X100 Test 14 (C401-C407)
Massing at the last moment possible
According to OPFOR tactics, which of the following is a characteristic of a dispersed attack?
Disruption element, maint defense element, support element, and reserve element
According to opposing force tactics, the standard functional organization of a detachment for defense is?
Attack by Fire, Block
Which of the following terms are tactical mission tasks? (select all that apply)
The populace believing their government is legitimate and their living situation is acceptable and predictable.
Doctrinally, what conditions best describe stability?
Future operations cell
Doctrinally, which integrating cell will develop a branch plan if the commander directs the staff to address a potential enemy counterattack during the current operation?
US NORTHCOM and USINDOPACOM
During a catastrophic event when the demand for resources exceeds the National Guard capacity, requests for federal Army forces are supported by?
A purpose of defensive operations
Increasing the enemy's vulnerability by forcing the enemy to concentrate subordinate forces is an example of what?
Concentration
The commander provides guidance to develop an offensive COA attack that focuses all of the BCT's maneuver forces, indirect fires, joint fires, and intelligence collection on a thinly protected portion of the enemy's defensive line. This COA best maximizes which characteristic of the offense?
Enemy forces that are well-covered or concealed
UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating which of the following?
Immediate response authority
What allows/authorizes a local commander to temporarily support a local community's civil authority's request for military assistance in an emergency situation for a limited duration without higher authority approval?
Shape environments, prevent conflict, prevail in LSCO, and consolidate gains
What are the strategic roles of the US Army?
The two sub-categories of a fragile state are crisis and vulnerable. A crisis state is a state the does not exert effective control over its sovereign territory. A vulnerable state is a state cannot or does not want to provide security and basic services to significant portion of its population.
What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?
Unified land operations
What is the simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, and defense support of civil authorities across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action?
Give detailed direction to accomplish missions with the area of operations
When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following?
30 days
Whenever state National Guard forces respond in support of another state, each JFHQ-State (supporting and supported) ensures certain coordination requirements are met. Most National Guard commitments are for how long?
Area defense
Which defensive operation concentrates on denying the enemy access to terrain for a specific time rather than destruction of the enemy by concentrating the bulk of defending forces in mutually supporting prepared positions?
Offense
Which element of decisive action is the most decisive form of warfare and the ultimate means of forcing your will on enemy forces?
Information Collection Plan
Which intelligence warfighting function planning product allows a commander to better understand an attacking force's objective and approaches?
It indicates where transfer of responsibility for the close fight passes from the withdrawing force to the defending force
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a battle handover line (BHL)?
Civil unrest in US territory
Which of the following conditions would NOT initiate stability operations?
Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents
Which of the following is a DSCA primary/key task?
Limited sustainment assets that regularly operate over protracted distances
Which of the following is a cavalry squadron constraint?
Turning movement
Which of the following is a form of maneuver that seeks to cause the enemy force to move out of its position?
Shared understanding
Which of the following is a principle of mission command?
To destroy enemy forces
Which of the following is a purpose for why the US Army conducts offensive operations?
Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy
Which of the following is a purpose of the defense?
Depth
Which of the following is a tenet of unified land operations (ULO)?
The defender is able to occupy positions prior to attack and prepared defense in the time available.
Which of the following is an inherent strength of defensive operations?
Preparing
Which of the following is one of the major command and control activities performed during operations?
Attacking with an uncommitted force is a preferred method of transitioning to the offense
While in the defense, why would the BCT commander direct an uncommitted force to attack an enemy force that appears to be at a reduced strength?
Title 32
You are an advisor to the governor of a large gulf coast state dealing with a major natural disaster from a tropical storm. The storm caused significant damage to infrastructure. The governor wants to mobilize National Guard forces in support of other state agencies and is asking the federal government for funding. He wants to retain control of those forces but is concerned about the money available to pay for those forces. What type of duty status should you recommend that best meets the governor's requirements?
Desired condition of friendly forces with relationship to the enemy, terrain, and civilian populace
What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state?
Conceptual Planning and Detailed Planning
What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander's broad approach and the staff's scientific approach to produce a plan?
Main effort and supporting effort
What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?
Create an effect greater than using elements separately or sequentially
What does the application of combined arms allow commanders to do?
Building host-nation capacity and capabilities
What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?
A position of relative advantage
What is a location or the establishment of a favorable condition within the area of operations that provides the commander with temporary freedom of action to enhance combat power over an enemy or influence the enemy to accept risk and move to a position of disadvantage?
