ACVPM: Public Health Administration and Education

What is the minimal requirement for controlled substance inventory?

Biennially (once every other year)

What early warning bio-surveillance system was created in 2003 designed to detect the intentional release of select aerosolized biological agents?

BioWatch

The goal of ____________ is to integrate the sustained efforts of the national and homeland security, medical, public health, intelligence, diplomatic, and law enforcement communities. Health care providers and public health officers are among the first lines of defense.

Biodefense

Marine biotoxins cause GI and neurological syndromes by predominantly what mechanism?

Blocking voltage gated sodium channels in heart/muscle/neural tissue

What is one of the most deadliest toxins known, where a single gram of crystalline toxin, evenly dispersed and inhaled, can kill more than one million people?

Botulinum neurotoxin

What is a schedule 3 opioid used in vet med?

Buprenorphine

What was one of the challenges regarding dead bodies during the Ebola virus outbreak in Liberia?

Burial customs in the area included funerals with ritual washing of the corpse and handling of the body

What are two schedule IV opioids used in vet med?

Butorphanol Tramadol

When developing your message for the public in a crisis situation, what questions should you ask yourself?

What does audience need from you? What does media need to know? What is the policy for the issue? What is your organization doing to fix the issue? When will more information be available?

If a vaccine is "DIVA" compatible, what does that mean?

(DIVA = Differentiation of infected from Vaccinated Animals). This means that using serology you can determine if the animal's antibodies come from exposure to the infectious agent or just the vaccine.

What is the reservoir for Sin Nombre virus?

(Hantavirus) Deer mouse Causes pulmonary pathology in people

What were(/are) some major CDC activities in the field, in regard to the Ebola virus outbreak in Liberia (Name at least four)?

1. Advisory Incident Management structure and function 2. Data management 3. Contact tracing/active case finding 4. Exit screening procedures and training 5. Health education 6. Lab diagnostic support 7. Infection control 8. Research

What are four things to consider about animal management to reduce pathogen transmission for animals in public settings?

1. Animals should be health and inspected by a vet prior to and during event 2. Animals should receive appropriate vaccines prior, especially rabies 3. Animals should have time to acclimate to their surroundings before visitor access 4. Animals should have adequate space to rest away from visitors (Animals shed more pathogens when stressed so keeping them less stressed can potentially reduce shedding)

What are 3 drivers of antimicrobial resistance?

1. Antibiotic usage (all uses, whether or not appropriate) 2. Horizontal transmission of resistance genes among bacteria 3. Acquisition of resistant bacteria via contamination of food, water, environment

In addition to verifying food hazards such as foodborne pathogens, chemical residues, extraneous materials, and veterinary pathology, FSIS also monitors what four things?

1. Antimicrobial resistance 2. Labeling claims 3. Shelf life 4. Good commercial practices

What two requirements must a veterinarian fufill to issue a VFD?

1. Be licensed in the state which the animals reside 2. Have a Veterinary-client-patient relationship

What are six animal issues to be aware of in disaster response?

1. Bite wounds/rabies 2. Seriously injured animals 3. Animal loss and emotional issues 4. Humane euthanasia and carcass disposal 5. Zoonoses 6.Emerging diseases

Name at least 3 strategies to stop human to human transmission of Ebola in an outbreak

1. Case identification for isolation/care 2. Contact tracing 3. Infection control 4. Safe burials 5. Health communication

What are four sources of ideas for new policy?

1. Cataclysmic events (9/11, school shootings, Ebola outbreak) 2. Personal experiences (congenital defects, drunk driving, child abductions) 3. Organized constituencies (AARP, NRA, AVMA) 4. Books (The Jungle, Silent Spring, The Hot Zone)

What are the 5 AVMA core elements of companion Animal Stewardship?

1. Clinic/Practice Commitment (Team approach) 2. Responsibility, authority, drug expertise (appoint a program lead, access to resources and specialists) 3. Action for Judicious Antibiotic Use (AVMA policies, written clinic SOPs, consider non-abx therapy) 4. Surveillance (tracking, monitoring, measurable outcomes) 5. Resources and Education (informing clinicians about resistance, optimal prescribing)

What are the 3 main activities that FSIS conducts?

1. Conducts inspections (examine establishment process/products/systems) 2. Determines compliance (working properly in accordance with laws/regulations) 3. Take enforcement actions (if FSIS inspector determines plans and systems are not in compliance with laws/regulations)

What are five positive reasons to move animals?

1. Conservation, restoring wild populations 2. Enhancing genetic diversity in agriculture 3. promoting human-animal bond (pets w/family) 4. Scientific research 5. Education (zoos, aquariums, museums)

Name at least 3 duties of the Select Agent Program

1. Develop/implement/enforce select agent regs 2. Maintain national database 3. Inspect entities that possess/use/transfer select agents 4. Ensure individuals who work with select agents undergo background check 5. Provide guidance to regulated entities 6. Investigate select agent incidents

What type of PPE is recommend for healthcare workers caring for Ebola patients (7)?

1. Double gloves 2. mid-calf waterproof boot covers 3. Single use fluid resistance gown extending to mid-calf or below 4. respirators 5. single use full face shield that is disposable 6. surgical hoods to ensure complete coverage of the head 7. apron that is waterproof and covers torso to level of mid cave and the top of the boot covers (protects against V/D)

What are 3 reasons resistant strains of bacteria are particularly concerning?

1. Early empiric treatment may fail and treatment choices will be limited 2. Increased morbidity/mortality (longer illness, more invasive infections, more hospitalizations, more deaths) 3. Resistance on a mobile genetic element may be transferred to other bacteria horizontally

What things did CDC implement in the United States during the 2015 Ebola outbreak (5)?

1. Entry screening at 5 US airports 2. Travelers form Guinea and Sierra Leone actively monitored 3. Educated US healthcare workers on isolation/infection prevention 4. Tightened infection control guidance for healthcare workers caring for Ebola patients 5. Designated ~55 hospitals as Ebola Treatment Centers

What are 3 INDIRECT ways people become infected with Salmonella in the national outbreak with African Dwarf Frogs

1. Exposure to contaminated water, habitats 2. Other aquatic pets 3. Environmental contamination, cleaning in the kitchen

What are the five ways in which humans can acquire Botulinum?

1. Foodborne (improperly canned/preserved/fermented) 2. Wound (traumatic injury/drug use) 3. Infant ingestion of honey (spores) 4. Adult intestinal toxemia (rare, but spores enter adults intestines, similar to babies) 5. Iatrogenic (too much botulinum toxin injected for cosmetic or medical reasons) Note: All 5 can be fatal

Name at least four factors that can influence zoonotic disease transmission for animals in public settings

1. Handwashing (lack of) 2. Facility design 3. Food contamination 4. Prolonged animal contact at camps, etc 5. Failure to follow disease prevention recommendations 6. Contaminated products used in school demonstrations

Name at least 3 ways citizens/lobbyists can help drive/create policy?

1. Having a clear, succinct message 2. Extensive use of the media 3. Organization 4. Coalition formation 5. Contributing and volunteering 6. Persistence (calls, emails, visits, petitions, "light pressure constantly applied"

What do you do and who do you notify if you have a Threat (ALERT) or issue at your facility, including suspicious behavior?

1. Hold any product that you believe may have been affected 2. Contact local law enforcement 3. contact the FDA

How do you Look (ALERT) after the security of the products and ingredients in your facility?

1. Implement a system for handling products 2. Track materials 3. Store product labels in a secure location and destroy outdated or discarded product labels 4. limit access and inspect facilities 5. keep track of finished products 6. Encourage your warehousing operations to practice food defense measures

What are four types of rules the State Department of Agriculture makes to protect livestock/poultry from contagious/infectious disease?

1. Importation of animals/poultry 2. Establishment of quarantine and its boundaries 3. Slaughter of animals and poultry 4. Destruction of animals to prevent disease spread

What are 3 factors about facility design that can lead to an increase risk for disease for animals in public settings?

1. Inadequate handwashing facilities 2. Inappropriate flow of visitors 3. Incomplete separation between animal exhibits and food consumption/prep areas Note: temporary or season exhibits are particularly vulnerable to deficiencies

How do you Assure (ALERT) that the supplies and ingredients you use are safe and secure sources ?

1. Know your suppliers 2. Encourage supplies to practice food defense 3. Request locked and/or sealed vehicles, containers, railcards 4. Supervise off-loading of incoming materials

What four factors are consistently associated with foods at a higher risk of terrorism?

1. Large batches (large number of consumers) 2. Uniform mixing (contaminate all servings) 3. Short shelf life (minimal time to identify problem and intervene) 4. Ease of access (accessible targets are more attractive)

What are the two key principals of Guidance 209 (Judicious use of Antimicrobials)?

1. Limit use of medically important antimicrobials to those considered necessary for assuring animal health (therapeutic purposes) 2. Increase veterinary involvement/consultation

What are 5 things rat owners can do to prevent the introduction of Seoul virus?

1. Maintain a closed rat colony 2. Quarantine and test newly acquired rats for Seoul virus ab 3. Prevent mixing between pet and wild rats 4. Avoid rat shows/swaps/barn hunts 5. Practice good husbandry and hygiene (avoid bites, scratches. Routine cleaning of enclosures, adequate ventilation, good record keeping. )

What three things can governor, in consultation with the department of Health Direction, do in a public health emergency?

1. Mandate medical examinations, treatment, or vaccination for exposed persons 2. Ration medicine and vaccines 3. Implement State quarantine and/or isolation

Of the 15 emergency support functions, U.S. Army veterinary service units could potentially provide support to which four?

1. Mass care - FEMA - Pet evac and transportation 2. Public Health and Medical Services - DHHS - Food safety/security, agriculture safety/security, vet med support 3. Search and Rescue - FEMA - urban search and rescue dogs 4. Agriculture and Natural Resources - USDA - Animal and Plant disease and pest response, food safety/security

What are the two benefits that Emotional Support Animals have by law?

1. May travel with their owner on an airplane 2. May live with their owner in locations covered by the fair housing amendments act, regardless of a "no pets" policy THAT IS IT

Why are turtles a high risk for Salmonella in young children (3)?

1. More likely than other reptiles to be given to young children 2. Terrarium water can amplify Salmonella 3. Displayed in daycares, school classrooms, prizes at carnivals

What are four elements of the Human-Animal Bond?

1. Natural affection and compassion 2. Support and companionship (decreases heart rate and cortisol) 3. Biophilia (love of living systems, instinctive bond) 4. Attachment (extension of attachment theory to animals, increases oxytocin)

What are two requirements for movement of dogs?

1. No signs of communicable disease 2. Fully immunized against rabies Note: other requirements might apply such as treatment against echinococcus, or imported for resale, research or veterinary tx

What would constitute as a Select Agent or Toxin release?

1. Occupational exposure (needle stick, animal bite/scratch, failure of PPE) 2. Release outside primary barriers of biocontainment area (spill outside safety cabinet or the lab itself)

What are four security requirements for controlled drugs in a clinic?

1. Overall facility security (location, storage containers, alarm systems, # staff with access, visitor policies, etc) 2. Personnel security controls (don't allow access with those who have felony convictions regarding controlled substances, denied or revoked DEA registration) 3. Additional security measures (prescription pads, secure, minimal in number, write out numbers, don't write out in advance) 4. Report theft or loss to DEA within 1 day

What are the steps between when a person eats contaminated food (such as something contaminated with Salmonella) to when the case is confirmed as part of an outbreak?

1. Person eats contaminated food 2. Person becomes ill 3. Stool sample collected 4. Salmonella identified 5. Public Health Lab receives sample 6. Case confirmed as part of an outbreak This can take 2-3 weeks for a Salmonella infection, for example.

What are three main characteristics of animals that make them good social supports?

1. Pets are always perceived as being available 2. Not many social skills required to get animals attention 3. Pets provide an escape from the strains of human interaction

What are two FDA polices that have helped combat antibiotic resistance?

1. Phasing out production uses of medically important anitmicrobials (no longer used for growth promotion or feed efficiency) 2. Increased veterinary oversight of antimicrobials (VFDs, water abx no longer OTC)

The use and misuse of antimicrobial drugs accelerates the emergence of drug resistant bacterial strains. What 3 other things encourage further spread of antimicrobial resistance?

1. Poor infection control practices 2. Inadequate sanitary conditions 3. Inappropriate food-handling

What are the four core actions according to the CDC for fighting antibiotic resistance?

1. Prevent infections 2. Track infections 3. Improve prescribing (stewardship) 4. Develop new drugs and diagnostics

How did the 2018 Farm bill amend the Bioterroism Protection Act of 2002 (2)?

1. Requires USDA to consider whether inclusion of an agent or toxin on the Biological Agents and Toxins list would have substantial negative impact on the research and development of solutions for the resultant disease 2. Requires USDA to consider whether negative impact of inclusion on the list substantially outweighs the risk posed by the toxin or agent if not included on the list

What role does the FDA have in implementing the 2002 Bioterroism Act (3)?

1. Requires registration of domestic and foreign food establishments 2. Requires prior notice of imported entries 3. Requires specific records on food products to assist in trace backs

What are two effects of emergency declarations?

1. Responders are given special protections and entitlements 2. Hospital requirements may be waived

To receive federal inspection, and establishment must receive an official Grant of Inspection. What 4 things must the establishment have in order to get this?

1. Sanitation SOPs 2. conduct Hazard Analysis 3. Develop and validate a HACCP plan 4. Agree to abide by all FSIS regulations

What are 3 goals for optimizing antibiotic use to reduce resistance?

