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After a fracture, during which stage or phase of bone healing is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? A. Remodeling B. Reparative C. Revascularization D. Inflammation

Answer: A A fracture that is on the diaphysis is understood to be chiefly found in the long shafts of the arms and legs. The epiphyses are rounded, irregular ends of the bones. Saying a fracture is ventrally located does not assist in providing adequate details of the location of the fracture. A tuberosity is a projection from the bone or a protuberance.

Which body movement involves moving toward the midline? A. Adduction B. Eversion C. Abduction D. Pronation

Answer: A Adduction is moving toward the midline. Pronation is turning inward. Abduction is moving away from the midline. Eversion is turning outward.

A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is suspected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration? A. An electromyography B. An arthroscopy C. A serum calcium test D. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Answer: A An electromyography tests the electrical potential of muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration. A serum calcium test evaluates the calcium in the blood. An arthroscopy assesses changes in the joint. An MRI identifies abnormalities in the targeted area.

An example of a flat bone is the A. sternum. B. vertebra. C. metacarpals. D. femur.

Answer: A An example of a flat bone is the sternum. A short bone is a metacarpal. The femur is a long bone. The vertebra is an irregular bone.

The nurse working in the orthopedic surgeon's office is asked to schedule a shoulder arthrography. The nurse determines that the surgeon suspects which finding? A. Tear in the joint capsule B. Fracture of the clavicle C. Decreased bone density D. Injury to the radial nerve

Answer: A Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist. X-rays are used to diagnose bone fractures. Bone densitometry is used to estimate bone mineral density. An electromyogram (EMG) provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and nerves leading to them.

Which hormone inhibits bone reabsorption and increases calcium deposit in the bone? A. Calcitonin B. Vitamin D C. Sex hormones D. Growth hormone

Answer: A Calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood calcium concentration, inhibits bone reabsorption and increases the deposit of calcium in the bone. The other answers do not apply.

What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle? A. Clonus B. Atrophy C. Crepitus D. Hypertrophy

Answer: A Clonus is a rhythmic contraction of the muscle. Atrophy is a shrinkage-like decrease in the size of a muscle. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of a muscle. Crepitus is a grating or crackling sound or sensation that may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. What does the nurse understand this common finding is known as? A. Kyphosis B. Scoliosis C. Osteoporosis D. Lordosis

Answer: A Common deformities of the spine include kyphosis, which is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine that causes a bowing or rounding of the back, leading to a hunchback or slouching posture. The second deformity of the spine is referred to as lordosis, or swayback, an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine. A third deformity is scoliosis, which is a lateral curving deviation of the spine (Fig. 40-4). Osteoporosis is abnormal excessive bone loss.

A client scheduled to undergo an electromyography asks the nurse what this test will evaluate. What is the correct response from the nurse? A. Muscle weakness B. Muscle composition C. Bone density D. Metastatic bone lesions

Answer: A Electromyography tests the electric potential of the muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration, pain, disability, and to differentiate muscle and nerve problems. A bone biopsy is done to identify bone composition. Bone densitometry is done to evaluate bone density. A bone scan would be appropriate to detect metastatic bone lesions.

The nurse is conducting a community education program on hip fracture risk. The nurse evaluates that the participants understand the program when the participants determine that client at highest risk for a hip fracture is a(n) A. 80-year-old man recently widowed. B. toddler just starting to walk. C. high school athlete. D. 30-year-old pregnant woman.

Answer: A Hip fracture occurs with greater incidence in elderly people and is often a life-altering event that has a negative impact on the client's mobility and quality of life.

Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to suspect compartment syndrome in the client following a bone biopsy? A. Increased diameter of the calf B. Bounding dorsalis pedis pulses C. Toes move freely without pain D. Capillary refill < 3 seconds

Answer: A Increasing diameter of the calf can be indicative of bleeding into the muscle. The other findings are within normal limits.

A group of students are reviewing information about bones in preparation for a quiz. Which of the following indicates that the students have understood the material? A. Osteoclasts are involved in the destruction and remodeling of bone. B. Osteocytes are transformed into osteoblasts or mature bone cells. C. Long bones typically contain more red bone marrow than yellow. D. The yellow marrow is responsible for manufacturing red blood cells.

Answer: A Osteoclasts are the cells involved in the destruction, resorption, and remodeling of bone. Red bone marrow is responsible for manufacturing red blood cells. Long bones contain yellow bone marrow; the sternum, ileum, vertebrae, and ribs contain red bone marrow. Osteoblasts are transformed into osteocytes, mature bone cells.