Reconnaissance handover
What is the deliberate process of transferring information and responsibility from one element to another to facilitate observing a specific target, enemy, or NAI/TAI?
Reconnaissance operations are enemy and terrain oriented, whereas security operations orient on the protected force or facility
What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations?
The unit will transition to offensive operations
What might the commander be planning to do if, following a successful defense during which the enemy force suffered severe losses, the commander directs reconnaissance assets forward to maintain contact with the enemy and requests an updated status of adjacent friendly units?
Large-scale ground combat operations
What term means sustained combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?
Exploitation
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT execute to disorganize the enemy in depth following a successful attack?
Attack
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy's disposition?
Redundancy
What type of reconnaissance management should the commander employ to improve the chances the reconnaissance element collects the required information?
National Response Framework (NRF)
You would like to review national response principles, partner roles, emergency support functions, and structures for coordinating a national disaster response. Identify which document would describe best practices for responding to specific incidents?
To help Commanders describe an operational approach
Why do commanders use defeat mechanisms?
American Samoa, Guam, Hawaii
USNORTHCOM does NOT conduct DSCA in which US states and territories?
The BCT reaches a culmination point
Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense?
Transitional military authority
Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as which of the following?
Use approved contractors for projects
Army units must do which of the following to prevent the perception of favoritism to an ethnic or political group during the conduct of Army stability operations tasks?
Current operations cell
At the division level, what integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs based upon a change in the plan?
The command and control warfighting function
Command Forces, Control Operations, and Drive the Operations Process are tasks associated with?
Audacity, concentration, surprise, tempo
What are the characteristics of the offense?
Execution Decisions
1. What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit's decision support matrix to aid the commander?
Preparation
Arriving in your area of operations ahead of your attacker, you study the terrain to find positions that allow the massing of fires on likely approaches and combines natural and man-made obstacles to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas. What characteristic of defense is being described?
Preserve the force or avoid combat under undesirable conditions.
As part of a defensive operation, a commander is directed to conduct a retrograde. What is a general consideration when conducting a retrograde?
The enemies ability to synchronize a combined arms team or enemies will to fight are destroyed.
As the commander visualizes the defensive operation being conducted, how can success best be measured?
Dual status command
During a recent natural disaster covering multiple areas and jurisdictions of Kansas and Oklahoma, National Guard forces from both states were mobilized in a Title 32 status and the President along with both governors agreed to the commitment of federal forces (Title 10 status). During a recent IPR involving all military and civilian representatives, it was determined that a lack of integration was hindering recovery efforts. To better unify military efforts what type of command status would you recommend to the governors and the President?
Deceiving or destroying enemy reconnaissance forces.
During defensive operations, your commander seeks to disrupt enemy attacks. What actions would you recommend employing to desynchronize the enemy force's preparations?
Running estimates
Each staff section is responsible for assisting the commander with understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions. This is a continuous process. What tool best supports the staff in this responsibility?
Army design methodology (ADM)
Given the inherently complex and uncertain nature of operations, particularly stability operations, what planning process assists organizations in understanding the root causes of instability?
Thru his/her activities of understanding, visualizing, describing, directing, leading, and assessing
How does the commander drive the operations process?
Fire superiority
If a commander was able to converge indirect fires, direct fires, and electronic warfare simultaneously against a heavily fortified enemy position what is the most likely result of this?
Initiative
If a commander was able to select the time, place and method used by his attacking force, which of the following would the commander have?
The enemy is conducting a dispersed attack due to encountering a superior enemy
If information collection reports indicate the enemy is conducting information warfare and distributes their forces over a wide area during tactical offensive operations, what type offensive action is the enemy force most likely conducting?
Counter Reconnaissance
If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?
Attack position
If your commander emphasized the criticality of making final provisions under cover and concealment before the main effort and supporting effort advance towards the objective, what control measure should be used to graphically depict the location of the provisions your commander described?
Minimum-essential stability tasks
If, at the conclusion of offensive operations, the 1/3ID ABCT commander instructs his staff to acquire additional stockage of Class I and Class VIII, and to start identifying key leaders within the host nation security forces, what tasks is he most likely preparing his unit for?
Combat security outpost (CSOP)
In opposing force tactics, what is a formation that prevents enemy reconnaissance or small groups from penetrating friendly positions and force the enemy to prematurely deploy and lose his momentum in the attack?