AH2 Final

CVA Labs

CBC--> elevated H and H (ischemic) WBC--> infection Coagulation values • PT--> 30-40sec • INR--> 0.8-1.1 • PTT--> 11-12.5 secs -Electrolytes • Sodium --> 136-145 • Potassium--> 3.5-5.0

The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the client's recent history? a. Pyelonephritis b. Myocardial infarction c. Bladder cancer d. Kidney stones

ANS: B Pre-renal causes of AKI are related to a decrease in perfusion, such as with a myocardial infarction. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of AKI related to kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are post-renal causes of AKI related to urine flow obstruction.

A student nurse is preparing morning medications for a client who had a stroke. The student plans to hold the docusate sodium (Colace) because the client had a large stool earlier. What action by the supervising nurse is best? a. Have the student ask the client if it is desired or not. b. Inform the student that the docusate should be given. c. Tell the student to document the rationale. d. Tell the student to give it unless the client refuses.

ANS: B Stool softeners should be given to clients with neurologic disorders in order to prevent an elevation in intracranial pressure that accompanies the Valsalva maneuver when constipated. The supervising nurse should instruct the student to administer the docusate. The other options are not appropriate. The medication could be held for diarrhea.

A client admitted for sickle cell crisis is distraught after learning her child also has the disease. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Both you and the father are equally responsible for passing it on." b. "I can see you are upset. I can stay here with you a while if you like." c. "It's not your fault; there is no way to know who will have this disease." d. "There are many good treatments for sickle cell disease these days."

ANS: B The best response is for the nurse to offer self, a therapeutic communication technique that uses presence. Attempting to assign blame to both parents will not help the client feel better. There is genetic testing available, so it is inaccurate to state there is no way to know who will have the disease. Stating that good treatments exist belittles the client's feelings.

A nurse cares for a client who presents with bradycardia secondary to hypothyroidism. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed to the client? a. Atropine sulfate b. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) c. Propranolol (Inderal) d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B The treatment for bradycardia from hypothyroidism is to treat the hypothyroidism using levothyroxine sodium. If the heart rate were so slow that it became an emergency, then atropine or epinephrine might be an option for short-term management. Propranolol is a beta blocker and would be contraindicated for a client with bradycardia.

Fluid Volume status in Nephrotic Syndrome

Excess fluid in the extracellular

Mitigation

Minimizing the effects of the disaster

Coag Labs

Pic

Preparedness

Planning how to respond to a disaster

Thrombocytosis

Platelet count above 600,000 -Risk for clotting

Myasthenia Gravis Medication

Pyridostigmine -Give in increasing concentration of actycholine 4x per day -Take prior to meals

Portal hypertension general information

o Portal obstruction and ascites—late manifestations of cirrhosis—are caused partly by chronic failure of liver function and partly by obstruction of the portal circulation. Almost all of the blood from the digestive organs is collected in the portal veins and carried to the liver. Because a cirrhotic liver does not allow free blood passage, blood backs up into the spleen and the GI tract, and these organs become the seat of chronic passive congestion—that is, they are stagnant with blood and therefore cannot function properly. Indigestion and altered bowel function result. Fluid rich in protein may accumulate in the peritoneal cavity, producing ascites. This can be detected through percussion for shifting dullness or a fluid wave.

Rotator Cuff info

o RF: fall, heavy lifting, aging, repetitive motions o CM: pain and limited use o Diagnosis: arm drop test/ MRI o Trt: Physical therapy/ NSAIDS, Surgery o Nursing: RICE

SIADH Nursing

- Closely monitor I & - Blood chemistries, Electrolytes -Daily wt -Monitor neuro status

Rib Frx

-Blunt chest trauma -Bone ends are driven into the chest -Risk for pulmonary contusion, pneumothorax, hemothorax -Deep injury equals poor prognosis -Assist with gas exchange and treat pain but avoid meds that suppress the respiratory drive

Hemophilia

-Genetic -abnormal bleeding to any trauma -Bleed longer than normal -Problem forming stable fibrin clot

Nephrotic Syndrome Interventions

-Monitor I & O -Monitor hypertension -Assess fluid and electrolyte balance -Cardiac and neuro status -Monitor for vascular dehydration

Flail Chest

-Neighboring ribs causing paradoxical chest wall movement -Common after ACLS -CM: paradoxical chest mvmt, dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, hypotension, SOA, anxiety, pain

