pathology, resulting in a profile of low L and K, along with high F. Mitigating circumstances (Response 3), such as childhood abuse, are presented in the sentencing phase of a trial in order to obtain a more lenient sentence

1.) An employee believes that if she works hard, she will earn rewards. This is an example of: a. Motivation b. Valence c. Instrumentality d. Expectancy

a. Instrumentality a. Instrumentality, al element of Vroom's Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy theory (VIE), refers to the belief that hard work will results in rewards. Valence (Response 2) refers to the value that the reward has for the person, or how desirable the reward is. Expectancy (Response 4) refers to the person's belief that your work or effort will result in successful task performance

1.) The medication of choice for Bipolar I Disorder is: a. Buspar b. Prozac c. Lithium carbonate d. Haloperidol

a. Lithium carbonate a. Among those listed, the medication of choice for Bipolar I disorder is lithium. Other medications commonly used for Bipolar I disorder include the anti-convulsants Tegretol (carbamezapine) and Depakene (valproic acid). Buspar (Response 1) is use in the treatment of anxiety. Prozac (Response 2) in the treatment of depression, and Haloperidol (Response 4) is used to treat Schizophrenia and tic disorders

1.) Which one of the following statements about overlearning is incorrect? a. Overlearning is useful for tasks that are carried out on a day-to-day basis b. Overlearning is useful for tasks that are performed under emergency conditions c. Overlearning involves training on the most significant aspects of the task d. Overlearning involves training past the point of mastery

a. Overlearning is useful for tasks that are carried out on a day-to-day basis a. Overlearning is a strategy that is used to enhance learning and to increase the likelihood of transfer of learning from the training situation to the job situation. The goal of overlearning is to develop very thorough knowledge of a task. It is particularly useful for tasks that are infrequently performed, as well as for those which are performed under conditions of stress

1.) KR-20 is best described as: a. A form of split half reliability b. The average of all possible split halves c. A formula to correct for splitting the test in half d. Measuring the same subjects on similar tests at different points in time

a. The average of all possible split halves a. Kuder-Richardson 20 (KR-20) is very similar to coefficient alpha, and is one subtype of internal consistency reliability. It differs from split-half reliability (Response 1), in that it is much more complex and is calculated by taking the mean of all possible split halves. The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to correct for splitting a test in half (Response 3). Measuring the same subjects on similar tests at different points in time (Response 4) describes alternate-form (parallel-form) reliability

1.) Synethesia refers to: a. Tingling and pricking sensations b. Weakness on one side of the body c. Involuntary cross-modal association d. Unusual sensitivity

Involuntary cross-modal association a. Synesthesia occurs when one type of sensory stimulation elicits sensation in another sense. Examples include seeing music or smelling colors. It comes from the Greek roots syn (together) and aithesis (perception). Interestingly, synesthesia runs in families and occurs in people who are neurologically normal. Famous examples includes the novelist Vladimir Nabokov (who complained to his mother that his alphabet blocks were the wrong colors) and the artist David Hockney. Paresthesia refers to sensations of tingling or pricking (Response 1). Weakness on one side of the body is termed hemiparesis (Response 2). Hyperesthesia refers to pathological sensitivity of the skin (Response 4)

1.) The DSM-5 includes several diagnostic criteria for each diagnosis. In order to quality for each diagnosis, a minimum number of the diagnostic criteria needs to be met, e.g., six out of nine. The basis of this system is: a. Polythetic b. Nomothetic c. Multiaxial d. Additive

Polythetic a. The DSM-5 uses a polythetic system for making diagnoses (Response 1, correct answer). Polythetic is defined as sharing a number of characteristics (poly = many) which occur commonly in members of a group, but none of which is essential for membership in that group. The DSM-5 acknowledges that all individuals who have the same diagnosis are not identical in their presentation; for example, while two persons diagnosed with schizophrenia may share a number of characteristics, they do not exhibit identical behaviors. Therefore, the DSM-5 includes criteria that describe multiple aspects of the diagnosis, and the person being diagnosed must meet some, but not all of the criteria (e.g., for borderline personality disorder, the person must meet five out of the nine criteria). In a nomothetic approach (Response 2), all individuals are considered to be the same in terms of some criterion. The nomothetic approach is frequently contrasted with the idiographic approach, which focuses on individuals and individual differences. While the DSM-IV used a multiaxial system for diagnosis (Response 3), the DSM-5 moved to a nonaxial documentation of diagnosis. Additive (Response 4) refers to a type of task in which the contributions of each individual member are added together to make a final product. It is not involved in making DSM-5 diagnoses.

1.) In an experiment on operant conditioning, two rats are placed in separate sections of a cage, each with a lever. Both rats are rewarded on a fixed interval schedule; for Rat A it's every minute and for Rate B it's every four minutes. What is the proportion of rat B's lever-presses? a. 0.20 b. .25 c. .75 d. .80

a. 0.20 a. The hardest part of this question is deciphering what's being asked. Both rats are pressing levers. Because both rats are on fixed interval schedules, both will tend to press the lever only toward the end of the interval. So Rat A would be hitting the lever about every minute and Rat B would be hitting the lever about every four minutes. To simplify, in four minutes, there will be a total of five lever presses, four by Rat A, and one by Rat B. The ratio of level presses for Rat A is four out of every five (4:5), or .80 (Response 4), and for Rat B it's one out of every five (1:5) or .20 (Response 10

1.) The lifetime prevalence rate for Bipolar I disorder is approximately: a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 5% d. 10%

a. 1% a. Bipolar I disorder has a lifetime prevalence rate of about 1%. Major depressive disorder has a lifetime prevalence rate that varies for men from 5 to 12% and for women from 12 to 25%

1.) A test is given to a group of students. The student with the highest score obtained a score of 92 on the test. If the test's standard error of measurement is 4, and its mean is 86, what are the chances that her true score is between 88 and 96? a. 3 out of 4 b. 2 out of 3 c. 1 out of 2 d. 4 out of 5

a. 2 out of 3 a. In order to come up with the right answer, you need to know that this question deals with the standard error of measurement and how it can be used to determine the confidence band for true scores. Here, the standard error of measurement for the test is 4. At one standard error, there is a 68% likelihood that this person's obtained score is 92 + 4, or ranges from 88 to 96. 68% is roughly equivalent to odds of 2 out of 3. Note that the mean of 86 is extraneous information for this question

1.) Two predictor tests are developed. The first has a validity coefficient of .3, and the second a validity coefficient of .6. The amount of shared variability with the criterion is how many times greater in the second test as compared with the first? a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 3.0 d. 4.0

a. 4.0 b. To calculate the amount of shared or explained variability with a validity coefficient (or any Pearson r correlation), you must square the correlation coefficient. The first validity coefficient is .3, and .32 =.09. The second validity coefficient is .6, and .62 = .36. This question is asking how many times greater is .36 than .09, which is 4.0 times greater

1.) The licensing exam was administered to 400 examinees in California. The mean was 140, the standard deviation was 10, and the standard error was 5. You scored 145. In terms of reporting your true score you would say you are: a. 68% confident that your true score is between 135 and 145 b. 68% confident that your true score is between 130 and 150 c. 95% confident that your true score is between 135 and 155 d. 95% confident that your true score is between 130 and 150

a. 95% confident that your true score is between 135 and 155 a. This question is asking about reporting a test score in terms of a confidence band. To respond to this question, you should first draw a normal curve and mark the z-scores (-3 to +3). Keep in mind that you only need two things to calculate confidence bands: the person's obtained score (X) and the standard error of measurement. All other information is extraneous. Plot the person's score in the middle, at a z-score of 0 (in this case 145), and at each z-score add or subtract the standard error of the measurement (in this case 5 points). What you will find is that Response 3 is correct, that you are 95% confident that your true score is between 135 and 155. It would be equally correct to say that you are 68% confident that your true score is between 140 and 150, or 99% confident that your true score is between 130 and 160

1.) What is the optimal treatment for tobacco use disorder? a. A single strategy (i.e., counseling or pharmacotherapy) because it enhances compliance b. A combination of counseling and pharmacotherapy c. Pharmacotherapy alone for first-time quitters, and pharmacotherapy and behavioral intervention for those that have previously attempted to quit d. An individually- tailored program based on the smoker's history

a. A combination of counseling and pharmacotherapy a. In 2000, the U.S. Surgeon General disseminated guidelines on treating tobacco use disorder. These guidelines state that all smokers should be offered both pharmacotherapy and behavioral interventions, and that the combination of both is optimal. Behavioral interventions that have been found effective include practical counseling (problem-solving/social skills training), social support within the treatment, and help securing social support outside of the treatment. Treatment intensity is positively correlated with successful outcome, meaning that the more minutes of contact made with patients, the better the treatment outcome

1.) Which of the following statements about attitude change is least correct? a. In order to produce attitude change, it can take only one person to disagree with the group b. Attitude change is more likely to occur through direct participation than through listening to a discussion c. A privately held belief is less likely to be changed than one that is publicly held d. A person who is strongly affiliated with a group is less likely to change his or her attitude toward the group even when confronted with information that conflicts with the norms of the group

a. A privately held belief is less likely to be changed than one that is publicly held a. A publicly held attitude is more resistant and less subject to change than one that is privately held. For example, if you have publicly announced that you are pro life, even if privately you change your attitude, you would be less likely to express this publicly. Even a single dissenter from group opinion can sometimes trigger attitude change in others (Response 1). Attitude change is more likely to occur if one is participating in a discussion rather than observing it or listening to a lecture (Response 2). Members who are strongly affiliated with a group are most resistant to information that counteracts the group's norms (Response 4)

1.) Which one of the following scenarios is associated with Fiedler's Contingency Theory? a. A supervisor tries to motivate her employees by helping them increase their personal payoffs b. A supervisor enables her employees to perform better by considering their abilities and willingness to accomplish specific tasks c. Effectiveness of leadership is contingent upon the situation d. A relationship-oriented leader is most effective in moderately favorable situations

a. A relationship-oriented leader is most effective in moderately favorable situations b. Fiedler's LPC theory states that high LPCs (relationship oriented leaders) do best in moderately favorable situations, while low LPCs (task oriented leaders) do best in either highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations. Response 1 describes House's path-goal theory. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model suggests that for optimum outcomes, leadership style (e.g., telling, selling, participating, or delegating) should correspond to employees' degree of readiness to perform (Response 2). Response 3 is a general statement reflecting the underlying premise of all situational leadership theories.

