zzzzx) Powerpoint Reproduction
12. Which of the following is true regarding prophase? A. The chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. B. The spindle apparatus disappears. C. The chromosomes uncoil. D. The nucleoli disappear.
12. D In prophase, the chromatin condenses into chromosomes, the spindle apparatus forms, and the nucleoli and nuclear membrane disappear. Choice (A) describes anaphase, whereas choices (B) and (C) describe telophase.
460. Which of the following is the tissue usually involved in an ectopic pregnancy? (A) Vagina (B) Uterine tube (C) Perimetrium (D) Endometrium (E) Ovary
460. (B) An ectopic pregnancy is one in which the blastocyst attempts implantation at some location other than in the uterus. This attempt may be on the peritoneal lining, ovaries, or cervix, but the most common location is within the fallopian tube itself. Thus, it is described as a tubal pregnancy; these account for 95 percent of such pregnancies.
Go to the Questions at the end of chapter 51 of Brooker - all the answers are in Chegg under Biology 4th Edition
Go to the Questions at the end of chapter 51 of Brooker - all the answers are in Chegg under Biology 4th Edition
6. In which location does fertilization usually take place in a human female? a. ovary b. oviduct c. uterus d. vagina
b
3. Semen contains all of the following except a. fructose. b. mucus. c. clotting enzymes. d. testosterone. e. an active clot-dissolving enzyme.
d
3. Which of the following is not properly paired? (A) seminiferous tubule-cervix (B) vas deferens-oviduct (C) testosterone-estradiol (D) scrotum-labia majora
A
5. In the developing mammalian oocyte, meiosis is initially halted at a. prophase I. b. metaphase I. c. prophase II. d. metaphase II.
a
15. FSH was named for its function in the female reproductive system. Which cells in the male re- productive system respond to FSH? a. follicle cells c. spermatogonia b. Sertoli cells d. Leydig cells
15. b In women, FSH hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation. It also increases oestradiol production. In men, follicle stimulating hormone acts on the Sertoli cells of the testes to stimulate sperm production (spermatogenesis).
468. Testosterone is produced by (A) Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules. (B) spermatogonia within the seminiferous tubules. (C) the prostate. (D) the bulbourethral gland. (E) interstitial cells of the seminiferous tubules.
468. (E) Sertoli cells serve to support spermatogenesis by clearing the cytoplasmic debris released during sperm maturation and to secrete various substances that work with or on testosterone, but not the testosterone itself, which is the responsibility of the seminiferous tubule interstitial cells.
Go to the Interactive Summary to review key figures, Animated Tutorials, and Activities Life10e.com/is43
Go to the Interactive Summary to review key figures, Animated Tutorials, and Activities Life10e.com/is43
1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the development of a mature sperm cell? A. Spermatid-->spermatocyte-->spermatogonium--> 2°spermatocyte-->spermatozoan B. Spermatogonium--> Primary spermatocyte--> Secondary spermatocyte-->spermatid ->spermatozoan C. Spermatozoan--> Primary spermatocyte--> Secondary spermatocyte-->spermatogonium --> spermatid D. Spermatogonium--> Primary spermatocyte--> Secondary spermatocyte--> primary spermatozoan--> spermatid
1. B Diploid cells called spermatogonia differentiate into primary spermatocytes, which undergo the first meiotic division to yield two haploid secondary spermatocytes. These undergo a second meiotic division to become immature spermatids. The spermatids then undergo a series of changes leading to the production of mature sperm, or spermatozoa.
10. Which of the following does NOT likely contribute to genetic variability? A. Random fertilization of an egg by a sperm B. Random segregation of homologous chromosomes C. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis D. Replication of the DNA during S stage
10. D The safest way to answer this question correctly is to go through each answer choice and eliminate the ones that contribute to genetic variability. The random fertilization of an egg by a sperm, the random segregation of homologous chro- mosomes during anaphase I, and crossing over between homologous chromosomes during prophase I all contribute to genetic variability during sexual reproduction because they result in novel combinations of genetic material, eliminating choices (A), (B), and (C). S stage, choice (D), should specifically not cause increased genetic variability; the DNA should be copied precisely, without error, meaning that both strands of DNA should be identical.