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

-Platelets clump together causing inappropriate clotting

Pulmonary contusion

-Results in respiratory depression -Blood and edema between the alveoli -CM: crackles, wheezes, coughs, tachypnea, dullness to percussion -CXR hazy with opacity over affected area -Condition leads to ARDS

A client with sickle cell disease (SCD) takes hydroxyurea (Droxia). The client presents to the clinic reporting an increase in fatigue. What laboratory result should the nurse report immediately? a. Hematocrit: 25% b. Hemoglobin: 9.2 mg/dL c. Potassium: 3.2 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 38,000/mm3

ANS: D Although individuals with SCD often have elevated white blood cell (WBC) counts, this extreme elevation could indicate leukemia, a complication of taking hydroxyurea. The nurse should report this finding immediately. Alternatively, it could indicate infection, a serious problem for clients with SCD. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels are normally low in people with SCD. The potassium level, while slightly low, is not as worrisome as the WBCs.

After teaching the wife of a client who has Parkinson disease, the nurse assesses the wife's understanding. Which statement by the client's wife indicates she correctly understands changes associated with this disease? a. "His masklike face makes it difficult to communicate, so I will use a white board." b. "He should not socialize outside of the house due to uncontrollable drooling." c. "This disease is associated with anxiety causing increased perspiration." d. "He may have trouble chewing, so I will offer bite-sized portions."

ANS: D Because chewing and swallowing can be problematic, small frequent meals and a supplement are better for meeting the client's nutritional needs. A masklike face and drooling are common in clients with Parkinson disease. The client should be encouraged to continue to socialize and communicate as normally as possible. The wife should understand that the client's masklike face can be misinterpreted and additional time may be needed for the client to communicate with her or others. Excessive perspiration is also common in clients with Parkinson disease and is associated with the autonomic nervous system's response.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assessing blood glucose as directed b. Changing the IV dressing each day c. Checking the TPN with another nurse d. Performing appropriate hand hygiene

ANS: D Clients on TPN are at high risk for infection. The nurse performs appropriate hand hygiene as a priority intervention. Checking blood glucose is also an important measure, but preventing infection takes priority. The IV dressing is changed every 48 to 72 hours. TPN does not need to be double-checked with another nurse.

A nurse assesses a client on the medical-surgical unit. Which statement made by the client should alert the nurse to the possibility of hypothyroidism? a. "My sister has thyroid problems." b. "I seem to feel the heat more than other people." c. "Food just doesn't taste good without a lot of salt." d. "I am always tired, even with 12 hours of sleep."

ANS: D Clients with hypothyroidism usually feel tired or weak despite getting many hours of sleep. Thyroid problems are not inherited. Heat intolerance is indicative of hyperthyroidism. Loss of taste is not a manifestation of hypothyroidism.

The nurse learns that the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome includes segmental demyelination. The nurse should understand that this causes what? a. Delayed afferent nerve impulses b. Paralysis of affected muscles c. Paresthesia in upper extremities d. Slowed nerve impulse transmission

ANS: D Demyelination leads to slowed nerve impulse transmission. The other options are not correct.

A nurse plans care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Ambulate the client in the hallway twice a day. b. Ensure a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day. c. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques. d. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees or greater.

ANS: D Elevation of the head of the bed will help prevent aspiration. The other options will not prevent aspiration, which is the greatest respiratory complication of Parkinson disease, nor do these interventions address any of the complications of Parkinson disease. Ambulation in the hallway is usually implemented to prevent venous thrombosis. Increased fluid intake flushes out toxins from the client's blood. Pursed-lip breathing increases exhalation of carbon dioxide.

A client with a stroke has damage to Broca's area. What intervention to promote communication is best for this client? a. Assess whether or not the client can write. b. Communicate using "yes-or-no" questions. c. Reinforce speech therapy exercises. d. Remind the client not to use neologisms.

ANS: A Damage to Broca's area often leads to expressive aphasia, wherein the client can understand what is said but cannot express thoughts verbally. In some instances the client can write. The nurse should assess to see if that ability is intact. "Yes-or-no" questions are not good for this type of client because he or she will often answer automatically but incorrectly. Reinforcing speech therapy exercises is good for all clients with communication difficulties. Neologisms are made-up "words" often used by clients with sensory aphasia.

A nurse evaluates a client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN). Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment? a. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days. b. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.048. c. No blood is observed in the client's urine. d. The client's blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

ANS: A Fluid retention is a major feature of acute GN. This weight loss represents fluid loss, indicating that the glomeruli are performing the function of filtration. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high. Blood is not usually seen in GN, so this finding would be expected. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is too high; this may indicate kidney damage or fluid overload.

