303 Hinkle PrepU Chapter 39: Assessment of Musculoskeletal Function

Red bone marrow produces which of the following? Select all that apply.

Platelets White blood cells (WBCs) Red blood cells (RBCs) The red bone marrow located within the bone cavities produces RBC, WBCs, and platelets through the process of hematopoiesis. The red bone marrow does not produce estrogen or corticosteroids.

Which is a circulatory indicator of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction?

cool skin Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction related to circulation include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin with a cool temperature. The capillary refill is more than 3 seconds. Weakness and paralysis are related to motion. Paresthesia is related to sensation.

Choose the correct statement about the endosteum, a significant component of the skeletal system:

covers the marrow cavity of lone bones The endosteum is a thin vascular membrane that covers the marrow cavity of long bones and the spaces in cancellous bone. Osteoclasts are located near the endosteum.

The homecare nurse is evaluating the musculoskeletal system of a geriatric client whose previous assessment was within normal limits. The nurse initiates a call to the health care provider and/or emergency services when which change is found?

decreased right sided muscle strength Although symmetrical decreases in muscle strength can be a part of the aging process, asymmetrical decreases are not. The nurse should contact the health care provider when decreased right-sided muscle strength is found, as this could indicate a stroke or transient ischemic attack. Decreased flexibility, decreased agility, and increased joint stiffness are all part of the aging process and therefore do not require the nurse to contact the health care provider.

Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered for a client with lower extremity muscle weakness?

electromyograph The EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and the nerves leading to them. The test is performed to evaluate muscle weakness, pain, and disability. An arthrocentesis, bone scan, and biopsy does not measure muscle weakness.

Which of the following describes a muscle that is limp and without tone?

flaccid A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as flaccid. A muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. In conditions characterized by lower neuron destruction, denervated muscle becomes atonic (soft and flabby) and atrophies. A person with muscle paralysis has a loss of movement and possibly nerve damage.

A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. When instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells?

ossification and calcification Ossification and calcifications the body's process to transform osteoblasts into mature bone cells called osteocytes. Osteocytes are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Resorption and remodeling are involved in bone destruction. Epiphyses and diaphyses are bone tissues that provide strength and support to the human skeleton.

An instructor is describing the process of bone development. Which of the following would the instructor describe as being responsible for the process of ossification?

osteoblasts Osteoblasts secrete bone matrix (mostly collagen), in which inorganic minerals, such as calcium salts, are deposited. This process of ossification and calcification transforms the blast cells into mature bone cells, called osteocytes, which are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Cortical bone is dense hard bone found in the long shafts; cancellous bone is spongy bone found in the irregular rounded edges of bone.

The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong bones. What is the nurse's best response?

"Weight bearing exercises can strengthen bone" Weight-bearing exercises maintain bone mass. Weight-resistance exercises maintain and strengthen muscles. Cardio training is important for heart health and weight maintenance/reduction. Range-of-motion exercises are essential for joint mobility.

The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong muscles. What is the nurse's best response?

"Weight resistance exercise can strengthen muscles" Weight-resistance exercises maintain and strengthen muscles. Cardio-training is important for heart health and weight maintenance/reduction. Rest is good if you get exercise but doesn't build muscle on its own. Range of motion exercises are essential for joint mobility.

The nurse is preparing the client for computed tomography. Which information should be given by the nurse?

"you must remain very still during the procedure" In computed tomography, a series of detailed x-rays are taken. The client must lie very still during the procedure. A contrast agent, not a radioisotope, may or may not be injected. Arthrocentesis involves the removal of fluid from a joint. A small bit of tissue is removed with a biopsy.

A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is suspected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration?

an electromyography An electromyography tests the electrical potential of muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration. A serum calcium test evaluates the calcium in the blood. An arthroscopy assesses changes in the joint. An MRI identifies abnormalities in the targeted area.

A client has undergone arthroscopy. After the procedure, the site where the arthroscope was inserted is covered with a bulky dressing. The client's entire leg is also elevated without flexing the knee. What is the appropriate nursing intervention required in caring for a client who has undergone arthroscopy?