Choose from the following hormones to answer questions 10-14. a. estradiol b. progesterone c. LH (luteinizing hormone) d. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) e. hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) 10. Which hormone stimulates ovulation and the de- velopment of the corpus luteum? 11. Which hormone is produced by the devel- oping follicle and initiates thickening of the endometrium? 12. Which hormone is produced by the embryo dur- ing the first trimester and is necessary for main- taining a pregnancy? 13. Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells to make testosterone, which in turn stimulates sperm production? 14. Which hormone is produced by the corpus lu- teum and later by the placenta and is responsible for maintaining a pregnancy?
10. c 11. a 12. e 13. c 14. b
11. Which of the following statements correctly identifies a key difference between mitosis and meiosis? A. In metaphase of mitosis, replicated chromosomes line up in single file; in metaphase II of meiosis, replicated chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the metaphase plate. B. During anaphase of mitosis, homologous chromo- somes separate; during anaphase of meiosis I, sister chromatids separate. C. At the end of telophase of mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to each other; at the end of meiosis I, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. D. During metaphase of mitosis, centromeres are present directly on the metaphase plate; during metaphase of meiosis I, there are no centromeres on the metaphase plate.
11. D The key differences between mitosis and meiosis primarily appear during meiosis I. Of note, synapsis and crossing over occurs during prophase I, and homologous chromosomes are separated during meiosis I (rather than sister chromatids, as in mitosis). While the location of the centromeres relative to the metaphase plate may seem a trivial point, it is representative of the fact that homologous chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the equatorial plate in meiosis, in con- trast to the alignment of each chromosome directly upon the metaphase plate in mitosis.
13. An individual who is phenotypically female is found to have only one copy of a disease-carrying recessive allele on the X chromosome, yet she demonstrates all of the classic symptoms of the disease. Geneticists determine she has a genotype that likely arose from nondisjunction in one of her parents. What is the likely genotype of this individual? A. 46,XX (46 chromosomes, with XX for sex chromosomes) B. 46,XY C. 45,X D. 47,XXY
13. C Nondisjunction refers to the incorrect segregation of homologous chromosomes during anaphase I, or of sister chromatids during anaphase II. In either case, one daughter cell ends up with two copies of related genetic material, while the other receives zero. Immediately, this should eliminate choices (A) and (B), which show a normal complement of chromosomes (46). An individual who has only one recessive disease-carrying allele, and yet still expresses the disease, likely does not have a dominant allele for the given trait. This is seen in males, who are hemizygous for many X-linked genes, and can also be seen in women with Turner syndrome (45,X), who have only one X chromosome. Thus, choice (C) is the answer.
14. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does progesterone concentration peak? A. Follicular phase B. Ovulation C. Luteal phase D. Menses
14. C Progesterone peaks during the luteal phase, as it supports the endometrium for potential implantation of a blastula. Progesterone levels are relatively low during follicular phase and ovulation, eliminating choices (A) and (B). Withdrawal of progesterone actually causes menses, eliminating choice (D).
15. Which of the following would NOT be seen during pregnancy? A. High levels of hCG in the first trimester B. High levels of progesterone throughout the pregnancy C. Low levels of FSH in the first trimester D. High levels of GnRH throughout the pregnancy
15. D During the first trimester of pregnancy, the corpus luteum is preserved by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG); hence, progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum is maintained during the first trimester. This eliminates choice (A). During the second trimester, hCG levels decline, but progesterone levels rise because the hormone is now secreted by the placenta itself, eliminating choice (B). High levels of progesterone and estrogen inhibit GnRH secretion, thus preventing FSH and LH secretion and the onset of a new menstrual cycle. This eliminates choice (C) and validates choice (D).
17. Certain maternal diseases, drugs, alcohol, and radiation are most dangerous to embryonic development a. during the first 2 weeks, when the embryo has not yet implanted and spontaneous abortion may occur. b. during the first 3 months, when organogenesis is occurring. c. during the first and second trimesters, when the embryonic liver is not yet filtering toxins. d. during the second and third trimesters, when the most rapid growth is occurring.
