245 exam #2 NCLEX style
The nurse evaluates that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective on finding that the patient's a.) urine output is 40 ml over the last hour. b.) hemoglobin is within normal limits. c.) CVP has decreased. d.) mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 65 mm Hg.
A
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. The nurse will anticipate a. administration of immunosuppressant medications. b. insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis. c. placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list. d. drawing blood for human leukocyte antigen (HLA) and ABO compatibility matching.
a
A patient who received a bone marrow transplant for treatment of leukemia develops a skin rash 10 days after the transplant. The nurse recognizes this reaction as an indication that the: a.donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. b. patient's antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow. c. patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. d. patient will need treatment to prevent hyperacute rejection.
a
The nurse plans long-term goals for the patient who has had a heart transplant with the knowledge that a common cause of death in heart transplant patients during the first year is: a. infection b. heart failure. c. embolization d. malignant conditions
a
A transplant rejection which usually reversible with additional or increased immunosuppressant therapy.
acute
In this type of transplant rejection the recipient's T-cytotoxic lymphocytes attack the foreign organ.
acute
Transplant rejection which requires long-term use of immunosuppressant necessary to combat the rejection
acute
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm the diagnosis of ALS? 1. Electromyogram (EMG). 2. Muscle biopsy. 3. Serum creatine kinase (CK). 4. Pulmonary function test.
2. Biopsy confirms changes consistent with atrophy and loss of muscle fiber, both characteristic of ALS.
The client in shock is prescribed an infusion of lactated Ringer's solution. The nurse recognizes that the function of this fluid in the treatment of shock is to: a.) Replace fluid, and promote urine output. b.) Draw water into cells. c.) Draw water from cells to blood vessels. d.) Maintain vascular volume.
A
The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). Which of the following is the priority intervention? 1) Advise the patient to drink liquids through a straw 2) Monitor the patient's temperature to avoid overheating 3) Teach the patient's family how to meet the patient's needs 4) Encourage bed rest in order to conserve strength
1
Which of these assessment findings should the healthcare provider expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of multiple sclerosis (MS)? 1) Vision loss 2) Dementia 3) Muscle atrophy 4) Clonus
1
An unconscious patient receiving emergency care following an automobile crash accident has a possible spinal cord injury. What guidelines for emergency care will be followed? Select all that apply. 1. Immobilize the neck using rolled towels or a cervical collar. 2. The patient will be placed in a supine position 3. The patient will be placed on a ventilator. 4. The head of the bed will be elevated. 5. The patient's head will be secured with a belt or tape secured to the stretcher.
1, 2, 5
The client is diagnosed with ALS. Which client problem would be most appropriate for this client? 1. Disuse syndrome. 2. Altered body image. 3. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance. 4. Alteration in pain.
1. Disuse syndrome is associated with complications of bedrest. Clients withALS cannot move and reposition themselves, and they frequently have altered nutritional and hydration status.
A client has had multiple sclerosis (MS) for 15 years and has received various drug therapies. What is the primary reason why the nurse has found it difficult to evaluate the effectiveness of the drugs that the client has used? 1. The client exhibits intolerance to many drugs. 2. The client experiences spontaneous remissions from time to time. 3. The client requires multiple drugs simultaneously. 4. The client endures long periods of exacerbation before the illness responds to a particular drug.
2
A patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) is prescribed baclofen (Gablofen). Which question will the healthcare provider ask when evaluating the effectiveness of the medication? 1)"Are you feeling stronger and less fatigued today?" 2) "Has the stiffness in your muscles decreased?" 3) "Did you have a bowel movement this morning?" 4) "Have you been able to urinate without difficulty?"
2
A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level complains of a severe headache and an "anxious feeling." Which is the most appropriate initial reaction by the nurse? 1. Try to calm the patient and make the environment soothing. 2. Assess for a full bladder. 3. Notify the healthcare provider. 4. Prepare the patient for diagnostic radiography.
2
The nurse is teaching a client with bladder dysfunction from multiple sclerosis (MS) about bladder training at home. Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL/ 24 hours. 2. Drink 400 to 500 mL with each meal. 3. Drink fluids midmorning, midafternoon, and late afternoon. 4. Attempt to void at least every 2 hours. 5. Use intermittent catheterization as needed.