1. Selection (choose the right abx for the infection/patient) 2. Dose (right amount) 3. Duration (right amount of time)

Name at least three things about facility design that could reduce the possibility of pathogen transmission for animals in public settings

1. Signage that informs visitors about risks, instructs not to eat drink, and to wash hands after visiting 2. Provide storage area for strollers/other items 3. Provide sufficient handwashing stations 4. Staff members encourage hand washing 5. maintain barriers between animals/visitors 6. Clean up soiled bedding/manure promptly 7. Provide barriers to prevent bedding from spilling out of pen into public areas

What are four things deliberate contamination of the food supply could cause?

1. Significant public health consequences 2. Widespread public fear 3. Devastating economic impacts 4. Loss of public confidence in safety of food and effectiveness of government

What are 5 goals of the US National Action Plan for combating Antibiotic Resistant Bacteria (2015)?

1. Slow the emergence of resistant bacteria/prevent the spread of resistant infections 2. Strengthen national One-health surveillance efforts 3. Advance development and use of rapid and innovative diagnostic tests for identification and characterization of resistant bacteria 4. Accelerate basic and applied research and development for new antibiotics, other therapeutics, vaccines 5. Improve international collaboration and capacities for antibiotic resistance prevention, surveillance, control, and antibiotic research and development

What were four recommendations issued by the CDC during the 2017 Seoul Virus outbreak?

1. Test all rats at suspected ratteries 2. Quarantine rats, lift when 4 weeks had elapsed since newest rat introduction AND all rats tested negative 3. Depopulation of confirmed facilities 4. Repopulation allowed after thorough cleaning

What 3 programs did the 2018 Farm Bill introduce/enhance that relate to veterinary medicine?

1. The National Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Program (NADPRP) 2. National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB) 3. National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) - ehanced

Any Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) order must be issued by a licensed veterinarian within a valid Veterinarian Client Patient Relationship (VCPR). List the five basic elements of a valid VCPR

1. The veterinarian assumes responsibility of the animal's health 2. Client (owner) agrees to comply with treatment/ instructions 3. Veterinarian has sufficient knowledge about the animal to treat it 4. The veterinarian assumes responsibility of follow-up care. 5. The veterinarian maintains animal records.

What are the 3 goals of food defense?

1. To prevent an attack if possible 2. To respond rapidly and efficiently if needed 3. To recover rapidly and restore consumer confidence in the food supply

What are some ways to decrease negative human crisis behaviors?

1. Use empathy, simplicity, credibility, consistency 2. Quick info release 3. Converge conflicting messages 4. Give the public tasks 5. NEVER say there is no risk 6. Don't be over-reassuring

What are 6 ways to prevent hantavirus infection for pet rat owners?

1. Wash hands after handling rodents/bedding/cage 2. Cover breaks in skin before handling 3. Clean/disinfect bite scratch wounds immediately 4. Supervise any children handling rodents 5. Do not kiss rodents 6. Clean rodent cages in well-ventilated area (use gloves masks if possible, dampen bedding with 10% bleach and let sit for 5 mins, clean with a damp wipe, no sweeping or vacuuming)

What are 3 potential negative effects of animal movement?

1. Zoonotic disease transmission (moneypox) 2. Damage to agriculture (FMD, aphids, pests to crops) 3. Damage to natural environment (infectious disease, out compete or physically damage wildlife)

Name at least three recommendations for controlling Chlamydia psittaci infection among birds and humans

1. avoid mixing birds from multiple sources 2. quarantine new or exposed birds and isolate all ill birds 3. test for Chlamydia psittaci before boarding birds or sellingthem 4. screen birds that have frequent public contact (schools, educational facilities) 5. practice good husbandry and use appropriate disinfection measures

What are 5 requirements that animals have/must be as part of the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?

1. be moved in a manner to minimize excitement and injury 2. protected from inclement weather 3. have access to food and water 4. rendered insensible prior to slaughter (stunning or loss of consciousness by anemia for religious slaughter such as Kosher/Halal) 5. Be properly bled

What do you know about your Employees (ALERT) and people coming in and out of your facility?

1. conduct background checks on staff, 2. know who belongs in your facility, 3. establish an identification system for employees 4. Limit access by staff 5. Prevent customer's access to critical areas of your facility

To benefit from PREDICT, entry filers must provide what 3 things?

1. consistent, accurate identifiers for firms 2. accurate product codes 3. all relevant affirmations of compliance

What are the four regulations meat and poultry plants had to implement as part of the Pathogen Reduction and HACCP final rule (1996)?

1. develop and implement written sanitation SOPs 2. conduct regular microbial testing to verify process controls for prevention/removal of fecal contamination 3. pathogen reduction performance standards for Salmonella for slaughter houses, and those producing raw ground products 4. implementation of HACCP

What are the four criteria does the USDA assess to determine Select Agents?

1. effect of exposure on animal and plant health, and production and marketability (economic impact) 2. Pathogenicity and methods by which agent/toxin is transferred to animals/plants 3. availability and effectiveness of pharmacotherapies and prophylaxis to treat and prevent illness 4. Any other criteria deemed appropriate

What four criteria does the CDC assess to determine a Select Agent?

1. effect on human health of exposure to agent/toxin 2. degree of contagiousness and methods by which agent is transferred to humans 3. availability and effectiveness of pharmacotherapies and immunizations to treat/prevent illness 4. Other criteria including needs of children/other vulnerable populations, etc

What are two things to do during an outbreak of Coxiella burnetii to reduce transmission?

1. enhanced hygiene and management (removing carcasses, aborted fetuses, dead newborns, and placentas promptly 2. Stop moving or selling animals while abortions are ongoing

What are 4 characteristics of ideal handwashing stations?

1. hot running water 2. liquid soap 3. paper towels 4. accessible for small children and disabled

What do State Police Powers do in regards to public health?

1. promote public health, safety, morals, and general well-being of the community 2. Control, regulate or prohibit non-criminal behavior such as isolation/quarantine, health inspections, land use/zoning, gambling, speed limits, drinking age, professional licensure Note: Must respect individual rights

What are two large impacts foot and mouth disease would have if introduced in the US?

1. psychological impact on consumers 2. economic impact on livestock industry (devastating)

What are two characteristics that FDA looks at when approving antimicrobials in animals?

1. safe and effective for its intended use in the animal 2. if used in food producing animals it is safe with regard to human health

What is the incubation period for human salmonellosis ?

12 to 72 hours

What is the onset of action for Botulinum neurotoxin?

12-72 hours, though can be as soon as 2 hours

Animal contact is responsible for __________% of the 3.2 million enteric illnesses in the US every year

14%

What is the 1975 turtle ban?

1975 CFR Title 21 Bans the sale of turtles with a carapace length of less than 4 inches.

When was extra-label use of flouroquinolones and glycopetptides prohibited?

1997

FSIS declared Listeria monocytogens an adulterant in RTE products in what year?

1998

> ____________ (number) people are sickened each year with antibiotic resistant infections

2 million (23K die as direct result!)

The Poultry Products Inspection Act (1957) applies to poultry products containing more than ________% poultry

2%

What is the incubation period of Ebola?

2-21 days

What legislation prohibits individuals from knowingly slaughtering a dog or cat for human consumption (or shipping/selling/transporting/receiving dog/cat/parts for human consumption) within the United States?

2018 Farm Bill Note: certain exceptions exist

What two pieces of legislature extended prohibition on Animal Fighting to United States territories?

2018 Farm Bill in parity with Animal Cruelty Enforcement Act

How long should an exposed pet of a positive Ebola virus patient be monitored in quarantine?

21 days Note: no known clinical signs of Ebola infection or disease has been shown in pet dogs

Once you have found contacts of a positive case of an Ebola virus patient, how long should you monitor the contacts?

21 days (if they become febrile/symptomatic, then isolate and test)

The Federal Meat Inspection Act applies to meat products containing more than ____% Meat

3%

Ingestion of saxitoxin can cause numbness of the oral mucosa as quickly as ________ (time), and paralysis and death if left untreated

30 minutes

When is a national Ebola outbreak considered to be over?

42 days (double the 21 day incubation period) after the last patient in isolation tests negative for the virus

___________% of acute Q fever cases are asymptomatic

50%

Hand sanitizer stations should contain at least __________% alcohol

60%

Anthrax, Botulism, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, and viral hemorrhagic fevers (ebola, marburg, areavirus) are CDC Class _____ agents

A

What class of CDC bioterrorism agents present a great threat to the public health and national security and have high rates of transmission and/or fatalities, can have a great impact on public health, and can potentially cause social disruption or panicked public response

A

What is the difference between a decision and a policy?

A decision is an individual concern and a policy affects the greater community

How is EMAC triggered?

A governor's declaration of emergency and request for assistance

What is the Farm Bill?

A large authorization and funding measure, from commodities and crop insurance to research and extension

CDC Bioterrorism class _______ agents include emerging viruses, bacteria, and toxins, and could be modified for dissemination due to availability, easy production and spreading, and potentially high infection and/or death rates

C

Nipah virus and Hantavirus are examples of CDC class _________ agents

C

9. You suspect a client's pet may have a foreign animal disease. What should you do? A. Immediately refer your client to the nearest teaching hospital or veterinary specialty center. B. Attempt to diagnose the disease yourself by taking samples and submitting them to your local diagnostic laboratory. C. Immediately call your State Animal Health Official and Assistant Director to report your suspicions. D. Contact the local health department.

C. Immediately call your State Animal Health Official and Assistant Director to report your suspicions.

What are four pathogens that are of particular risk to people in birthing animals/birthing exhibits?

C. burnetti Brucella spp Leptospira spp Listeria monocytogenes These exhibits should be outdoors or in a well-ventilated area

During the 2017 Seoul virus outbreak, which organization developed guidelines and recommendations for human/rat testing, control and prevention?

CDC

If you want to transport more than 6 turtles less than 4 inches, or viable eggs, who must you request a permit from?

CDC

Rodents from Africa or with a native range that includes Africa are restricted from import by what agency?

CDC

To import or move bats interstate for scientific research, education, or exhibition purposes, who supplies the permit?

CDC

What two agencies regulate movement/importation of Civets and related animals (Family Viverridae)

CDC (permission requested in advance) USFWS

Who must importers of nonhuman primates register with?

CDC - must also meet stringent requirements

NARMS examines foodborne bacteria for genetic relatedness using PFGE and enters into what database?

CDC's PulseNet (or USDA's VetNet)

4. Match the following Agencies with the food safety and quality responsibilities: a. FDA b. USDA c. EPA d. NOAA ___Drinking water ___Certifying organic products ___Eggs in the shell ___Wild game/exotic meats ___Seafood

C_Drinking water B_Certifying organic products A_Eggs in the shell A_Wild game/exotic meats A___Seafood

People working with ____________ may be at higher risk of MERS-CoV

Camels

What are the six criteria air pollutants the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards for, according to the Clean Air Act?

Carbon Monoxide Nitrogen Dioxide Sulfur Dioxide Lead Particulate Matter GROUND level ozone

Where does Ricin come from?

Castor beans

The Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (1978) applies to what animals

Cattle, calves, sheep, swine, horses, mules note: NOT poultry -> fall under good commercial practices

7. Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA? Foreign Agricultural Service Food and Nutrition Service National Institute of Food and Agriculture Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

A nationwide outbreak of Salmonella associated with African Dwarf Frogs (2008-2011) primarily affected what age group?

Children

What is the causative agent for Psittacosis in humans and Avian Chlamydiosis in pet birds?

Chlamydia psittaci

Name at least three disease that individuals may be apprehended, detained, or conditionally released to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases as part of the Public Health Service Act

Cholera Diptheria Plague Smallpox Yellow Fever SARS Infectious tuberculosis Viral hemorrhagic fevers Pandemic influenza

What is the difference between a Tier 1 agent and Class A agent?

Class A is just a list by the CDC of potential serious bioterrorism agents Both USDA and CDC (HHS) have Tier 1 agent/toxin lists, which have enforceable regulations/rules attached to them

10. Product "X" is recalled once the FDA determines that there is a high probability that the use of this product will result in serious adverse health effects to the user. Which class of recall did the FDA initiate? Class I recall Class II recall Class III recall Class IV recall

Class I

What are two big contributors to the spread of Blue Tongue virus in Europe?

Climate Change (viral survival and vector longevity seen during milder winters), allowing Culicoides imicola to spread more northward with warmer weather Northward spread has been ability of Culicoides obsoletus and C. pulicaris to acquire and transmit the disease; C. imicola is limited to North Africa and Mediterranean

___________ are formed in the hopes of capitalizing on the strength in numbers and strengths of each member. This united front is more likely to impress decision makers and the new media

Coalitions

What are the 3 zones of standard HAZMAT protocol in a disaster situation?

Cold Zone (rest, eating areas) Warm Zone (resource and tool storage/gross decontamination) Hot Zone (Debris field, contamination area)

__________ affects neurotransmitter receptors and ion channels, leading to paralysis of the diaphragm and respiratory arrest

Conotoxin

For pathogen reduction regarding Campylobacter, Category 1 is defined as?

Consistent process control (achieved 50 percent or less of the performance standard during the most recently completed 52 week moving window)

How are people exposed to Tetrodotoxin?

Consumption of puffer fish or direct contact with blue-ringed octopus

What are methods of utilization of conotoxin as a bioweapon?