17. b
2. Which of the following correctly pairs the stage of development of an egg cell with the relevant point in a woman's life cycle? A. From birth to menarche-prophase II B. At ovulation-metaphase I C. At ovulation-metaphase II D. At fertilization-prophase II
2. C From the time of birth until shortly before ovulation, all egg cells are arrested at the prophase stage of meiosis 1. These cells are referred to as primary oocytes. At ovulation, the egg cell has completed meiosis I and is now arrested in metaphase II as a haploid cell called a secondary oocyte. When a sperm penetrates the outer layers of the secondary oocyte, it completes meiosis II to become a mature ovum.
3. Some studies suggest that in patients with Alzheimer's disease, there is a defect in the way the spindle apparatus attaches to the kinetochore fibers. At which stage of mitotic division would one first expect to be able to visualize this problem? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase
3. A The spindle apparatus first interacts with the kinetochore fibers near the end of prophase. While the spindle apparatus aligns the chromosomes at the equatorial plate during metaphase, choice (B), the initial connection of the microtubule to the kinetochore, choice (A), occurs in prophase.
3-7. Match the day of the menstrual cycle (a-e) with the event (3-7; use each answer once). Day of menstrual cycle: a. day 1 b. day 7 c. day 13 d. day 23 e. day 26 Event: 3. Progesterone from the corpus luteum peaks. 4. Estrogen positive feedback is peaking. 5. One follicle becomes dominant. 6. Estrogen and progesterone are both decreasing. 7. Increase in FSH stimulates antral follicles to begin to secrete estrogen.
3. d The luteal phase of the ovary, when progesterone production is maximal, occurs after ovulation but before the end of the menstrual cycle. 4. c Estrogen stimulates LH release (positive feedback) just before the LH surge and ovulation (usually on day 14). 5. b One follicle becomes dominant early in the menstrual cycle. 6. e The death of the corpus luteum (in the absence of pregnancy and hCG) results in a dramatic decrease in ovarian progesterone and estrogen production. 7. a The loss of ovarian steroid production with the death of the corpus luteum releases the pituitary gland from negative feedback and allows FSH to increase. This stimulates the maturation of a small number of follicles for the next menstrual cycle.
4. A researcher wishes to incorporate a radiolabeled deoxyadenine into the genome of one of the two daughter cells that would arise as a result of mitosis. What is the latest stage of cellular development during which the radiolabeled deoxyadenine could be added to achieve this result? A. G1 B. G2 C. M D. S
4. D To ensure that the labeled deoxyadenine will be incorporated into the DNA of one of the daughter cells, we have to insert the nucleotide before DNA replication has been completed. Because replication occurs during S stage, we could introduce the deoxyadenine during G1 or S stage. Because G1 precedes S, the latest point the deoxyadenine could be added is the S stage.
459. When males differ in appearance from females, this difference is referred to as (A) sexual dimorphism. (B) a primary sexual characteristic. (C) polymorphism. (D) being monoecious. (E) primary selection.
459. (A) Monoecious is a term used by botanists to describe a single plant that has both male and female gonads. This would therefore be an incorrect use of this term, so option D is out. Selection is a process, so option E can also be ignored. Polymorphism means "many shapes," but the term is used in biology to describe phenotypic variations that lead to diversity, not differences in sexual morphology. This makes option C a poor choice. Males and females may have features that distinguish them from the other sex, but the presence of those features within a population is referred to as sexual dimorphism, making option A the preferred choice.
461. The proper sequence of the development of the sperm is (A) primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatid → Sertoli cell. (B) spermatid → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → Sertoli cell. (C) secondary spermatocyte → primary spermatocyte → spermatogonium → spermatid. (D) spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatid. (E) Sertoli cell → spermatogonium → secondary spermatocyte → primary spermatocyte → spermatid.
461. (D) In spermatogenesis, the spermatogonium divides by mitosis. Upon dividing, the cell that is in contact with the seminiferous tubule remains to divide again, while the one that is closer to the lumen (the diploid primary spermatocyte) undergoes meiosis. It first replicates its chromosomes to become tetraploid, then undergoes meiosis I to become two diploid secondary spermatocytes, and then immediately undergoes meiosis II to become four spermatids.