A client has a fracture that is being treated with open rigid compression plate fixation devices. What teaching will the nurse reinforce to the client about how the progress of bone healing will be monitored? A. Serial x-rays will be taken. B. An arthroscopy will be performed. C. The plate will be removed to determine if the bone is growing back. D. The bone will heal on its own without intervention.

Answer: A Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. The plate need not be disturbed. An arthroscopy is used to visualize joints. While the bone will heal without interference, monitoring of bone healing is needed to ensure further adjustments are not necessary.

Which of the following is the most common site of joint effusion? A. Knee B. Elbow C. Shoulder D. Hip

Answer: A The most common site for joint effusion is the knee. If inflammation or fluid is suspected in a joint, consultation with a provider is indicated. The elbow, hip, and shoulder are not the most common site of joint effusion.

A patient is scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy. The nurse explains to the family that the bone marrow is located mainly in four areas. She tells the family that the site to be used would be the: A. Sternum. B. Scapula. C. Humerus. D. Femur.

Answer: A The sternum, along with the ilium, vertebrae, and ribs are responsible for producing red blood cells and are used for bone marrow aspiration sites.

Red bone marrow produces which of the following? Select all that apply. A. White blood cells (WBCs) B. Corticosteroids C. Platelets D. Estrogen E. Red blood cells (RBCs)

Answer: A, C, E The red bone marrow located within the bone cavities produces RBC, WBCs, and platelets through the process of hematopoiesis. The red bone marrow does not produce estrogen or corticosteroids.

The nurse is preparing to assess the spine of an older adult. Which actions will the nurse take during this assessment? Select all that apply. A. Ask the client to bend backward B. Observe the client walk away and then return C. Assess for crepitus D. Measure height E. Ask the client to bend forward at the waist

Answer: A, D, E During inspection of the spine, the entire back, buttocks, and legs are exposed. Older adults experience a loss in height due to the loss of vertebral cartilage and osteoporosis-related vertebral compression fractures. Because of this, an adult's height should be measured during each health screening. The client should be instructed to bend forward at the waist while the nurse assesses the curvature of the spine, symmetry of the shoulders, scapula, and hips. The client should then be directed to bend backward while supporting the client's posterior iliac spine. Assessing for crepitus is used to determine integrity of the client's bones. Observing the client walk is used to evaluate gait.

Which of the following describes a muscle that is limp and without tone? A. Paralysis B. Flaccid C. Atonic D. Spastic

Answer: B A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as flaccid. A muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. In conditions characterized by lower neuron destruction, denervated muscle becomes atonic (soft and flabby) and atrophies. A person with muscle paralysis has a loss of movement and possibly nerve damage.

While reading a client's chart, the nurse notices that the client is documented to have paresthesia. The nurse plans care for a client with A. involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. B. abnormal sensations. C. absence of muscle tone. D. absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage.

Answer: B Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.

Which is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? A. Diminished pain B. Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds C. Warm skin temperature D. Pain upon active stretch

Answer: B Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain upon passive stretch, and absence of feeling. Cool skin temperature is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Unrelenting pain is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Pain upon passive stretch is an indicator of neurovascular compromise.

Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? A. Carpal bones in the wrist B. Knee C. Joint at base of thumb D. Hip

Answer: B Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow. The hip is a ball-and-socket joint. The joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint. Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist.

The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation with a client admitted with a fracture. What medication predisposes a client for a risk for fractures? A. metoprolol B. prednisone C. furosemide D. digoxin

Answer: B Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation, resulting in increased risk for fractures. Furosemide, digoxin, and metoprolol do not interfere with bone resorption or predispose clients to fractures.

The nurse assesses soft subcutaneous nodules along the line of the tendons in a patient's hand and wrist. What does this finding indicate to the nurse? A. The patient has osteoarthritis. B. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis. C. The patient has neurofibromatosis. D. The patient has lupus erythematosus.

Answer: B The subcutaneous nodules of rheumatoid arthritis are soft and occur within and along tendons that provide extensor function to the joints. Osteoarthritic nodules are hard and painless and represent bony overgrowth that has resulted from destruction of the cartilaginous surface of bone within the joint capsule. Lupus and neurofibromatosis are not associated with the production of nodules.

The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment for a client whose right leg muscles exhibit no tone and are limp. Which descriptor should the nurse use to document this condition? A. Atrophic B. Flaccid C. Spastic D. Atonic

Answer: B The term flaccid describes muscles that have no tone or are limp. Spastic describes muscles that have greater-than-normal tone. Atonic describes muscles that are not enervated and become soft and flabby. Atrophic describes muscles deterioration that occurs with lack of use and exercise.