1.) A manager that adhered to Theory Y would tend to: a. Allow her employees to take part in decision-making b. Set firm rules about tardiness, absenteeism, and loafing c. Believe that workers are primarily motivated by pay d. Follow the premises of scientific management

a. Allow her employees to take part in decision-making a. While Theory X assumes that workers are lazy and must be coerced, Theory Y contents that people are industrious, creative, and seek responsibility. An adherent of Theory Y would likely allow employees to take part in decision-making. The other responses would typify an adherent of Theory X. Note that one way to approach this question is to recognize that Responses 2, 3, and 4 all reflect a similar theme and that Response 1 does not. Even if one did not know about Theory X and Theory Y, the fact that Response 1 does not fit with the other responses would suggest it is the correct answer

1.) In the course of a routine clinical day, law enforcement arrive at your office and present a search warrant. What would be your best course of action? a. Allow them to search b. Refuse, as patient information is confidential c. Contact an attorney d. Refuse, as you have not committed any illegal or fraudulent activities

a. Allow them to search a. A search warrant has the force of law and a psychologist must comply with it (ruling out Responses 2 and 4). When a psychologist receives a subpoena, it is appropriate to consult with an attorney (Response 3), but, in general, a search warrant requires immediate acquiescence

1.) In which of the following disorders has reduced cholinergic activity been implicated? a. Parkinson's disease b. Alzheimer's disease c. Bipolar disorder d. Schizophrenia

a. Alzheimer's disease a. Out of the disorders listed, Alzheimer's is the only one that primarily involves acetylcholine, or cholinergic activity. The neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson's (Response 1) is dopamine, with reduced amounts of dopamine present in the substantia nigra. Low levels of serotonin and high levels of norepinephrine are believed to be involved in bipolar disorder (Response 3). Schizophrenia (Response 4) does not involve cholinergic activity; rather, an excess of dopamine is implicated in this disorder

1.) A man is brought to the emergency room by the police after a fight at a local tavern. He has dilated pupils, seems agitated, and reports feeling nauseated. These symptoms are most likely the result of: a. Alcohol intoxication b. Cocaine withdrawal c. Amphetamine intoxication d. Caffeine intoxication

a. Amphetamine intoxication a. Stimulant intoxication (e.g., amphetamine/cocaine intoxication) is characterized by euphoria or affective blunting, interpersonal sensitivity, hypervigilance, anxiety or anger, and impaired judgment, as well as two or more of the following: psychomotor agitation or retardation, tachycardia (rapid heart rate) or bradycardia (slowed heart rate), changes in blood pressure, nausea or vomiting, muscular weakness or chest pain, pupillary dilation, perspiration or chills, respiratory problems, weight loos, seizures or coma (Response 3, correct answer). Alcohol intoxication (or sedative, hypnotic or anxiolytic intoxication) may result in aggressive behavior and impaired judgment, however, DSM-5 criteria do not include pupillary dilation and nausea, but rather slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait, nystagmus, impaired memory and concentration, as well as possible stupor or coma (ruling out Response 1). Stimulant withdrawal (e.g., cocaine withdrawal/amphetamine withdrawal is characterized by dysphoria as well as two or more of the following: fatigue, unpleasant dreams, increased appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and insomnia or hypersomnia (ruling out Response 2). Caffeine intoxication is characterized by five or more of the following: restlessness, nervousness, insomnia, flushed face, diuresis (excessive urination), gastrointestinal disturbance, muscle twitching, rambling speech, agitation, periods of inexhaustibility, and tachycardia 9ruling out Response 4)

1.) A 13-year-old girl is given 10 days of detention by the school principal for chronic tardiness and poor conduct. She and her parents meet with the principal and the principal finally agrees to impose only 3 days of detention if the girl is no longer tardy and shows immediate improvement in conduct. This scenario most closely resembles: a. An avoidance paradigm b. An escape paradigm c. Overcorrection d. Response cost

a. An escape paradigm a. This scenario most closely resembles an escape paradigm. In an escape paradigm, an aversive stimulus occurs which is inevitable, and the person can terminate the aversive stimulus by emitting the desired behavior. In this situation, the girl is put on detention (aversive stimulus) and she can get the detention to stop by improving her conduct and attendance. In an avoidance paradigm (Response 1), the aversive stimulus can be avoided if the person emits the desirable behavior in time. Also, there is a signal that warns the person that the aversive stimulus is about to happen. This would have been an avoidance paradigm if the principal had warned the girl that she could totally avoid having detention if she improved her conduct and attendance. However, in this situation, detention is already in place, and the girl can stop it by engaging in the desirable behavior. Overcorrection (Response 3) is a type of punishment that involves restitution or reparation, as well as physical guidance, and is used to reduce inappropriate behaviors. Restitution refers to having the person make up for his or her inappropriate behavior. In this situation, the girl is not told to make up for her inappropriate behaviors, but to change her behaviors so that she will no longer have to be in detention. Response cost (Response 4) is a type of negative punishment in which something desirable is removed after a target behavior. In this situation, detention may be viewed as response cost, however, the fact that the girl was assigned detention is not the focus of the question; rather, the question specifically is focusing on the way in which detention can be stopped

1.) Which of the following statements about apraxia is correct? a. Apraxia is caused by damage to the cerebellum and involves poor balance and coordination b. Apraxia is caused by damage to the left hemisphere, and thus does not occur in persons who are right hemisphere dominant c. Apraxia is caused by damage to the left hemisphere and involves the inability to write d. Apraxia is caused by damage to the parietal lobes and involves the inability to carry out motor commands

a. Apraxia is caused by damage to the parietal lobes and involves the inability to carry out motor commands b. Apraxia is caused by damage to the parietal lobes and involves the inability to carry out motor commands. For example, if a person with apraxia is told to touch her hand to her cheek, she will not be able to do so on command. Response 1 describes ataxia, caused by damage to the cerebellum. Response 2 should be eliminated because it is not the case that specific brain impairments occur only in right or left hemisphere dominant individuals. The inability to write is termed agraphia (Response 3), and is thought to result from left hemisphere damage to any of a number of regions (e.g., frontal, temporal, parietal)

1.) A child looks up in the sky, sees a bird, and then says "plane." This behavior represents: a. Assimilation b. Accommodation c. Equilibration d. Object permanence

a. Assimilation a. Piaget coined the term adaptation, which is the process by which a person adjusts to the environment using two complementary processes, assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation involves incorporating a new experience into an already established mental structure, while accommodation (Response 2) involves modifying or expanding a cognitive structure or schema to take in new information. In this situation, when the child calls a bird a plane, she is assimilating the bird into an already existing schema for things that fly (plane). Equilibration (Response 3) refers to the striving toward balance between the person and the outside environment, as well as among the person's schemata. Object permanence (Response 4) is typically achieved by the child's second birthday, refers to the child's ability to understand that objects continue to exist independent of the child's involvement with them

1.) by the presentation of a large dog. When a small puppy is presented alone, the child interacts with it in a friendly, relaxed manner. This best describes: a. Habituation b. Backward conditioning c. Stimulus discrimination d. Pseudoconditioning

a. Backward conditioning a. This paradigm describes backward conditioning, in which a US (loud noise) is presented before a CS or neutral stimulus (large dog). While the US elicits fear, the child does not learn to become afraid of dogs because of the order of presentation. The classical conditioning paradigm would involve presenting the CS (dog) before the US (loud noise). Habituation (Response 1) to the loud noise, described as getting used to the US after repeated presentation, may be occurring, but this is not what is described. Had the child been classically conditioned to be afraid of the large dog (which did not occur), and then subsequently felt comfortable interacting with a small puppy, this would describe stimulus discrimination (Response 3). Pseudoconditioning (Response 4) involves a response being elicited to a neutral stimulus that has not been paired with a US

1.) As the head of personnel, you are in charge of hiring employees. Which of the following types of information would be most predictive of turnover? a. Work samples b. Aptitude test scores c. Biodata d. Likeability ratings

a. Biodata a. Of the items listed, biodata would be most predictive of turnover. Biodata, or biographical information, would include such data as employment and educational history, and would help the head of personnel learn how long the employee has worked at each of his or her prior jobs, and how often he or she has changed jobs. Work samples (Response 1) and aptitude tests (Response 2) would be useful for predicting success on the job, but not for predicting turnover (recall that the research has not shown a relationship between performance and turnover). Likeability ratings (Response 4) are used to rate employees on how likeable they are. These ratings would not provide direct information about the likelihood of someone changing jobs

1.) Data on two variables are collected. The data on the first variable are dichotomous, and the data on the other variable are continuous. To analyze the relationship between the two, the statistic of choice is: a. Eta b. Phi c. Pearson r d. Biserial

a. Biserial b. The question is asking for a bivariate test of relationship (or correlation), and all the choices listed are from this category. In order to respond to this question you need knowledge of which correlational tests are appropriate for what type of data. Eta (Response 1) is used when both variables are interval/ratio or continuous, and the relationship is curvilinear (e.g., the relationship between performance and arousal). Phi (Response 2) is used when both variables being correlated are true dichotomies (e.g., the relationship between sex and eye color). Pearson r (Response 3) is the correlation coefficient when both variables are continuous. As in this example, biserial coefficient is appropriate when one variable is an artificial dichotomy (e.g., depressed/not depressed) and the other variable is continuous (e.g., IQ). Incidentally, the point biserial coefficient is appropriate when one variable is a true dichotomy (e.g., male/female) and the other variable is continuous (e.g., IQ). Note that in this case the type of dichotomy is not specified and the biserial is the only possible answer among those given

1.) Which of the following would have the highest criterion-related validity with performance across a broad range of job levels? a. Interest Test b. Cognitive abilities tests c. Assessment centers d. Personality tests

a. Cognitive abilities tests a. Cognitive ability tests have been found to have quite good criterion-related validity with performance across a variety of jobs. In other words, out of the choices given, cognitive ability tests seem to be the best predictors of performance or success on the job. Interest tests (Response 1) are not good predictors of success on the job, though they correlate with job satisfaction. Assessment centers (Response 3) place new job applicants and candidates for promotion in a simulated job situation so that their behaviors under stress can be observed/evaluated. Assessment centers tend to have criterion-related validity coefficients that are as good as cognitive ability tests, however, assessment centers are limited to positions in upper level management. Personality tests (Response 4) are not good predictors of performance