462. A human female has about _____ primary oocytes at birth, of which about _____ will be released by ovulation. (A) 10,000; 500 (B) 500,000; 500 (C) 20,000; 200 (D) 100,000; 100 (E) 5,000; 500
462. (B) A woman's reproductive age runs from the onset of menses at about age 15 to menopause at about age 55, for a total of about 40 years. One or two eggs mature and are released every 28 days or so. This means that a total of about 500 eggs become available for fertilization during a woman's reproductive lifetime. Estimates for the total number of eggs produced within the ovaries before birth range from 500,000 to 1,500,000.
463. Which of the following is the best description of a polar body? (A) The mature female gamete (B) A haploid cell that produces primary oocytes (C) A degenerate cell resulting from meiosis (D) A haploid cell in a secondary follicle that is released at ovulation (E) A diploid cell that gives rise to the secondary oocyte
463. (C) Each oocyte undergoes asymmetrical cell division, so that only one of the four resulting haploid cells contains the bulk of the original cell mass and nutrients. During the formation of the mature ovum, the primary oocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce a secondary oocyte and one smaller-sized polar body. After both cells undergo meiosis II, there remains one haploid ovum and three much smaller haploid polar bodies.
464. Sperm are formed in the (A) epididymis. (B) seminiferous tubules. (C) prostate gland. (D) vas deferens. (E) bulbourethral gland.
464. (B) The male reproductive system contains various tissues with different functions. Sperm are formed in the seminiferous tubules that make up the bulk of the testes.
465. The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle includes (A) the uterine proliferative phase, the menstrual phase, and the rise of estrogen and LH. (B) the menstrual phase, the secretory phase, and the rise of progesterone. (C) ovulation and the rise of progesterone and estrogen. (D) the rise of LH, FSH, estrogen, and progesterone. (E) the rise of progesterone and the secretory phase.
465. (A) The ovarian cycle consists of the follicular phase (days 1-14), during which FSH levels rise and the maturing ovarian follicle containing the secondary oocyte increases estrogen and progesterone levels, and the luteal phase, when LH levels rise, causing the release of the oocyte, and the residual corpus luteum starts secreting progesterone.
466. The purpose of the acrosome on the tip of sperm cells is to provide (A) the energy to burrow through the zona pellucida. (B) the molecular sensors for chemotaxis to the ovum. (C) enzymes that permit tunneling through the zona pellucida. (D) the energy required to power the flagellum for movement toward the ovum. (E) protection for the sperm in the hostile environment encountered en route to the ovum.
466. (C) A human sperm is a greatly reduced haploid cell. The sperm itself is composed of a head covered with the acrosome and containing the nucleus. While the description given in option B may be true (although we do not know that), we do know that option C is true, making it the best choice.
467. Components of human sperm include all of the following EXCEPT (A) microtubules. (B) flagellum. (C) endoplasmic reticulum. (D) acrosome. (E) mitochondria.
467. (C) What is not seen in any sperm is any significant amount of cytosol, and since the sperm has no mission other than to fertilize the ovum, it has no need for protein synthesis, which eliminates the need for an endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, or ribosomes.
469. Which of the following hormones plays no role in a mother's lactation following birth? (A) Oxytocin (B) Estrogen (C) Progesterone (D) Prolactin (E) Testosterone
469. (E) Oxytocin is responsible for expelling the milk from the alveoli in which it is produced. The presence of estrogen at high levels following delivery slows milk production. The sudden drop in progesterone level induces milk production following delivery. Prolactin is responsible for regulating milk production following birth. Testosterone has no role in lactation.
470. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is best associated with (A) progressively increasing FSH and LH levels. (B) the secretory phase of the uterine cycle. (C) menses and uterine proliferation. (D) a spike of estrogen, LH, and FSH. (E) ovarian follicle maturation.
470. (B) Both the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle and the secretory phase of the uterine cycle occur between days 15 and 28 of the menstrual cycle.