A client undergoes an invasive joint examination of the knee. What will the nurse closely monitor the client for? A. Signs of shock B. Serous drainage C. Signs of depression D. Lack of sleep and appetite

Answer: B When the client undergoes an invasive knee joint examination, the nurse should inspect the knee area for swelling, bleeding, and serous drainage. An invasive joint examination does not cause lack of sleep or appetite, depression, or shock. The client may be in shock due to the injury itself.

A client is diagnosed with a fracture of a diarthrosis joint. What is an example of this type of joint? A. Symphysis pubis B. Fifth thoracic vertebrae C. Elbow D. Skull

Answer: C A diarthrosis joint, like the elbow, is freely movable. The skull is an example of an immovable joint. The vertebral joints and symphysis pubis are amphiarthrosis joints that have limited motion.

A group of students are studying for an examination on joints. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as an example of a synarthrodial joint? A. At the hip B. Between the vertebrae C. Skull at the temporal and occipital bones D. In the fingers

Answer: C A synarthrodial joint is immovable and can be found at the suture line of the skull between the temporal and occipital bones. Amphiarthrodial joints are slightly moveable and are found between the vertebrae. The finger and hip joints are examples of diarthrodial joints that are freely moveable.

The nurse is assigned to a client admitted with advanced Parkinson's disease. What type of gait correlates with Parkinson's disease? A. scissors B. spastic hemiparesis C. shuffling D. steppage

Answer: C A variety of neurologic conditions are associated with abnormal gaits, such as spastic hemiparesis gait (stroke), steppage gait (lower motor neuron disease), and shuffling gait (Parkinson's disease). Scissors gait is seen in cerebral palsy.

A client has just undergone arthrography. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan? A. Gently massage joints with any crackling or clicking joint noises. B. Avoid sunlight or harsh, dry climate. C. Report joint crackling or clicking noises occurring after the second day. D. Avoid intake of dairy products.

Answer: C After undergoing arthrography, the client must be informed that he or she may hear crackling or clicking noises in the joints for up to 2 days, but if noises occur beyond this time, they should be reported. These noises may indicate the presence of a complication, and therefore should not be ignored or treated by the client. Massage is not indicated. The client need not be asked to avoid sunlight or dairy products.

Which is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or wrist? A. EMG B. Meniscography C. Arthrography D. Bone densitometry

Answer: C Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist. Meniscography is a distractor for this question. Bone densitometry is used to estimate bone mineral density. An EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and nerves leading to them.

The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a crushing injury of the lower extremities. Which of the following symptoms is essential to be reported to the physician? A. Pain B. Ischemia C. Pulselessness D. Coolness

Answer: C Neurovascular checks (circulation, sensation, motion) are essential with a crushing injury. The absence of a pulse is a critical assessment finding to report to the physician. The other options are symptoms that need regular assessment.

The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report? A. Positive distal pulses B. Capillary refill of 3 seconds C. Dusky or mottled skin color D. Skin warm to touch

Answer: C Normally, skin color would be similar to the color in other body areas. Pale or dusky skin color indicates an abnormality that needs to be reported. Presence of pulses, capillary refill of 3 seconds, and warm skin are normal findings.

An instructor is describing the process of bone development. Which of the following would the instructor describe as being responsible for the process of ossification? A. Cancellous bone B. Osteoclasts C. Osteoblasts D. Cortical bone

Answer: C Osteoblasts secrete bone matrix (mostly collagen), in which inorganic minerals, such as calcium salts, are deposited. This process of ossification and calcification transforms the blast cells into mature bone cells, called osteocytes, which are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Cortical bone is dense hard bone found in the long shafts; cancellous bone is spongy bone found in the irregular rounded edges of bone.

Which laboratory study indicates the rate of bone turnover? A. Serum phosphorous B. Urine calcium C. Serum osteocalcin D. Serum calcium

Answer: C Serum osteocalcin (bone GLA protein) indicates the rate of bone turnover. Urine calcium concentration increases with bone destruction. Serum calcium concentration is altered in clients with osteomalacia and parathyroid dysfunction. Serum phosphorous concentration is inversely related to calcium concentration and is diminished in osteomalacia associated with malabsorption syndrome.

A client undergoes an arthroscopy at the outpatient clinic. After the procedure, the nurse provides discharge teaching. Which response by the client indicates the need for further teaching? A. "My physician may prescribe pain pills after the procedure." B. "Elevating my leg will reduce swelling after the procedure." C. "I should use my heating pad this evening to reduce some of the pain in my knee." D. "I may notice some bruising or swelling in my knee."