2, 3, 4, 5
In a patient with MS, which of the following will the healthcare expect to identify? Select all that apply. 1) Flaccid paralysis 2) Nystagmus 3) Resting tremors 4) Scanning speech 5) Seizures
2, 4
The healthcare provider is teaching a group of patients diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) about common bladder problems. Which of the following will the healthcare provider include? Select all that apply. 1. "Drinking caffeinated beverages can help you empty your bladder completely." 2. "MS may cause the bladder to contract and empty more often than usual." 3. "You should not attempt to urinate until you feel that your bladder is full." 4. "Drink 1.5 - 2 liters of water each day so your urine isn't too concentrated." 5. "Drinking lots of citrus juices will decrease the amount of bacteria in your urinary tract." 6. "Patients with MS are at increased risk of developing urinary tract infections."
2, 4, 6
A patient has manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of these assessments would indicate a possible cause for this condition? Select all that apply. 1. hypertension 2. kinked catheter tubing 3. respiratory wheezes and stridor 4. diarrhea 5. fecal impaction
2, 5
The client with ALS is admitted to the medical unit with shortness of breath, dyspnea, and respiratory complications. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 2. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. 3. Assess the client's lung sounds. 4. Obtain a pulse oximeter reading.
2. Oxygen should be given immediately to help alleviate the difficulty breathing. Remember that oxygenation is priority.
Which intervention should the nurse suggest to help a client with multiple sclerosis avoid episodes of urinary incontinence? 1. Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL/ day. 2. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. 3. Establish a regular voiding schedule. 4. Administer prophylactic antibiotics, as ordered.
3
Which of the following is not a realistic outcome to establish with a client who has multiple sclerosis (MS)? The client will: 1. Develop joint mobility. 2. Develop muscle strength. 3. Develop cognition. 4. Develop mood elevation.
3
While caring for the patient with spinal cord injury (SCI), the nurse elevates the head of the bed, removes compression stockings, and continues to assess vital signs every two to three minutes while searching for the cause in order to prevent loss of consciousness or death. By practicing these interventions, the nurse is avoiding the most dangerous complication of autonomic dysreflexia, which is which of the following? 1. hypoxia 2. bradycardia 3. elevated blood pressure 4. tachycardia
3
The client is diagnosed with ALS. As the disease progresses, which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Discuss the need to be placed in a long-term care facility. 2. Explain how to care for a sigmoid colostomy. 3. Assist the client to prepare an advance directive. 4. Teach the client how to use a motorized wheelchair.
3. A client with ALS usually dies within five (5) years. Therefore, the nurse should offer the client the opportunity to determine how he/she wants to die.
A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing bowel incontinence and is starting a bowel retraining program. Which strategy is inappropriate? 1. Eating a diet high in fiber. 2. Setting a regular time for elimination. 3. Using an elevated toilet seat. 4. Limiting fluid intake to 1,000 mL/ day.
4
A hospitalized patient with a C7 cord injury begins to yell "I can't feel my legs anymore." Which is the most appropriate action by the nurse? 1. Remind the patient of her injury and try to comfort her. 2. Call the healthcare provider and get an order for radiologic evaluation. 3. Prepare the patient for surgery, as her condition is worsening. 4. Explain to the patient that this could be a common, temporary problem.
4
The right hand of a client with multiple sclerosis trembles severely whenever she attempts a voluntary action. She spills her coffee twice at lunch and cannot get her dress fastened securely. Which is the best legal documentation in nurses' notes of the chart for this client assessment? 1. "Has an intention tremor of the right hand." 2. "Right-hand tremor worsens with purposeful acts." 3. "Needs assistance with dressing and eating due to severe trembling and clumsiness." 4. "Slight shaking of right hand increases to severe tremor when client tries to button her clothes or drink from a cup."
4
The client is being evaluated to rule out ALS. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse note to confirm the diagnosis? 1. Muscle atrophy and flaccidity. 2. Fatigue and malnutrition. 3. Slurred speech and dysphagia. 4. Weakness and paralysis.