471. Identify the component that would NOT be grouped with the others. (A) Epididymis (B) Prostate (C) Urethra (D) Vas deferens (E) Ureter
471. (E) Options A-D are all components of the human male reproduction system. The ureters are the tubes that connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
472. Which of the following serves as the ultimate regulator of FSH and LH in males? (A) The interstitial cells of the testes (B) The anterior pituitary (C) The Sertoli cells of the testes (D) The hypothalamus (E) None of these; males produce neither LH nor FSH
472. (D) Both FSH and LH are vital in the formation of seminiferous tubules and testosterone, respectively, and are produced within the anterior pituitary. The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by producing a gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
473. What is the genetic composition of the polar body prior to the second meiotic division? (A) Aneuploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Haploid (E) The polar body is fully degenerate and contains no DNA.
473. (B) Oogenesis, the formation of the mature ovum, is a process that follows the normal meiotic pathway, with the tetraploid primary oocyte dividing into two diploid cells, which then further divide into four haploid gametes. What distinguishes the resulting three polar bodies from the single ovum is the unequal distribution of cytoplasm, not DNA.
474. Why is the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear), a method that is almost 70 years old, still preferred for the diagnosis of cervical cancer over the more specific and sensitive PCR test for HPV? (A) An abnormal Pap smear is more predictive than the detection of just any HPV in cervical tissue. (B) HPV is not linked to cervical cancer, but only to genital warts. (C) The Pap smear is much cheaper and requires no technician time. (D) The available vaccine for HPV produces PCR false positives. (E) The Pap smear is actually being replaced by PCR for HPV.
474. (A) Yes, the Pap smear is old, but it is still the best screen for cervical cancer. While the PCR for HPV is more sensitive, and can be highly specific for the high-risk genotypes that are most linked to cancer, if the virus is detected without any evidence of dysplasia, the treatment plan is to wait and periodically follow up with . . . the Pap smear.
5. Certain ovarian tumors called granulosa cell tumors are known to produce excessive levels of estrogen. A physician who diagnoses a granulosa cell tumor should look for a secondary cancer in which of the following parts of the reproductive tract? A. Fallopian tube B. Cervix C. Endometrium D. Vagina
5. C Estrogen is known to cause growth of the endometrial lining during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, and its levels stay high during the luteal phase to promote vascularization and glandularization of this tissue. Excessive levels of estrogen may provide a strong enough signal for cell growth to promote tumor formation, or even cancer. The other tissues listed in this question require estrogen for development, but are not strongly associated with rapid tissue growth due to estrogen.
6. Upon ovulation, the oocyte is released into the: A. fallopian tube. B. follicle. C. abdominal cavity. D. uterus.
6. C This subtle point about ovulation eludes most students and remains hard to believe until the organs are examined in anatomy class in medical school. The ruptured ovarian follicle releases an oocyte into the abdominal cavity, close to the entrance of the fallopian tube. With the aid of beating cilia, the oocyte is drawn into the fallopian tube, through which it travels until it reaches the uterus. If it is fertilized in the fallopian tube, it will implant in the uterine wall. If fertilization does not occur, it will be expelled along with the uterine lining during menstruation.
7. Cancer cells are cells in which mitosis occurs continuously, without regard to quality or quantity of the cells produced. For this reason, most chemotherapies attack rapidly dividing cells. At which point(s) in the cell cycle could chemotherapy effectively prevent cancer cell division? I. S stage II. Prophase III. Metaphase A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
7. D The question is asking us to determine at which points in the cell cycle we can prevent or at least lower the number of cells undergoing mitosis. One idea would be to prevent DNA synthesis during the S stage of the cell cycle. Without the DNA being replicated, two viable daughter cells could not be formed. Another idea would be preventing the mitotic cycle from occurring altogether in prophase by preventing spindle apparatus formation, preventing the nuclear mem- brane from dissolving, or other processes during this phase. Similarly, a treatment that would act on cells in the metaphase stage of the cell cycle would also interfere with the mitotic cycle. Therefore, any of the three solutions presented would be a viable option.
8. Which of the following INCORRECTLY pairs a structure of the male reproductive system with a feature of the structure? A. Seminal vesicles-produce alkaline fructose- containing secretions B. Epididymis-surrounded by muscle to raise and lower the testes C. Vas deferens-tube connecting the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct D. Cowper's glands-produce a fluid to clear traces of urine in the urethra
8. B The epididymis is the site of sperm maturation at the posterior side of the testis. In the epididymis, sperm gain mobility and are stored until ejaculation. It is the vas deferens (ductus deferens) that is surrounded by muscle that raises and lowers the testis to maintain a constant temperature suitable for sperm production, not the epididymis.