1.) A Chi Square would be acceptable in all of the following scenarios except: a. Looking for differences among persons from three different religious groups in their attitudes toward abortion (strongly opposed, opposed, neutral, in favor, strongly in favor) b. Comparing the percentage of men and women who were previously married in a sample of 200 psychologists c. Comparing the frequency of homosexual versus heterosexual males who report condom use prior to and following an educational video on HIV d. Contrasting the proportion of medical school applicants of different ethnic backgrounds who are accepted to a medical school within their top three choices

a. Comparing the frequency of homosexual versus heterosexual males who report condom use prior to and following an educational video on HIV a. A Chi Square is a test of difference used when the dependent variable is nominal data (i.e., categorical). In this question, all of the responses have dependent variables expressed as nominal data, except for Response 1, in which the data collected are ordinal. Ordinal data can be treated as nominal, since they are simply ordered categories, and a Chi Square would be acceptable. One of the most significant requirements of the Chi Square is that all of the observations (i.e., all of groups) be independent. In other words, each subject can't be measured more than once. In Response 3, the men are being sampled once before watching the video and again after watching the video. A Chi Square can't be used in this scenario

1.) Incremental validity is associated with a test's: a. Content validity b. Construct validity c. Concurrent validity d. Convergent validity

a. Concurrent validity a. Incremental validity is associated with criterion-related validity. It is defined as the amount of improvement in success rate that results from using a predictor test. For example, when a predictor test is used for the purpose of employee selection, incremental validity tells us how much improvement there is in selecting employees with this test, as compared with using a traditional method of employee selection (such as interviews). Since performance on the predictor test is correlated with employee success (the criterion), and is used to predict job success, incremental validity is associated with criterion-related validity. Concurrent validity (Response 3) is one type of criterion-related validity. Predictive validity is the other type of criterion-related validity. Content validity (Response 1) addresses how adequately a test samples a particular content area such as statistics, test construction, etc. Content validity is determined through a panel of experts. Construct validity (Response 2) looks at how adequately a new test measures a construct or trait. Convergent validity (Response 4) is used for determining construct validity, and tells us the extent to which a test correlates with other tests that measure the same construct

1.) A teacher that works in a Montessori school seeks consultation because he is having problems managing his classroom that consists of children who are often disruptive. This illustrates: a. Client-centered case consultation b. Consultee-centered case consultation c. Consultee-centered administrative consultation d. Program-centered administrative consultation

a. Consultee-centered case consultation a. This is an example of a consultee-centered case consultation, in which the consultant helps the consultee (the teacher) with difficulties she or he is having with a particular group of clients (the students). Note that in this type of consultation, the focus is on the consultee's skills or difficulties. In client-centered case consultation (Response 1) the consultant makes an assessment of an individual client's problems and suggests ways for handling the case (e.g., if there were one disruptive child in the group). In consultee-centered administrative consultation (Response 3), the consultant focuses on the consultee's difficulties that limit effectiveness in instituting program change, such as lack of knowledge about the program's goals or interventions. For example, a new program is being implemented in the Montessori school, and a teacher does not understand the techniques or the rationale for the new program, or is resistant to the change. Program- centered administrative consultation (Response 4) focuses on programmatic, administrative issues (e.g., if the Montessori school was experiencing a decline in enrollment).

1.) According to Herzberg, improvements in which of the following are likely to increase satisfaction? a. Peer relationships b. Content c. Supervision d. Pay

a. Content a. Herzberg's two-factor theory proposes that there are different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction. Higher level needs, also called motivators or satisfiers, increase satisfaction when they are met. These needs are related to job content, and include needs for achievement, responsibility, and opportunity. Lower level needs, which are related to job context result in dissatisfaction when they are inadequate, but do not produce satisfaction. Peer relationships (Response 1), supervision (Response 3), and pay (Response 4) are examples of lower level needs

1.) According to Holland, a person who enjoys filing, typing, data entry and photocopying is most likely to be ________, and least likely to have interests similar to someone who is _______. a. Conventional, artistic b. Realistic, artistic c. Realistic, social d. Conventional, social

a. Conventional, artistic a. This is one of those questions that is either impossible, or quite easy to answer if you know the sequence of Holland's occupational themes. Holland's personality job fit theory proposes that a good fit between personality type and occupation leads to job satisfaction. He describes six predominant occupational themes, organized in the shape of a hexagon, forming the mnemonic RIASEC. Adjacent themes are most similar, while those directly across are most dissimilar. The person described here best fits the theme of conventional. A person who is conventional prefers rule regulated, orderly, unambiguous activities, such as the work of an accountant, bank teller, or file clerk. The theme that is directly opposite the theme of conventional is artistic. The artistic type prefers ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression such as the work of a painter, musician, or writer. The theme adjacent to conventional is realistic (Responses 2 and 3). The realistic type prefers physical activities that require skill, strength and coordination, such as a mechanic, drill press operator, or farmer. The theme directly opposite realistic is social (Responses 3 and 4). The social type prefers activities that involve helping and developing others, such as a social worker, teacher, and clinical psychologist

1.) A psychologist is consulted by a medical facility regarding how best to improve compliance with hand-washing policies. The psychologist's primary recommendation should be for the facility to: a. Design a program that rewards hand-washing b. Provide a psychoeducational program regarding the proper methods and benefits of hand-washing c. Have posters distributed demonstrating proper methods and benefits of hand-washing d. Survey the staff on their attitudes toward hand-washing

a. Design a program that rewards hand-washing a. Safety incentive programs are the most effective method to reduce accidents and increase overall occupational safety. Responses 2, 3, and 4 could all be useful components of an intervention, but rewarding safe behavior would be the primary step

1.) A family comes to see you for the first session. It quickly becomes clear that there is significant marital tension. The couple sits apart, with the daughter in between. When you ask them why they have come to see you, they spend the entire session talking about their daughter's academic problems and oppositional behavior at home. This is an illustration of: a. Disengagement b. A coalition c. Triangulation d. Detouring

a. Detouring b. This is an example of detouring, in which the parents express their problems through one child, for example, by blaming the child. The parents view the child as the identified patient, and thereby maintain a false sense of harmony in their marriage. Disengagement (Response 1) refers to a situation in which the boundaries between family members are too rigid, and the members do not have sufficient contact with one another. While this couple may be disengaged, this is not the best response here. In a coalition (Response 2), one person unites with another against a third person. For example, in a cross-generational coalition, the mother and the daughter might criticize the father. In triangulation (Response 3), the child is caught in the middle of the parents' conflict, with each parent demanding that the child side with him or her. Whenever the child sides with one parent he or she is viewed as attacking the other. According to Minuchin, detouring, stable conditions, and triangulation are all forms of rigid triads that develop because of chronic boundary disturbances in the family

1.) The licensing exam has a mean of 140 and a standard deviation of 20. Tom receives a score of 170. Dick scores at the 75th percentile, and Harry obtains a T-score of 60. Rank Tom, Dick, and Harry's scores from lowest to highest a. Dick, Harry, Tom b. Tom, Dick, Harry c. Dick, Tom, Harry d. Tom, Harry Dick

a. Dick, Harry, Tom a. The easiest way to figure out the answer to this question is to draw a bell shaped curve, and calculate each person's z-score. Tom's score of 170 is one-and-a-half standard deviations above the mean. Harry's T Score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean (recall that T scores have a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10). Dick's score is less than one standard deviation above the mean, since the 84th percentile corresponds to one standard deviation above the mean and Dick's score is at the 75th percentile. Therefore, Dick has the lowest score (less than one standard deviation above the mean), Harry has the next highest score (one standard deviation above the mean), and Tom has the highest score of all three (one-and-a-half standard deviations above the mean).

1.) After dating a woman for a month, you learn that her brother is your patient. What would be your most ethical course of action? a. Discuss the situation with your patient b. Discuss the situation with your girlfriend c. Continue treating the patient, as long as you can establish that your objectivity is not impaired and that there is no risk of exploitation to your patient d. Discontinue the relationship with your patient's sister

a. Discontinue the relationship with your patient's sister a. You can think of this as the "Prince of Tides" question. According to the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), standard 10.06, psychologists may not have sexual relations with persons who are near to clients, including close relatives and significant others. In addition, psychologists may not terminate therapy with a client in order to engage in such a relationship. Thus, Response 4 is clearly the correct response in this situation. You could not discuss the situation with your girlfriend (Response 2), because to do so would be a breach of confidentiality. The language of Response 3 applies to the issue of multiple relationships. The Ethics Code explicitly addresses sexual relations with relatives of patients; thus, the issue of multiple relationships is secondary here. Discussing the situation with your patient (Response 1), although necessary, does not address your fundamental ethical obligation

1.) A teenage use profanity around his friends but not his parents. His behavior is an example of: a. Stimulus generalization b. Response generalization c. Shaping d. Discriminative learning

a. Discriminative learning a. In discriminative learning, an individual learns that emitting a certain behavior in the presence of a particular stimulus results in reinforcement while emitting that same behavior in the presence of a different stimulus does not result in reinforcement. Here, the teenage learns that swearing receives reinforcement when performed in the presence of his peers but not in the presence of his parents. Stimulus generalization (Response 1) occurs when an individual emits the same behavior in the presence of a similar, but slightly different stimulus. An example of stimulus generalization would be the teenager also using profanity around young adults, a stimulus similar but not identical to teenage friends. Response generalization (Response 2) occurs when similar, but not identical responses are emitted in the presence of the same stimulus. An example of response generalization would be if the teenager uses slang in addition to profanity in the presence of his friends. Shaping by successive approximations (Response 3) is a deliberate attempt to induce behavior change. In shaping, the subject is reinforced as he or she emits behaviors that increasingly resemble the ultimate target behavior.

1.) Object-relations family therapy involves: a. Circular questioning and hypothesis formation b. Examining transferences and projections between the family members c. Using family sculpting to better understand family relationships d. Looking at the significance of the presenting symptoms as an attempt at communication

a. Examining transferences and projections between the family members a. Object relationships family therapy examines the transferences and projections between couples or family members. According to this theory, family members unconsciously project unwanted elements of themselves onto other members of the family, and then find themselves dissatisfied with that person. The aim of therapy is to help the family members become aware of their projections, and to more directly address the unwanted elements within each person. Response 1 describes systemic family therapy, or the Milan model. Circular questioning is a method for gathering information, as well as for introducing information into the family system. Specifically, each family member is asked about her or his views regarding the presenting problems, which helps to shed light on the circular or interactional nature of the relationships in the family (how the problem involves all the members in the system). Family sculpting (Response 3) involves having all family members assume particular body positions, in order to help them develop a better understanding of the patterns of their interactions. For example, in a family with a distant father and an overprotective mother, the father would be placed further from the rest of the family, facing away from them, and the mother would be placed extremely close to the children. The technique of family sculpting is used most commonly by communications family therapists. Response 4 describes a component of strategic family therapy.