4. ALS results from the degeneration and demyelination of motor neurons in the spinal cord, which results in paralysis and weakness of the muscles.
The client diagnosed with ALS is prescribed an antiglutamate, riluzole (Rilutek).Which instruction should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Take the medication with food. 2. Do not eat green, leafy vegetables. 3. Use SPF 30 when going out in the sun. 4. Report any febrile illness.
4. The medication can cause blood dyscrasias. Therefore, the client is monitored for liver function, blood count, blood chemistries, and alkaline phosphatase. The client should report any febrile illness. This is the first medication developed to treat ALS.
A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.
A
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 3 months ago. Which of the following types of bladder management methods should the nurse use for this client? a. condom catheter b. intermittent urinary catheterization c. crede's method d. indwelling urinary catheter
A
A patient is admitted to the emergency department after sustaining abdominal injuries and a broken femur from a motor vehicle accident. The patient is pale, diaphoretic, and is not talking coherently. Vital signs upon admission are temperature 98 F (36 C), heart rate 130 beats/minute, respiratory rate 34 breaths/minute, blood pressure 50/40 mmHg. The healthcare provider suspects which type of shock? a.) Hypovolemic b.) Cardiogenic c.) Neurogenic d.) Distributive
A
A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) and cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 86/50, pulse 126, respirations 30. Hemodynamic monitoring reveals an elevated PAWP and decreased cardiac output. The nurse will anticipate: a.) administration of furosemide (Lasix) IV. b.) titration of an epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip. c.) administration of a normal saline bolus. d.) assisting with endotracheal intubation.
A
Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30
A
Nursing assessment of a client receiving serum albumin for treatment of shock should include: a.) Assessing lung sounds. b.) Monitoring glucose. c.) Monitoring the potassium level. d.) Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit.
A
When admitting a 42-year-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.
A
Which clinical manifestation do you interpret as representing neurogenic shock in a patient with acute spinal cord injury? A. Bradycardia B. Hypertension C. Neurogenic spasticity D. Bounding pedal pulses
A
a.) cardiac output is increased and the central venous pressure (CVP) is low. Rationale: A high cardiac output and low CVP suggest septic shock, and massive fluid replacement is indicated. Increased PAWP indicates that the patient has excessive fluid volume (and suggests cardiogenic shock), and diuresis is indicated. Bradycardia and a low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) suggest neurogenic shock, and fluids should be infused cautiously. When assessing the hemodynamic information for a newly admitted patient in shock of unknown etiology, the nurse will anticipate administration of large volumes of crystalloids when the a.) cardiac output is increased and the central venous pressure (CVP) is low. b.) pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased, and the urine output is low. c.) heart rate is decreased, and the systemic vascular resistance is low. d.) cardiac output is decreased and the PAWP is high.
A
a.) Rapid shallow respirations. d.) Elevated temperature. A client has been diagnosed with sepsis. The nurse will most likely find which of the following when assessing this client: Select all that apply: a.) Rapid shallow respirations. b.) Severe hypotension. c.) Mental status changes. d.) Elevated temperature. e.) Lactic acidosis. f.) Oliguria.
A, D
Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best? a."This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b."The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c."The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d."This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."
B
A 20-year-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.
B
A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who reports a severe headache and is sweating profusely. vital signs include BP 220/110, apical heart rate of 54/min. Which of the following acctions should the nurse take first? a. notify the provider b. sit the client upright in bed c. check the client's urinary catheter for blockage d. administer antihypertensive medication
B
A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patient's record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and ICP
B
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a spinal cord injury at the level of T2. Which of the following findings is of most concern to the nurse? a. SpO2 of 92% b. HR of 42 beats/min c. BP of 88/60 d. loss of motor and sensory function in arms and legs
B
A patient is treated in the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a.) check the blood pressure. b.) obtain an oxygen saturation. c.) attach a cardiac monitor. d.) check level of consciousness.
B
A patient who has been involved in a motor-vehicle crash is admitted to the ED with cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, and hypotension. All of these orders are written. Which one will the nurse act on first? a.) Insert two 14-gauge IV catheters. b.) Administer oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c.) Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitor. d.) Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.