Contamination of food, aerosolized dispersal

Which agency's strategic plan is to employ an integrated systems based One Health approach, which focuses on the interconnection between people, animals, plants, and the environment to minimize the risk of pest and disease events to protect the national food supply

APHIS

In addition to obtaining a permit from the CDC, what other agencies may also have requirements regarding the importation of vectors such as snails or arthropods?

APHIS USFWS

Who regulates the importation of birds, including poultry, pet birds, and wild birds?

APHIS USFWS

In USDA, which agencies responsibilities include assisting with tracing of recalled products in emergencies, assisting with inhuman transportation issues; providing a list of diseases of concern, recommendations regarding transportation and supplies for collection and shipment of specimens and man made identification devices; notifying appropriate agency of outbreaks of animal diseases and any imported meat poultry or egg that do not meet requirements

APHIS (services are provided to and notifications are made to FSIS)

What are the most documented clinical effects of Q fever in goats and sheep (3) ?

Abortions, stillbirths, early neonatal mortality

Which is more potent, Abrin or Ricin?

Abrin (magnitudes more)

If a large number of people who had been close to each other suddenly developed fever, cough, and excess fluid in their lungs, possibly followed by severe breathing problems and possibly death, what possible bioterriorism attack might have occured?

Abrin or Ricin

__________ resistance is when a particular bacterium undergoes spontaneous mutation of a gene or horizontal gene transfer

Acquired i.e. horizontal gene transfer, movement of genetic elements (plasmids) between neighboring organisms

What are clinical signs of human Salmonella infection?

Acute gastroenteritis (fever, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, vomiting, blood stool) Serious:meningitis, bloodstream infections, joint infections

What is the vector for Chikungunya virus?

Aedes spp mosquitoes (aegypti, albopictus)

How do rodents transmit hantaviruses to people or other rodents (3)?

Aerosolization of virus from urine/dropping/bedding Direct contact with mucous membranes or broken skin Bites

Where is Ebola virus found, regionally?

Africa

When are people most receptive to relevant education in a crisis?

After it is over

What pilot project as part of the 2018 Farm Bill is intended to overcome long-term and high-risk research challenges in agriculture that industry is unlikely to undertake because of technological or financial uncertainty

Agriculture Advanced Research and Development Authority (AGARDA)

What Act allows emotional support animals to travel with their owner on an airplane?

Air Carrier Access Act

What did AMDUCA do for veterinarians?

Allowed licensed veterinarians to prescribe extra label uses of approved animal drugs and human drugs in animals (this was previously not allowed!)

What did the Pets Evacuation and Transportation Standards (PETS) Act of 2006 do?

Amended the Stafford Act Requires state and local emergency preparedness plans to take into account the needs of individuals with household pets and service animals

What was the importance of the Sandy Recovery Improvement Act of 2013?

Amended the Stafford Act so that a chief executive of a tribal government could directly request a disaster or emergency declaration from the President

Name at least three WATER use drugs affected by Guidance 213 (No longer OTC, require VFD)

Aminoglycosides (Apramycin, Gentamicin, Neomycin, Spectinomycin, Streptomycin) Lincomycin Macrolides (Carbomycin, Erythromycin, Tylosin) Penicillin Sulfas (Sulfachloropyrazine, Sulfachlorpyridazine, Sulfadimethoxine, Sulfamerazine, Sulfamethazine, Sulfaquinoxaline) Tetracyclines (Chlortetracycline, Oxytetracycline, Tetracycline)

Name at least three FEED use drugs affected by Guidance 213 (No longer OTC, require VFD)

Aminoglycosides (Apramycin, Hygromycin B, Neomycin, Streptomycin) Ormetoprim Lincomycin Macrolides (Erythromycin, Oleandomycin, Tylosin) Penicillin Virginiamycin Sulfas (Sulfadimethoxine, Sulfamerazine, Sulfamethazine, Sulfaquinoxaline) Tetracycline (Chlortetracycline, Oxytetracycline)

What is the causative agent of Chikungunya

An alpha virus

What is the only hantavirus that has shown human to human transmission?

Andes virus

What agency has the mission to safeguard the health, welfare, and value of American agriculture and natural resources?

Animal Plant and Health Inspection Service (APHIS)

Who regulates the importation of livestock species?

Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS)

What agencies regulate the movement of dogs and cats (3)?

Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) CDC State and local agencies

Name at least 6 zoonotic and vectorborne diseases that are reportable to the Department of Health (at least in FL)

Anthrax Dengue Ehrlichiosis Giardiasis Lyme Malaria Mosquito born encephalitis (EEE,SLE,WN) Plague Psittacosis Q Fever Rabies RMSF Toxoplasmosis Tularemia

As part of the FDA guidance for Industry #209, use of medically important antimicrobials in food producing animals will be phased out for _____________ uses, but protected for _____________ uses

As part of the FDA guidance for Industry #209, use of medically important antimicrobials in food producing animals will be phased out for production uses, but protected for treatment, control, and prevention uses

What does ALERT stand for in the ALERT Card Initiative?

Assure Look Employees Report Threat

Why was four inches chosen at the minimum length requirement for turtles that could be sold?

At this size children were less likely to treat turtles as toys and put them in their mouth

(Ground-level/Atmospheric) ozone is the "good" kind that protects us from being fried by the sun's rays, but (ground-level/atmospheric) ozone is the "bad" kind and the main ingredient of smog

Atmospheric ozone is the "good" kind that protects us from being fried by the sun's rays, but ground-level ozone is the "bad" kind and the main ingredient of smog

What three drugs were already approved as Veterinary Feed Directive drugs, and therefore were the only ones affected at the time of the VFD final rule in October 2015 (updated VFD process)?

Avilamycin Florfenicol Tilmicosin

Brucellosis, Epsilon toxin of CLostridium perfringes, E. coli O157:H7, Salmonella, Meliodosis, psittacosis, Q fever, Ricin, Staph enterotoxin B, Typhus fever, and viral encephalitis (EEE, VEE, WEE) are all CDC Class _________ agents

B

What class of CDC agent can spread with moderate ease, cause moderate rates of disease with low death rates, and necessitates specific lab capabilities and disease monitoring by the CDC?

B

What is the reservoir host for Ebola virus?

Bats

For antibiotic use, what was a major barrier for practitioners to conduct a culture and sensitivity?

Cost

According to NASPHV's Compendium of Measures to Prevent Disease Associated with Animals in Public Settings, animal birthing exhibits are becoming more popular at places such as fairs, educational farms, and zoos. Name two organisms that goats, sheep, and/or cattle may shed during the birthing process and are transmittable to people.

Coxiella burnetii, Brucella spp., Leptospira spp., Listeria monocytogenes are the four specifically listed inthe compendium but not the only options

_____________ communication is used when an adverse event has occurred to decrease the severity of the outcome

Crisis (note the difference in definition between risk and crisis communication)

Hand sanitizers are useful when its not possible to provide running water, but they are ineffective against what pathogen?

Cryptosporidia

What risk do calves <1 month old present to the public if allowed public contact?

Cryptosporidiosis

8. Match the Emergency Support Function (ESF) Annex of the National Response Framework to the animal response activity. A. ESF #6: Mass Care, Emergency Assistance, Temporary Housing, B. ESF #8: Public Health and Medical Services C. ESF #9: Search and Rescue D. ESF #11: Agriculture and Natural Resources ___Addresses the protection of agricultural and natural resources in a national emergency, including animal pest and disease outbreaks. ___ Addresses the basic needs of people and their pets during the evacuation, care, sheltering, and post- disaster response. ___ Coordinates the Federal response to provide medical (including veterinary) and public health services ___ Provides lifesaving search and rescue resources.

D A B C

4. Match the following Agencies with the food safety and quality responsibilities: a. FDA b. USDA c. EPA d. NOAA ___Grading of fish and seafood ___Bottled water ___Liquid eggs ___Pesticide residues

D__Grading of fish and seafood A__Bottled water B__Liquid eggs C_Pesticide residues

Domestic sales and distribution of all medically important antimicrobials intended fo use in food producing animals (increased/decreased) by 33% between 2016-1017

Decreased

What did the 2018 Farm Bill do in regards to Hemp?

Defined hemp as Cannabis sativa L. or any part of that plant (including seeds, derivatives, extracts containing THC <0.3 %) and exempts these from the Controlled Substances Act

FDA and CDC fall under what larger agency?

Department of Health and Human Services

What can cause Alimentary toxic aleukia with low dose chronic ingestion (Oral mucosal ulcerations, gastritits, bone marrow toxicity causing pancytopenia, hemorrhage, agranulocytosis.)?

Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2

Nam at least 5 functions a veterinarian could perform in a disaster response

Diagnosis/labs Trauma medicine infection control bite prevention vector control communicate with producers recognize sentinels of disease (animals or people) SME on what animals are susceptible Decon advice for dogs/cats Help evacuate shelter pets, zoos, livestock Determine if carcass disposal is safe Understand/communicate feral swine issues

How is Coxiella burnetii transmitted in animals?

Direct contact w/infected animals Direct contact w/contaminated environment Inhalation of aerosolized bacteria

How do people contract Ebola?

Direct contact with infected blood, feces, sweat Sexual contact w/infected person Handling contaminated corpses and objects, unprotected

What two agencies manage the Select Agent Program?

Division of Select Agents and Toxins (CDC, part of HHS) Agriculture Select Agent Services (APHIS, part of USDA)

What is the reservoir for Seoul virus?

Domestic rat/Norway rat

What is the treatment of choice for Q fever?

Doxycycline

What is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia psittaci in birds?

Doxycycline (oral, medicated feed or water, also injectable) Note: shorter treatment times may be effective

In severe tetrodotoxin poisoning, what can occur (3)?

Dysrhythmias Hypotension Death

FSIS considers raw, non-intact beef products or components of these products to be adulterated if they are found to have what pathogens (2)

E coli O157:H7 Shiga toxin producing E. coli (STEC)(any of the 6 non-O157 STECs,O26, O45, O103, O111, O121, O145)

78% of illness at animal exhibits are cause by what 3 organisms?

E. coli Salmonella Cryptosporidium

9. Of those listed, which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards? Exposure and worker health monitoring Administrative controls Engineering controls Personal protective equipment

Engineering Controls

What was the immediate priority of the National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB)?

Established a robust US Foot and Mouth Disease Vaccine Bank for the ability to rapidly vaccinate susceptible livestock

What is the proper rabies post exposure management for dogs, cats, and ferrets that have never been vaccinated (2)?

Euthanasia OR Administer vaccine w/in 96 hrs of exposure and strict quarantine for 4 months (dogs/cats), 6 months (ferrets) if vax is delayed, consider extending quarantine to 6 months

The (legislative/executive/judicial) branch of government can make and change policy through rulemaking

Executive

5. T or F Humane slaughter provisions under the Acts apply to poultry slaughtered under USDA inspection for human food.

F

(T/F) Emotional support animals have the same rights as a service dogs, per the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

FALSE!!

If an entity reports theft or loss of a select agent or toxin to the Federal Select Agent Program, whom do they share this information with?

FBI, who may open an investigation if warranted

What organization runs the PREDICT system (Predictive Risk-based Evaluation for Dynamic Import Compliance Targeting)

FDA

Which organization would have jurisdiction over commercial ratteries that sell rats over state lines or on the internet?

FDA

Who enforces the 1975 Turtle Ban?

FDA

Who has jurisdiction over products in interstate commerce for "non-amenable" species (buffalo, antelope, reindeer, elk, migratory waterfowl, game birds, rabbits)?

FDA

Who is the regulatory authority for animal feed?

FDA

Who issues DEA licenses for veterinarians?

FDA

Who regulates closed faced sandwichs?

FDA

Who regulates the movement of rodents intended as animal feed?

FDA

Who restricts the domestic sale or movement of turtles <4 inches in lenght?

FDA

NARMS is a partnership between what 3 agencies?

FDA CDC USDA

What guidance asked drug companies to voluntarily withdraw approval for production uses and changed labeling from OTC to VFD for medicated feed products?

FDA Guidance for Industry #213

Why was extra-label use of flouroquinolones and glycopeptides banned in 1997

FDA believed extra-label use of these drugs in food producing animals are capable of increasing the level of drug resistant zoonotic pathogens in treated animals at the time of slaughter

2. Which one or more of the following products are regulated by the FDA? For the choice(s) not regulated by the FDA, list which agency regulates them. Smart TVs Pet food Alcohol Human vaccines Heroin Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol Baby toys

FDA: Smart TVs, Pet food, Alcohol (FDA regulates purity and medicinal products, ATF regulates otherwise), Human vaccines NOT FDA: Heroin - DEA Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol - FTC (Federal Trade Commission) Baby toys - CPSC (Consumer Product Safety Commission)

For establishments that export products to foreign countries, who ensures that the requirements of the country are met?

FSIS

In the USDA, foreign animal diseases, animal identification, BSE, brucellosis, scrapie, tuberculosis, import inspection, veterinary biologics, and food security verification testing fall under what agency's responsibilities?

FSIS

___________ is responsible for certifying that a foreign meat and poultry establishment is operating under an inspection system equivalent to the US system before they can export their product to the United States

FSIS

What act allows people with emotional support animals to live in housing that has a "no pets" policy?