1.) A treatment of choice for OCD involves: a. Systematic desensitization b. Exposure with response prevention c. Aversive counterconditioning d. Supportive psychotherapy

a. Exposure with response prevention a. An evidence-based treatment for OCD with strong research support is exposure with response prevention (Response 2). Cognitive therapy also has strong research support for OCD. Systematic desensitization (Response 1) involves exposing individuals to fear-evoking images and thoughts while pairing the exposure with relaxation. While systematic desensitization is still used in the treatment of specific phobias, it is not recommended as the first line of t treatment when a client is willing to try in vivo exposure. Aversive counterconditioning (Response 3) although somewhat controversial, may be used to treat maladaptive behaviors such as excessive drinking or smoking. Antabuse is an example of aversion therapy. Supportive psychotherapy (Response 4) may be useful as an adjunct for patients with chronic mental illness (e.g., Schizophrenia) or for patients experiencing life transitions (e.g., a divorce, major medical illness, death of a family member, etc.)

1.) Factor analysis may be performed using oblique or orthogonal rotations. The main advantage of an oblique rotation is that: a. It is more easily interpreted b. It permits the computation of communalities c. It has greater power d. Factors are usually correlated in the real world

a. Factors are usually correlated in the real world b. Factor analysis is a test of structure or fit. It seeks to reduce complex correlations to an underlying set of explanatory factors. It can be performed using an orthogonal or oblique rotation. In an orthogonal rotation, the factors are considered not to be correlated. This lack of correlation makes the analysis easier to interpret (Response 1). It also enables the computation of communalities (Response 2). The communality of a test refers to how much variance in the test has been explained by all the factors. In an oblique analysis, the factors are considered to be correlated. This correlation makes the analysis harder to interpret but more accurately reflects the real world (Response 4). Neither the orthogonal nor the oblique rotation has more power (Response 3)

1.) Irving Yalom determined several factors that are potentially curative in group psychotherapy. These factors include: a. Family reenactment, catharsis, group cohesiveness b. Family reenactment, interpersonal learning, leader style c. Group cohesiveness, interpersonal learning, confrontation d. Catharsis, universality, interpretation

a. Family reenactment, catharsis, group cohesiveness a. According to Irving Yalom, twelve factors contribute to improvement for group therapy participants: insight, instillation of hope, universality, imparting information, altruism, family reenactment, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, interpersonal learning, group cohesiveness, catharsis, and existential factors. He does not cite confrontation (response 3) or interpretation (Response 4) as positive contributing factors. His research found that leader style (Response 2) and the ideological basis of the leader (e.g., theoretical orientation) do not contribute to outcome

1.) On which of the following schedules would we be most likely to see target behavior that occurs at a low rate followed by pauses in the target behavior after reinforcement a. Fixed interval b. Fixed ratio c. Variable interval d. Variable ratio

a. Fixed interval a. Variable schedules tend to show behavioral patterns that are smooth and steady throughout (both before and after reinforcement), ruling out Responses 3 and 4. Fixed schedules, by contrast, involve scalloped patterns, in which there is an increase in the target behavior emitted just prior to reinforcement, followed by a lull right after reinforcement. The scalloped pattern is most dramatic in the fixed interval schedule. The fixed interval schedule also yields a rate of responding that is typically much lower than the fixed ratio schedule (Response 2)

1.) A woman remembers the exact moment when she heard about the Challenger explosion. This is referred to as: a. Semantic memory b. Episodic memory c. Flashbulb memory d. Source memory

a. Flashbulb memory a. This question is describing a flashbulb memory. Flashbulb memories involve memories of distinct, significant events that are usually (but not always) of a traumatic nature. Flashbulb memories evoke strong emotional reactions at the time of being encoded, therefore they involve vivid details and are remembered for a long period of time. Semantic memory (Response 1) refers to memory of facts and different areas of knowledge, as well as how these facts related to one another. Episodic memory (Response 2) describes the ability to remember autobiographical events such as a birthday celebration, or what you ate for breakfast. Source memory (Response 4) refers to the ability to remember the source of where information was learned

1.) According to the DSM-5, the prevalence ratio of autistic spectrum disorder is about: a. Equal in males and females b. Twice as common in males c. Four times more common in males d. Six to nine times more common in males

a. Four times more common in males a. Autism Spectrum Disorder is more common in males than in females. The DSM-5 reports it as 4 times more common in males. According to the DSM-5 ADHD is more common in males than females with a ratio of about 2:1 (Response 2). Previously (e.g., in the DSM-IV), ADHD had been reported to be 6 to 9 times more common in males than females (Response 4). Disorders that are equally common in males and females (Response 1) include schizophrenia, bipolar I disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder

1.) A person has been diagnosed with alcohol (major neurocognitive disorder), amnestic-confabulatory type. Which of the following is most accurate regarding this person's memory deficits? a. He is willing to have trouble driving a stick shift car if he has not driven one in the last few years b. He is likely to have trouble remembering the last four presidents of the united states c. He is likely to have trouble remembering what he ate for lunch d. He is likely to have trouble repeating four digits

a. He is likely to have trouble remembering what he ate for lunch a. The person described in this question is diagnosed with alcohol (major neurocognitive disorder) amnestic-confabulatory type, also known as Korsakoff's syndrome. Persons with this disorder frequently have some retrograde amnesia, or trouble remembering remote events. However, anterograde amnesia, or difficulty forming new memories, is the hallmark and more significant problem in this disorder. In addition, explicit or declarative memory is more likely to be impaired than implicit or procedural memory. This man would not have as much difficulty remembering how to drive a stick shift car (Response 1), as that would constitute procedural or implicit memory, nor would he necessarily have much trouble remembering the last four presidents (Response 2), as this would involve remote memory. However, he would have the greatest difficulty remembering what he ate for lunch, as this would require forming a new memory (Response 3). Response 4 describes immediate or short-term memory, which is typically not significantly impaired in Korsakoff's.

1.) A test of cognitive reasoning is administered to 240 third grade students, and a reliability coeffienct of .83 is obtained. If the same test were to be administered to 2nd, 3rd, and 4th grade students (80 students per grade), the new reliability coefficient would most likely be: a. In agreement with the original coefficient obtained b. Higher than the original coefficient obtained c. Lower than the original coefficient obtained d. Either higher or lower than the original coefficient, but probably not identical to it

a. Higher than the original coefficient obtained a. This question is asking what will happen to the reliability coefficient when you increase the heterogeneity of your sample, which has the effect of decreasing the restriction in the range of scores. Having heterogeneous subjects or a less restricted range, increases the reliability coefficient, and conversely homogeneous subjects or a more restricted range, increases the reliability coefficient, and conversely homogeneous subjects or a more restricted range, decreases reliability. In this case, going from 3rd graders only to 2nd, 3rd, and 4th graders will make the sample more heterogeneous and increase the reliability coefficient. Also keep in mind that while sample size affects reliability, in this scenario, sample size remained the same. The initial sample was 240 3rd graders, and the new sample was 80 each of 2nd, 3rd, and 4th graders (3 X 80 = 240)

1.) You notice that while you and a colleague both put the same amount of effort, energy, and enthusiasm into your work, your salary is significantly higher than your colleague's. According to equity theory, in this situation you would be most likely to: a. Do nothing b. Ask for a bonus c. Decrease your work effort d. Increase your work effort

a. Increase your work effort b. Equity theory looks at ratio of self inputs/self outcomes vs. other's inputs/other's outcomes. This theory proposes that inequity is a motivating state and that we adjust our performance based on things appearing fair or unfair. Since it would appear unfair when we are getting paid more for the same effort as a colleague, in this situation we would be likely to increase our work efforts, thus justifying why we are getting paid so much. Decreasing work effort (Response 3) or asking for a bonus (Response 2) would actually increase our feelings of inequity. It is quite likely that in the real world, if this state of affairs occurred we would do nothing (Response 1), however, this question was specifically asking about equity theory

1.) A child who has successfully negotiated nursery and kindergarten is most likely to be entering the stage of: a. Industry versus inferiority b. Autonomy versus shame c. Initiative versus guilt d. Trust versus mistrust

a. Industry versus inferiority a. This question is asking what stage the child is likely to be entering. A child who has negotiated nursery and kindergarten would be entering first grade. The child would have completed the stage of Initiative versus guilt (Response 3) and be entering the stage of Industry versus inferiority. Autonomy versus shame and doubt (Response 2) corresponds to approximately age two, about the time when the child is being toilet-trained. Trust versus mistrust (Response 4) corresponds to the first year of life

1.) When using deception in research: a. Inform subjects on the purpose of the study afterwards b. Get consent from subjects if they are at high risk c. It won't be possible to get consent beforehand, but do debrief them afterwards d. Consent isn't required if subjects are at minimal risk

a. Inform subjects on the purpose of the study afterwards a. When using deception in research, the deception must be explained to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the research. Keep in mind that even if deception is involved, you must obtain consent from subjects to participate before beginning any research

1.) You have been working in treatment with Mr. X. for several months when the police appear at your office and insist on seeing his treatment records. They show you a warrant for the arrest of your client. Which of the following would be your best course of action? a. Show the police the records as they have a warrant b. Tell the police that you would need the consent of your patient before you can divulge any information c. Contact the client for more information, and ask if he wants to provide consent for the release of the information d. Inform the police that any and all information regarding treatment is confidential

a. Inform the police that any and all information regarding treatment is confidential a. Treatment records are privileged information. There are only two conditions in which you may release this information: 1.) the patient has completed an authorization to release, or 2) a judge has issued a court order for the records. A warrant for arrest does not entitle the police to treatment records (ruling out Response 1). Even to say to the police that you need your patient's consent (Response 2) is to violate confidentiality by divulging the privileged information that the individual is in fact your patient. While calling the patient and asking him if he wants to consent to the release of information (Response 3) is an option, it does not directly deal with the situation in the moment