B
A patient who is receiving chemotherapy is admitted to the hospital with acute dehydration caused by nausea and vomiting. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to best prevent the development of shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a.) Administer all medications through the patient's indwelling central line. b.) Place the patient in a private room. c.) Restrict the patient to foods that have been well-cooked or processed. d.) Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feeding.
B
A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse will teach the patient and family that a. use of the shoulders will be preserved. b. full function of the patient's arms will be retained. c. total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily. d. elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.
B
A patient with paraplegia has developed an irritable bladder with reflex emptying. The nurse teaches the patient a. hygiene care for an indwelling urinary catheter b. how to perform intermittent self-catheterization c. to empty the bladder with manual pelvic pressure in coordination with reflex voiding patterns d. that a urinary diversion, such as an ileal conduit, is the easiest way to handle urinary elimination
B
A week following a spinal cord injury at T2, a patient experiences movement in his leg and tells the nurse he is recovering some function. The nurses' best response to the patient is, a. it is really still too soon to know if you will have a return of function b. the could be a really positive finding. can you show me the movement c. that's wonderful. we will start exercising your legs more frequently now d. im sorry, but the movement is only a reflex and does not indicate normal function
B
After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
B
After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Pulse 102 beats/min b. Temperature 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg
B
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is used to treat a client experiencing cardiogenic shock. Nursing intervention includes: a.) Monitoring for fluid overload. b.) Monitoring for cardiac dysrhythmias. c.) Monitoring respiratory status. d.) Monitoring for hypotension.
B
Two days following a spinal cord injury, a patient asks continually about the extent of impairment that will result from the injury. The best response by the nurse is, a. you will have more normal function when spinal shock resolves and the reflex arc returns b. the extent of your injury cannot be determined until the secondary injury to the cord is resolved c. when your condition is more stable, an MRI will be done that can reveal the extent of the cord damage d. because long-term rehabilitation can affect the return of tunction, it will be years before we can tell when the complete effect will be
B
When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort, bibasilar crackles, and decreased breath sounds, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask. b. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs. c. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day. d. suction the patient's oral and pharyngeal airway.
B
Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.
B
While caring for a seriously ill patient, the nurse determines that the patient may be in the compensatory stage of shock on finding a.) cold, mottled extremities. b.) restlessness and apprehension. c.) a heart rate of 120 and cool, clammy skin. d.) systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg.
B
b. pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg. d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours.
B
b. prepare the patient for craniotomy A 23-year-old patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.
B
When caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Endotracheal suctioning b. Continuous cardiac monitoring c. Avoidance of cool room temperature d. Nasogastric tube feeding e. Retention catheter care f. Administration of H2 receptor blockers
B, C, E, F
A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.
C
A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of a.) nitroglycerine (Tridil). b.) dobutamine (Dobutrex). c.) norepinephrine (Levophed). d.) sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).
C
A patient who has pericarditis related to radiation therapy, becomes dyspneic, and has a rapid, weak pulse. Heart sounds are muffled, and a 12 mmHg drop in blood pressure is noted on inspiration. The healthcare provider's interventions are aimed at preventing which type of shock? a.) Distributive b.) Neurogenic c.) Obstructive d.) Cardiogenic
C
A patient with a spinal cord injury has spinal shock. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that a. rehabilitation measures cannot be initiated until spinal shock has resolved b. the patient will need continuous monitoring for hypotension, tachycardia, and hypoxemia c. resolution of spinal shock is manifested by spasticity, hyperreflexia, and reflex emptying of the bladder d. the patient will have complete loss of motor and sensory functions below the level of the injury, but autonomic functions are not affected
C
A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the ED. The nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock in addition to hypovolemic shock, based on the finding of a.) cool, clammy skin. b.) shortness of breath. c.) heart rate of 48 beats/min d.) BP of 82/40 mm Hg.