Fair Housing Amendments Act (FHAA)

(T/F) Rats will show symptoms of Seoul virus

False

(T/F) Red Cross Shelters allow pets

False

(T/F) Treatment of animals with Coxiella burnetii will reduce shedding

False

(T/F) An antidote exists for Tetrodotoxin and Saxitoxin

False Treatment is supportive/symptomatic only

(T/F) If a farm is experiencing an outbreak of Coxiella burnetii , it is recommended to quarantine and/or euthanize the infected animals

False Coxiella burnetii is endemic to the US, ubiquitous and persistent in the environment, and nearly impossible to eliminate form herd and decontaminate the environment, plus there is no effective treatment to stop shedding, and its almost impossible to repopulate with negative animals

(T/F) One of the main influences on policy is evidence (epidemiology)

False National values, national mood, ideology, and political bargaining are! Not that it isn't influential, just not the most, honestly. Policy makers want votes, money, good publicity and to prevent outrage

(T/F) Staphylococcus enterotoxins typically take 3-5 days for onset of symptoms

False Staph is fast, onset is usually 4-10 hours, or 3-12 after inhalation

(T/F) NARMS only operates and shares information within the United States

False They collaborate with antimicrobial resistance monitoring systems in other countries to work toward international harmonization of testing and reporting

(T/F) SARS-CoV-2 is a Select Agent

False - As of April 2020 anyway. Note, SARS-CoV (the original SARS virus) IS a select agent though!

(T/F) When importing animals, choice of port of entry is not crucial as the appropriate authority can be called upon to inspect them wherever they arrive

False - CDC, USFWS, APHIS have only specific ports where they operate The ONLY agency present at ALL ports of entry is US Customs and Border Protection Must select US port of entry carefully

(T/F) Veterinarians can/should write letters as documentation and certification of emotional support animals

False - ESA prescription letter must be written by a licensed mental health professional!

(T/F) Prophylaxis (if high risk) and treatment of asymptomatic individuals is recommended for Q fever

False - NOT recommended

(T/F) Staphylococcal enterotoxin B has a high fatality rate

False - but high morbidity and incapacitation rate (50-80%)

(T/F) The VFD is a state regulation

False - federal, but deferred to State authority

(T/F) Routine prophylactic antibiotic treatment is highly encouraged for birds againstChlamydia psittaci

False - highly discouraged

(T/F) Enrofloxacicin is approved in poultry if given via water

False - in 2005 FDA ordered the withdrawal of approval for enrofloxacin for the purpose of treating bacterial infections in poultry

(T/F) Ricin is incredibly heat tolerant

False - inacitivated by heat

(T/F) Pasteurizing milk is insufficient to destroy Coxiella burnetii

False - it is

(T/F) Mosquitoes are a vector for Ebola virus

False - mosquitoes or other insects cannot transmit Ebola

(T/F) A governor can request presidential declaration (Stafford Act) prior to executing the State's emergency plan, if he deems it will be overwhelmed

False - must execute the emergency plan BEFORE requesting presidential declaration

(T/F) Dogs and cats have been reported to be clinically affected by Ebola virus, as well as being able to spread it

False - neither is true

(T/F) When providing veterinary care to a service animal, you should document the owners disability in the record for a complete understanding of what tasks the animal is trained to do and support

False - never do this, HIPPA

(T/F) There is a vaccine available for Seoul Virus in rats

False - no treatment either

(T/F) The CDC has a regulatory role in outbreak investigations

False - non regulatory, they do surveillance and outbreak detection, in addition to public education

(T/F) Hantaviruses affect rodents, cats, and dogs, in addition to humans

False - only known to affect humans and rodents

(T/F) Development of Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome is common with Seoul virus and occurs in >60% of cases

False - rare Symptoms range from asymptomatic to severe

(T/F) Chronic Q fever is the most common form of Coxiella burnetii

False - rare, develops in <5% of acute cases

(T/F) Prior to putting animals in public settings for exhibits, they should be screened for specific diseases

False - specific disease screening is not useful, pathogens are shed intermittently and does not address potential contamination or exposure from the animal environment. They should, however, be inspected by a vet and generally healthy

(T/F) Emotional support animals require specific training to qualify as ESAs

False - their purpose is to provide therapeutic benefit through companionship

(T/F) CDC Bioterrorism class agents (A,B, and C) are associated with congressional mandates and/or federal regulations

False - they are not associated with either!

(T/F) In order to issue a VFD, the veterinarian does not need a veterinary client patient relationship

False - they do need a VCPR

(T/F) The Humane Methods of Slaughter Act outlines appropriate methods for poultry slaughter

False - this act excludes poultry. Poultry slaughter falls under Good Commercial Practices

(T/F) Dogs and cats that are overdue for rabies vaccination but do not have any documentation of previous vaccination are still treated as overdue animals with regards to post-exposure management

False - treated as unvaccinated

(T/F) In the pet food outbreak of Salmonella Infantis (2012) the majority of dogs and cats owned by case patients were also sick

False -mostly healthy

(T/F) The National Poultry Improvement Plan certifies freedom from all strains of Salmonella in breeder flocks

False! Only Salmonella enterica serotypes Pullorum, Gallinarium, and Enteritidis

(T/F) Untreated Q fever has a high mortality rate (>50%)

False, untreated case fatality is <2%, most recover in 9-14 days

Where is Salmonella shed in dogs and cats (2)?

Feces and saliva

Declaration of the Stafford Act triggers what type (source) of assistance?

Federal

The slaughter of siluriformes fish (catfish) is regulated under what act?

Federal Meat Inspection Act

Name at least 3 acts that give FSIS power to inspect all meat, poultry, and processed egg products in interstate commerce

Federal Meat Inspection Act (1906) Agricultural Marketing Act (1946) Poultry Products Inspection Act (1957) Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (1958) Egg Products Inspection Act (1970)

Why is a VFD NOT a prescription?

Feed mill operators are NOT pharmacists and can't dispense drugs in feed even with a prescription, so FDA had to call this something else...hence Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)

Name at least 3 symptoms of people infected with Seoul virus

Fever, blurred vision, headache, flushing of face, back/abdominal pain, redness of eyes, chills, rash, nausea, HFRS

What are some signs and symptoms of Ebola virus?

Fever, chills, myalgia, malaise, weakness GI very common: V/D, abdominal pain Hemorrhage: <50% of cases

What is the reservoir for Hantaan virus?

Field mouse (Hantavirus, causes renal pathology in people)

What is the purpose of the FDA's ALERT card initiative?

Food Defense Intended to raise the awareness of federal, state, and local government, along with industry, regarding food defense issues

What is the public health agency in the USDA that is responsible for ensuring the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?

Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS)

What 3 areas does FDA's Food Protection Plan cover?

Food for people and animals Domestic and imported Food safety and food defense

What are 3 ways animals can be a source of Salmonella and other enteric pathogens?

Foodborne (consuming meat, poultry, eggs, dairy) Direct animal contact Indirect animal contact (animal environments, contamination of food)

8. The first priority of the National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB) is to increase the U.S. stockpile of which animal vaccine? African Swine Fever Foot and Mouth Disease Exotic Newcastle Disease Avian Influenza

Foot and Mouth Disease

What is probably the number one agricultural threat to the US?

Foot and mouth disease

What is the one exception to turtles allowed to be sold if less than 4 inches in length?

For bona fide scientific, educational, or exhibitional purposes other than as use as pets

What is the major reservoir for rabies in Alaska and central Texas?

Fox

What is the considered to be the natural host of ebola?

Fruit bats (Pteropodidae family)

What animals are the principal sources of Coxiella burnetii infection in humans (3)?

Goats, sheep, cattle

Evaluating the Safety of Antimicrobial New Animal Drugs with Regard to Their Microbiological Effects on Bacteria of Human Health Concern (2003) is also known as?

Guidance 152

What Guidance (#) had the FDA consider the potential impact on human health of all uses of all classes of antimicrobial new animal drugs intended for use in food producing animals?

Guidance 152

What provided guidance for industry on possible process for evaluating the potential effects of antimicrobial new animal drugs on non-target bacteria as part of the new animal drug application process, as well outlining a risk assessment approach for evaluating the microbial food safety of new animal antimicrobial drugs?

Guidance 152 (Evaluating the Safety of Antimicrobial New Animal Drugs with Regard to Their Microbiological Effects on Bacteria of Human Health Concern)

What Guidance focused on assuring that medically important antimicrobial drugs are used as judiciously as possible, knowing that antimicrobials must continue to be available to combat disease in animals (including tx, control, and prevention)

Guidance 209 (Judicious use of Antimicrobials)

What Guidance for Industry restricted the use of medically important antibiotics in food and water and therapeutic purposes only, and require authorization from a licensed veterinarian?

Guidance 213

What guidance proposed the definition of medically important antimicrobials?

Guidance 213 (Medical Importance)

All federally regulated slaughter and processing plants are required to have what system in place?

HACCP

Who leads the Import Safety Action Plan?

HHS Secretary

What is the single most important prevention step for reducing the risk for disease transmission at animal exhibits?

Hand washing

What syndrome can Seoul Virus cause in people?

Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS)

For pathogen reduction regarding Campylobacter, Category 3 is defined as?

Highly variable process control (have exceeded the performance standard during the most recently completed 52 week moving window)

What are the 3 parts to the epidemiologic triad?

Host, Agent, Environment (disease in the middle)

What are the 3 areas of One Health?

Humans Animals Environment

NARMS monitors trends in antimicrobial resistance among foodborne bacteria from what 3 things?

Humans Animals Retail Meats

What is the reservoir for Dengue?

Humans and other primates

What are four schedule two (high potential for abuse) drugs used in vet med?

Hydromorphone Fentanyl Morphine Codeine

How is Chlamydia psittaci diagnosed in humans?

IFA, PCR MIF (IgM, IgA, IgG)

If a previously vaccinated animal is overdue for a rabies booster, including the one-year booster, when would it be considered currently vaccinated?

Immediately after revaccination

What is proper rabies post-exposure management for dogs and cats with documentation of previous vaccination, but overdue?

Immediately receive vet med care for assessment, wound cleansing, and booster vax. Animal should be kept under owners control and observed for 45 days.

What FDA system prevents potentially violative products from being entered into US commerce, and may include violative history for: commodities, manufactures/shippers, growers, country of origin, geographic area, importers, when warranted, a combination of the above

Import Alert System

What is the Good Importer Practices guidance from the FDA (part of Import Safety Action Plan)

Importers who initiate or cause entry or attempted entry of foreign-sourced products into the U.S. or reimportation of U.S. made products for commercial purposes to help ensure that such products are safe and comply with applicable US requirements.

What organism does Saxitoxin build up that can cause problems for people?

In filter feeding organisms such as clams and oysters

What is a "dual use" bioterrorism agent?

In the hands of the wrong people, materials intended for legitimate scientific, medical, or commercial use have the potential to harm large numbers of people

What serotype of Salmonella was associated with an outbreak in dry dog food (2012)?

Infantis

What are four zoonoses that can be transmitted through aerosols?

Influenza Tuberculosis Q Fever Psittacosis

What are some clinical signs of Abrin/Ricin toxicity in humans if inhaled or ingested?

Inhalation: dyspnea, fever, cough, nausea, sweating, pulmonary edema Ingestion: v/d (bloody), hallucinations, seizures, hematuria, multiple organ failure

In crisis communication, rapid communication with audience, use of empathy and concern, giving public tasks to decrease harm, general description of what occurred and expected outcome, and directing where to go for new information is part of what stage of communication?

Initial Event

Why did so many health care workers (>500 cases) get infected in the 2015 African Ebola outbreak (3)?

Insufficient PPE Insufficient training on how to identify possible EVD cases Health care centers were overburdened and understaffed

In the FDA Food Protection plan, _______________ involves risk based inspections and testing

Intervention

What type of organism is Coxiella burnetii ?

Intracellular, gram negative bacteria

___________ resistance to antimicrobials is when bacteria naturally have structural or functional characteristics that resist activity of a particular antibiotic

Intrinsic I.e. organism lacks target binding sites or produces enzymes that inactivate the drug

What is one feature of Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (the toxin, not the bacteria) that makes it a serious biological threat agent?

It can be aerosolized and in theory purified and put into water or food

What is the most common reason that a food product is recalled?

It contains an undeclared allergen (know the big eight food allergens).

What does NARMS do?

It is a national public health surveillance system that tracks antibiotic resistance in foodborne bacteria (National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System)

Name at least four things to avoid when providing risk or crisis communication to the public

Jargon Fillers Judgmental phrases Attacks Promises Speculation Discussion of money Humor

5. Which of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent? Lassa virus Nipah virus Ricin toxin Burkholderia pseudomallei

Lassa virus

Name at least 3 barriers to effective One Health

Legal authority Funding Institutional Culture Processes Terminology Facilities Infrastructure Information technology

The (legislative/executive/judicial) branch of government's chief function is to make laws

Legislative

In regards to live animal vaccines, which agency licenses animal vaccines and which agency looks for vaccine reactions at slaughter?

Licenses: APHIS Reactions: FSIS

The Egg Products Inspection Act applies to what types of products (What types of eggs...)

Liquid, frozen, or dried egg products OUT of the shell

Generic E coli testing requirements apply to slaughter of what species (2)?

Livestock Ratites (after Modernization of Poultry Slaughter Final Rule 2014, no longer the rest of poultry, just ratities)

What are the amenable species that FSIS must inspect slaughter of (4)?

Livestock (Cattle, sheep, goats, swine) Equine Siluriformes fish (catfish) Poultry (chickens, turkeys, ducks, geese, guinea, ratites, squab[pigeons up to 1 month old])

In crisis communication, when the public is more knowledgeable on the subject, you continue to reduce risks, you contradict rumors, start feedback process, continue giving the public tasks, and informed decision-making is done by the public, what stage of communication is this?

Maintenance

Seoul virus tends to be more common in what type of rats?