1.) Once an extinction trial begins, the operant behavior: a. Is no longer emitted by the subject b. Gradually declines in frequency c. Initially increases in frequency d. Gradually declines in frequency but increases in intensity

a. Initially increases in frequency a. This question is referring to the phenomenon of "response burst." When a behavior that has been reinforced is no longer reinforced, the behavior initially increases, then gradually declines over time. For example, pigeons have been reinforced for pecking by receiving pellets. When they no longer receive pellets, they initially increase their pecking (in the logical hope that since pecking has brought them pellets in the past, maybe it will again). Over time, as reinforcement continues to be withheld, the pecking decreases (Response 2) and eventually disappears altogether (Response 1). Note that this question asked about what happens at the beginning of the extinction trial

1.) Which of the following statements correctly summarizes Cattell's theory of intelligence? a. Intelligence consists of a factor with two subtypes, crystallized and fluid intelligence b. Intelligence consists of one general factor, or "g factor" c. Intelligence involves processes rather than factors d. There are eight distinct intelligences, including linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, interpersonal, etc.

a. Intelligence consists of a factor with two subtypes, crystallized and fluid intelligence a. Spearman initially proposed that intelligence is a single factor (Response 2). Cattell went on to propose that this single "g factor" is made up of two subtypes, called crystallized and fluid intelligence. Sternberg's triarchic theory (Response 3) focuses on process rather than product, specifically the thinking processes used to arrive at answers to problems. Sternberg has proposed three aspects of intelligence: the internal components (e.g., those we use to acquire, store, perceive, and remember), the capacity to adapt to environmental changes, and the ability to apply past experience to current novel problems. Gardner (Response 4) has identified eight distinct intelligences, which are linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic. Gardner argues that people differ in their profile of intelligence, or their relative strengths and weaknesses in various areas

1.) The shape of the distribution of percentile scores: a. Is rectangular b. Is leptokurtic c. Involves a linear transformation d. Is normal

a. Is rectangular a. The shape of the distribution of percentile scores is always flat or rectangular. When a distribution of scores is transformed to percentile ranks, regardless of the shape of the original distribution of scores, the distribution of ranks assumes a flat shape. This is because the frequency is identical at each rank. For example, if 500 people take a test and are ranked, there will be five people at each percentile rank. Response 4 is therefore ruled out. A leptokurtic distribution (Response 2) is one that appears more peaked in the middle than the normal curve; in other words, a great number of the scores fall in the middle of the distribution. When a distribution of raw scores is converted to percentile ranks, the transformation is non-linear (Response 3)

1.) Which of the following describes Beck's cognitive-behavioral approach? a. Its purpose is to develop cognitions that contribute to more adaptive functioning b. The therapist actively works to compel the client to change maladaptive thoughts c. It involves Socratic questioning and a collaborative approach d. It involves repetition of adaptive thoughts and behaviors

a. It involves Socratic questioning and a collaborative approach a. Becks' cognitive-behavioral approach is collaborative, and consists of Socratic questioning to help the person become aware of her or his automatic thoughts, as well as hypothesis testing to assist the patient to find out whether his or her cognitions are valid or unrealistic. Response 1 describes the principles underlying all cognitive behavioral approaches. Response 2 describes Ellis's approach, which is more direct, persuasive, and confrontive. Response 4 describes Meichenbaum's self-instructional training.

1.) Because surgeons must have both high intelligence and manual dexterity, a surgery residency program might require high scores on tests measuring both traits before accepting applicants. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the use of a multiple regression equation in this situation? a. It is appropriate since the predictors are related b. It is appropriate if predictors are linearly related to success c. It is not appropriate since the predictors are correlated d. It is not appropriate because the variables are not compensatory

a. It is not appropriate because the variables are not compensatory b. Multiple regression is a compensatory technique. For example, when predicting college GPA, a low score on the SAT can be "compensated" for by very high grades in high school. The EPPP uses compensatory grading: a low score in research methods can be compensated for by a high score in ethics. In contrast, in a multiple cutoff scenario, a person needs to reach a certain level on each variable being measured. In this example, no matter how brilliant a woman is, she couldn't succeed as a surgeon with poor manual dexterity (and vice-versa). These variables are not compensatory and therefore not appropriate for a multiple regression. Note that it is preferable for predictors in a multiple regression not to be related (the opposite of Response 1). It is true that when predictors are highly correlated in a multiple regression (Response 3), a significant problem is created, termed "multicollinearity." Nevertheless, related predictors are often used in multiple regressions. The main problem here, and the one that makes multiple regression completely inappropriate, is that the tests are non-compensatory. Multiple regression is only appropriate when predictors have a linear relationship with the criterion (Response 2)

1.) Which of the following best describes a negative feedback loop? a. It serves to maintain the nature of interactions within the system b. It causes a change in the hierarchy within the family c. It precipitates change in the interactions within the system d. It tends to be more detrimental to the system than a positive feedback loop

a. It serves to maintain the nature of interactions within the system a. The end result of a negative feedback loop is to minimize deviation and maintain homeostasis within the system. Responses 2 and 3 describe the function of a positive feedback loop, which causes change in the system. Response 4 is inaccurate, in that negative feedback loops are not necessarily detrimental (e.g., your body temperature and blood sugar are maintained via a negative feedback loop).

1.) Hans Eysenck published a comprehensive study about therapy outcome. This oft-cited research is most important because: a. It demonstrated the effectiveness of psychotherapy b. It was the first comprehensive meta-analysis of treatment outcome c. It spurred further research into treatment outcome d. It established a database for future research

a. It spurred further research into treatment outcome a. In 1952, Hans Eysenck published a famous meta-analysis of psychotherapy research. He came to the dismal conclusion that psychotherapy was not only not effective (ruling out Response 1), but that untreated individuals actually did better than treated ones. Roundly criticized on methodological grounds, Eysenck's work nevertheless provided that impetus for much further research into treatment outcome, research that fortunately proved that psychotherapy is effective. Eysenck's meta-analysis reviewed other published studies; he did not create a database that could be used in further research (Response 4)

1.) In order for a psychologist to be an expert witness, what qualifications must she or he possess? a. Specialized training in serving as expert witness b. Determination by the court as to his or her expert witness status c. A doctorate and some continuing education in forensic psychology d. Knowledge of the legal system and the relevant psychological domain

a. Knowledge of the legal system and the relevant psychological domain b. To quality to serve as an expert witness, a psychologist must have knowledge of the psychological domain about which she or he is to testify, as well as the legal system. The basis for determining that someone is an expert witness is recognition by the court as an expert on the matter at hand (Response 2)

1.) Neuropsychological testing would be least helpful in accomplishing which of the following? a. Identifying relative cognitive strengths and weaknesses b. Distinguishing pseudodementia from Alzheimer's c. Localizing brain lesions d. Suggesting direction for rehabilitative efforts

a. Localizing brain lesions a. Neuropsychological testing can be helpful for determining areas of cognitive strengths or weaknesses (Response 1). The pattern and severity of deficits (cognitive profiling) can be especially important for rehabilitation efforts (Response 4). Neuropsychological assessment is commonly used to help with differential diagnosis, e.g., depression versus dementia (Response 2). Neuropsychological testing typically is not used to localize a brain lesion (e.g., find out exactly where the stroke occurred or the tumor is growing). This can be done more precisely with imaging techniques (e.g., CT scans, PET scans, MRIs)

1.) According to the APA's 2010 amendments to the Ethics Code, when ethics and law conflict, psychologists should: a. Make known their commitment to the Ethics Code, and take steps to resolve the conflict consistent with the Ethics Code; this standard should not be used to justify violating human rights b. Comply with the law, after making known their commitment to the Ethics Code c. Take steps to resolve the conflict; if the conflict is not resolved, they should uphold the higher ethical standard d. Make known their commitment to the Ethics Code, and take steps to resolve the conflict; if the conflict is not resolved, they may then comply with the law

a. Make known their commitment to the Ethics Code, and take steps to resolve the conflict consistent with the Ethics Code; this standard should not be used to justify violating human rights a. In 2010, the APA made a few amendments to the ethics code, subsequent to the backlash of learning of the involvement of psychologists in the enhanced interrogation torture program of the Bush administration. The 2010 amendment states that when ethics and law conflict, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict consistent with the Ethics Code (ruling out Response 2). The code then states that under no circumstances may this standard be used to justify or defend violating human rights. In the 2010 amendment the phrase "if the conflict cannot be resolved, psychologists may then comply with the law," was deleted (ruling out Response 4). Psychologists are only required to uphold the higher ethical standard (Response 3) when there is no conflict, for example if the ethics code requires records to be maintained for a longer period of time than the law requires

1.) According to the DSM-5, a sexual dysfunction attributable to another medical condition (e.g., problems with erection) can be brought about by any of the following except: a. Diabetes b. Medication c. Multiple sclerosis d. Atherosclerosis

a. Medication a. This question is asking which of the conditions listed could not contribute to a sexual dysfunction attributable to another medical condition. Response 2 is the correct choice, because medications are not a medical condition. When sexual dysfunction is being caused by medications, the correct diagnosis is substance-induced sexual dysfunction. The other responses are all medical conditions.

