AHN 447 MODULE 3 QUESTIONS

A nurse prepares a client for lumbar puncture (LP). Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to contact the health care provider? a. Shingles on the clients back b. Client is claustrophobic c. Absence of intravenous access d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A An LP should not be performed if the client has a skin infection at or near the puncture site because of the risk of infection. A nurse would want to notify the health care provider if shingles were identified on the clients back. If a client has shortness of breath when lying flat, the LP can be adapted to meet the clients needs. Claustrophobia, absence of IV access, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea have no impact on whether an LP can be performed.

A nurse teaches a client who is scheduled for a positron emission tomography scan of the brain. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Avoid caffeine-containing substances for 12 hours before the test. b. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid during the first 24 hours after the test. c. Do not take your cardiac medication the morning of the test. d. Remove your dentures and any metal before the test begins.

A Caffeine-containing liquids and foods are central nervous system stimulants and may alter the test results. No contrast is used; therefore, the client does not need to increase fluid intake. The client should take cardiac medications as prescribed. Metal does not have to be removed; this is done for magnetic resonance imaging.

A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cerebral angiography via the clients right femoral artery. Which assessment should the nurse complete? a. Palpate bilateral lower extremity pulses. b. Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings. c. Perform a funduscopic examination. d. Assess the gag reflex prior to eating.

A Cerebral angiography is performed by threading a catheter through the femoral or brachial artery. The extremity is kept immobilized after the procedure. The nurse checks the extremity for adequate circulation by noting skin color and temperature, presence and quality of pulses distal to the injection site, and capillary refill. Clients usually are on bedrest; therefore, orthostatic blood pressure readings cannot be performed. The funduscopic examination would not be affected by cerebral angiography. The client is given analgesics but not conscious sedation; therefore, the clients gag reflex would not be compromised.

A nurse delegates care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse included delegating care for a client with cranial nerve II impairment? a. Tell the client where food items are on the breakfast tray. b. Place the client in a high-Fowlers position for all meals. c. Make sure the clients food is visually appetizing. d. Assist the client by placing the fork in the left hand.

A Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, provides central and peripheral vision. A client who has cranial nerve II impairment will not be able to see, so the UAP should tell the client where different food items are on the meal tray. The other options are not appropriate for a client with cranial nerve II impairment.

A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which instruction should the nurse include in this education? a. Participate in an exercise program to strengthen muscles. b. Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness. c. Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day. d. Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight.

A Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. The other options will not prevent low back pain.

A nurse performs an assessment of pain discrimination on an older adult client. The client correctly identifies, with eyes closed, a sharp sensation on the right hand when touched with a pin. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Touch the pin on the same area of the left hand. b. Contact the provider with the assessment results. c. Ask the client about current medications. d. Continue the assessment on the clients feet.

A If testing is begun on the right hand and the client correctly identifies the pain stimulus, the nurse should continue the assessment on the left hand. This is a normal finding and does not need to be reported to the provider, but instead documented in the clients chart. Medications do not need to be assessed in response to this finding. The nurse should assess the left hand prior to assessing the feet.

After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. Ill use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake. b. Ill drink thinned fluids to prevent choking. c. Ill take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing. d. Ill position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate.

A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowlers position to prevent aspiration.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion. Which complication should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders

A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) with a radiopharmaceutical agent. Which statement should the nurse include when discussing the plan of care with this client? a. You may return to your previous activity level immediately. b. You are radioactive and must use a private bathroom. c. Frequent assessments of the injection site will be completed. d. We will be monitoring your renal functions closely.

A The client may return to his or her previous activity level immediately. Radioisotopes will be eliminated in the urine after SPECT, but no monitoring or special precautions are required. The injection site will not need to be assessed after the procedure is complete.

A nurse assesses a client who demonstrates a positive Romberg's sign with eyes closed but not with eyes open. Which condition does the nurse associate with this finding? a. Difficulty with proprioception b. Peripheral motor disorder c. Impaired cerebellar function d. Positive pronator drift

A The client who sways with eyes closed (positive Romberg's sign) but not with eyes open most likely has a disorder of proprioception and uses vision to compensate for it. The other options do not describe a positive Romberg's sign.

A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. Which action should the nurse supervisor take to prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event? a. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event. b. Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts. c. Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan. d. Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility.

A To prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses should use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each others stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses should also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours per day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent post-traumatic stress disorder.

The hospital administration arranges for critical incident stress debriefing for the staff after a mass casualty incident. Which statement by the debriefing team leader is most appropriate for this situation? a. You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here. b. Lets evaluate what went wrong and develop policies for future incidents. c. This session is only for nursing and medical staff, not for ancillary personnel. d. Lets pass around the written policy compliance form for everyone.

A Strict confidentiality during stress debriefing is essential so that staff members can feel comfortable sharing their feelings, which should be accepted unconditionally. Brainstorming improvements and discussing policies would occur during an administrative review. Any employee present during a mass casualty situation is eligible for critical incident stress management services.

A nurse wants to become involved in community disaster preparedness and is interested in helping set up and staff first aid stations or community acute care centers in the event of a disaster. Which organization is the best fit for this nurses interests? a. The Medical Reserve Corps b. The National Guard c. The health department d. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team

A The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search and rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services.

A family in the emergency department is overwhelmed at the loss of several family members due to a shooting incident in the community. Which intervention should the nurse complete first? a. Provide a calm location for the family to cope and discuss needs. b. Call the hospital chaplain to stay with the family and pray for the deceased. c. Do not allow visiting of the victims until the bodies are prepared. d. Provide privacy for law enforcement to interview the family.