A nurse is providing community screening for risk factors associated with stroke. Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for a stroke? a. A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user b. A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day c. A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines d. A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications

ANS: A Heavy drug use, particularly cocaine, is a risk factor for stroke. Heavy alcohol use is also a risk factor, but one beer a day is not considered heavy drinking. Antihistamines may contain phenylpropanolamine, which also increases the risk for stroke, but this client uses them seasonally and there is no information that they are abused or used heavily. The 65-year-old has only age as a risk factor.

An older client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. A family member tells the nurse the client is restless and seems confused. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation. b. Check the medication list for interactions. c. Place the client on a bed alarm. d. Put the client on safety precautions

ANS: A In the older adult, an early sign of hypoxia is often confusion and restlessness. The nurse should first assess the client's oxygen saturation. The other actions are appropriate, but only after this assessment occurs.

A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) asks the nurse to explain the disease. What response by the nurse is best? a. "MG is an autoimmune problem in which nerves do not cause muscles to contract." b. "MG is an inherited destruction of peripheral nerve endings and junctions." c. "MG consists of trauma-induced paralysis of specific cranial nerves." d. "MG is a viral infection of the dorsal root of sensory nerve fibers."

ANS: A MG is an autoimmune disorder in which nerve fibers are damaged and their impulses do not lead to muscle contraction. MG is not an inherited or viral disorder and does not paralyze specific cranial nerves.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse that the medication therapy is effective? a. Thirst is recognized and fluid intake is appropriate. b. Weight has been the same for 3 weeks. c. Total white blood cell count is 6000 cells/mm3. d. Heart rate is 70 beats/min and regular.

ANS: D Hypothyroidism decreases body functioning and can result in effects such as bradycardia, confusion, and constipation. If a client's heart rate is bradycardic while on thyroid hormone replacement, this is an indicator that the replacement may not be adequate. Conversely, a heart rate above 100 beats/min may indicate that the client is receiving too much of the thyroid hormone. Thirst, fluid intake, weight, and white blood cell count do not represent a therapeutic response to this medication.

After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

ANS: A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowler's position to prevent aspiration.

A client in the emergency department is having a stroke and needs a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting. The client's mental status is deteriorating. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Attempt to find the family to sign a consent. b. Inform the provider that the procedure cannot occur. c. Nothing; no consent is needed in an emergency. d. Sign the consent form for the client.

ANS: A The nurse should attempt to find the family to give consent. If no family is present or can be found, under the principle of emergency consent, a life-saving procedure can be performed without formal consent. The nurse should not just sign the consent form.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). On assessment, the nurse notes the client's pulse is 128 beats/min, blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg, and skin turgor is dry. What action should the nurse perform next? a. Assess the 24-hour fluid balance. b. Assess the client's oral cavity. c. Prepare to hang a normal saline bolus. d. Turn up the infusion rate of the TPN.

ANS: A This client has clinical indicators of dehydration, so the nurse calculates the client's 24-hour intake, output, and fluid balance. This information is then reported to the provider. The client's oral cavity assessment may or may not be consistent with dehydration. The nurse may need to give the client a fluid bolus, but not as an independent action. The client's dehydration is most likely due to fluid shifts from the TPN, so turning up the infusion rate would make the problem worse, and is not done as an independent action.

A nurse assesses a client with the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale and determines the client's score to be 36. How should the nurse plan care for this client? a. The client will need near-total care. b. The client will need cuing only. c. The client will need safety precautions. d. The client will be discharged home.

ANS: A This client has severe neurologic deficits and will need near-total care. Safety precautions are important but do not give a full picture of the client's dependence. The client will need more than cuing to complete tasks. A home discharge may be possible, but this does not help the nurse plan care for a very dependent client.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus. The client's CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence. b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol. c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+ CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors. d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals.

ANS: A This client is in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention stage 2 case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and should be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High-protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take priority over stopping the spread of the disease.

The nurse caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has identified the priority client problem of decreased mobility for the client. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask occupational therapy to help the client with activities of daily living. b. Consult with the provider about a physical therapy consult. c. Provide the client with information on support groups. d. Refer the client to a medical social worker or chaplain. e. Work with speech therapy to design a high-protein diet.