Apply a cold pack at the insertion site After covering the arthroscope insertion site with a bulky dressing and elevating the client's entire leg, the nurse needs to apply a cold pack at the site to minimize any chances of swelling.

Which term refers to the shaft of the long bone?

Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

A group of students are reviewing information about bones in preparation for a quiz. Which of the following indicates that the students have understood the material?

Osteoclasts are involved in the destruction and remodeling of bone. Osteoclasts are the cells involved in the destruction, resorption, and remodeling of bone. Red bone marrow is responsible for manufacturing red blood cells. Long bones contain yellow bone marrow; the sternum, ileum, vertebrae, and ribs contain red bone marrow. Osteoblasts are transformed into osteocytes, mature bone cells.

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient who may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What signs does the patient present with that indicate circulation is impaired? (Select all that apply.)

Pale, cyanotic, or mottled color Cool temperature of the extremity More than 3-second capillary refill Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin color; cool temperature of the extremities; and a capillary refill of more than 3 seconds.

Which term refers to moving away from midline?

abduction Abduction is moving away from the midline. Adduction is moving toward the midline. Inversion is turning inward. Eversion is turning outward.

The nurse is assessing the client for scoliosis. What will the nurse have the client do to perform the assessment?

stand behind the client and ask the client to bend forward at the waist Scoliosis is characterized by a lateral curvature of the spine. The nurse stands behind the client and asks the client to bend forward at the waist for the nurse to examine the spine curvature. The nurse cannot see the spine by standing beside the client or in front of the client. The spinal curve cannot be seen by watching the client walk.

The human body has 206 bones, which are classified into four categories. Which types of bones are the femur and ulna?

long bones The femur and ulna are long bones.

A client reports being consistently tired, with no energy. The client's CBC indicates low hemoglobin. Where is hemoglobin manufactured?

ribs Red bone marrow, found primarily in the sternum, ileum, vertebrae, and ribs, manufactures blood cells and hemoglobin.

The nurse observes a client with a shuffling gait. What disease is commonly associated with a shuffling gait?

Parkinson's disease Client with Parkinson's disease may have a shuffling gait. Clients with a lower motor disease will have steppage gait. Clients with scoliosis may have a limp. Clients with Paget's disease may have bone fractures.

Which statement describes paresthesia?

abnormal sensations Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.

While reading a client's chart, the nurse notices that the client is documented to have paresthesia. The nurse plans care for a client with

abnormal sensations Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.

The nurse is planning care for a client with a musculoskeletal injury. Which nursing diagnosis would be the highest priority?

acute pain The highest priority at this time is Acute Pain and nursing interventions related to decreasing pain. If the client is in pain, instruction to improve health maintenance or surgical recovery is less effective. A "Risk for" diagnosis is a potential problem not an actual problem at this time.

The nurse is employed at a long-term care facility caring for geriatric clients. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an age-related change?

loss of height A common age-related change is the loss of height due to the loss of bone mass and vertebral collapse. Cognitive decline is not an age-related change. Depression occurs in all age groups. Geriatric clients have a decrease in muscle mass.

A client undergoes an invasive joint examination of the knee. What will the nurse closely monitor the client for?

serous drainage When the client undergoes an invasive knee joint examination, the nurse should inspect the knee area for swelling, bleeding, and serous drainage. An invasive joint examination does not cause lack of sleep or appetite, depression, or shock. The client may be in shock due to the injury itself.

A group of students are studying for an examination on joints. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as an example of a synarthrodial joint?

skull at the temporal and occipital bones A synarthrodial joint is immovable and can be found at the suture line of the skull between the temporal and occipital bones. Amphiarthrodial joints are slightly moveable and are found between the vertebrae. The finger and hip joints are examples of diarthrodial joints that are freely moveable.

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse recognize as an indicator of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction? Select all that apply.