Answer: C The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll use a heating pad to reduce pain the evening of the procedure. The client shouldn't use heat at the procedure site during the first 24 hours because doing so may increase localized swelling. Ice is indicated during this time. Elevating the extremity helps reduce swelling. The client may experience some discomfort after the procedure for which the physician may order medication. Bruising and swelling are common after an arthroscopy.

A client visits the health care provider for a routine checkup. The history reveals that the client was diagnosed with a spinal curvature. Which region of the spine should the nurse assess for complications? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Thoracic D. Cervical

Answer: C The nurse should assess the thoracic region of the spine because a progressive curvature of more than 65 degrees in this region may lead to cardiopulmonary failure as well as less serious signs and symptoms, such as fatigue, back pain, decreased height, and cosmetic deformity. Although a curvature may affect any part of the spine, life-threatening complications aren't associated with curvature of the cervical, lumbar, or sacral regions.

The nurse is employed at a long-term care facility caring for geriatric clients. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an age-related change? A. Cognitive decline B. Increased muscle mass C. Depressive symptoms D. Loss of height

Answer: D A common age-related change is the loss of height due to the loss of bone mass and vertebral collapse. Cognitive decline is not an age-related change. Depression occurs in all age groups. Geriatric clients have a decrease in muscle mass.

The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary care physician. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site? A. The fracture is on the epiphyses. B. The fracture is on the tuberosity. C. The fracture is ventrally located. D. The fracture is on the diaphysis.

Answer: D A fracture that is on the diaphysis is understood to be chiefly found in the long shafts of the arms and legs. The epiphyses are rounded, irregular ends of the bones. Saying a fracture is ventrally located does not assist in providing adequate details of the location of the fracture. A tuberosity is a projection from the bone or a protuberance.

The nurse is performing a neurological assessment. What will this assessment include? A. Observe for capillary refill of the great toe. B. Palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse. C. Inspect the foot for edema. D. Ask the client to plantar flex the toes.

Answer: D A neurological assessment evaluates sensation and motion. Assessing plantar flexion of the toes would be included in a neurological assessment. Capillary refill, palpation of pulses, and inspecting for edema would be included in a vascular assessment.

Which medication taken by the client in the previous 24 hours would be of greatest concern to the nurse caring for a client undergoing a bone biopsy? A. digoxin B. furosemide C. NPH insulin D. aspirin

Answer: D Aspirin has anti-clotting properties, and bone is a very vascular tissue. The client taking aspirin in close proximity to a bone biopsy is at increased risk for excessive bleeding.

The nurse is assessing a client with a musculoskeletal system condition. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing bone pain? A. "The pain is sharp in my arms but is relieved by not moving." B. "The pain feels tender, hurts, and is worse when I move." C. "I have soreness and aching like cramps in both of my arms." D. "The pain feels deep in my legs and keeps me awake at night."

Answer: D Bone pain is typically described as a dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature. This pain is not typically related to movement and may interfere with sleep. Muscular pain is described as soreness or aching and is referred to as "muscle cramps." Joint pain is felt around or in the joint and typically worsens with movement. Fracture pain is sharp and piercing and is relieved by immobilization. Sharp pain may also result from bone infection with muscle spasm or pressure on a sensory nerve.

After bone fracture, fibrocartilaginous callus formation normally occurs at the same time as which process? A. Hematoma formation B. Remodeling C. Inflammation D. Fibroblast migration

Answer: D Fibrocartilaginous callus formation occurs as fibroblasts and osteoblasts migrate into the fracture site, where they begin to reconstruct the bone; the bone is not yet able to bear weight at the end of this phase. Next, mature bone replaces the fibrocartilaginous callus. Together these processes are sometimes referred to as the reparative stage. Inflammation and hematoma formation occur in the days immediately after the fracture, as macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair, during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone's former structural arrangement.

The nurse is reporting on the results of client blood work to the oncoming nurse. Upon reviewing the data, it is noted that the client has an elevated uric acid level. Which inflammatory process would the nurse screen for on shift rounds? A. Lupus erythematosus B. Osteoporosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout

Answer: D Gout is a medical condition with symptoms of acute inflammatory arthritis that is caused by high levels of uric acid in the blood. The client has uric acid crystal deposits in the joint. The nurse would assess joint areas for pain, redness, and swelling. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic disease of joint inflammation and pain. Lupus erythematous is a chronic tissue disorder of the connective tissue and is known to have an elevated antinuclear antibody level. Osteoporosis has a deficiency in the serum calcium level.