C
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) develops in severe sepsis as a result of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), disseminated intravascular coagulation and damage to the endothelium. Which of the following statements best describes the management of MODS? a.) The use of proton pump inhibitors and H2 agents to increase the pH of the stomach inhibit the development of stress ulcers, an ileus and malabsorption issues. b.) Maintaining ventilator settings that ensure a tidal volume of at least 6 mL/kg of body weight will keep the lungs from being injured by endothelial damage. c.) There is no specific therapies for MODS other than supportive care and the early recognition of dysfunctional organ(s). d.) Much of the organ damage that occurs with MODS in the setting of severe sepsis is associated with pre-existing conditions.
C
Sepsis is the most common cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). All of the following statements concerning this life threatening complications are true except: a.) The rapidity of onset is determined by the intensity of the trigger and is related to the condition of the patient's liver, bone marrow and endothelium. b.) In the early phase, the patient may demonstrate manifestations of thrombosis and microemboli. c.) Though a coagulopathy is present, excessive blood loss rarely results in hemorrhagic shock. d.) The most critical intervention for DIC is the early identification and treatment of the underlying disorder.
C
The healthcare provider has ordered IV dopamine (Intropin) for a patient in the emergency deparement with a spinal cord injury. The nurse determines that the drug is having the desired effect when assessment findings include a. pulse rate of 68 b. respiratory rate of 24 c. BP of 106/82 d. temperature of 96.8
C
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which of these should the healthcare provider administer to the patient first? a.) Antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. b.) Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. c.) IV fluids to increase intravascular volume. d.) Vasopressors to increase blood pressure.
C
The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.
C
When performing a physical assessment of a patient with severe sepsis, what abnormal assessment would the nurse expect to find? a.) A WBC of 8,100 despite the presence of chills. b.) A blood pressure of 100/72 with a capillary refill of <3 seconds. c.) Leucocytosis in a patient with absent bowel sounds. d.) Renal output that fluctuates according to intravenous intake.
C
Which information about a 30-year-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hour c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 128 beats/minute
C
c. the staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.
C
In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible cervical spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? a. Administer O2 using a non-rebreathing mask. b. Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure. c. Immobilize the patient's head, neck, and spine. d. Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal CT.
C, A, B, D
A client is progressing into the third stage of shock. The nurse will expect this client to demonstrate: Choose all that apply: a.) Intractable circulatory failure. b.) Neuroendocrine responses. c.) Demonstrating MODS. d.) Buildup of metabolic wastes. e.) Profound hypotension. f.) Increase in lactic acidosis.
C, D
When compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemic shock are activated, the nurse would expect which two patient findings to normalize? a.) Intensity of peripheral pulses and body temperature. b.) Peripheral pulses and heart rate (HR). c.) Metabolic alkalosis and oxygen saturation. d.) Cardiac output (CO) and blood pressure (BP).
D
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 24 hours ago. which of the following types of prescribed medications should the nurse clarify with the provider? a. glucocorticoids b. plasma expanders c. H2 antagonists d. muscle relaxants
D
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a CD4 spinal cord injury after a motorcycle collision. The patient's BP is 83/49, and his pulse is 39 beats/min, and he remains orally intubated. The nurse identifies this pathophysiologic response as caused by a. increased vasomotor tone after injury b. a temporary loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis below the level of injury c. loss of parasympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in vasoconstriction d. loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in peripheral vasodilation
D
After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-year-old patient has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.
D
In counseling patient with spinal cord lesions regarding sexual function, the nurse advises a male patient with a complete lower motor neuron lesion that he a. is most likely to have reflexogenic erections and may experience orgasm if ejaculation occurs b. may have uncontrolled reflex erections, but that orgasm and ejaculation are usually not possible c. has a lesion with the greatest possibility of successful psychogenic erection with ejaculation and orgasm d. will probably be unable to have either psychogenic or reflexogenic erections with no ejaculation or orgasm
D
One indication for surgical therapy of the patient with a spinal cord injury is when a. there is incomplete cord lesion involvement b. the ligaments that support the spine are torn c. a high cervical injury causes loss of respiratory function d. evidence of continued compression of the cord is apparent
D
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4° F (38.6° C)
D
A 55-year-old with Stage D heart failure and type 2 diabetes asks the nurse whether heart transplant is a possible therapy. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Since you are diabetic, you would not be a candidate for a heart transplant." b. "The choice of a patient for a heart transplant depends on many different factors." c. "Your heart failure has not reached the stage in which heart transplants are considered." d. "People who have heart transplants are at risk for multiple complications after surgery."
