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By selling short a futures contract of $100,000 at a price of 96, you are agreeing to deliver ________ face value securities for ________. A) $100,000; $104,167 B) $96,000; $100,000 C) $100,000; $96,000 D) $100,000; $100,000
C) $100,000; $96,000
The development of financial futures contracts by the Chicago Board of Trade happened in A) 1955. B) 1965. C) 1975. D) 1985.
C) 1975
The use of financial derivatives by financial institutions to hedge can decrease risk. However, they can also increase risk. Which of the following examples illustrates this? A) Financial derivatives allow financial institutions to increase their leverage. B) Some institutions such huge amounts of derivatives that the amounts exceed capital. C) All of the above are valid examples. D) None of the above are valid examples.
C) All of the above are valid examples
The elimination of riskless profit opportunities in the futures market is referred to as A) speculation. B) hedging. C) arbitrage. D) open interest. E) mark to market
C) Arbitrage
The advantage of forward contracts over futures contracts is that forward contracts A) are standardized. B) have lower default risk. C) are more flexible. D) both A and B are true
C) Are more flexible
An option that can be exercised only at maturity is called a(n) A) swap. B) stock option. C) European option. D) American option.
C) European option
Financial derivatives include A) stocks. B) bonds. C) forward contracts. D) both A and B.
C) Forward contracts
Financial derivatives include A) stocks. B) bonds. C) futures. D) none of the above.
C) Futures
The biggest danger of financial derivatives occurs A) when notional amounts exceed a bank's capital. B) when financial market prices and rates are highly volatile. C) in the trading activities of financial institutions. D) in the large amount of credit exposure.
C) In the trading activities of financial institutions
As compared to a default on the notional principle, a default on a swap A) is more costly. B) is about as costly. C) is less costly. D) may cost more or less than default on the notional principle
C) Is less costly
The futures markets have grown rapidly in recent years because A) interest rate volatility has increased. B) financial managers are more risk averse. C) of both A and B. D) of neither A nor B.
C) Of both A and B
A call option gives the owner the ________ to ________ the underlying security. A) right; sell B) obligation; sell C) right; buy D) obligation; buy
C) Right; buy
Hedging risk involves engaging in a financial transaction that offsets a long position by taking an additional ________ position, or offsets a short position by taking an additional ________ position. A) long; long B) long; short C) short; long D) short; short
C) Short; long
The price specified in an option contract at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying asset is called the A) premium. B) call. C) strike price. D) put.
C) Strike price
Futures markets have grown rapidly because futures contracts A) are standardized. B) have lower default risk. C) are liquid. D) are all of the above
D) Are all of the above
The advantage of forward contracts over futures contracts is that forward contracts A) are standardized. B) have lower default risk. C) are more liquid. D) are none of the above
D) Are none of the above
Which of the following is a likely reason for a portfolio manager to sell a stock index future short? A) He believes the market will rise. B) He wants to lock in current prices. C) He wants to reduce stock market risk. D) Both B and C are correct.
D) Both B and C are correct
The price specified in an option contract at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying asset is called the A) premium. B) strike price. C) exercise price. D) both B and C of the above
D) Both B and C of the above
Which of the following features of Treasury bond futures contracts were not designed to increase liquidity? A) standardized contracts B) traded up until maturity C) not tied to one specific type of bond D) can be closed with offsetting trade
D) Can be closed with offsetting trade
Financial futures are regularly traded on all of the following except the A) Chicago Board of Trade. B) Chicago Mercantile Exchange. C) New York Futures Exchange. D) Chicago Commodity Markets Board
D) Chicago Commodity Markets Board
The purpose of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission is to do all of the following except A) oversee futures trading. B) see that prices are not manipulated. C) approve proposed futures contracts. D) establish minimum prices for futures contracts
D) Establish minimum prices for futures contracts
Futures differ from forwards because they are A) used to hedge portfolios. B) used to hedge individual securities. C) used in both financial and foreign exchange markets. D) marked to market daily.
D) Marked to market daily
Which of the following features of Treasury bond futures contracts were not designed to increase liquidity? A) standardized contracts B) traded up until maturity C) not tied to one specific type of bond D) marked to market daily
D) Marked to market daily
A put option gives the seller the ________ to ________ the underlying security. A) right; sell B) obligation; sell C) right; buy D) obligation; buy
D) Obligation; buy
Futures differ from forwards because they are A) used to hedge portfolios. B) used to hedge individual securities. C) used in both financial and foreign exchange markets. D) standardized contracts.
D) Standardized contracts
A financial contract that obligates one party to exchange a set of payments it owns for another set of payments owned by another party is called a A) cross hedge. B) cross call option. C) cross put option. D) swap.