Males (wild rats, due to fighting)

Name at least 3 sources of potential Salmonella infection

Meat Poultry Eggs Produce Processed foods Animal contact

What are 6 occupational hazards dogs working in a disaster zone, such as search and rescue, may experience?

Mild hypothermia Mild exhaustion Dehydration Mild/moderate dermatitis Paw pad lacerations/abrasions Mild/moderate indigestion

How can humans acquire Chlamydia psittaci ?

Most common - aerosol (inhalation of dried fecal dust or respiratory secretions) Also, direct contact (beak to mouth), exposure to plumage, handing of tissues

What 3 species of Mycoplasma does the National Poultry Improvement Plan seek to eliminate from breeder flocks?

Mycoplasma gallisepticum, synovia, meleagridis

What type of toxin is Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2?

Mycotoxin

What was the significance of the funding toward the National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) in the 2018 Farm Bill?

NAHLN laboratories were asked to develop projects that will build a network successful in providing early detection of significant animal disease, rapid response to the presence of a confirmed disease and appropriate recovery from an outbreak (USDA APHIS)

What system assists the FDA in making decisions related to the approval of safe and effective antimicrobial drugs for animals?

NARMS (National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System)

During the 2017 Seoul virus outbreak, which organization developed guidelines and recommendations for workers such as veterinary clinics, animal shelters, and pet stores?

NIOSH

______________ conducts national studies that provide essential information on livestock and poultry health, and management to decision makers, including producers, researchers, and policymakers

National Animal Health Monitoring System (NAHMS)

Which program established from the 2018 Farm Bill stated that the Secretary shall maintain sufficient quantities of countermeasures, including contracts for surge production capacity to appropriately and rapidly respond to the most damaging animal diseases, with a priority to foot and mouth disease

National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB)

______________ monitors trends in antimicrobial resistance among enteric bacteria from humans, retail meats, and animals

National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System (NARMS)

What organization provides a compendium on Animal Contact in Public Settings?

National Association of State Public Health Veterinarians (NASPHV)

What agency regulates movement of marine wildlife?

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is caused by (old/new) world hantaviruses

New World (Sin Nombre)

What types of environmental air monitoring/ screening and testing might one do in a disaster zone (3)?

O2, explosivity, and VOCs

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 created which two U.S. Federal agencies?

OSHA NIOSH

What type of organism is Chlamydia psittaci ?

Obligate, intracellular bacterium

Hemorrhagic fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS) is caused by (old/new) world hantaviruses

Old World (Seoul virus) (most common in asia)

What type of virus is Seoul virus?

Old world hantavirus, enveloped RNA

What is one way Coxiella burnetii can be INDIRECTLY transmitted?

On wool, straw, clothing, linens

The collaborative effort of multiple disciplines - working locally, nationally, and globally to attain optimal health for people, animals, and the environment is defined as ?

One Health

What are the 3 categories of drugs regulated by FDA?

Over the Counter (OTC) Prescription (Rx) Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)

How is Chlamydia psittaci diagnosed in birds?

PCR, culture, IFA

In 1996, FSIS issued its landmark rule which focuses on the prevention and reduction of microbial pathogens on raw products that cause illness. What is the name of this rule?

Pathogen Reduction/HACCP Systems

What have been some negative effects of fraudulent service animals?

People with legally compliant service animals have reported people in public spaces are becoming more hesitant and suspicious of allowing any animal into their business

What type of people are at the highest risk for chronic Q fever?

People with valvular surgery, valvular prothesis, or aneurisms (think, endocarditis) Other risk factors are renal insufficiency, >60 YO, pregnancy, and immunosuppression

What act authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to facilitate a grants program to assist victims or domestic violence and allows for restitution to include veterinary services relating to physical care for their pet, service animal, emotional support animal, or horse

Pet and Women Safety Act

1. Which of the following drugs may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a food-producing animal? Clenbuterol Phenylbutazone Vancomycin Diethylstilbestrol Nitrofurazone

Phenylbutazone

4. Which of the following is not part of the command staff within the incident command system structure? Liaison officer Safety officer Planning chief Public information officer

Planning Chief

Ricin and Abrin are both (man-made/plant/animal) based toxins

Plant based

Which US president founded the USDA in 1862?

President Abraham Lincoln

What must happen to open FEMA resources to the state and local emergency management?

Presidential declaration of a State of Emergency (after Governor proclaims state of emergency)

Which act amends the Horse Protection Act (HPA) to designate additional unlawful acts with regard to the practice of soring horses. It also strenghtens penalties for violations and improves USDA enforcement.

Prevent All Soring Tactics (PAST) Act of 2013 (AVMA supported the passage of this Act)

In the FDA Food Protection plan, _______________ builds safety in from the start

Prevention

What are the three core elements to the FDA's Food Protection Plan

Prevention Intervention Response

What is a VFD?

Primary mechanism for veterinary oversight or supervision of antimicrobials administered in feed, prescription like, but for feed only

Where does Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2 come from?

Produced by Fusarium spp In mold or may occur naturally in foodstuffs, or in livestock feeds (cereal grains, cereal based products, coffee)

Where does Saxitoxin come from?

Produced by several species of marine and fresh water algae and blue-green algae (cyanobacteria)

What products of amenable species are exempt from FSIS inspection?

Products prepared for human consumption that contain meat or poultry ingredients in relatively small portions or not considered by consumers to be meat or poultry products (raw meat <3%, cooked or portion of carcass <2%, tallow, fat, meat extract <30%, cooked skin, giblets fat, and meat of poultry <2%)

What type of precautions should you take when handling rats known to have Seoul virus infection?

Protect against airborne and droplets (impermeable gown, face shield, N95 respirator, 2 pairs of gloves, +/- bite gloves

What is a therapy animal?

Provide affection and comfort to various members of the public, typically in facility settings such as hospitals, retirement homes, and schools

What are the most common reservoirs of Chlamydia psittaci ?

Psittacines (parrot-like birds), especially cockatiels and budgerigars Also pigeons and doves in non-psittacines are most frequent

Name at least 3 types of field employees with FSIS

Public Health Veterinarians Food Inspectors Consumer Safety Inspectors Import Inspectors Enforcement, investigations, and Analysis Officers

Why do you begin an education program after resolution of the crisis?

Public is most receptive after a crisis

A collective action for the common good predicated on aiding individuals infected or exposed to infectious agents while protecting others from the dangers of inadvertent exposure is defined as?

Quarantine

Periodically evaluating the effectiveness of your security management system, performing random food defense inspections, establishing and maintain records, and evaluating lessons learned are part of what section of ALERT?

R, Reports (Providing reports about the security of your products while under you control)

What type of virus is Ebola?

RNA virus, family Filoviridae

How is Ebola diagnosed?

RT-PCR, virus isolation ELISA IgG, IgM Can do oral swabs, cardiac blood, and skin tissues for death cases Other methods too

3. Which of the following is/are not among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases? Chronic Wasting Disease Swine Brucellosis Rabies Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy Equine Infectious Anemia Avian Influenza

Rabies Avian Influenza (though covered by NPIP, but not technically on USDA Program Diseases)

What is the major reservoir for rabies on the East Coast?

Raccoon

What are clinical signs of Chlamydia psittaci in birds?

Ranges, can be asymptomatic or mild signs or more severe Includes: lethargy, anorexia, ruffled feathers, conjunctivitis, ocular/nasal discharge, diarrhea, signs of liver disease, reproductive loss/neonatal death

What product can transmit Coxiella burnetii ?

Raw milk

Listeria control is part of the written program that FSIS inspect for establishments that produce what type of product?

Ready-to-eat

What does the Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) of 1996 do?

Reciprocal recognition of professional licenses and certificates among States during an Emergency

What type of turtle is the most commonly reported in Salmonellosis outbreaks?

Red eared sliders

What are higher risk pets for Salmonella (3)?

Reptiles Amphibians Rodents

In crisis communication, if you are discussing clean up and recovery efforts, having an open discussion on what happened, discussing new risk avoidance with public, reinforcing positive images of organizations that helped, and beginning an education program, what stage is this?

Resolution

_________ communication is used to prevent an adverse event from occuring

Risk

What act amends the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act to prohibit the sale or transport of equines or their parts and/or the importing or exporting of equines or their parts into or beyond the US by any person who knows, or should have known, that such equines are to be slaughtered for human consumption

Safeguard American Food Exports (SAFE) Act of 2013 (Note: AVMA wanted this act to be defeated)

What is the most common bacterial cause of foodborne disease in the US?

Salmonella

What risk do chicks present to the public if allowed public contact?

Salmonella

What are the four major bacteria currently under surveillance by NARMS?

Salmonella Campylobacter Escherichia coli Enterococcus

What are four pathogens that are tested for by FSIS carcass inspection?

Salmonella Campylobacter Listeria Shiga-toxin producing E. coli

4. What are the four major bacterial organisms under surveillance by the National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System for Enteric Bacteria (NARMS)? (the four bacterial species that the USDA and FDA arms and the state public health departments that participate in the retail meat surveillance program conduct surveillance for, in addition to what the CDC arm of NARMS does)

Salmonella Escherichia coli Campylobacter Enterococcus

According to the USDA's FY 2018-2022 Strategic Plan Goal 7, what three pathogens were focused for reduction in total number of illnesses from USDA regulated products?

Salmonella Listeria monocytogenes Escherichia coli

What Salmonella serotype is shed from Iguanas?

Salmonella Marina

What are two bacteria that have some of the highest percent resistance to principal clinical agents used for treatment?

Salmonella Typhi (67%) Campylobacter (24%)

What serotype of Salmonella has been associated with outbreaks at veterinary facilities (1999-2000)

Salmonella Typhimurium Ill kittens/cats ->GI illness in employees, employees were eating on work surfaces

What is the cause of paralytic shellfish poisoning?

Saxitoxin

What is the only purpose that nonhuman primates may be imported into the US?

Scientific research, education, or exhibition purposes ONLY

Where does Abrin come from?

Seeds of the rosary pea or jequirity pea plant

What program oversees the possession, use, and transfer of biological select agents and toxins which have the potential to pose a SEVERE threat to the public, animal, or plant health, or to animal or plant products?

Select Agent Program

How is Q fever usually diagnosed?

Serology (IgG - in two antigenic phases, phase I and II; IgM -less helpful)

6. According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species? Turkey Sheep Pig Goat Pheasant Llama Cat Horse

Sheep Goat Pheasant Llama

What risk do goats present to the public if allowed public contact?

Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)

What caused DDT to be banned from the US?

Silent Spring (Book)

What virus causes Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)

Sin Nombre virus

What is the major reservoir for rabies in California?

Skunk

What is the major reservoir for rabies in the central United States?

Skunk

What act did the PETS (Pet Evacuation and Transportation Standards) act amend in 2006?

Stafford act

Which Staphylococcal enterotoxin is most concerning for use as a bioweapon?

Staph enterotoxin B ("B is bad")

Who makes laws that protects livestock and poultry industries from contagious and infectious diseases?

State Department of Agriculture

Who has the primary authority over animal movement issues into and within States?

State and local agencies (within their jurisdictions)

What is one condition that can increase shedding of Salmonella in animals?

Stress

Shedding of Chlamydia psittaci in birds is exacerbated by what?

Stress! I.e. reproduction, rearing, relocation, travel, crowding, injury, illness, temperature extremes

How are humans typically exposed to Conotoxin?

Stung by a cone snail (predatory marine mollusk)

What is the treatment for Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (Seoul Virus) in people?

Symptomatic/Supportive

6. T or F Under the National Poultry Improvement Plan (NPIP), the U.S. Pullorum-Typhoid Clean classification is required for all types of poultry except ostrich, emu, rhea and cassowary

T

What is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia psittaci is humans?

Tetracyclines (severe illness may require IV doxy, but otherwise oral )

Which has a faster onset of action, Tetrodotoxin or Saxitoxin?

Tetrodotoxin (10 minutes to 3 horus) (Note: Saxitoxin is still fast at 30 mins to 10 hours)

What does AMDUCA stand for?

The Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (1994)

What act did AMDUCA ammed?

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

What launched funding for Ebola research?

The Hot Zone

What was the driver for the passage of the Meat Inspection Act and the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?

The Jungle (book)

Which program under the Farm Bill addresses the risk of introduction and spread of animal pests and diseases affecting the livestock and related industries of the US?

The National Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Program (NADPRP)

What Act authorizes the Secretary of HHS to determine that a public health emergency exists because of a disease or disorder, significant outbreaks of infectious diseases, or a bioterrorism attack?

The Public Health Service Act

Which Act authorizes the Secretary (delegated to CDC director) to make and enforce regulations to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease between states or into the states from foreign countries?

The Public Health Service Act Note: enforcement can include inspection, pest extermination, destruction of animals or articles that are sources of infection to human beings, and quarantine and isolation

Which act allows the President to declare a "major disaster" or "emergency" for an event that overwhelms state or local governments?

The Stafford Act

What is NARMS?

The national antimicrobial resistance monitoring system

Conotoxin, Saxitoxin, and Tetrodotoxin are all toxins that originate from where?

The ocean They are marine toxins

Who is responsible for compensating the assisting state for any expenses incurred when EMAC is requested?

The requesting State

As of 2014 and the Modernization of Poultry Slaughter Final Rule, establishments that slaughter poultry other than ratites are responsible for testing what organisms?

They determine the microbial control for enteric pathogens and fecal contamination that will be the most effective

What type of liability protections do officers and employees of another state that is rendering aid to a requesting state have?