9. What is the last point in the meiotic cycle in which the cell has a diploid number of chromosomes? A. During interphase B. During telophase I C. During interkinesis D. During telophase II
9. B The first meiotic division (reductional division) separates homologous chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell during anaphase I. Near the end of telophase I, cytokinesis occurs, resulting in two haploid (n) daughter cells. Thus, during interkinesis and anaphase II, the daughter cells are already haploid, eliminating choices (C) and (D). The cell is diploid during interphase, choice (A), but remains diploid up until the end of telophase I.
5. During human gestation, rudiments of all organs develop (A) in the first trimester. (B) in the second trimester. (C) in the third trimester. (D) during the blastocyst stage.
A
2. In male mammals, excretory and reproductive systems share (A) the vas deferens. (C) the seminal vesicle. (B) the urethra. (D) the prostate.
B
6. Which of the following is a true statement? (A) All mammals have menstrual cycles.. (B) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles. (C) Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles. (D) Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles.
B
4. Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during (A) the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle. (B) the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. (C) the period just before ovulation. (D) the secretory phase of the uterine cycle.
C
7. For which of the following is the number the same in human males and females? (A) interruptions in meiotic divisions (B) functional gametes produced by meiosis (C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete (D) different cell types produced by meiosis
C
8. Which statement about human reproduction is false? (A) Fertilization occurs in the oviduct. (B) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis require different temperatures. (C) An oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it. (D) The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the Andlumen of the seminiferous tubules.
D
Go to Activity 43.2 Spermatogenesis Life10e.com/ac43.2
Go to Activity 43.2 Spermatogenesis Life10e.com/ac43.2
Go to Activity 43.3 The Human Female Reproductive Tract Life10e.com/ac43.3
Go to Activity 43.3 The Human Female Reproductive Tract Life10e.com/ac43.3
Go to Animated Tutorial 43.1 Fertilization in a Sea Urchin Life10e.com/at43
Go to Animated Tutorial 43.1 Fertilization in a Sea Urchin Life10e.com/at43
Go to Animated Tutorial 43.2 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles Life10e.com/at43
Go to Animated Tutorial 43.2 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles Life10e.com/at43
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100012923 choose Test Bank for Vanders Human Physiology 14th Edition by Widmaier Chapter 18 and download all q's and a's
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100012923 choose Test Bank for Vanders Human Physiology 14th Edition by Widmaier Chapter 18 and download all q's and a's.
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100002681 choose Test Bank for Brooker Biology 4th Edition Chapter 51 and download all q's and a's
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100002681 choose Test Bank for Brooker Biology 4th Edition Chapter 51 and download all q's and a's
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100002709 choose Test Bank for Campbell Biology 11th Edition Chapter 46 and download all q's and a's Remember also to do Pearson mcqs on iPhone
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100002709 choose Test Bank for Campbell Biology 11th Edition Chapter 46 and download all q's and a's Remember also to do Pearson mcqs on iPhone
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100003015 choose Test Bank for Mader Biology 12th Edition, Chapter 41 and download all q's and a's
Go to DadofG's Testbankcampus username my email password dontn123 click view all my orders order #100003015 choose Test Bank for Mader Biology 12th Edition, Chapter 41 and download all q's and a's
Go to the Review Questions at the end of chapter 7 of Hickman - all the answers are in Chegg under Integrated Pinciples of Zoology 14th Edition
Go to the Review Questions at the end of chapter 7 of Hickman - all the answers are in Chegg under Integrated Pinciples of Zoology 14th Edition
Which cells would be found closest to the basement membrane of a seminiferous tubule? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. Primary spermatocytes Spermatids Spermatozoa Secondary spermatocytes Spermatogonia
The correct answer is: Spermatogonia
Refer to the figure showing the male reproductive tract. (Click image to enlarge.) A man who is having trouble conceiving a child consults a fertility clinic and is told that he has prostatitis. It is a low-grade infection, but it appears to be causing less alkaline semen and is likely the cause of his infertility. The physician points to the structure(s) labeled _______ to indicate where the infection is located. 1 2 3 4 5
The correct answer is: 3
Refer to the figure showing the male reproductive tract. (Click image to enlarge.) If a man elects to have a vasectomy as a form of contraception, which duct(s) will be cut and tied off in the procedure? 1 2 3 4 5
The correct answer is: 3
Which cell would not be found in an adult human male? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. Spermatid Spermatogonium First polar body Secondary spermatocyte Primary spermatocyte
The correct answer is: First polar body
Which characterizes asexually reproducing animals? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. Populations have difficulty adapting to environmental change. They generate genetic diversity within a population. Siblings are genetically different from parents. They are often motile instead of sessile (attached to substrate). They are typically vertebrates.