D) Swap
If you buy an option to sell Treasury futures at 110, and at expiration the market price is 115, A) the call will be exercised. B) the put will be exercised. C) the call will not be exercised. D) the put will not be exercised
D) The put will not be exercised
The disadvantage of swaps is that A) they lack liquidity. B) it is difficult to arrange for a counterparty. C) they suffer from default risk. D) they are all of the above.
D) They are all of the above
With a short contract, the investor (may) A) sell securities in the future. B) buy securities in the future. C) hedge in the future. D) close out his position in the future
A) Sell securities in the future
If a portfolio manager believes stock prices will fall and knows that a block of funds will be received in the future, then he should A) sell stock index futures short. B) buy stock index futures long. C) stay out of the futures market. D) borrow and buy securities now
A) Sell stock index futures short
A contract that calls for the investor to (possibly) sell securities on a future date is called a A) short contract. B) long contract. C) hedge. D) micro hedge.
A) Short contract
The risk that occurs because stock prices fluctuate is called A) stock market risk. B) reinvestment risk. C) interest-rate risk. D) default risk.
A) Stock market risk
Options on individual stocks are referred to as A) stock options. B) futures options. C) American options. D) individual options
A) Stock options
Which of the following is not a financial derivative? A) Stocks B) Futures C) Options D) Forward contracts
A) Stocks
If you buy an option to buy Treasury futures at 110, and at expiration the market price is 115, A) the call will be exercised. B) the put will be exercised. C) the call will not be exercised. D) the put will not be exercised
A) The call will be exercised
A valid concern about financial derivatives is that A) they allow financial institutions to increase their leverage. B) they are too sophisticated because they are so complicated. C) the notional amounts can greatly exceed a financial institution's capital. D) all of the above are valid concerns. E) none of the above are valid concerns
A) They allow financial institutions to increase their leverage
By selling short a futures contract of $100,000 at a price of 115, you are agreeing to deliver ________ face value securities for ________. A) $100,000; $115,000 B) $115,000; $110,000 C) $100,000; $100,000 D) $115,000; $115,000
A) $100,000; $115,000
If a financial institution uses stock index futures to completely hedge the systematic component of its stock portfolio, the resulting portfolio will have a beta close to A) 0.00. B) 1.00. C) 2.00. D) 0.50.
A) 0.00
Who would be most likely to buy a long stock index future? A) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will rise B) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will fall C) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will be stable D) None of the above would be likely to purchase a futures contract
A) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will rise
Futures contacts are marked to market every day. What does that mean? A) At the end of every trading day, the change in the value of the futures contract is added to or subtracted from the margin account. B) At the end of every trading day, all contracts are closed and positions are fully settled in cash. C) At the end of every trading day, the price of the contract is quoted. D) At the end of every trading day, all contracts that have lost money are closed to avoid possible defaults.
A) At the end of every trading day, the change in the value of the futures contract is added to or subtracted from the margin account
If a bank manager wants to protect the bank against losses that would be incurred on its portfolio of Treasury securities should interest rates rise, he could ________ options on financial futures. A) buy put B) buy call C) sell put D) sell call
A) Buy put
An option that gives the owner the right to buy a financial instrument at the exercise price within a specified period of time is a(n) A) call option. B) put option. C) American option. D) European option.
A) Call option
Futures contracts are regularly traded on the A) Chicago Board of Trade. B) New York Stock Exchange. C) American Stock Exchange. D) Chicago Board Options Exchange
A) Chicago Board of Trade
The agency responsible for regulation of the futures exchanges and trading in financial futures is the A) Commodity Futures Trading Commission. B) Securities and Exchange Commission. C) Federal Trade Commission. D) Futures Exchange Commission.
A) Commodity Futures Trading Commission
The main advantage of using options on futures contracts rather than the futures contracts themselves is that interest-rate risk is A) controlled while preserving the possibility of gains. B) controlled while removing the possibility of losses. C) not controlled but the possibility of gains is preserved. D) not controlled but the possibility of gains is lost.
A) Controlled while preserving the possibility of gains
Which of the following interest-rate futures contracts was the most widely traded (in terms of open interest) in May of 2016. A) Eurodollar B) Treasury bonds C) Treasury notes D) Two-year Treasury notes
A) Eurodollar
All other things held constant, premiums on call options will increase when the A) exercise price falls. B) volatility of the underlying asset falls. C) term to maturity decreases. D) futures price increases.
A) Exercise price falls
Future options are particularly useful for offsetting risk created when a bank A) extends option-like commitments to bank customers. B) has the right to borrow at a fixed-rate in the future. C) has a loan portfolio of primarily fixed-rate loan products. D) is involved in gold and other inflation-hedging instruments.