ANS: A, B, E Improving mobility and strength involves the collaborative assistance of occupational therapy, physical therapy, and speech therapy. While support groups, social work, or chaplain referrals may be needed, they do not help with mobility.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

The nurse working in the emergency department assesses a client who has symptoms of stroke. For what modifiable risk factors should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol intake b. Diabetes c. High-fat diet d. Obesity e. Smoking

ANS: A, C, D, E Alcohol intake, a high-fat diet, obesity, and smoking are all modifiable risk factors for stroke. Diabetes is not modifiable but is a risk factor that can be controlled with medical intervention.

. A nurse working with clients with sickle cell disease (SCD) teaches about self-management to prevent exacerbations and sickle cell crises. What factors should clients be taught to avoid? (Select all that apply.) a. Dehydration b. Exercise c. Extreme stress d. High altitudes e. Pregnancy

ANS: A, C, D, E Several factors cause red blood cells to sickle in SCD, including dehydration, extreme stress, high altitudes, and pregnancy. Strenuous exercise can also cause sickling, but not unless it is very vigorous.

A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.

A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client's spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower sodium b. Higher calcium c. Lower potassium d. Higher phosphorus e. Higher calories

ANS: A, C, E Many clients with AKI are too ill to meet caloric goals and require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas that are lower in sodium, potassium, and phosphorus, and higher in calories than are standard formulas.

A nurse teaches a client with hyperthyroidism. Which dietary modifications should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased carbohydrates b. Decreased fats c. Increased calorie intake d. Supplemental vitamins e. Increased proteins

ANS: A, C, E The client is hypermetabolic and has an increased need for carbohydrates, calories, and proteins. Proteins are especially important because the client is at risk for a negative nitrogen balance. There is no need to decrease fat intake or take supplemental vitamins.

A client is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a urine output of 2000 mL/day. What is the major concern of the nurse regarding this client's care? a. Edema and pain b. Electrolyte and fluid imbalance c. Cardiac and respiratory status d. Mental health status

ANS: B This client may have an inflammatory cause of AKI with proteins entering the glomerulus and holding the fluid in the filtrate, causing polyuria. Electrolyte loss and fluid balance is essential. Edema and pain are not usually a problem with fluid loss. There could be changes in the client's cardiac, respiratory, and mental health status if the electrolyte imbalance is not treated.

A nurse cares for a client who possibly has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The client's serum sodium level is 114 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Consult with the dietitian about increased dietary sodium. b. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 600 mL/day. c. Handle the client gently by using turn sheets for re-positioning. d. Instruct unlicensed assistive personnel to measure intake and output.

ANS: B With SIADH, clients often have dilutional hyponatremia. The client needs a fluid restriction, sometimes to as little as 500 to 600 mL/24 hr. Adding sodium to the client's diet will not help if he or she is retaining fluid and diluting the sodium. The client is not at increased risk for fracture, so gentle handling is not an issue. The client should be on intake and output; however, this will monitor only the client's intake, so it is not the best answer. Reducing intake will help increase the client's sodium.

An older adult client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client is given amitriptyline (Elavil). After receiving the hand-off report, what actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering the medication as ordered b. Advising the client to have help getting up c. Consulting the provider about the drug d. Cutting the dose of the drug in half e. Placing the client on safety precautions

ANS: B, C, E Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant and is considered inappropriate for use in older clients due to concerns of anticholinergic effects, confusion, and safety risks. The nurse should tell the client to have help getting up, place the client on safety precautions, and consult the provider. Since this drug is not appropriate for older clients, cutting the dose in half is not warranted.

A client with myasthenia gravis is malnourished. What actions to improve nutrition may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the client's gag reflex b. Cutting foods up into small bites c. Monitoring prealbumin levels d. Thickening liquids prior to drinking e. Weighing the client daily

ANS: B, D Cutting food up into smaller bites makes it easier for the client to chew and swallow. Thickened liquids help prevent aspiration. The UAP can weigh the client, but this does not help improve nutrition. The nurse assesses the gag reflex and monitors laboratory values.

A nurse is caring for a client after a stroke. What actions may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess neurologic status with the Glasgow Coma Scale. b. Check and document oxygen saturation every 1 to 2 hours. c. Cluster client care to allow periods of uninterrupted rest. d. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees to prevent aspiration. e. Position the client supine with the head in a neutral midline position.

ANS: B, E The UAP can take and document vital signs, including oxygen saturation, and keep the client's head in a neutral, midline position with correct direction from the nurse. The nurse assesses the Glasgow Coma Scale score. The nursing staff should not cluster care because this can cause an increase in the intracranial pressure. The head of the bed should be minimally elevated, up to 30 degrees.