They have the same immunities as the state agents they are operating in Note: there is of course, no protection for willful misconduct, gross negligence, or bad faith

FDA Import alerts target what products?

Those with a history of violations

The HHS/USDA Tier __________ select agents present the greatest risk of deliberate misuse with significant potential for mass casualties or devastating effect to the economy, critical infrastructure, or public confidence, and pose a severe threat to public health and safety

Tier 1

What is the goal of the Strategic Partnership Program Agroterrorism (SPPA) Initiative (2005)?

To protect the nation's food supply from terrorist threats

(T/F) A therapy animal has no special rights of access, except in those facilities where they are welcome

True

(T/F) AMDUCA states that it may prohibit an extra label drug use in animals if it found that such use presents a risk to public health

True

(T/F) APHIS responsibilities also include veterinary biologics, industrial chemicals, burcelllosis, TB, FAD and reportable diseases, and imported meat and poultry products

True

(T/F) Abrin, while a biotoxin, is also used in cancer research and to make jewelry

True

(T/F) All ESAs should be appropriately vaccinated with core vaccines

True

(T/F) An outbreak of FMD in the states would cause an economic impact of billions of dollars and loss of tens of thousands of jobs in direct employment

True

(T/F) Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of Salmonella, but can also have Salmonellosis

True

(T/F) Animals infected with Coxiella burnetii are usually asymptomatic

True

(T/F) Animals that shed potential pathogens often appear healthy

True

(T/F) Antibiotic usage in the absence of on going abortions with Coxiella burnetii is not warranted

True

(T/F) Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) can be transmitted by ticks

True

(T/F) Coxiella burnetii is common in Dairy herds and 77-94% of bulk mlik tanks are positive in the US

True

(T/F) Coxiella burnetii is globally distributed

True

(T/F) Coxiella burnetii is shed in the milk of infected animals

True

(T/F) Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2 can be ingested, inhaled, and absorbed via direct contact through the dermal layer, as well as be delivered via dusts, droplets, aerosols, and smoke

True

(T/F) EMAC (Emergency Management Assistance Compact) has been enacted by all States

True

(T/F) Ebola can be transmitted via the semen from a man who has recovered from Ebola

True

(T/F) FDA considers rats infected with Seoul virus as "adulterated feed"

True

(T/F) FSIS considered RTE products with ANY detectable pathogen to be adulterated

True

(T/F) Fecal-oral transmission of pathogens associated with animals may occur through contact with animals hair coat, bedding, pen surfaces etc

True

(T/F) For people with direct exposure to Ebola, it is recommended that dogs or cats be cared for by someone who does not reside in the monitored person's residence until the direct active monitoring period ends

True

(T/F) Human Psittacosis is a nationally notifiable disease

True

(T/F) If resistant bacteria enter the food supply, drugs normally used to treat people infected with those bacteria may not work

True

(T/F) In crisis communication, it is important to start getting feedback when possible an analyze public comments and media coverage

True

(T/F) Intentional contamination of the food supply could cause economic, health, societal, psychological, and political signficance

True

(T/F) It is illegal to prescribe antibiotics in feed off-label

True

(T/F) MRSA can be transmitted in both directions: from human to animal (reverse zoonotic) and from animal to human (zoonotic).

True

(T/F) Meat and poultry animals and products undergo continuous (100%) FSIS inspection

True

(T/F) Most nonhuman primate species will require CITES permit

True

(T/F) Parturient cats, kittens, dogs, and other animals have been associated with human cases of Q fever

True

(T/F) Resistant strains of bacteria have a selective advantage in individuals who are taking antimicrobials for other reasons

True

(T/F) Ricin is part of the waste "mash" produced when castor oil is made

True

(T/F) Salmonella are normal gut flora for turtles

True

(T/F) Salmonella bacteria are shed in animal feces

True

(T/F) Service dogs are permitted in accordance with the ADA to accompany a person with a disability almost anywhere the general public is allowed

True

(T/F) Sick animals, animals with loose stools or diarrhea, and venomous or otherwise dangerous animals are poor choices for public contact

True

(T/F) Slaughter facilities cannot conduct slaughter operations if FSIS inspection personnel are not present and inspecting each carcass

True

(T/F) The National Poultry Improvement Plan has a program to eliminate Avian Influenza from breeder flocks

True

(T/F) The The National Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Program (NADPRP) is both proactive and preventative

True

(T/F) The United States, Mexico, and Canada share a vaccine stockpile for the event of an outbreak of a foreign animal disease

True

(T/F) The president can declare an emergency (Stafford Act) without a request if there is a "federal primary responsibility"

True

(T/F) The veterinarian may determine that a particular species of animal is not appropriate for an ESA because of potential harm to the welfare of the animal or the suitability of the animal for flying with minimal disturbance to other passengers

True

(T/F) There is an antitoxin available for Botulinum

True

(T/F) Unlike other animal reservoirs, any possible contact with bats with or without an open wound, bite, or mucous membrane contact, people should get PEP if the animal cannot be captured or tested for rabies

True

(T/F) Up to 50% of antibiotic use in hospitals (human) is unnecessary or inappropriate

True

(T/F) Vectors such as snails and arthropods may only be imported for scientific research, education or exhibition purposes

True

(T/F) When cleaning rat bedding from rats with known or suspected Seoul virus, you should spray waste/bedding/flooring with disinfectant and let sit 5-10 minutes, double bag the waste/bedding, and wear appropriate PPE

True

(T/F) With the increase of backyard chicken flocks and the urban chicken phenomenon, as well as baby poultry sold at feed stores, ordered through mail, or sold over the internet, Salmonella outbreaks associated with live poultry are becoming a problem seen multiple times per year.

True

(T/F) Zoonotic pathogens are more than 3 times more likely to be associated with emerging disease than non-zoonotic pathogens

True

(T/F) as a military or terrorist weapon, Botulinum neurotoxin could be disseminated via aerosol, or by contamination of water or food supplies, causing widespread casualties

True

True or False: Infant botulism is caused by the ingestion of Clostridium botulinum spores while botulism in older children and adults is most commonly caused by the ingestion of food containing the toxins made by Clostridium botulinum

True

True or false: There is no requirement that pet food products have pre-market approval by the FDA.

True

(T/F) Resistance can occur without prior exposure to an antibiotic

True - Staphylococcus and penicillin

(T/F) Healthy birds may transmit Chlamydia psittaci

True - also sick birds

(T/F) Human to human transmission of psittacosis has occurred

True - but rare

(T/F) There is no legal basis for Federal Health care or public health

True - per the 10th amendment this is delegated to the States! True federal power lies in money (incentive through direct provision and disincentive through taxation)

(T/F) Unless a person under Active Monitoring for Ebola virus becomes symptomatic they do not need to limit exposure to companion animals

True - this is because these individuals were determined to have a low, but not zero risk, based on their exposure to a person with a confirmed Ebola infection

Occupational illness of Psittacosis has been documented in the US associated with what birds?

Turkeys and Chickens

All commercial wildlife imports require what permits?

US Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) permits

Who must you request an import permit from to import threatened or invasive species?

US Fish and Wildlife Services Consider Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) permit

What is the only place where federal agencies do NOT tend to defer to state and local agencies regarding animal movement/importation

US ports of Entry

Both APHIS and FSIS fall under what parent organization?

USDA

Who enforces the Animal Welfare Act?

USDA

What federal agencies collaborate with states and private industry as part of the Strategic Partnership Program Agroterrorism (SPPA) Initiative?

USDA FDA DHS FBI

Which agency's mission statement is to safeguard the health, welfare, and value of American agriculture and natural resources?

USDA APHIS

What agency is responsible for ensuring that meat, poultry, and processed egg products are safe, wholesome, and accurately labeled?

USDA FSIS

Who administers the US National Residue Program?

USDA FSIS

Who regulates open faced sandwiches?

USDA FSIS

Why is Coxiella burnetii nearly impossible to erradicate from a farm?

Ubiquitous, persistent in the environment

What are two pathways to antibiotics contaminating the environment?

Urban Agricultural

For pathogen reduction regarding Campylobacter, Category 2 is defined as?

Variable process control (results greater than 50 percent of the standard during the most recently completed 52 week moving window)

What are the vector species (two) for Dengue virus? What genus does the Dengue virus fall into?

Vector: Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. Dengue is a flavivirus

The purpose of the microbiological performance standards for the reduction of Salmonella and Campylobacter in raw products is to allow FSIS to do what?

Verify whether establishments have effective process controls to address these biological hazards

As part of a __________________ the veterinarian provides oversight of treatment, compliance, and outcome

Veterinary Client Patient Relationship

What Act modified the Controlled Substances Act to allow veterinarians to legally transport controlled substances outside their registered, principal places of buisness?

Veterinary Medicine Mobility Act

What are 5 types of negative human crisis behaviors?

Vicarious rehearsal (people outside the crisis panicking) Denial (causes safety steps to be done too late) Stigmatization (isolation from community) Fear and avoidance (irrational behavior) Withdrawal, hopelessness, helplessness (paralysis)

What were/are the 3 waves of the opioid epidemic in the US?

Wave 1: Rise in prescription opioid deaths Wave 2: Rise in herroin overdose deaths Wave 3: Rise in synthetic opioid overdose deaths

Where does Sin Nombre virus occur, primarily?

Western US

When are two times to initiate an epidemiological investigation into Chlamydia psittaci ?

When its a human case OR Newly acquired avian case linked to human illness or another avian case from same source

What is the FDA's role in counterterrorism?

Works with industry to reduce threats and contain outbreaks of foodborne illness Provides food security preventive guidance Increased risk-based surveillance of domestic and imported food

What is the distribution of Seoul virus?

Worldwide

If a species falls into the category of "non-amenable" can FSIS inspect these animals for slaughter?

Yes, voluntary fee-for-service inspection Note: FDA has jurisdiction over products in interstate commerce for these species (FFDCA)

(Young/Old) animal often have a higher prevalence of Salmonella

Young

What is an emotional support animal (ESA)?

a PET that provides therapeutic support to a person with a mental illness

10. BSL-4 labs are designed and operated for work with: a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease b. Agents that are normally found in the United States but are unknown pathogens c. Agents that are only transmissible by the aerosol route d. Well-characterized agents which do not cause disease in healthy human

a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease

BSL-4 labs are designed and operated for work with: a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease b. Agents that are normally found in the United States but are unknown pathogens c. Agents that are only transmissible by the aerosol route d. Well-characterized agents which do not cause disease in healthy human

a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease

Which one or more of the following is not considered a foreign animal disease? a. Bluetongue b. Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis c. Akabane d. Peste des petits ruminants e. Bovine babesiosis f. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

a. Bluetongue f. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

Which of the following is incorrect? a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator. b. An N100 respirator is expected to filter at least 99.97% of airborne particles but is not resistant to oils. c. A P99 respirator has a longer certified service life than an R99 respirator. d. All choices are correct.

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator. *Both resistant to oils

11. Which of the following is incorrect? a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator. b. An N100 respirator is expected to filter at least 99.97% of airborne particles but is not resistant to oils. c. A P99 respirator has a longer certified service life than an R99 respirator. d. All choices are correct.

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.

Product "X" is recalled once the FDA determines that there is a high probability that the use of this product will result in serious adverse health effects to the user. Which class of recall did the FDA initiate? a. Class I recall b. Class II recall c. Class III recall d. Class IV recall

a. Class I recall

Both of the above products are labeled for the control of fleas and ticks in dogs. However, the orally administered product (Nexgard) is regulated by ______ while the topically-applied product (K9 Advantix II) is regulated by ______. a. FDA, EPA b. FDA, USDA c. EPA, FDA d. EPA, USDA

a. FDA, EPA

3. The USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service regulates the processing of wild caught and farm-raised Siluriformes fish for wholesale markets in the United States under which statutory Act? a. Federal Meat Inspection Act b. Poultry Products Inspection Act c. Humane Method of Slaughter Act d. Animal Welfare Act e. Seafood HACCP Act

a. Federal Meat Inspection Act

What is the most common type of natural disaster in the United States: a. Flood b. Hurricane c. Tornado d. Nuclear explosion

a. Flood

Amblyomma americanum is a vector for which one or more pathogens: a. Francisella tularensis b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI) c. Heartland virus d. Borrelia burgdorferi e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis f. Anaplasma phagocytophilum

a. Francisella tularensis b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI) c. Heartland virus e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis

Where is the World Health Organization (WHO) headquartered? a. Geneva, Switzerland b. Paris, France c. Rome, Italy d. Washington, D.C. e. New York City

a. Geneva, Switzerland

11. The separation of sick people or animals with a contagious disease from people or animals that are not sick is the practice of: a. Isolation b. Quarantine c. Social distancing d. Containment

a. Isolation

The separation of sick people or animals with a contagious disease from people or animals that are not sick is the practice of: a. Isolation b. Quarantine c. Social distancing d. Containment

a. Isolation

2. Which one or more of the following organisms does FoodNet conduct surveillance for? a. Listeria b. Enterotoxigenic E. coli c. Shigella d. Vibrio e. Yersinia f. Cyclospora g. Enterococcus

a. Listeria c. Shigella d. Vibrio e. Yersinia f. Cyclospora

Mycoplasma bovis is the etiologic agent in what percentage of human tuberculosis cases in the United States today? a. M. bovis doesn't cause tuberculosis in people b. <2% c. 10% d. 25% e. 50%

a. M. bovis doesn't cause tuberculosis in people Note: Mycobacterium bovis causes <2%