1.) According to the tripartite model, anxiety and depression share which of the following? a. Low arousal b. High arousal c. Negative affect d. Anhedonia

a. Negative affect a. In 1991, Clark and Watson described a tripartite (i.e., three-part) theory of anxiety and depression in an article in the Journal of Abnormal Psychology. This theory posits three dimensions: affect, arousal, anhedonia. Of these three dimensions, anxiety and depression share negative affect, sometimes termed generalized distress. Hyperarousal (Response 2) is specific to anxiety, while most often depression results in low arousal (Response 1). Anhedonia (Response 4), the loss of pleasure, is specific to depression. Based on this theory, Clark and Watson proposed a diagnosis of "mixed anxiety-depression." This disorder was included in the appendix of DSM-IV as a criteria set to be used for further study. It has already been included in the ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Edition)

1.) Whenever you experience a headache, you take an aspirin. Your behavior is being maintained by: a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment

a. Negative reinforcement a. Negative reinforcement occurs when after a behavior is performed, an aversive stimulus is eliminated or removed. The term negative is associated with removal of a stimulus after the target behavior is performed. Reinforcement is associated with continuation of the target behavior. Here, your aspirin-taking behavior eliminates your headache, which is the aversive stimulus. You are therefore likely to keep up the behavior, or take aspirin in the future when you have a headache. Positive reinforcement (Response 1) involves applying or adding something (e.g., a reward) after a behavior occurs, in order to increase the target behavior's future occurrence (e.g., praising a child for making her bed). Positive punishment (Response 3) involves applying a stimulus (usually aversive) after a problematic behavior occurs, in an attempt to reduce the target behavior (e.g., a mother yells at her child who has made a mess). In negative punishment (Response 4), a stimulus (usually pleasant) is taken away after the problematic behavior occurs in order to decrease the frequency of that behavior (e.g., a child loses TV time after making a mess)

1.) In order to win a malpractice suit against a psychotherapist, a client must prove: a. Negligence and intent to harm b. Negligence or harm c. Negligence and harm d. None of the above, as it is for the court to decide

a. Negligence and harm a. A malpractice lawsuit can be thought of as based on the four D's: dereliction of duty directly causing damages. All four of these conditions must be met to hold a therapist liable. Dereliction means that the therapist failed to provide care that is reasonable (i.e., negligence). Duty means that the therapist had a legal relationship with the patient that gave rise to a duty (e.g., we have no duty to people we meet at a party). Dereliction of duty is also called breach of duty. Directly causing damages, as it sounds, that the negligence of the therapist was the cause of some sort of harm to the patient. Thus to prevail in a lawsuit, a patient must prove that the therapist was negligent (dereliction of duty) and that this caused harm to the patient (directly causing damages). Negligence alone (Response 2) is not enough to prove malpractice. Intent to harm (Response 1) is never required in a malpractice suit

1.) Vision is to hearing as: a. Temporal lobe is to occipital lobe b. Occipital lobe is to parietal lobe c. Parietal lobe is to occipital lobe d. Occipital lobe is to temporal lobe

a. Occipital lobe is to temporal lobe b. The lobes responsible for vision are the occipital lobes. The temporal lobes contain the primary auditory cortex. The parietal lobes process somatosensory information (e.g., touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception)

1.) On the way to class, you are attacked in the parking lot. You are most likely to get help if: a. One person witnesses the event b. Three people witness the event c. Ten people witness the event d. You are alone

a. One person witnesses the event a. In general, the fewer the number of bystanders, the more likely it is that a victim will get help. Other factors that influence the willingness of bystanders to help is whether they themselves have been victims of a violent crime and whether they have training in the first aid or other helping skills. "Bystander apathy" refers to the failure of bystanders to give assistance. The term is frequently associated with the 1964 murder of Kitty Genovese in New York City, when thirty-eight people witnessed her stabbing without ever calling the police

1.) In Colker's studies of ethnic identity he found that: a. People who hid their minority status in their teens frequently embraced it in their early 20's b. Periods of intense ethnic pride were typically followed by periods of self-denigration and denigration of one's ethnic group c. Minority group members with the highest level of mental health endorsed high levels of anger about societal oppression and racism d. Degree of identification with one's own ethnic group was not correlated with attitudes toward other ethnic groups

a. People who hid their minority status in their teens frequently embraced it in their early 20's a. Colker's studies on ethnic identity do not exist. This question is designed to enhance your ability to deal with studies, terms, or concepts that come up on the exam that you are not familiar with. This question requires that you draw from your fund of knowledge of ethnic identity models to arrive at the correct answer. It is often true that people who hide their ethnic minority status early on in their lives tend to reveal or embrace it at a later age (e.g., light-skinned African American, Jews). Response 2 if the opposite of what is true; typically, in early stages, the person experiences hatred toward his or her own ethnic group. As the person progresses in terms of ethnic identity development, a sense of ethnic pride develops. Response 3 is incorrect, since people with high levels of mental health tend to be the least angry about the majority culture and oppression, whereas those who are less healthy and are more angry about these issues. Response 4 is incorrect because is almost all models of ethnic identity, feelings toward one's own ethnic group parallel how one feels about other ethnic minority groups

1.) A man who has an alcohol use disorder states that he is aware that his drinking is a problem. He tells you that he will soon be attending a detox program followed by residential treatment for three months. He has made two prior attempts at recovery, but was unsuccessful. According to Prochaska, which of the following stages would characterize this man's state? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action

a. Preparation a. This question focuses on Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change. According to this model, people progress through a series of stages in making changes in their behavior. This model has been used in. the treatment of addictive behaviors such as smoking and drinking, eating disorders and weight management, as well as for promoting health related behaviors. The five stages of change are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. In precontemplation (Response 1), the person is in denial of any problems, and has no intention whatsoever to change his or her behavior at the present time. In contemplation (Response 2), the person becomes aware that a problem exists. While the person is contemplating, or thinking about, making changes, she or he has not taken action and has not yet made a commitment to change. In preparation (Response 3), the person is more committed to making changes. The person has created a detailed plan for change, and perceives greater benefits than barriers to change. In this question the man is aware that his drinking is a problem, and has a plan for change, although he has not yet implemented it. In action (Response 4), the person is modifying her or his behavior and experiences in order to overcome the problem. This is the stage that involves the most overt behavioral changes. In maintenance, the last stage, the person takes steps to prevent relapse and maintain the gains made during the previous stage (action)

1.) According to Herbert Simon's decision-making model, when presented with many alternatives, one: a. Pairs each alternative until one is left b. Previews the alternatives until one passes acceptability c. Chooses the best alternative on each dimension d. Chooses at random if there is no obvious best alternative

a. Previews the alternatives until one passes acceptability a. Herbert Simon originated the concept of the administrative approach (also known as the satisficing style) of decision-making, which is used when knowledge is incomplete and the problem is ambiguous. Here, one chooses the first option that is satisfactory. Simon differentiated this model from the rational-economic style of decision-making, in which all options are carefully reviewed before choosing the very best one (Response 3 approximates the rational-economic style). Responses 1 and 4 do not pertain to Herbert Simon's work

1.) Some people argue that the reason older people have more difficulty creating new memories is because they have an accumulated lifetime of experiences. This statement suggests that these types of problems involve: a. Retroactive inhibition b. Proactive inhibition c. Retrograde amnesia d. Anterograde amnesia

a. Proactive inhibition a. This scenario describes proactive interference (inhibition) in which previously learned information interferes with new learning. Retroactive inhibition (Response 1) occurs when recently learned information interferes with the recall of material learned before. Retrograde amnesia (Response 3) describes amnesia for information prior to a particular event. Anterograde amnesia (Response 4) refers to amnesia for information following an event

1.) A patient exhibits symptoms of being bloated and lack of menstruation for the past two months. Medical tests reveal that she is not pregnant. The patient nevertheless continues to believe that she is pregnant. This patient is experiencing: a. Somatic symptom disorder b. Delusional disorder, somatic type c. Illness anxiety disorder d. Pseudocyesis

a. Pseudocyesis b. According to the DSM-5, pseudocyesis is a "false belief of being pregnant that is associated with objective signs and reported symptoms of pregnancy," such as abdominal enlargement, reduced or absent menstruation, and nausea (Response 4, correct answer). It is diagnosed as an "other specified somatic symptoms and related disorder." The key distinction between a delusional disorder (Response 2) and a somatic symptom and related disorder is the presence of the physical symptoms. If this patient were a post-menopausal woman with no symptoms of pregnancy, she might receive the diagnosis of delusional disorder, somatic type. Somatic symptom disorder (Response 1) is characterized by one or mot somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life. Additionally, the individual evidences excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms. Illness anxiety disorder (Response 3) involves a preoccupation with having or developing a serious illness. Somatic symptoms are mild or not present, and there is significant anxiety about health.

1.) It has been found that some normally involuntary responses can be modified with operant conditioning. This finding has most significant implications for the treatment of: a. Kleptomania b. Tic disorders c. Sexual paraphilias d. Psychophysiological disorders

a. Psychophysiological disorders b. This question refers to the dramatic effects that biofeedback has on helping people gain control of normally involuntary functions, such as heart rate or blood pressure. Biofeedback is widely applied in treating psychophysiological disorders including hypertension, chronic pain, headaches, etc. Kleptomania and sexual paraphilias are not involuntary behaviors. While tics are thought to be partially involuntary (people with tic disorders can sometimes delay the tic, but not stop it entirely), operant conditioning is not the treatment of choice

1.) Which of the following correctly describes the role of secondary prevention? a. Reducing the prevalence of a disorder b. Reducing the incidence of a disorder c. Preventing the onset of a disorder d. Reducing the residual impact of the disorder

a. Reducing the prevalence of a disorder a. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of an illness or disorder with the goal of stopping relatively mild disorders from becoming more serious and prolonged. Prevalence refers to the rate of the disorder in the population at any given time. For example, if the prevalence rate for major depression is 15%, this means that at any given time, 15% of the population is experiencing depression. Secondary prevention would aim to reduce the existing rate of major depression, through early detection and aggressive treatment. Responses 2 and 3 describe primary prevention, which focuses on attempts to prevent the onset or occurrence of a disease or disorder. Incidence refers to the rate of new occurrences of a disorder. For example, if the incidence rate of depression was 2% during 1999, this means that 2% of the population developed depression in 1999. The goal of primary prevention would be to prevent any new cases of major depression from developing. Response 4 describes tertiary prevention, which focuses on reducing the residual effects of a disability, or minimizing further negative consequences of an established, serious disorder

1.) A well-known political figure requests to see a psychologist for individual therapy. He states that he wants to pay cash and does not want the psychologist to keep a chart on him, since he does not want anyone to know about his personal life, as it could ruin his political career. The psychologist should: a. Respect the patient's wishes and not keep a chart b. Keep some records to help her track therapeutic progress, but exclude any identifying information c. Keep a chart with the patient's name and dates of treatment, but no diagnosis or progress notes d. Refuse the patient's request

a. Refuse the patient's request b. The Ethics Code requires that psychologists appropriately document their work to facilitate future provision of services. Records should, at minimum, include diagnoses, initial findings, treatment plan, dates of services, and progress in the treatment plan. Even though the patient is a well-known figure, the psychologist would still need to keep a chart on him (Response 1). It would also be important to clearly discuss confidentiality as well as the limits of confidentiality with this person so that he is clearly informed about his rights, as well as the psychologist's ethical and legal responsibilities. Response 2 and 3 are incomplete and neither includes the minimum elements of information that psychologists are required to keep on patients