An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.

A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.

A nurse receives a report on a client who had a left-sided stroke and has homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking. c. Prop the client's right side up when sitting in a chair. d. Rotate the client's meal tray when the client stops eating.

ANS: D This condition is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. The client may not see all the food on the tray, so the nurse rotates it so uneaten food is now within the visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control.

A client with myasthenia gravis has the priority client problem of inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding indicates that the priority goal for this client problem has been met? a. Ability to chew and swallow without aspiration b. Eating 75% of meals and between-meal snacks c. Intake greater than output 3 days in a row d. Weight gain of 3 pounds in 1 month

ANS: D Weight gain is the best indicator that the client is receiving enough nutrition. Being able to chew and swallow is important for eating, but adequate nutrition can be accomplished through enteral means if needed. Swallowing without difficulty indicates an intact airway. Since the question does not indicate what the client's meals and snacks consist of, eating 75% may or may not be adequate. Intake and output refers to fluid balance.

A nurse assesses a client with a rotator cuff injury. Which finding should the nurse expect to assess? a. Inability to maintain adduction of the affected arm for more than 30 seconds b. Shoulder pain that is relieved with overhead stretches and at night c. Inability to initiate or maintain abduction of the affected arm at the shoulder d. Referred pain to the shoulder and arm opposite the affected shoulder

ANS: C Clients with a rotator cuff tear are unable to initiate or maintain abduction of the affected arm at the shoulder. This is known as the drop arm test. The client should not have difficulty with adduction of the arm, nor experience referred pain to the opposite shoulder. Pain is usually more intense at night and with overhead activities.

A client has a sickle cell crisis with extreme lower extremity pain. What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Apply ice packs to the client's legs. b. Elevate the client's legs on pillows. c. Keep the lower extremities warm. d. Place elastic bandage wraps on the client's legs.

ANS: C During a sickle cell crisis, the tissue distal to the occlusion has decreased blood flow and ischemia, leading to pain. Due to decreased blood flow, the client's legs will be cool or cold. The UAP can attempt to keep the client's legs warm. Ice and elevation will further decrease perfusion. Elastic bandage wraps are not indicated and may constrict perfusion in the legs.

A nurse cares for a client who has hypothyroidism as a result of Hashimoto's thyroiditis. The client asks, "How long will I need to take this thyroid medication?" How should the nurse respond? a. "You will need to take the thyroid medication until the goiter is completely gone." b. "Thyroiditis is cured with antibiotics. Then you won't need thyroid medication." c. "You'll need thyroid pills for life because your thyroid won't start working again." d. "When blood tests indicate normal thyroid function, you can stop the medication."

ANS: C Hashimoto's thyroiditis results in a permanent loss of thyroid function. The client will need lifelong thyroid replacement therapy. The client will not be able to stop taking the medication.

A nurse plans care for a client with hypothyroidism. Which priority problem should the nurse plan to address first for this client? a. Heat intolerance b. Body image problems c. Depression and withdrawal d. Obesity and water retention

ANS: C Hypothyroidism causes many problems in psychosocial functioning. Depression is the most common reason for seeking medical attention. Memory and attention span may be impaired. The client's family may have great difficulty accepting and dealing with these changes. The client is often unmotivated to participate in self-care. Lapses in memory and attention require the nurse to ensure that the client's environment is safe. Heat intolerance is seen in hyperthyroidism. Body image problems and weight issues do not take priority over mental status and safety.

A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech-language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that a priority goal for this problem has been met? a. Chooses preferred items from the menu b. Eats 75% to 100% of all meals and snacks c. Has clear lung sounds on auscultation d. Gains 2 pounds after 1 week

ANS: C Impaired swallowing can lead to aspiration, so the priority goal for this problem is no aspiration. Clear lung sounds is the best indicator that aspiration has not occurred. Choosing menu items is not related to this problem. Eating meals does not indicate the client is not still aspirating. A weight gain indicates improved nutrition but still does not show a lack of aspiration.

A client with human immune deficiency virus is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client. b. Notify the provider about the CD4+ results. c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care.