7. Which one or more of the following agencies administers the Endangered Species Act? a. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration b. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service c. Animal Plant Health Inspection Service d. National Wildlife Foundation e. National Park Service

a. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration b. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service

Which one or more of the following agencies administers the Endangered Species Act? a. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration b. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service c. Animal Plant Health Inspection Service d. National Wildlife Foundation e. National Park Service

a. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration b. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service

The best disaster preparedness starts at what level? a. Personal b. Local c. State d. Federal

a. Personal

1. Immunization against an infectious disease is an example of which level of disease prevention? a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. None of the above

a. Primary prevention

2. The FDA's Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requires that pet foods meet which one or more of the following standards: a. Produced under sanitary conditions b. Do not contain harmful substances c. Be truthfully labeled d. Be safe to eat

a. Produced under sanitary conditions b. Do not contain harmful substances c. Be truthfully labeled d. Be safe to eat

8. The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals? a. Rabbit in a research laboratory b. Privately-owned cat c. Snake for sale at the pet store d. Goat raised for meat

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory

The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals? a. Rabbit in a research laboratory b. Privately-owned cat c. Snake for sale at the pet store d. Goat raised for meat

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory

2. In order to permanently identify a heifer vaccinated with RB1, where is the official tattoo applied? a. Right ear b. Left ear c. Inner lip d. Tattoo is not required if animal is given an official ear tag

a. Right ear

In order to permanently identify a heifer vaccinated with RB1, where is the official tattoo applied? a. Right ear b. Left ear c. Inner lip d. Tattoo is not required if animal is given an official ear tag

a. Right ear

Which one or more of the following organisms would you reasonably study and work with in a BSL-3 laboratory? a. SARS CoV-2 b. Coxiella burnetii c. Yersinia pestis d. Marburg virus e.Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever f. West Nile Virus

a. SARS CoV-2 b. Coxiella burnetii c. Yersinia pestis f. West Nile Virus

Which one or more of the following products are regulated by the FDA? a. Smart TVs b. Pet food c. Alcohol d. Human vaccines e. Heroin f. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol g. Baby toys

a. Smart TVs b. Pet food d. Human vaccines

The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) is administered and regulated by which agency? a. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention c. Food and Drug Administration d. U.S. Department of Agriculture

a. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency

What update did the 2018 Farm Bill provide to the Veterinary Services Grant Program?

added prioritization of awards for programs or activities focused on food animal medicine, and also allow grants funds to expose 11 and 12th graders to education and career opportunities in food animal medicine

In order to enhance surveillance data, what additional information should be included in reporting rabies cases to the CDC?

age, sex, neuter status, ownership status, quarantine date (if any), and date of onset of clinical signs and vaccination history

What is the typically incubation period for Q fever?

around 20 days

Which agency is responsible for administration and enforcement of the Country of Origin Labeling (COOL) program? a. APHIS b. AMS (Agricultural Marketing Service) c. ARS (Agricultural Research Service) d. FSIS

b. AMS (Agricultural Marketing Service)

9. Emotional Support Animals (ESA) are permitted to fly free-of-charge in the commercial passenger airline cabin under which act? a. Americans With Disabilities Act b. Air Carrier Access Act c. FAA Modernization and Reform Act d. None of the above

b. Air Carrier Access Act

4. Where is the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention headquartered? a. Ames, Iowa b. Atlanta, Georgia c. New York City, New York d. Washington, D.C.

b. Atlanta, Georgia

Which one or more of the following is not one of the six criteria air pollutants that the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards for, according to the Clean Air Act? a. Nitrogen dioxide b. Atmospheric ozone c. Carbon monoxide d. Lead e. Radon f. Sulfur dioxide

b. Atmospheric ozone e. Radon

Which one or more of the following is not one of the six criteria air pollutants that the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards for, according to the Clean Air Act? a. Nitrogen dioxide b. Atmospheric ozone c. Carbon monoxide d. Lead e. Radon f. Sulfur dioxide

b. Atmospheric ozone e. Radon

.Which of the following is the most common agent reported in laboratory-acquired infections? a. Salmonella b. Brucella c. Neisseria d. Coxiella

b. Brucella

6. Which one or more of the following diseases are internationally quarantinable? a. Chicken Pox b. Cholera c. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome d. Diphtheria e. Measles f. Yellow Fever g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever h. Plague

b. Cholera c. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome d. Diphtheria f. Yellow Fever g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever h. Plague

Which one or more of the following diseases are internationally quarantinable? a. Chicken Pox b. Cholera c. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome d. Diphtheria e. Measles f. Yellow Fever g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever h. Plague

b. Cholera c. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome d. Diphtheria f. Yellow Fever g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever h. Plague

The Federal Emergency Management Agency falls under which of the U.S. Federal executive departments? a. Department of Labor b. Department of Homeland Security c. Department of Health and Human Services d. Department of the Interior

b. Department of Homeland Security

9. The CDC regulates the importation of which one or more of the following animals? a. Horses b. Dogs c. Bats d. Snakes e. Fish f. Monkeys g. Ferrets

b. Dogs c. Bats d. Snakes f. Monkeys

The CDC regulates the importation of which one or more of the following animals? a. Horses b. Dogs c. Bats d. Snakes e. Fish f. Monkeys g. Ferrets

b. Dogs c. Bats d. Snakes f. Monkeys

Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration? a. Food Safety Modernization Act b. Egg Products Inspection Act c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act d. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act e. Poultry Products Inspection Act

b. Egg Products Inspection Act c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act e. Poultry Products Inspection Act These ones fall under territory of USDA FSIS

A line of pigs has recently been genetically modified to lack detectable amounts of alpha gal, a sugar molecule, on the surface of its cells. Which agency was responsible for approving the use of this line of pigs in the food supply? a. FSIS b. FDA c. CDC d. APHIS e. Genetically modified animals cannot be used for food in the USA

b. FDA

3. Which act authorizes the Environmental Protection Agency to set maximum tolerances for pesticides used in or on foods or animal feed? a. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act b. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act c. Toxic Substances Control Act d. Animal Welfare Act

b. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

Which act authorizes the Environmental Protection Agency to set maximum tolerances for pesticides used in or on foods or animal feed? a. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act b. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act c. Toxic Substances Control Act d. Animal Welfare Act

b. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

The first priority of the National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB) is to increase the U.S. stockpile of which animal vaccine? a. African Swine Fever b. Foot and Mouth Disease c. Exotic Newcastle Disease d. Avian Influenza

b. Foot and Mouth Disease

15. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within the United States Department of _______, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the United States Department of ______. a. Interior, Agriculture b. Interior, Commerce c. Agriculture, Health and Human Services d. Commerce, Agriculture e. Agriculture, Commerce

b. Interior, Commerce

The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within the Department of _______, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the Department of ____. a. Interior, Agriculture b. Interior, Commerce c. Agriculture, Health and Human Services d. Agriculture, Commerce e. Commerce, Agriculture

b. Interior, Commerce

6. Which of the following drugs may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a food-producing animal? a. Clenbuterol b. Phenylbutazone c. Vancomycin d. Diethylstilbestrol e. Nitrofurazone

b. Phenylbutazone

7. Which one of the following bacteria are a significant public health concern, as tested for under the National Poultry Improvement Program? a. Salmonella enterica serotype Gallinarum b. Salmonella enterica serotype Enteritidis c. Mycoplasma synoviae d. Mycoplasma gallisepticum e. Salmonella enterica serotype Pullorum

b. Salmonella enterica serotype Enteritidis

The National Poultry Improvement Plan was originally implemented to eliminate which organism (down to the biovar) as a source of disease in poultry? a. Salmonella typhoid b. Salmonella pullorum c. Salmonella enteritidis d. Salmonella typhimurium

b. Salmonella pullorum

According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species? a. Turkey b. Sheep c. Pig d. Goat e. Pheasant f. Llama g. Cat h. Horse

b. Sheep d. Goat e. Pheasant f. Llama

Which test for TB is the official tuberculin test for captive cervids? a. Comparative cervical test (CCT) b. Single cervical test (SCT) c. Caudal fold test (CFT) d. Dual Path Platform VetTB Assay (DPP)

b. Single cervical test (SCT)

Which disease is a person most likely to develop after consuming raw or undercooked bear meat? a. Tularemia b. Trichinosis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Toxocariasis c. Taeniasis

b. Trichinosis

3. Recommendation for the disposition of animal by-products at U.S. Ports of Entry is the responsibility of a. U.S. Customs Service b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Veterinary Services c. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Plant Protection and Quarantine d. Foreign Agriculture Service e. State Department of Agriculture of the state in which the port of entry is located

b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Veterinary Services

Recommendation for the disposition of animal by-products at U.S. Ports of Entry is the responsibility of a. U.S. Customs Service b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Veterinary Services c. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Plant Protection and Quarantine d. Foreign Agriculture Service e. State Department of Agriculture of the state in which the port of entry is located

b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Veterinary Services

1. The Easter Bunny is planning his deliveries for the upcoming weekend. He remembers that the baby chicks in his baskets are inspected by __________, the _______ regulates shell eggs, the ________ regulates egg products, and the _______ regulates chocolate candy eggs. a. USDA, USDA, FDA, FDA b. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA c. USDA, USDA, USDA, FDA d. FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA e. USDA, FDA, FDA, FDA

b. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA

4. The Easter Bunny is planning his deliveries for the upcoming weekend. He remembers that the baby chicks in his baskets are inspected by __________, the _______ regulates shell eggs, the ________ regulates egg products, and the _______ regulates chocolate candy eggs. a. USDA, USDA, FDA, FDA b. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA c. USDA, FDA, FDA, FDA d. FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA e. USDA, USDA, USDA, FDA

b. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA

Approximately what percentage of OIE countries are considered free of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)? a. 7% b. 71% c. 36% d. 100% e. 15%

c. 36%

NAHMS activities are administered by: a. CDC b. FSIS c. APHIS d. FDA e. None of the above

c. APHIS

3. Which one or more of the following is not an APHIS operational program unit? a. Wildlife Services b. International Services c. Agricultural Marketing Service d. Plant Protection and Quarantine e. Agricultural Research Service f. Biotechnology Regulatory Services

c. Agricultural Marketing Service e. Agricultural Research Service AMS and ARS are both part of USDA but are their own agencies

Which one or more of the following is considered a foreign animal disease in the United States? a. Aujeszky's disease b. Enzootic bovine leukosis c. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia d. Equine viral arteritis e. Bovine viral diarrhea f. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease

c. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

Of those listed, which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards? a. Exposure and worker health monitoring b. Administrative controls c. Engineering controls d. Personal protective equipment

c. Engineering controls

8. Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act ("Farm Bill") updated? a. Yearly b. Every other year c. Every five years d. Every 10 years

c. Every five years

Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act ("Farm Bill") updated? a. Yearly b. Every other year c. Every five years d. Every 10 years

c. Every five years

Which of these foods should be cooked to the highest temperature (at minimum) before consuming? a. Fish filet b. Ground beef c. Ground turkey d. Pork chop

c. Ground turkey

Who is considered the father of modern epidemiology? a. Anthony Fauci b. Robert Koch c. John Snow d. Edward Jenner e. Louis Pasteur

c. John Snow

As of March 2021, Haemaphysalis longicornis has been positively identified on an animal and/or in nature in which of the following states? a. California b. Arizona c. New Jersey d. Florida

c. New Jersey

The National Poultry Improvement Plan (NPIP) does not include testing and monitoring for which one or more organisms? a. Salmonella enteritidis b. Avian Influenza c. Newcastle Disease d. Salmonella typhoid e. Mycoplasma meleagridis

c. Newcastle Disease

6. Which agency has the final say for classifying a country as free of an animal disease? a. WHO b. CDC c. OIE d. FAO

c. OIE

Which agency has the final say for classifying a country as free of an animal disease? a. WHO b. CDC c. OIE d. FAO

c. OIE

12. The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice? a. Administration of performance-enhancing drugs to race horses b. Slaughter and processing of horses for human consumption c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions d. Abandonment of unwanted horses

c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions

The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice? a. Administration of performance-enhancing drugs to racehorses b. Slaughter and processing of horses for human consumption c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions d. Abandonment of unwanted horses

c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions

Of the following, which of the following categories of controls for workplace hazard exposure is considered to be the least effective at protecting employees against a hazard of concern? a. Engineering control b. Administrative control c. Personal protective equipment d. Employee training

c. Personal protective equipment

Which of the following species is most likely to serve as an amplifying host for Foot-and-Mouth Disease? a. Sheep b. Water Buffalo c. Pig d. Deer

c. Pig

Which of the following is not part of the command staff within the incident command system structure: a. Liaison officer b. Safety officer c. Planning chief d. Public information officer

c. Planning chief

Where is the headquarters of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) located? a. Paris, France b. Geneva, Switzerland c. Rome, Italy d. New York, New York

c. Rome, Italy

Of the following animals, which is least likely to show clinical signs if infected with Foot and Mouth Disease? a. Pig b. Dairy cow c. Sheep d. Beef cow

c. Sheep For FMDV, cattle tend to be the indicator hosts, pigs amplifying hosts, and sheep and goats the maintenance hosts

Which one or more of the following food animals is not protected under the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act? a. Pig b. Cow c. Turkey d. Sheep e. Horse f. Salmon

c. Turkey f. Salmon The HSMA does not apply to birds or fish. Even thoughhorses are not slaughtered for consumption in the United States (as of April 2021), horses are still considered livestock and are covered by the HSMA. Pigs, cows, sheep, and horses are all protected except for if they are killed by ritual slaughter