1.) A client complains that one of the office staff at your clinic "sexually harassed" her, and makes a report to the ethics committee of your local psychological association. The ethics committee writes you a letter. Your best course of action would be to: a. Provide training in sexual harassment to the entire office staff b. Investigate the allegations and take appropriate disciplinary action c. Respond promptly to the ethics committee d. Meet with the client to apologize, and take other appropriate action

a. Respond promptly to the ethics committee a. There may be many actions you would ultimately take (such as Responses 1 and 4), but the first would be to respond to the letter sent to you. It is indeed an ethical obligation of psychologists to ensure that clients are appropriately treated by all staff, and thus this issue is in the legitimate domain of an ethics committee (ruling out Response 2)

1.) A psychologist has informed his patient of his privacy policy, in compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). According to law, the psychologist must also secure a patient authorization in order to: a. Discuss treatment with a treating psychiatrist b. Share information with the patient's employer c. Obtain consultation that includes personally identifiable information d. Electronically transmit patient information to a billing service

a. Share information with the patient's employer a. Once a patient has been informed of a practitioner's privacy policy, HIPAA permits confidential information to be disclosed for purposes of treatment (Responses 1 & 3), payment (Response 4), and healthcare operations, without any further patient authorization. HIPAA requires a separate authorization every time confidential information is to be released for any other purpose. Thus, an authorization would be required to share confidential information with a patient's employer (Response 2)

1.) A graduate student has been struggling to succeed in her classes and practicum training. In addition to having been assigned some very difficult patients who are not improving, she thinks that her clinical skills are quite deficient. If this student is depressed, what is another major component of her experience according to beck? a. She believes that she will never be a good therapist b. She engages in all or nothing thinking c. She believes that she must always be effective with her patients d. She engages in negative self-talk

a. She believes that she will never be a good therapist a. This question is referring to Beck's cognitive triad of depression, which posits that depressed people have a negative view of themselves, their circumstances, and the future. This graduate school has a negative view of her skills, and also has some very difficult patients, which would give her a negative view of her circumstances. Hence, according to this triad, she is likely to have a negative view of her ability as a therapist in the future. All or nothing thinking (Response 2), expecting success at all times (Response 3) and negative self-talk (Response 4) are examples of maladaptive cognitions that are addressed by various cognitive theories

1.) Equity theory is based on which of the following? a. Social comparison b. Cognitive dissonance c. Herzberg's two-factory theory d. Expectancy theory (VIE)

a. Social comparison a. Equity theory involves comparing the ratio of one's input/outcome to those of others. This is based on social comparison theory, which states that we tend to compare ourselves to people who are most similar to us, or slightly superior to us. According to equity theory, inequity is a motivating state and people adjust their performance based on things appearing fair or unfair. While cognitive dissonance (Response 2) frequently results from a state of imbalance, cognitive dissonance specifically refers to a state of dissonance within a person because of conflicts in one's views, opinions, or behaviors. Two-factor theory is Herzberg's theory of motivation that looks at upper and lower levels needs (satisfiers and dissatisfiers). Expectancy or VIE theory (Response 4) asserts that people behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy that certain rewards will follow, and that in the workplace employees perform at a level that results in the greatest payoff. Note that this. Theory does not include a comparison of one's input and rewards to those of others

1.) A researcher is studying differences between men and women in their ability to reduce cigarette use. Number of cigarettes smoked daily is measured pre-treatment, at the end of treatment and at a six-month follow-up. To analyze the results the researcher should use a: a. T-test b. One-way ANOVA c. Factorial ANOVA d. Split-plot ANOVA

a. Split-plot ANOVA b. This research is looking for differences between men and women, and over time in terms of cigarette consumption (the DV). There are two independent variables (IVs), gender and time. Gender has two levels or groups (males and females) and the data are independent. Time has three levels or groups (pre, end, six-month follow up), and the data are correlated. A t-test (Response 1) can only be used when there is one IV, with no more than two groups. A one-way ANOVA (response 2) can also only be used when there is on IV, with two or more groups. A factorial ANOVA (Response 3) is an ANOVA that has two or more IVs, with the data on each IV being independent. The split-plot ANOVA is used when there are two (or more) IVs, and at least one has correlated data, and one has independent data

1.) Which of the following best characterizes a transactional leader? a. Task orientation b. Inspiration c. Intellectual stimulation d. Individualized consideration

a. Task orientation a. Transaction leaders are more traditional leaders who influence subordinates through daily, fairly emotionless, exchanges. The transactional leader is task oriented, and aims to secure the agreed upon level of performance from the subordinates. He or she may make use of rewards, management by objectives, etc. By contrast, the transformational leader aims to broaden and elevate the goals of the subordinates. Transformational leaders utilize charisma, inspiration, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration

1.) Which of the following would probably be inappropriate for a psychologist acting as a fact witness in a murder trail? a. Testifying as to the defendant's background and family history b. Testifying as to the defendant's mental status in the weeks before the alleged murder c. Testifying as to where the defendant told the psychologist he was at the time of the murder d. Testifying as to whether the defendant fits the psychological profile established for murderers

a. Testifying as to whether the defendant fits the psychological profile established for murderers a. A fact witness testifies about what he or she has heard, been told, or observed (Responses 1-3). An expert witness is someone who is deemed to be an expert in a particular domain, and provides information about this area in court. Response 4 describes the type of information that an expert witness would provide

1.) According to the DSM-5, cultural concepts of distress include cultural syndromes, cultural idioms of distress, and cultural explanations or perceived causes. Cultural syndromes apply to presentations: a. That do not meet DSM-5 criteria for a mental disorder b. That meet DSM-5 criteria for a mental disorder c. Included in the DSM-5 That may or may not meet DSM-5 criteria for a mental disorder

a. That may or may not meet DSM-5 criteria for a mental disorder b. The DSM-5 defines cultural syndromes as "clusters of symptoms and attributions that tend to co-occur among individuals in specific cultural groups, communities, or contexts and that are recognized locally as coherent patterns of experience" (DSM-5, p. 758). According to the DSM-5, cultural concepts apply to a range of symptom severity, and presentations may or may not meet DSM criteria for a mental disorder (Response 4, correct answer)

1.) The assertion that bodily arousal and emotional reaction occur simultaneously is described in: a. The James-Lange theory b. The Cannon-Bard theory c. Schacter's two-factory theory d. Selye's general adaptation syndrome

a. The Cannon-Bard theory a. James-Lange theory states that emotions are the result of perception of bodily reactions, e.g., "I am afraid of a bear because I'm running" (Response 1). Cannon-Bard theory (Response 2) states that emotions and bodily reactions occur at the same time. Seeing the bear activates the thalamus, which alerts both the cortex (responsible for emotions) and hypothalamus (responsible for arousing the body) simultaneously. Schacter's cognitive or two-factor theory (Response 3) proposes that emotions result from a particular label applied to general physical arousal. The label is influenced by past experience, the situation, and reactions of others. For example, if someone sneaks up on you on a dark street and says "Boo!" your body will become aroused. If the person is a stranger, you may interpret the arousal of fear; if the person is a good friend you may interpret the arousal as surprise. Selye's general adaption syndrome (Response 4) is not a theory of emotions, rather, it describes a three-stage response to stress, consistent of alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

1.) The tendency to better remember uncompleted tasks than completed tasks is termed: a. The Zeigarnik effect b. The Recency effect c. The Barnum effect d. The autokinetic effect

a. The Zeigarnik effect a. The Zeigarnik effect describes our tendency to remember more vividly unfinished tasks than completed tasks. The recency effect (Response 2) refers to improved memory for the later items in a series of words. The Barnum effect (response 3) is the tendency for people to identify with vague descriptions of themselves (e.g., newspaper horoscopes). The autokinetic effect (Response 4) refers to the illusion of movement that occurs when a stationary pinpoint of light is shined in a dark environment. Experiments on conformity have looked at responses to the autokinetic effect

1.) Decisions in child custody cases are based on: a. The wishes of the child b. The best interest of the child c. The rights of the custodial parent d. The rights of both the custodial and non-custodial parent

a. The best interest of the child a. Theoretically, the best interest of the child is the guiding principle behind court decisions about custody. The child's interest supersedes the rights of the parent's, custodial or otherwise (Responses 3 and 4). The wishes of the child are sometimes taken into consideration (Response 1) but are not the primary factor because the child may not recognize his own best interests and because he or she may be unduly influenced or coerced by one of the disputing parties

1.) According to John Holland's theory of vocational personalities and environments, differentiation is: a. The match between the person's personality type and his or her work environment b. The dissimilarity in the personality types on which a person scores highest c. The clarity and stability of a person's goals d. The distinctness of a personality profile

a. The distinctness of a personality profile b. According to Holland, people receive the most job satisfaction when their personality type closely matches the type of their work environment. In his typology, there are six personality types/work environments (realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional - forming the acronym RIASEC). These types can be arranged around a hexagon, such that those personality types/work environments that are most similar to each other are adjacent on the hexagon, and those personality types/work environments that are most dissimilar are across from each other on the hexagon. Differentiation (Response 4) refers to how distinct an individual's personality profile is. A profile is most distinct if the person resembles only one of the personality types (e.g., scores high on only one type), and least distinct if the person resembles all six (e.g., scores roughly equivalent on all six types). Congruence refers to how closely matched the person's personality type is with the work environment (Response 1). Consistency refers to the closeness in the two personality types on which a person scores highest (Response 2). In other words, a person who scores high in two areas that are adjacent on the hexagon has a higher degree of consistency than the person who scores high in two areas that are opposite on the hexagon. The clarity and stability of a person's goals (Response 3) is termed identity

1.) The part of the brain responsible for consolidation of long-term memory is: a. The medulla b. The hypothalamus c. The hippocampus d. The cerebellum

a. The hippocampus a. The hippocampus, within the temporal lobes, is involved in the consolidation of long-term memory. Response 1, the medulla, is a part of the brainstem, and is involved in basic functions including respiration, cardiovascular activity, sleep, and consciousness. Response 2, the hypothalamus, plays a major role in homeostasis, including temperature regulation, the sleep-wake cycle, and aggression. Response 4, the cerebellum, is involved in movement and balance

1.) To ensure that adverse impact does not occur: a. At least 80% of minority applicants should be hired b. The number of minorities hired should be at least 80% of the number of non-minorities hired c. The minority selection ratio should be 80% of the majority selection ratio d. Unfairness and differential validity should be minimized

a. The minority selection ratio should be 80% of the majority selection ratio a. Adverse impact is based on the 80% of 4/5ths rule, which states that the percentage of minorities hired must be at least 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities hired. The 80% rule is based on the selection ratio, and not the number of people hired (Response 2). Response 1 is incorrect in that it states that 80% of the applicants who are minorities must be hired. Unfairness and differential validity (Response 4) may contribute to adverse impact, however, minimizing them does not specifically address the 80% rule

1.) In terms of minimizing discrimination in hiring and promotion, Cleary's model (1968) suggests a test is fair when: a. Criterion related validity is equivalent for minorities and non-minorities b. Based on the test, minority group members represent at least four-fifths of the percentage of non-minorities hired or promoted c. The regression line is equivalent for minorities and non-minorities d. Differences on predictor scores for minorities and non-minorities result in similar criterion scores

a. The regression line is equivalent for minorities and non-minorities a. According to Cleary (1968), when there is only one regression line for minorities and non-minorities, a test is fair. In this instance, similar results on the predictor for both groups yield similar criterion results. Response 1 depicts a situation in which the test is equally valid for minorities and non-minorities; in other words, there is no differential validity. Recall that differential validity occurs when there are different criterion-related validity coefficients for different ethnic groups. Response 2 states that there is no adverse impact. Adverse impact is based on the 80% or 4/5 rule, which basically states that the percentage of minorities hired must be at least 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities hired. Response 4 describes unfairness. Unfairness occurs when different predictor scores (test scores) for minorities and non-minorities, result is similar criterion scores (performance outcome) for members of the two groups. Parallel regression lines characterize unfairness.