The correct answer is: Populations have difficulty adapting to environmental change.
Which statement regarding reproduction is true? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. All members of a population that reproduce sexually can convert resources to offspring. Asexual reproduction generates more genetic diversity than does sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction is an inefficient way for an organism to perpetuate its genome. Sexual reproduction preserves successful genotypes in a particular environment. Some animals reproduce both sexually and asexually.
The correct answer is: Some animals reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Which sequence represents the route by which sperm travel through the human female reproductive tract? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct Vagina, cervix, oviduct, uterus Cervix, vagina, uterus, oviduct Vagina, cervix, oviduct, uterus, ovary Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct, ovary
The correct answer is: Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct
Release of gametes to the aquatic environment is called Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. copulation. parthenogenesis. mating. internal fertilization. spawning.
The correct answer is: spawning.
1. Which statement about human oocytes is true? a. By birth, a human female infant has produced her lifetime supply of oocytes. b. At the onset of puberty, ovarian follicles produce new oocytes in response to hormonal stimulation. c. A woman stops producing oocytes at the onset of menopause. d. A woman produces oocytes throughout adolescence. e. Oocytes are stored in the oviducts.
a
9. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle a. begins with falling levels of estradiol and progesterone. b. corresponds with the luteal phase of the ovar- ian cycle. c. corresponds with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. d. occurs when the endometrium begins to disin- tegrate and menstrual flow occurs.
b
4. What are the products of meiosis I during spermatogenesis? a. 2 spermatogonia b. 2 primary spermatocytes c. 2 secondary spermatocytes d. 4 secondary spermatocytes
c
8. What is the role of the corpus luteum in pregnancy? a. It makes testosterone. b. It stimulates ovulation. c. It makes estradiol and progesterone. d. It stimulates uterine contractions during labor.
c
2. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that a. spermatogenesis produces gametes with greater stores of raw materials than those produced by oogenesis. b. spermatocytes remain in prophase of the first meiotic division longer than oocytes. c. oogenesis produces four equally functional haploid cells per meiotic event, and spermatogenesis does not. d. spermatogenesis produces many gametes with meager energy reserves, whereas oogenesis produces relatively few, well-provisioned gametes. e. spermatogenesis begins before birth in humans, whereas oogenesis does not start until the onset of puberty.
d
4. Which of the following statements about the ovarian and uterine cycles is not true? a. Falling estrogen and progesterone levels induce menstruation. b. A sudden rise in LH induces ovulation. c. Estrogen levels reach highest levels in the follicular phase and progesterone reaches highest levels in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle. d. If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum secretes hCG. e. Estrogen is produced by follicle cells.
d
5. Contractions of muscles in the uterine wall are stimulated by a. progesterone. b. estrogen. c. prolactin. d. oxytocin. e. human chorionic gonadotropin.
d
7. Which of the following statements correctly de- scribes how the production of human sperm and eggs differs? a. The meiotic production of gametes occurs be- fore a female is born but does not begin until puberty in males. b. Meiosis occurs in the testes of males but in the oviducts of females. c. Primary oocytes stop dividing by mitosis before birth, whereas male primary spermato- cytes continue to divide throughout life. d. Meiosis is an uninterrupted process in males, whereas in females it resumes when a follicle matures and is only completed when a sperm penetrates the egg.
d