ANS: C Since this client's CD4+ cell count is low, he or she may have anergy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The nurse should first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alterative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.

nurse reviews these laboratory values of a client who returned from kidney transplantation 12 hours ago: Sodium 136 mEq/L Potassium 5 mEq/L Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 44 mg/dL Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL What initial intervention would the nurse anticipate? a. Start hemodialysis immediately. b. Discuss the need for peritoneal dialysis. c. Increase the dose of immunosuppression. d. Return the client to surgery for exploration.

ANS: C The client may need a higher dose of immunosuppressive medication as evidenced by the elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels. This increased dose may reverse the possible acute rejection of the transplanted kidney. The client does not need hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, or further surgery at this point.

A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.

A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of carcinoma of the liver? a. A 22-year-old with a history of blunt liver trauma b. A 48-year-old with a history of diabetes mellitus c. A 66-year-old who has a history of cirrhosis d. An 82-year-old who has chronic malnutrition

ANS: C The risk of contracting a primary carcinoma of the liver is higher in clients with cirrhosis from any cause. Blunt liver trauma, diabetes mellitus, and chronic malnutrition do not increase a person's risk for developing liver cancer.

Kidney Labs

Cr (0.6-1.3 mg/dL) BUN (10-20 mg/dL) Potassium (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) GFR (see notes)--> low GFR is BAD

Cholecystitis is cause by....

Bile duct blockage

Preparedness Examples

Emergency exercises/ training, warning systems, running to bomb shelter when bomb is coming

Treatment of Cholecystitis

Laparoscopic or catheter inserted percutaneously to break up the clots

Blood labs

PIC

Thromnocytopenia

abnormally low platelet count -40,000-80,000: Risk for bleeding with mild trauma - less than 20,000: Risk for spontaneous bleed - Less than 5000: risk for fatal bleed in CNS or GI Hemorrhage

Mitigation examples

building codes and zoning, vulnerability analyses, publiceducation, building a bomb shelter

Flail Chest Interventions

• Pain management • Oxygen • Lung expansion (TCDB, Repositioning) • Respiratory assessment • Mechanical ventilation--> PEEP • ABGs • Surgery in extreme cases

SIADH

-Excess ADH -Water is retained so SODIUM IS ALWAYS DOWN -Sodium (136-145)

Portal Hypertension causes what side effect

Varices which rupture leading to massive hemorrhage in GI tract

An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.

A client presents to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What intervention by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer oxygen. b. Apply an oximetry probe. c. Give pain medication. d. Start an IV line.

ANS: A All actions are appropriate, but remembering the ABCs, oxygen would come first. The main problem in a sickle cell crisis is tissue and organ hypoxia, so providing oxygen helps halt the process.

A nurse caring for a client with sickle cell disease (SCD) reviews the client's laboratory work. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider? a. Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL b. Hematocrit: 30% c. Sodium: 147 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm3

ANS: A An elevated creatinine indicates kidney damage, which occurs in SCD. A hematocrit level of 30% is an expected finding, as is a slightly elevated white blood cell count. A sodium level of 147 mEq/L, although slightly high, is not concerning.

A client had an embolic stroke and is having an echocardiogram. When the client asks why the provider ordered "a test on my heart," how should the nurse respond? a. "Most of these types of blood clots come from the heart." b. "Some of the blood clots may have gone to your heart too." c. "We need to see if your heart is strong enough for therapy." d. "Your heart may have been damaged in the stroke too."

ANS: A An embolic stroke is caused when blood clots travel from one area of the body to the brain. The most common source of the clots is the heart. The other statements are inaccurate.

A client in sickle cell crisis is dehydrated and in the emergency department. The nurse plans to start an IV. Which fluid choice is best? a. 0.45% normal saline b. 0.9% normal saline c. Dextrose 50% (D50) d. Lactated Ringer's solution

ANS: A Because clients in sickle cell crisis are often dehydrated, the fluid of choice is a hypotonic solution such as 0.45% normal saline. 0.9% normal saline and lactated Ringer's solution are isotonic. D50 is hypertonic and not used for hydration.

A nurse delegates care for a client with Parkinson disease to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this client's care? a. "Allow the client to be as independent as possible with activities." b. "Assist the client with frequent and meticulous oral care." c. "Assess the client's ability to eat and swallow before each meal." d. "Schedule appointments early in the morning to ensure rest in the afternoon."

ANS: A Clients with Parkinson disease do not move as quickly and can have functional problems. The client should be encouraged to be as independent as possible and provided time to perform activities without rushing. Although oral care is important for all clients, instructing the UAP to provide frequent and meticulous oral is not a priority for this client. This statement would be a priority if the client was immune-compromised or NPO. The nurse should assess the client's ability to eat and swallow; this should not be delegated. Appointments and activities should not be scheduled early in the morning because this may cause the client to be rushed and discourage the client from wanting to participate in activities of daily living.