Toes mottled and cool Complaints of pins and needles in feet Clinical manifestations of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include coolness, mottling, weakness, complaints of paresthesia or a pins and needles sensation, and unrelenting pain. Capillary refill of less than 3 seconds is a normal finding.

Which body movement involves moving toward the midline?

adduction Adduction is moving toward the midline. Pronation is turning inward. Abduction is moving away from the midline. Eversion is turning outward.

A client undergoes an arthroscopy at the outpatient clinic. After the procedure, the nurse provides discharge teaching. Which response by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

"I should use my heating pad this evening to reduce some of the pain in my knee" The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll use a heating pad to reduce pain the evening of the procedure. *The client shouldn't use heat at the procedure site during the first 24 hours because doing so may increase localized swelling*. Ice is indicated during this time. Elevating the extremity helps reduce swelling. The client may experience some discomfort after the procedure for which the physician may order medication. Bruising and swelling are common after an arthroscopy.

Which of the following factors would the nurse need to keep in mind about the focus of the initial history when assessing a new client with a musculoskeletal problem?

any chronic disorder or recent injury The focus of the initial history depends on the nature of the musculoskeletal problem, whether the client has a chronic disorder or a recent injury. If the disorder is long-standing, the nurse obtains a thorough medical, drug, and allergy history. If the client is injured, the nurse finds out when and how the trauma occurred. The client's age, lifestyle, or duration and location of discomfort or pain, although important, have little influence on the focus of the initial history and assessment of the client.

Which is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or wrist?

arthrography Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist. Meniscography is a distractor for this question. Bone densitometry is used to estimate bone mineral density. An EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and nerves leading to them.

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that will allow the physician to visualize the knee joint in order to diagnose the patient's pain. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for?

arthroscopy Arthroscopy is a procedure that allows direct visualization of a joint through the use of a fiberoptic endoscope. Thus, it is a useful adjunct to diagnosing joint disorders.

A client tells the health care provider about shoulder pain that is present even without any strenuous movement. The health care provider identifies a sac filled with synovial fluid. What condition will the nurse educate the client about?

bursitis A bursa is a small sac filled with synovial fluid. Bursae reduce friction between areas, such as tendon and bone and tendon and ligament. Inflammation of these sacs is called bursitis. A fracture of the clavicle is a bone break. Osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disease. Ankylosing spondylitis is a form of arthritis affecting the spine.

Which hormone inhibits bone resorption and increases the deposit of calcium in the bone?

calcitonin Calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood calcium levels, inhibits bone reabsorption and increases the deposit of calcium in the bone.

A nurse provides health information to a postmenopausal woman who has been diagnosed with osteopenia. What mineral would the nurse recommend for this client?

calcium Calcium is essential in the bone because it prevents osteoporosis. Phosphorus is the next most abundant mineral in the body. Magnesium is the fourth most abundant. Fluoride helps keep teeth strong.

What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle?

clonus Clonus is a rhythmic contraction of the muscle. Atrophy is a shrinkage-like decrease in the size of a muscle. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of a muscle. Crepitus is a grating or crackling sound or sensation that may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension. When assessing the reflexes in the ankle, the nurse observes rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. What would the nurse document this finding as?

clonus The nurse may elicit muscle clonus (rhythmic contractions of a muscle) in the ankle or wrist by sudden, forceful, sustained dorsiflexion of the foot or extension of the wrist.

Which is a neurovascular problem caused by pressure within a muscle area that increases to such an extent that microcirculation diminishes?

compartment syndrome Compartment syndrome is caused by pressure within a muscle area that increases to such an extent that microcirculation diminishes. Remodeling is a process that ensures bone maintenance through simultaneous bone resorption and formation. Hypertrophy is an increase in muscle size. Fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report?

dusky or mottled color Normally, skin color would be similar to the color in other body areas. Pale or dusky skin color indicates an abnormality that needs to be reported. Presence of pulses, capillary refill of 3 seconds, and warm skin are normal findings.