1.) According to the fundamental attribution error, people have a tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors as opposed to situational factors when explaining the behavior of others. Research in this area has shown: a. The fundamental attribution error was an artifact of retrospective reporting b. The fundamental attribution error is universally found across cultural environments c. There are cultures in which people tend to favor situational attributions for the behaviors of others d. The fundamental attribution error is better understood as a special case of the self-serving bias

a. There are cultures in which people tend to favor situational attributions for the behaviors of others a. While in Western culture, people often attribute others' failures to internal factors, in some societies, others' failures are actually attributed to situational factors. Response 1 is incorrect, because the fundamental attribution error commonly occurs. Response 2 is the opposite of what's true. The fundamental attribution bias is not based on the self-serving bias (Response 4). The former addresses the attributions made about the behavior of others, while the latter only addresses attributions made about one's own behaviors

1.) A selection test has moderate criterion-related validity. In order to optimize prediction regarding which applicants will be successful when using this test, which of the following conditions should be present? a. There are many applicants for a few openings, in a company where half of the current employees are successful b. There are few applicants for a few openings, in a company where most of the current employees are successful c. There are many applicants for a few openings, in a company where a few of the current employees are successful d. There are a few applicants for only a few openings, in a company where half of the current employees are successful

a. There are many applicants for a few openings, in a company where half of the current employees are successful a. This question is asking about the conditions that affect incremental validity. Incremental validity is the amount of improvement in success rate, over and above the base rate, that results from using a predictor test for hiring decisions. The variables that affect incremental validity are the criterion-related validity of the predictor, the base rate of the company, and the selection ratio. The base rate is the rate of selecting successful employees without using any predictor tests. The selection ratio is the proportion of applicants to available openings. To optimize incremental validity the base rate should be moderate, and the selection ratio should be low. These conditions are met in Response 1; there are many applicants for a few openings, therefore the selection ratio is low, and the company has a moderate base rate, since half of its employees who were selected without any tests are successful. Response 2 is incorrect, since the selection ratio is high, and the base rate is high. Response 3 is incorrect because the selection ratio is low and the base rate is low. Response 4 is incorrect, because even though the base rate is moderate, the selection ratio is high

1.) You begin to treat a patient who informs you that our treatment records will eventually be subpoenaed by his attorney as part of an injury lawsuit. What should you do? a. Ensure that your notes are more detailed and of a higher quality than your typical notes b. Ensure that you do not put anything that is potentially damaging to your client in your notes c. Maintain two separate sets of notes, one that you can produce for a subpoena and a more detailed one for your private use d. There is nothing specific that you need to do

a. There is nothing specific that you need to do b. Psychologists are ethically bound to keep accurate records of their work in any and all circumstances. Among the five reasons listed for record keeping in ethical standard 6.01 is "compliance with the law." Ensuring that your notes are more detailed and of higher quality (Response 1) suggests that otherwise your notes are not adequate. Leaving out anything that might be potentially damaging (e.g., the patient expressed imminent homicidal intent) would be very problematic (ruling out Response 2). When records are subpoenaed, the subpoena requires any and all records. Withholding a "private set of notes" (Response 3) would be considered an illegal evasion of the subpoena

1.) Who proposed the following? "Behavior occurs in a random fashion; if some behaviors are followed by pleasurable consequences, they are strengthened, and if followed by negative consequences, they are less likely to occur in the future." a. Tolman b. Watson c. Thorndike d. Skinner

a. Thorndike a. This is Thorndike's Law of Effect. Thorndike later revised this law by dropping the last part regarding negative consequences. Skinner (Response 4), like Thorndike, believed that all behavior is shaped, caused and maintained by consequences. Tolman (Response 1) proposed that behavior is purposive and can occur without reinforcement. He also stated that learning could occur without being manifested in outward behavior (latent learning). Watson (Response 2) proposed that all human behavior stems from classical conditioning. He is famous for his work with Little Albert

1.) A research develops a 20-item test intended to assess depression. When she calculates the reliability of this test with a group of 30 mildly to moderately depressed patients, she obtains a coefficient of .50. To improve the reliability coefficient the research should: a. Increase the number of subjects b. Change the number of items in the instrument c. Make the items in the instrument more diverse d. Use subjects who are more diverse

a. Use subjects who are more diverse b. The minimum acceptable value for reliability is generally .80. There are three factors that affect reliability: number of items, homogeneity of items, and heterogeneity of subjects. Response 2 is problematic, as it only says the researcher should change the number of items, not specifying whether that means increasing or decreasing the number of items. Reliability can also be increased if the items in the test are more similar or homogeneous, which rules out Response 3. While simply increasing the number of subjects is unlikely to affect reliability (Response 1), increasing the variability or heterogeneity of subjects will increase reliability, as it increases the range of scores (Response 4, correct answer)

1.) A child is reinforced on average after every three minutes for on-task behavior while completing her homework. This is an example of what schedule of reinforcement? a. Fixed interval b. Fixed ratio c. Variable ratio d. Variable interval

a. Variable interval b. This is an example of a variable interval schedule of reinforcement. Here reinforcement is contingent on the passage of time, and given, on average, every three minutes (e.g., after 4 minutes, after 2 minutes), which makes it variable. In a fixed interval schedule (Response 1), reinforcement is based on the passage of time as well, however, the amount of time remains the same and does not vary. In a fixed ratio schedule (Response 2), reinforcement is given after a certain number of responses have been emitted. In a variable ratio schedule (Response 3), reinforcement is provided after a variable number of target behaviors have been emitted

1.) When running an ANOVA, a pooled error terms is justified when: a. Variance is equal b. Sample size is unequal c. All cells have the same number of subjects d. The F-ratio is significant

a. Variance is equal a. This is a difficult question, requiring an advanced understanding of statistics. It is best to simply know that a pooled error term is used when there is homogeneity of variance (i.e., the variance is about equal for each group). When variance is not equal, a separate error term should be used for each group. A mnemonic here might be: when things are equal, they can be pooled together; when unequal, they must be treated separately. Sample size (the number of subjects in each group) is not the determining factor in the use of a pooled error term (ruling out Responses 2 and 3). The significance of the F-ratio is determined after the ANOVA is run; logically then, this cannot be the basis of determining whether or not to pool the error term in running the ANOVA

1.) Which of the following statements about relapse is most accurate? a. Relapses are caused by external factors only b. Relapses are caused by internal factors only c. While external factors are important, internal factors are most likely to trigger relapses d. While internal factors are important, external factors are more likely to trigger relapses

a. While external factors are important, internal factors are most likely to trigger relapses a. Relapses are often due to both internal and external factors. In relapse prevention, the client is taught to recognize the triggers to relapse, which may be external (e.g., being around others who use) or internal (feeling angry, depressed). It is important to note that relapses are most likely to be caused by negative emotional states, which are internal

1.) You apply for and receive a grant for a research study that was based on an idea provided by your colleague. Which of the following would be most appropriate in terms of acknowledging your colleague's contribution? a. You should mention her contribution in a footnote in the final write-up of your study b. You should invite her to collaborate with you on the research project c. She should be listed as second author d. There is no need to mention her contribution since she was not involved in conducting, or writing up the results of the study

a. You should mention her contribution in a footnote in the final write-up of your study a. Your colleague's contribution, which is coming up with an idea for a research project, could be acknowledged by means of a footnote. Second authorship (Response 3) would not be appropriate since she merely provided the idea for the project and it appears that she is not going to be involved in conducting the study or writing it up. While it is important to acknowledge her contribution (Response 4), it is not necessary to invite her to participate in the study with you (Response 2). Also, note that this Response does not really answer the question of how her contribution should be acknowledged

1.) An example of a criterion-referenced score would be: a. Percentile rank b. T-score c. Z-score d. percentage score

a. percentage score e. Pass/fail, raw scores, and percentage correct are all example of criterion-referenced scores, which tells us how the person did on some external criterion. In contrast with norm-referenced scores, criterion-referenced scores provide no information about how the score compares to other scores and thus difficult to interpret (e.g., 60% on a test on which most people score 40% is a great score, but is a poor score when most people score 80%). Percentile ranks (Response 1), T-Scores (Response 2) and z-scores (Response 3) are all examples of norm-referenced scores because they provide information about how the person scored relative to the group

1.) A person is given a list of words to memorize. Right after she is presented with the words, she is told to do serial sevens, or count backwards by sevens. Next, she is instructed to recite as many words as she can remember from the list. Which of the following describes the purpose of having her count backwards? a. To assess her immediate attention and concentration b. To assess the impact of proactive interference c. To assess the extent to which the information memorized undergoes decay d. to prevent her from rehearsing the words

a. to prevent her from rehearsing the words b. When the person is engaged in doing serial sevens, she is unable to think about and rehearse the list of words to which she was just exposed. While serial sevens are typically used to assess attention and concentration (Response 1), in this situation they are used to prevent the person from rehearsing the list. Proactive interference (Response 2) refers to the process by which previously learned material interferes with learning of new material. In this situation, doing serial sevens is interfering with the recall of previously learned material. The decay theory (Response 3) has to do with forgetting with the passage of time. Here, we are looking at the extent to which serial sevens impact the recall of the list of words