A client hospitalized with sickle cell crisis frequently asks for opioid pain medications, often shortly after receiving a dose. The nurses on the unit believe the client is drug seeking. When the client requests pain medication, what action by the nurse is best? a. Give the client pain medication if it is time for another dose. b. Instruct the client not to request pain medication too early. c. Request the provider leave a prescription for a placebo. d. Tell the client it is too early to have more pain medication.

ANS: A Clients with sickle cell crisis often have severe pain that is managed with up to 48 hours of IV opioid analgesics. Even if the client is addicted and drug seeking, he or she is still in extreme pain. If the client can receive another dose of medication, the nurse should provide it. The other options are judgmental and do not address the client's pain. Giving placebos is unethical.

A client is taking long-term corticosteroids for myasthenia gravis. What teaching is most important? a. Avoid large crowds and people who are ill. b. Check blood sugars four times a day. c. Use two forms of contraception. d. Wear properly fitting socks and shoes.

ANS: A Corticosteroids reduce immune function, so clients taking these medications must avoid being exposed to illness. Long-term use can lead to secondary diabetes, but the client would not need to start checking blood glucose unless diabetes had been detected. Corticosteroids do not affect the effectiveness of contraception. Wearing well-fitting shoes would be important to avoid injury, but not just because the client takes corticosteroids.

The nurse is caring for five clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse consider to be at risk for post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Man with prostate cancer b. Woman with blood clots in the urinary tract c. Client with ureterolithiasis d. Firefighter with severe burns e. Young woman with lupus

ANS: A, B, C Urine flow obstruction, such as prostate cancer, blood clots in the urinary tract, and kidney stones (ureterolithiasis), causes post-renal AKI. Severe burns would be a pre-renal cause. Lupus would be an intrarenal cause for AKI.

A student nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with stage 1 HIV disease are not infectious to others.

ANS: A, B, C, D In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produces are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in clients with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease.

. A nurse assesses a client with hypothyroidism who is admitted with acute appendicitis. The nurse notes that the client's level of consciousness has decreased. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Infuse intravenous fluids. b. Cover the client with warm blankets. c. Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours. d. Maintain a patent airway. e. Administer oral glucose as prescribed.

ANS: A, B, D A client with hypothyroidism and an acute illness is at risk for myxedema coma. A decrease in level of consciousness is a symptom of myxedema. The nurse should infuse IV fluids, cover the client with warm blankets, monitor blood pressure every hour, maintain a patent airway, and administer glucose intravenously as prescribed.

A nurse assesses a client with nephrotic syndrome. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Proteinuria b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Dehydration d. Lipiduria e. Dysuria f. Costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness

ANS: A, B, D Nephrotic syndrome is caused by glomerular damage and is characterized by proteinuria (protein level higher than 3.5 g/24 hr), hypoalbuminemia, edema, and lipiduria. Fluid overload leading to edema and hypertension is common with nephrotic syndrome; dehydration does not occur. Dysuria is present with cystitis. CVA tenderness is present with inflammatory changes in the kidney.

A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). What teaching should the nurse plan regarding this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not eat a full meal for 45 minutes after taking the drug." b. "Seek immediate care if you develop trouble swallowing." c. "Take this drug on an empty stomach for best absorption." d. "The dose may change frequently depending on symptoms." e. "Your urine may turn a reddish-orange color while on this drug."

ANS: A, B, D Pyridostigmine should be given with a small amount of food to prevent GI upset, but the client should wait to eat a full meal due to the potential for aspiration. If difficulty with swallowing occurs, the client should seek immediate attention. The dose can change on a day-to-day basis depending on the client's manifestations. Taking the drug on an empty stomach is not related although the client needs to eat within 45 to 60 minutes afterwards. The client's urine will not turn reddish-orange while on this drug.

A nurse is working with many stroke clients. Which clients would the nurse consider referring to a mental health provider on discharge? (Select all that apply.) a. Client who exhibits extreme emotional lability b. Client with an initial National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale score of 38 c. Client with mild forgetfulness and a slight limp d. Client who has a past hospitalization for a suicide attempt e. Client who is unable to walk or eat 3 weeks post-stroke

ANS: A, B, D, E Clients most at risk for post-stroke depression are those with a previous history of depression, severe stroke (NIH Stroke Scale score of 38 is severe), and post-stroke physical or cognitive impairment. The client with mild forgetfulness and a slight limp would be a low priority for this referral.