A veterinary clinic in Mosquito City goes through hundreds of in-house, rapid Canine Heartworm antigen test kits every spring as its staff tests patients prior to refilling heartworm preventatives. Which agency regulates these heartworm tests? a. FDA CVM b. USDA AMS c. USDA CVB d. FDA FSAN

c. USDA CVB

Which agency implements and enforces the Humane Methods for Slaughter Act (HMSA)? a. USDA APHIS Animal Care b. USDA APHIS Veterinary Services c. USDA FSIS d. FDA CFSAN

c. USDA FSIS

Why is documentation not required for service animals?

considered a barrier and unreasonable burden that could limit access to a service animal

How do humans infect other humans with ebola virus?

contact with blood or body fluids of sick people (broken skin/mucous membranes, or the bodies of those who have died of Ebola

What are the four major bacteria currently under surveillance by NARMS? a. Campylobacter, Enterococcus, Salmonella, Shigella b. Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella c. Campylobacter, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella d. Campylobacter, Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella

d. Campylobacter, Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella

Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA? a. Foreign Agricultural Service b. Food and Nutrition Service c. National Institute of Food and Agriculture d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

Which Federal agency issues standards and regulation regarding the transportation of hazardous materials? a. Environmental Protection Agency b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration c. Department of Defense d. Department of Transportation

d. Department of Transportation

2. Which of the following is not a core function of public health? a. Assessment b. Policy Development c. Assurance d. Enforcement

d. Enforcement

10. Which one or more of the following is not on the CDC list of potential Category B bioterrorism agents? a. Burkholderia mallei b. Coxiella burnetii c. E. coli 0157:H7 d. Francisella tularensis e. Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus

d. Francisella tularensis

Which one or more of the following is not on the CDC list of potential Category B bioterrorism agents? a. Burkholderia mallei b. Coxiella burnetii c. E. coli 0157:H7 d. Francisella tularensis e. Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus

d. Francisella tularensis

The National Bio and Agro-defense Facility (NBAF) will replace the aging Plum Island Animal Disease Center (PIADC) in New York. Where is NBAF located, and which agency is responsible for building the facility? a. Ames, Iowa and USDA b. Manhattan, Kansas and USDA c. Ames, Iowa and DHS d. Manhattan, Kansas and DHS

d. Manhattan, Kansas and DHS

13. The National Bio and Agro-Defense Facility (NBAF) will replace the aging Plum Island Animal Disease Center (PIADC) in New York. Where is NBAF located, and which agency is responsible for building the facility? a. Ames, Iowa and USDA b. Manhattan, Kansas and USDA c. Ames, Iowa and DHS d. Manhattan, Kansas and DHS

d. Manhattan, Kansas and DHS The Department of Homeland Security is responsible for building the facility, but the USDA will take over ownership and management once NBAF is commissioned.

5. Which of the following agencies is not an operating division under the Department of Health and Human Services? a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. National Institutes of Health (NIH) c. Indian Health Service (IHS) d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Which of the following agencies is not an operating division under the Department of Health and Human Services? a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. National Institutes of Health (NIH) c. Indian Health Service (IHS) d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

4. The World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) is headquartered where? a. Washington D.C. b. Geneva, Switzerland c. New York City d. Paris, France

d. Paris, France

7. The World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) is headquartered where? a. Washington D.C. b. Geneva, Switzerland c. New York City d. Paris, France

d. Paris, France

Which of the following tick species follows a one-host lifecycle? a. Dermacentor andersoni b. Haemaphysalis longicornis c. Amblyomma maculatum d. Rhipicephalus annulatus

d. Rhipicephalus annulatus

The OIE was formed in response to an outbreak of which disease? a. Classical Swine Fever b. Foot-and-Mouth Disease c. Rift Valley Fever d. Rinderpest e. Surra

d. Rinderpest

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is shown by a positive tuberculin test? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

d. Type IV

4. Which of the following agencies has been delegated the authority and responsibility for controlling the interstate movement of livestock in the United States? a. Veterinary service of the State Department of Agriculture from which the animal is traveling b. Packers and Stockyards Administration c. U.S. Department of Commerce d. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Veterinary Services e. USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service

d. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service- Veterinary Services

Which of the following agencies has been delegated the authority and responsibility for controlling the interstate movement of livestock in the United States? a. Veterinary service of State Department of Agriculture b. Packers and Stockyards Administration c. U.S. Department of Commerce d. USDA Animal and Plant Inspection Service Veterinary Services e. USDA Food Safety & Quality Service

d. USDA Animal and Plant Inspection Service Veterinary Services

5. After being accredited in state A, a veterinarian establishes a practice in state B. To be able to issue health certificates on livestock movements, the veterinarian must: a. write the state board in state B b. practice in state B for one year c. do nothing since his accreditation is accepted in all states d. be licensed and accredited by state B

d. be licensed and accredited by state B

After being accredited in state A, a veterinarian establishes a practice in state B. To be able to issue health certificates on livestock movements in her new state, the veterinarian must: a. write the state board in state B b. practice in state B for one year c. do nothing since her accreditation is accepted in all states d. be licensed and accredited by state B

d. be licensed and accredited by state B

How are service animals defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act?

dogs that are individually trained to do work or perform tasks for people with disabilities

Which one or more of the following Foreign Animal Diseases can cause illness in Category I animals? a. Glanders b. Hendra c. Rift Valley Fever d. Classical Swine Fever e. African Horse Sickness f. Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease

e. African Horse Sickness f. Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease Note: Category I animals: All animals except: food and fiber species, horses, birds, farm-raised aquatic animals, all other livestock species, and zoo animals that can transmit exotic animal diseases to livestock Category II animals: All animals

Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug (Drug A)? a. Drug A is given SQ to Daisy the dairy goat and is labeled for use in bovines but not for use in caprines. b. Drug A is used to treat a bacterial urinary tract infection in Fluffy the cat, but the drug label only states that Drug A is to be used in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida. c. The drug label says to administer Drug A IM every 8 hours, but Bob works 12-hour shifts, so he administers a dose-and-a-half worth of Drug A IM every 12 hours instead. d. The package insert for Drug A says to give a dog of Buster the dog's weight one capsule every 12 hours for up to seven days, but Buster doesn't seem 100% back to normal after seven days, so the veterinarian advises the owner to continue giving Drug A every 12 hours for another five days. e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use

e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use

1. Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug (Drug A)? a. Drug A is given SQ to Daisy the dairy goat and is labeled for use in bovines but not for use in caprines. b. Drug A is used to treat a bacterial urinary tract infection in Fluffy the cat, but the drug label only states that Drug A is to be used in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida. c. The drug label says to administer Drug A IM every 8 hours, but Bob works 12-hour shifts, so he administers a dose-and-a-half worth of Drug A IM every 12 hours instead. d. The package insert for Drug A says to give a dog of Buster the dog's weight one capsule every 12 hours for up to seven days, but Buster doesn't seem 100% back to normal after seven days, so the veterinarian advises the owner to continue giving Drug A every 12 hours for another five days. e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use.

e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use.

12. Which one or more of the following is not one of the eight major food allergens required to be listed on product labels, according to the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (FALCPA)? a. Fish b. Wheat c. Soybeans d. Eggs e. Corn f. Sesame

e. Corn f. Sesame

Which one or more of the following is not one of the eight major food allergens required to be listed on product labels, according to the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (FALCPA)? a. Fish b. Wheat c. Soybeans d. Eggs e. Corn f. Sesame

e. Corn f. Sesame

Among all weather-related hazards, which type is responsible for the greatest number of annual human deaths? a. Wildfire b. Flooding c. Avalanche d. Lightening e. Extreme heat f. Extreme cold

e. Extreme heat

What is the most common presentation of chronic Q fever?

endocarditis (weeks to years after acute infection)

Only ________ inspected and passed products can enter interstate commerce or be exported to foreign countries

federally (FSIS)

What are the most common symptoms of acute Q fever?

fever w/pneumonia or hepatitis meningoencephalitis, myocarditis can also occur

What are the eight major allergens required to be listed on products?

fish, crustacean shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, eggs, milk, wheat, and soybeans.

Guidance 152 also had an assessment of the effect of transmission of ____________ bacteria of human health concern

foodborne

What is the US National Residue Program designed to do?

identify, rank, and analyze for chemical contaminants in meat, poultry, and egg products

What is proper rabies post exposure management for currently vaccinated dogs, cats, and ferrets ?

immediately receive veterinary medical care for assessment, wound cleansing, and booster vaccination. The animal should be kept under owners control and observed for 45 days.

When are the highest number of Coxiella burnetii organisms shed in animals?

in conjunction with adverse pregnancy events

Where do infected rodents shed hantaviruses?

in saliva, feces, urine

What is the problem with acute Q fever in pregnant women?

increased risk for pre-term delivery and miscarriage

The FDA believes what pathway is the most significant for human exposure to bacteria that have merged or been selected as a consequence of antimicrobial drug use in animals?

ingestion of antimicrobial resistant bacteria from animal derived foods

How do humans typically acquire Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)?

inhalation of organisms in dusts and aerosols from excreta

______________ separates sick people with a contagious disease from people who are not sick, and ______________ separates and restricts the movement of people who were exposed to a contagious disease to see if they become sick

isolation separates sick people with a contagious disease from people who are not sick, and quarantine separates and restricts the movement of people who were exposed to a contagious disease to see if they become sick

The (legislative/executive/judicial) branch of government effects policy through interpretation of the law

judidical

What are appropriations in relation to law making?

laws that provide funding for discretionary programs that are already authorized

All disasters start.....?

local i.e. municipal or county emergency management If damage assessment and local EM documentation indicated resources are exhausted and then moves up from there

What are the symptoms of Psittacosis in humans?

mild nonspecific illness to severe pneumonia (about on set of fever, chills, headache, muscle ache, general malaise, non productive cough and other mild respiratory signs) (endocarditis, hepatitis, encephalitis rarely reported)

How long are you required to keep controlled substance records?

minimum 2 years

What is the reservoir for Chikungunya?

monkeys, birds, cattle, rodents

What is a spillover event, in terms of Ebola virus?

occurs when an animal or human becomes infected with Ebola virus throughcontact with the reservoir host. Could occur through hunting or preparing the animal's meat for eating

What are some pet products that have recently been involved in outbreaks of Salmonella (3)?

pig ears, other dog treats, dry dog and cat food

FSIS has determined that contamination of pultry carcasses and parts by fecal material and enteric pathogens (Salmonella, Campylobacter) are hazards reasonably likely to occur in _____________ slaughter establishments unless addressed in a food safety program

poultry

In crisis communication, if you are monitoring for the emerging risks, preparing people for adverse events, changing behavior with likely decrease in harm, setting up partnerships, and doing message development for further stages, you are in the _________________ stage of communication

pre-crisis

Define food defense

protection of food products from intentional adulteration by biological, chemical, physical or radiological agents

In the FDA Food Protection plan, _______________ involves rapid reaction and effective communication

response

What are the typical reservoir species for hantaviruses?

rodents Each hantavirus tends to have a single rodent species as its reservoir

As part of the new Salmonella and Campylobacter performance standards for raw chicken and not ready-to-eat comminuted poultry, how often is sampling conducted by FSIS?

routine year-round sampling with 52 week moving window approach for evaluation of test results for process control - follow up sampling if establishment fails to meet the performance standard

How is Seoul virus diagnosed in people?

serology PCR

When is shedding of the virus highest for Seoul virus in rats?

soon after infection, though shedding can persist long term

Define food safety

the protection of food products from unintentional contamination by agents

What is the purpose of a Food Safety Assessment (FSIS)

to assess and analyze an establishment's food safety system to verify that the establishment is able to produce safe and wholesome meat or poultry products in accordance with FSIS statutory and regulatory requirements

What is the purpose of the Veterinary Services Grant Program?

to relieve veterinarian shortage situations and support veterinary services in under served areas

When abortions are occurring due to Coxiella burnetii , what should be done to potentially prevent adverse pregnancy events?

treat with long acting oxytetracycline in late gestation may help prevent adverse pregnancy events

If an animal is exposed to rabies, and owners are unable to provide proof of vaccination, serological monitoring can be performed, but must be done when?

within 96 hours of exposure -first sample needs to be early enough to avoid capturing response to rabies exposure in a truly vaccinated animal The process is: Day 0 draw sample then vax Day 5-7: draw second serum sample Must show anamnestic response (>2 fold rise in titer with second titer being >0.5 IU/mL) to treat as previously vaccinated

The majority of turtle related Salmonellosis affects what age group?

young children

Name at least 3 recommendations for prevention of Salmonella from live poultry for the general public (i.e. backyard poultry)

• Keep live poultry, amphibians, and reptiles out of homes and facilities with high risk people. • Don't eat or drink around risky animals or in areas where they live and roam. • Keep animals away from areas where food and drink are prepared, served, or stored, such as kitchens or outdoor patios. • Clean and disinfect any surfaces that have been in contact with risky animals. • Children should perform this task only under adult supervision. • Habitats and their contents should be carefully cleaned outdoors, if possible.

Give at least three examples of source data for PREDICT screening rules

√ Results of field exams and sample analyses of previous entries √ Results of facility inspections, foreign and domestic √ Ratings of inherent product risks √ Accuracy of product and facility coding by entry filers √ Data anomalies within the current entry √ Admissibility history with respect to the manufacturer, exporter, importer, and consignee for the current product (at industry and more specific levels) √ Open source intelligence pertaining to the manufacturer, foreign locale, product, etc.