b
Currently, histocompatibility leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing can be used to : a. determine paternity and predict risk for certain diseases. b. match tissue types for transplantation and determine paternity. c. establish racial background and predict risk for certain diseases. d. predict risk for certain diseases and match tissue types for transplantation.
b
Patients with a heart transplantation are at rick for which of the following complication in the first year after transplantation? (select all that apply) a. Cancer b. Infection c. Rejection d. Vasculopathy e. Sudden Cardiac Death
b, c, e
The nurse caring for a patient in shock notifies the health care provider of the patient's deteriorating status when the patient's ABG results include: a.) pH 7.48, PaCO2 33 mm Hg. b.) pH 7.33, PaCO2 30 mm Hg. c.) pH 7.41, PaCO2 50 mm Hg. d.) pH 7.38, PaCO2 45 mm Hg.
b.) pH 7.33, PaCO2 30 mm Hg. Rationale: The patient's low pH in spite of a respiratory alkalosis indicates that the patient has severe metabolic acidosis and is experiencing the progressive stage of shock; rapid changes in therapy are needed. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.48" suggest a mild respiratory alkalosis (consistent with compensated shock). The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.41" suggest compensated respiratory acidosis. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.38" are normal.
A common combination of immunosuppressive agents used to prevent rejection of transplanted organs is: a. cyclosporine, sirolimus, and muromonab-CD3 b. everolimus, mycophenolate mefetil, an sirolimus c. tacrolimus, prednisone, and mycophenolate mofetil d. prednisone, polyclonal antibodies, and cyclosporine
c
When assessing a patient who had a liver transplant a week previously, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Dry lips and oral mucous b. Crackles at both lung bases c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) d. No bowel movement for 4 days
c
Which information about patient and donor tissue typing results for a patient who needs a kidney transplant is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative. b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing. c. Results of patient-donor cross matching are positive. d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low.
c
A transplant rejection which Infiltration of the organ with B and T lymphocytes occur.
chronic
Irreversible, transplant rejection, immune-mediated injury to transplanted organ
chronic
A patient with cirrhosis asks the nurse about the possibility of a liver transplant. The best response by the nurse is: a. "liver transplants are only indicated in children with irreversible liver disease" b. "If you are interested in a transplant, you really should talk to your doctor about it. " c. "rejection is such a problem in liver transplants that it is seldom attempted in patients with cirrhosis. " d. "Cirrhosis is an indication for transplantation in some cases. Have you talked to your doctor about this? "
d
The evaluation team for cardiac transplantation determines that the patient who would most benefit from a new heart is: a. a 24-year-old man with Down Syndrome who has received excellent care from parents in their 60's b. a 46-year-old single woman with a limited support system who has alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy. c. a 60-year-old man with inoperable coronary artery disease who has not been compliant with lifestyle changes and rehabilitation programs. d. a 52 -year-old woman with end-stage coronary artery disease who has limited financial resources but is emotionally stable and has strong social support.
d
Which of the following accurately describes rejection following transplantation? a. Hyperacute rejection can be treated with OKT3 b.Acute rejection can be treated with sirolimus or tacrolimus. c.Chronic rejection can be treated with tacrolimus or cyclosporine. d. Hyper-acute reaction can usually be avoided is crossmatching is done before the transplantation.
d
A pediatric client is admitted to the neuro ICU with a closed-head injury sustained after falling out of a tree house. The mechanisms of injury this young client most likely sustained would be: a.) Acceleration b.) Penetrating c.) Rotational d.) Deceleration
d.) Deceleration Rationale:Deceleration injury occurs when the brain stops rapidly in the cranial vault. As the skull ceases movement, the brain continues to move until it hits the skull. The force of deceleration causes injury at the site of impact. An example of this is a victim of a fall.
A transplant rejection which most commonly occurs with kidney transplant.
hyperacute
A transplant rejection which occurs when recipient has antibodies against donor's histocompatibility Leukocyte antigens (HLA's)
hyperacute
Organ must be removed when "this" transplant rejection occurs.
hyperacute