A) Extends option-like commitments to bank customers
An increase in the volatility of the underlying asset, all other things held constant, will ________ the option premium. A) increase B) decrease C) not affect D) Not enough information is given
A) Increase
A swap that involves the exchange of one set of interest payments for another set of interest payments is called a(n) A) interest-rate swap. B) currency swap. C) swaption. D) notional swap.
A) Interest-rate swap
If you sell a futures contract on the S&P 500 Index at a price of 450 and the index rises to 500, you will A) lose $12,500. B) gain $12,500. C) lose $50. D) gain $50.
A) Lose $12,500
When a financial institution is hedging interest-rate risk on its overall portfolio, the hedge is a A) macro hedge. B) micro hedge. C) cross hedge. D) futures hedge
A) Macro hedge
The seller of an option has the ________ to buy or sell the underlying asset, while the purchaser of an option has the ________ to buy or sell the asset. A) obligation; right B) right; obligation C) obligation; obligation D) right; right
A) Obligation; right
Options are contracts that give the purchasers the A) opportunity to buy or sell an underlying asset. B) the obligation to buy or sell an underlying asset. C) the right to hold an underlying asset. D) the right to switch payment streams
A) Opportunity to buy or sell an underlying asset
If Second National Bank has more rate-sensitive liabilities than rate-sensitive assets, it can reduce interest-rate risk with a swap which requires Second National to A) pay a fixed rate while receiving a floating rate. B) receive a fixed rate while paying a floating rate. C) both receive and pay a fixed rate. D) both receive and pay a floating rate.
A) Pay a fixed rate while receiving a floating rate
If a bank has a gap of -$10 million, it can reduce its interest-rate risk by A) paying a fixed rate on $10 million and receiving a floating rate on $10 million. B) paying a floating rate on $10 million and receiving a fixed rate on $10 million. C) selling $20 million fixed-rate assets. D) buying $20 million fixed-rate assets
A) Paying a fixed rate on $10 million and receiving a floating rate on $10 million
The main disadvantage of futures contracts as compared to options on futures contracts is that futures A) remove the possibility of gains. B) increase the transactions cost. C) are not as effective a hedge. D) do not remove the possibility of losses
A) Remove the possibility of gains
A put option gives the owner the ________ to ________ the underlying security. A) right; sell B) obligation; sell C) right; buy D) obligation; buy
A) Right; sell
If you sell a short contract on financial futures, you hope interest rates will A) rise. B) fall. C) not change. D) fluctuate
A) Rise
The agency which regulates stock options is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission. B) Commodities Futures Trading Commission. C) Federal Trade Commission. D) Both A and B are true.
A) Securities and Exchange Commission
If a firm is due to be paid in euros in two months, to hedge against exchange rate risk the firm should A) sell foreign exchange futures short. B) buy foreign exchange futures long. C) stay out of the exchange futures market. D) do none of the above
A) Sell foreign exchange funds short
By buying a long $100,000 futures contract for 115, you agree to pay ________ for ________ face value securities. A) $100,000; $115,000 B) $115,000; $100,000 C) $86,956; $100,000 D) $86,956; $115,000
B) $115,000; $100,000
Stock index futures were developed in ________ to help manage stock market risk. A) 1962 B) 1982 C) 1872 D) 1992
B) 1982
Which is not a problem of forward contracts? A) A lack of liquidity B) A lack of flexibility C) The difficulty of finding a counterparty D) Default risk
B) A lack of flexibility
One advantage of using swaps to eliminate interest-rate risk is that swaps A) are less costly than futures. B) are less costly than rearranging balance sheets. C) are more liquid than futures. D) have better accounting treatment than options
B) Are less costly than rearranging balance sheets
With a long contract, the investor (may) A) sell securities in the future. B) buy securities in the future. C) hedge in the future. D) close out his position in the future
B) Buy securities in the future
If a firm must pay for goods it has ordered with foreign currency, it can hedge its foreign exchange rate risk by A) selling foreign exchange futures short. B) buying foreign exchange futures long. C) staying out of the exchange futures market. D) doing none of the above.
B) Buying foreign exchange futures short
The agency which regulates futures options is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission. B) Commodities Futures Trading Commission. C) Federal Trade Commission. D) Both A and B are true.
B) Commodities Futures Trading Commission
A swap that involves the exchange of a set of payments in one currency for a set of payments in another currency is a(n) A) interest-rate swap. B) currency swap. C) swaption. D) notional swap.
B) Currency swap
An increase in the exercise price, all other things held constant, will ________ the premium on call options. A) increase B) decrease C) not affect D) Not enough information is given.