A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. When instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells? A. Resorption B. Epiphyses and diaphysis formation C. Remodeling D. Ossification and calcification

Answer: D Ossification and calcifications the body's process to transform osteoblasts into mature bone cells called osteocytes. Osteocytes are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Resorption and remodeling are involved in bone destruction. Epiphyses and diaphyses are bone tissues that provide strength and support to the human skeleton.

A nurse practitioner assesses a patient's movement in his left hand after a cast is removed. The nurse asks the patient to turn his wrist so the palm of his hand is facing up. This movement is known as: A. Pronation. B. Extension. C. Eversion. D. Supination.

Answer: D Refer to Figure 40-3 in the text for an illustration of body movements produced by muscle contraction.

A client is seen in the emergency room for a knee injury that happened during a basketball game. Diagnostic tests reveal torn cords of fibrous connective tissue that connect muscles to bones. What type of tear has this client sustained? A. Ligament B. Fascia C. Bursa D. Tendon

Answer: D Tendons are broad, flat sheets of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones, soft tissue, and other muscles. Ligaments bind bones together. A bursa is a synovial-filled sac, and fascia surround muscle cells.

A client experiences a musculoskeletal injury that involves the structure that connects a muscle to the bone. The nurse understands that this injury involves which structure? A. Ligament B. Joint C. Cartilage D. Tendon

Answer: D Tendons are cordlike structures that attach muscles to the periosteum of the bone. Ligaments consisting of fibrous tissue connect two adjacent, freely movable bones. Cartilage is a firm dense type of connective tissue that reduces friction between articular surfaces, absorbs shock, and reduces the stress on joint surfaces. A joint is the junction between 2 or more bones.

The nurse working in the emergency department receives a call from the x-ray department communicating that the client the nurse is caring for has a fracture in the shaft of the tibia. The nurse tells the physician that the client's fracture is in the A. lordosis. B. scoliosis. C. epiphysis. D. diaphysis.

Answer: D The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

The nurse is taking an initial history of a new client with a musculoskeletal problem. Which factor is most important for the nurse to keep in mind for this assessment? A. Client's age B. Client's lifestyle C. Duration and location of discomfort or pain D. Any chronic disorder or recent injury

Answer: D The focus of the initial history depends on the nature of the musculoskeletal problem, whether the client has a chronic disorder or a recent injury. If the disorder is long-standing, the nurse obtains a thorough medical, drug, and allergy history. If the client is injured, the nurse finds out when and how the trauma occurred. The client's age, lifestyle, or duration and location of discomfort or pain, although important, have little influence on the focus of the initial history and assessment of the client.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension. When assessing the reflexes in the ankle, the nurse observes rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. What would the nurse document this finding as? A. Positive Babinski reflex B. Ankle reflex C. Hypertrophy D. Clonus

Answer: D The nurse may elicit muscle clonus (rhythmic contractions of a muscle) in the ankle or wrist by sudden, forceful, sustained dorsiflexion of the foot or extension of the wrist.

Which of the following is an appropriate priority nursing diagnosis for the client following an arthrocentesis? A. Chronic pain B. Deficient knowledge: procedure C. Activity intolerance D. Risk for infection

Answer: D The priority nursing diagnosis following an arthrocentesis is risk for infection. The client may experience acute pain. The client needs adequate information before experiencing the procedure. Activity intolerance would not be an expected nursing diagnosis.

A patient has a fracture of the right femur sustained in an automobile accident. What process of fracture healing does the nurse understand will occur with this patient? A. Primary phase, secondary phase, third phase B. Active phase, dormant phase, restructure phase C. First intention, secondary intention, third intention D. Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase

Answer: D The process of fracture healing occurs over three phases. These include the following: Phase I: Reactive phase; Phase II: Reparative phase; and Phase III: Remodeling phase.

The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong muscles. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Cardio-training is the best way to build muscle." B. "Getting a lot of rest can strengthen muscles." C. "Range of motion exercises build muscle mass." D. "Weight-resistance exercises can strengthen muscles."

Answer: D Weight-resistance exercises maintain and strengthen muscles. Cardio-training is important for heart health and weight maintenance/reduction. Rest is good if you get exercise but doesn't build muscle on its own. Range of motion exercises are essential for joint mobility.

A nurse provides nutritional health teaching to an adult client who had two fractures in 1 year. Besides recommending supplemental calcium, the nurse suggests a high-calcium diet. What would the nurse recommend that the client increase intake of? A. Canned mixed fruit. B. Salmon and sardines. C. Almonds and peanuts. D. Yogurt and cheese.

Answer: D Yogurt and cheese are excellent sources of calcium. The other choices are low-calcium foods.