A nurse has applied to work at a hospital that has National Stroke Center designation. The nurse realizes the hospital adheres to eight Core Measures for ischemic stroke care. What do these Core Measures include? (Select all that apply.) a. Discharging the client on a statin medication b. Providing the client with comprehensive therapies c. Meeting goals for nutrition within 1 week d. Providing and charting stroke education e. Preventing venous thromboembolism

ANS: A, D, E Core Measures established by The Joint Commission include discharging stroke clients on statins, providing and recording stroke education, and taking measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. The client must be assessed for therapies but may go elsewhere for them. Nutrition goals are not part of the Core Measures.

After a stroke, a client has ataxia. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the client's plan of care? a. Ambulate only with a gait belt. b. Encourage double swallowing. c. Monitor lung sounds after eating. d. Perform post-void residuals.

ANS: AAtaxia is a gait disturbance. For the client's safety, he or she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding.

A client is recovering from a kidney transplant. The client's urine output was 1500 mL over the last 12-hour period since transplantation. What is the priority assessment by the nurse? a. Checking skin turgor b. Taking blood pressure c. Assessing lung sounds d. Weighing the client

ANS: B By taking blood pressure, the nurse is assessing for hypotension that could compromise perfusion to the new kidney. The nurse then should notify the provider immediately. Skin turgor, lung sounds, and weight could give information about the fluid status of the client, but they are not the priority assessment.

After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition? a. "I must decrease my intake of fat." b. "I will increase my intake of protein." c. "A decreased intake of carbohydrates will be required." d. "An increased intake of vitamin C is necessary."

ANS: B In nephrotic syndrome, the renal loss of protein is significant, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss should be matched by increased intake of protein. The client would not need to adjust fat, carbohydrates, or vitamins based on this disorder.

A nurse assesses a client with hyperthyroidism who is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a side effect of this therapy? a. Blurred and double vision b. Increased thirst and urination c. Profuse nausea and diarrhea d. Decreased attention and insomnia

ANS: B Lithium antagonizes antidiuretic hormone and can cause symptoms of diabetes insipidus. This manifests with increased thirst and urination. Lithium has no effect on vision, gastric upset, or level of consciousness

A nurse plans care for a client who has hypothyroidism and is admitted for pneumonia. Which priority intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Monitor the client's intravenous site every shift. b. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever. c. Ensure that working suction equipment is in the room. d. Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours.

ANS: C A client with hypothyroidism who develops another illness is at risk for myxedema coma. In this emergency situation, maintaining an airway is a priority. The nurse should ensure that suction equipment is available in the client's room because it may be needed if myxedema coma develops. The other interventions are necessary for any client with pneumonia, but having suction available is a safety feature for this client.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is admitted to the hospital. The nurse plans caregiving priority to interventions that address which priority client problem? a. Anxiety b. Low fluid volume c. Inadequate airway d. Potential for skin breakdown

ANS: C Airway takes priority. Anxiety is probably present, but a physical diagnosis takes priority over a psychosocial one. The client has no reason to have low fluid volume unless he or she has been unable to drink for some time. If present, airway problems take priority over a circulation problem. An actual problem takes precedence over a risk for a problem.

A client is admitted with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). What assessment takes priority? a. Bladder control b. Cognitive perception c. Respiratory system d. Sensory functions

ANS: C Clients with GBS have muscle weakness, possibly to the point of paralysis. If respiratory muscles are paralyzed, the client may need mechanical ventilation, so the respiratory system is the priority. The nurse will complete urinary, cognitive, and sensory assessments as part of a thorough evaluation.

Portal Hypertension can be caused by?

Cirrhosis

A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive GFR b. Normal GFR c. Reduced GFR d. Potential for fluid overload e. Potential for dehydration

ANS: C, D The GFR refers to the initial amount of urine that the kidneys filter from the blood. In the healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min, most of which is reabsorbed in the kidney tubules. A GFR of 40 mL/min is drastically reduced, with the client experiencing fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema as a result of excess vascular fluid.

After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Re-position the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the client's risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the client's hips and sacrum.

Cholecystitis CM

CM: Biliary colic pain RU abd that can radiate to R shoulder and back, N&V, jaundice with obstruction, dark urine and putty colored stool, vitamin deficiency (A,D, E, & K)