A client is diagnosed with a fracture of a diarthrosis joint. What is an example of this type of joint?

elbow A diarthrosis joint, like the elbow, is freely movable. The skull is an example of an immovable joint. The vertebral joints and symphysis pubis are amphiarthrosis joints that have limited motion.

A client has an elbow injury that involves the cartilage in that joint. The nurse understands that which type of cartilage has been affected?

hyaline cartilage Hyaline or articular cartilage covers the surface of movable joints, such as the elbow, and protects the surface of these joints. Other types of cartilage include costal cartilage, which connects the ribs and sternum; semilunar cartilage, which is one of the cartilages of the knee joint; fibrous cartilage, found between the vertebrae (intervertebral discs); and elastic cartilage, found in the larynx, epiglottis, and outer ear.

Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint?

knee Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow. The hip is a ball-and-socket joint. The joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint. Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist.

Which of the following is the most common site of joint effusion?

knee The most common site for joint effusion is the knee. If inflammation or fluid is suspected in a joint, consultation with a provider is indicated. The elbow, hip, and shoulder are not the most common site of joint effusion.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. What does the nurse understand this common finding is known as?

kyphosis Common deformities of the spine include kyphosis, which is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine that causes a bowing or rounding of the back, leading to a hunchback or slouching posture. The second deformity of the spine is referred to as lordosis, or swayback, an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine. A third deformity is scoliosis, which is a lateral curving deviation of the spine (Fig. 40-4). Osteoporosis is abnormal excessive bone loss.

Which term refers to mature compact bone structures that form concentric rings of bone matrix?

lamellae Lamellae are mineralized bone matrices. Endosteum refers to the marrow cavity lining of hollow bone. Trabecula refers to latticelike bone structure. Cancellous bone refers to spongy, latticelike bone structure.

Which of the following deformity causes a exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine?

lordosis Lordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine. Scoliosis is a lateral curving deviation of the spine. Kyphosis is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. Steppage gait is not a type of spinal deformity.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a deficiency in the formation of cartilage in joints. Which essential substance is absent?

matrix Cartilage is a firm, dense type of connective tissue that consists of cells embedded in a substance called matrix. The matrix is firm and compact. Cartilage is essential in reducing friction between articular surfaces and absorbs shock. Osteoblasts build bone. Sarcomeres assist in contracting muscle. Skeletal muscles are composed of myofibrils.

Which description refers to an osteon?

microscopic functional bone unit The center of an osteon contains a capillary, a microscopic functional bone unit. An osteoblast is a bone-forming cell. An osteoclast is a bone resorption cell. An osteocyte is a mature bone cell.

There are thousands of components of the musculoskeletal system that facilitate mobility and independent function. The function of skeletal muscle is promoting:

movement of skeletal bones The skeletal muscles promote movement of the bones of the skeleton.

The nurse is working on an orthopedic floor caring for a client injured in a football game. The nurse is reviewing the client's chart noting that the client has previously had an injured tendon. The nurse anticipates an injury between the periosteum of the bone and which of the following?

muscle Tendons attach muscles to the periosteum of bone. Joints are a junction between two or more bones. Ligaments connect two freely movable bones. Cartilage is a dense connective tissue used to reduce friction between two structures.

A client is scheduled to undergo an electromyography. When performed, what will this test evaluate?

muscle weakness Electromyography tests the electric potential of the muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration, pain, disability, and to differentiate muscle and nerve problems. A bone biopsy is done to identify bone composition. Bone densitometry is done to evaluate bone density. A bone scan would be appropriate to detect metastatic bone lesions.

A nurse knows that a person with a 3-week-old femur fracture is at the stage where angiogenesis is occurring. What are the characteristics of this stage?

new capillaries producing a bridge between the fractured bones Angiogenesis and cartilage formation begin when fibroblasts from the periosteum produce a bridge between the fractured bones. This is known as a callus.