B) Decrease
If you buy a long contract on financial futures, you hope interest rates will A) rise. B) fall. C) not change. D) fluctuate
B) Fall
If you sell a short futures contract, you hope that bond prices will A) rise. B) fall. C) not change. D) fluctuate.
B) Fall
Options on futures contracts are referred to as A) stock options. B) futures options. C) American options. D) individual options
B) Futures options
If you buy a futures contract on the S&P 500 Index at a price of 450 and the index rises to 500, you will A) lose $12,500. B) gain $12,500. C) lose $50. D) gain $50.
B) Gain $12,500
1) A contract that calls for the investor to (possibly) buy securities on a future date is called a A) short contract. B) long contract. C) hedge. D) cross.
B) Long contract
When a financial institution hedges the interest-rate risk for a specific asset, the hedge is called a A) macro hedge. B) micro hedge. C) cross hedge. D) futures hedge
B) Micro hedge
A call option gives the seller the ________ to ________ the underlying security. A) right; sell B) obligation; sell C) right; buy D) obligation; buy
B) Obligation; sell
The number of contracts outstanding in a particular financial future is the A) demand coefficient. B) open interest. C) index level. D) outstanding balanc
B) Open interest
An option that gives the owner the right to sell a financial instrument at the exercise price within a specified period of time is a(n) A) call option. B) put option. C) American option. D) European option.
B) Put option
If Second National Bank has more rate-sensitive assets than rate-sensitive liabilities, it can reduce interest-rate risk with a swap which requires Second National to A) pay a fixed rate while receiving a floating rate. B) receive a fixed rate while paying a floating rate. C) both receive and pay a fixed rate. D) both receive and pay a floating rate.
B) Receive a fixed rate while paying a floating rate
The most widely traded stock index future is on the A) Dow Jones 1000 index. B) S&P 500 index. C) NASDAQ index. D) Dow Jones 30 index
B) S&P 500 index
The seller of an option has the A) right to buy or sell the underlying asset. B) the obligation to buy or sell the underlying asset. C) ability to reduce transaction risk. D) right to exchange one payment stream for another
B) The obligation to buy or sell the underlying asset
If you buy an option to sell Treasury futures at 115, and at expiration the market price is 110, A) the call will be exercised. B) the put will be exercised. C) the call will not be exercised. D) the put will not be exercised.
B) The put will not be exercised
The main reason to buy an option on a futures contract rather than the futures contract itself is A) to reduce transaction cost. B) to preserve the possibility for gains. C) to limit losses. D) to remove the possibility for gain
B) To preserve the possibility for gains
All other things held constant, premiums on both put and call options will increase when the A) exercise price increases. B) volatility of the underlying asset increases. C) term to maturity decreases. D) futures price increases.
B) Volatility of the underlying asset increases
If you buy an option to buy Treasury futures at 115, and at expiration the market price is 110, A) the call will be exercised. B) the put will be exercised. C) the call will not be exercised. D) the put will not be exercised
C) The call will not be exercised
An interest-rate swap involves the exchange of one set of interest payments for another set of interest payments, and typically specifies all of the following, except A) the interest rate on the payments that are being exchanged B) the type of interest payments C) the strike, or exercise, price D) the notional principal
C) The strike, or exercise, price
On the final settlement date of an S&P 500 Index futures contract, the index is at 1500. What is the value of the contract? A) $0 B) $125,000 C) $250,000 D) $375,000
D) $375,000
All other things held constant, premiums on put options will increase when the A) exercise price increases. B) volatility of the underlying asset falls. C) term to maturity increases. D) A and C are both true
D) A and C are both true
Stock index futures contracts are settled with ________ rather than settled with ________. A) delivery of an S&P 500 ETF; a cash delivery B) delivery of a security; a cash delivery C) either a cash or security delivery; cash only D) a cash delivery; delivery of a security
D) A cash delivery; delivery of a security
Intermediaries are active in the swap markets because A) they increase liquidity. B) they reduce default risk. C) they reduce search cost. D) all of the above are true.
D) All of the above are true
An option that can be exercised at any time up to maturity is called a(n) A) swap. B) stock option. C) European option. D) American option
D) American option
The concept of ________ guarantees that the price of a futures contract at expiration equals the price of the underlying asset to be delivered. A) supply B) demand C) profit D) arbitrage
D) Arbitrage
All other things held constant, premiums on put options will increase when the A) exercise price increases. B) volatility of the underlying asset increases. C) term to maturity increases. D) A and C are both true. E) All of the above are true
E) All of the above are true
An interest-rate forward contracts that involves the future sale of a debt instrument would specify which of the following? A) the actual debt instrument that will be delivered B) the amount that will be delivered C) the price D) the date E) All of the above would be specified
E) All of the above would be specified