Which nerve is being assessed when the nurses asks the client to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes?

peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the client to dorsiflex the ankle and to extend the toes, while pricking the skin between the great toe and center toe assesses sensory function. The radial nerve is assessed by asking the client to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. The median nerve is assessed by asking the client to touch the thumb to the little finger. Asking the client to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation with a client admitted with a fracture. What medication predisposes a client for a risk for fractures?

prednisone Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation, resulting in increased risk for fractures. Furosemide, digoxin, and metoprolol do not interfere with bone resorption or predispose clients to fractures.

The nurse is assessing a client's ulnar nerve. What technique will the nurse use?

prick the distal fat pad pf the small finger To assess the ulnar nerve, the nurse would prick the distal fat pad of the small finger.

After a fracture, during which stage or phase of bone healing is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement?

remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after a fracture. Callus forms during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Which of the following is the final stage of fracture repair?

remodeling The final stage of fracture repair consists of remodeling the new bone into its former structural arrangement. During cartilage calcification, enzymes within the matrix vesicles prepare the cartilage for calcium release and deposit. Cartilage removal occurs when the calcified cartilage is invaded by blood vessels and becomes reabsorbed by chondroblasts and osteoclasts. Angiogenesis occurs when new capillaries infiltrate the hematoma, and fibroblasts from the periosteum, endosteum, and bone marrow produce a bridge between the fractured bones.

The nurse is assessing a young client during an annual sports physical at school. The assessment reveals that the client has lateral curving of the spine. The nurse reports to the health care professional that the assessment revealed

scoliosis Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. Lordosis is an increase in the lumbar curvature of the spine. Diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone. Epiphysis is the end of a long bone.

A client has a fracture that is being treated with open rigid compression plate fixation devices. What teaching will the nurse reinforce to the client about how the progress of bone healing will be monitored?

serial x-rays will be taken Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. The plate need not be disturbed. An arthroscopy is used to visualize joints. While the bone will heal without interference, monitoring of bone healing is needed to ensure further adjustments are not necessary.

Which laboratory study indicates the rate of bone turnover?

serum osteocalcin Serum osteocalcin (bone GLA protein) indicates the rate of bone turnover. Urine calcium concentration increases with bone destruction. Serum calcium concentration is altered in clients with osteomalacia and parathyroid dysfunction. Serum phosphorous concentration is inversely related to calcium concentration and is diminished in osteomalacia associated with malabsorption syndrome.

Skull sutures are an example of which type of joint?

synarthrosis Skull sutures are considered synarthrosis joints and are immovable. Amphiarthrosis joints allow limited movement, such as a vertebral joint. Diarthrosis joints are freely movable joints such as the hip and shoulder. Aponeuroses are broad, flat sheets of connective tissue.

A client is seen in the emergency room for a knee injury that happened during a basketball game. Diagnostic tests reveal torn cords of fibrous connective tissue that connect muscles to bones. What type of tear has this client sustained?

tendon Tendons are broad, flat sheets of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones, soft tissue, and other muscles. Ligaments bind bones together. A bursa is a synovial-filled sac, and fascia surround muscle cells.

The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary care physician. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site?

the fracture is on the diaphysis A fracture that is on the diaphysis is understood to be chiefly found in the long shafts of the arms and legs. The epiphyses are rounded, irregular ends of the bones. Saying a fracture is ventrally located does not assist in providing adequate details of the location of the fracture. A tuberosity is a projection from the bone or a protuberance.

The nurse assesses soft subcutaneous nodules along the line of the tendons in a patient's hand and wrist. What does this finding indicate to the nurse?

the patient has rheumatoid arthritis The subcutaneous nodules of rheumatoid arthritis are soft and occur within and along tendons that provide extensor function to the joints. Osteoarthritic nodules are hard and painless and represent bony overgrowth that has resulted from destruction of the cartilaginous surface of bone within the joint capsule. Lupus and neurofibromatosis are not associated with the production of nodules.

Which data is most important for the nurse to record while assessing a client with an open wound?

when he client last received a tetanus immunization If the client has an open wound, the nurse ascertains when the client last received a tetanus immunization. This vital information helps in assessing the risk of infection in a client with an open wound.