A The nurse should first provide emotional support by encouraging relaxation, listening to the familys needs, and offering choices when appropriate and possible to give some personal control back to individuals. The family may or may not want the assistance of religious personnel; the nurse should assess for this before calling anyone. Visiting procedures should take into account the needs of the family. The family may want to see the victim immediately and do not want to wait until the body can be prepared. The nurse should assess the familys needs before assuming the body needs to be prepared first. The family may appreciate privacy, but this is not as important as assessing the familys needs.

A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. Which statement best addresses these concerns? a. Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states. b. The government has a program for quick licensure activation wherever you are deployed. c. During a time of crisis, licensure issues would not be the governments priority concern. d. If you are deployed, you will be issued a temporary license in the state in which you are working.

A When deployed, DMAT health care providers are acting as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available.

A provider prescribes a rewarming bath for a client who presents with partial-thickness frostbite. Which action should the nurse take prior to starting this treatment? a. Administer intravenous morphine. b. Wrap the limb with a compression dressing. c. Massage the frostbitten areas. d. Assess the limb for compartment syndrome.

A, Administer IV morphine Rapid rewarming in a water bath is recommended for all instances of partial-thickness and full-thickness frostbite. Clients experience severe pain during the rewarming process and nurses should administer intravenous analgesics.

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed a computed tomography (CT) scan with iodine-based contrast. Which actions should the nurse take to prepare the client for this procedure? *(Select all that apply)* a. Ensure that an informed consent is present. b. Ask the client about any allergies. c. Evaluate the clients renal function. d. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds. e. Assess hematocrit and hemoglobin levels.

A, B, C A client who is scheduled to receive iodine-based contrast should be asked about allergies, especially allergies to iodine or shellfish. The clients kidney function should also be evaluated to determine if it is safe to administer contrast during the procedure. Finally, the nurse should ensure that an informed consent is present because all clients receiving iodine-based contrast must give consent. The CT will have no impact on the clients breath sounds or hematocrit and hemoglobin levels. Findings from these assessments will not influence the clients safety during the procedure.

A nurse delegates care for an older adult client to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this clients care? *(Select all that apply)* a. Plan to bathe the client in the evening when the client is most alert. b. Encourage the client to use a cane when ambulating. c. Assess the client for symptoms related to pain and discomfort. d. Remind the client to look at foot placement when walking. e. Schedule additional time for teaching about prescribed therapies.

A, B, D The nurse should tell the UAP to schedule activities when the client is normally awake, encourage the client to use a cane when ambulating, and remind the client to look where feet are placed when walking. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of pain and should provide sufficient time for older adults to process information, including new teaching. These are not items the nurse can delegate.

After teaching a client with a spinal cord tumor, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? *(Select all that apply)* a. Even though turning hurts, I will remind you to turn me every 2 hours. b. Radiation therapy can shrink the tumor but also can cause more problems. c. Surgery will be scheduled to remove the tumor and reverse my symptoms. d. I put my affairs in order because this type of cancer is almost always fatal. e. My family is moving my bedroom downstairs for when I am discharged home.

A, B, E Although surgery may relieve symptoms by reducing pressure on the spine and debulking the tumor, some motor and sensory deficits may remain. Spinal tumors usually cause disability but are not usually fatal. Radiation therapy is often used to shrink spinal tumors but can cause progressive spinal cord degeneration and neurologic deficits. The client should be turned every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown and arrangements should be made at home so that the client can complete activities of daily living without needing to go up and down stairs.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. Which newly identified assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? *(Select all that apply)* a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 b. Decerebrate posturing c. Reactive pupils d. Uninhibited speech e. Diminished cognition

A, B, E The nurse should urgently communicate changes in a clients neurologic status, including a decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score, abnormal flexion or extension, changes in cognition or speech, and pinpointed, dilated, and nonreactive pupils.

An emergency department (ED) nurse is preparing to transfer a client to the trauma intensive care unit. Which information should the nurse include in the nurse-to-nurse hand-off report? *(Select all that apply)* a. Mechanism of injury b. Diagnostic test results c. Immunizations d. List of home medications e. Isolation precautions

A, B, E Hand-off communication should be comprehensive so that the receiving nurse can continue care for the client fluidly. Communication should be concise and should include only the most essential information for a safe transition in care. Hand-off communication should include the clients situation (reason for being in the ED), brief medical history, assessment and diagnostic findings, Transmission-Based Precautions needed, interventions provided, and response to those interventions

An emergency department nurse moves to a new city where heat-related illnesses are common. Which clients does the nurse anticipate being at higher risk for heat-related illnesses? *(Select all that apply)* a. Homeless individuals b. Illicit drug users c. White people d. Hockey players e. Older adults

A, B, E Some of the most vulnerable, at-risk populations for heat-related illness include older adults; blacks (more than whites); people who work outside, such as construction and agricultural workers (more men than women); homeless people; illicit drug users (especially cocaine users); outdoor athletes (recreational and professional); and members of the military who are stationed in countries with hot climates (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan).

A nurse teaches a client who has severe allergies to prevent bug bites. Which statements should the nurse include in this clients teaching? *(Select all that apply)* a. Consult an exterminator to control bugs in and around your home. b. Do not swat at insects or wasps. c. Wear sandals whenever you go outside. d. Keep your prescribed epinephrine auto-injector in a bedside drawer. e. Use screens in your windows and doors to prevent flying insects from entering.

A, B, E To prevent arthropod bites and stings, clients should wear protective clothing, cover garbage cans, use screens in windows and doors, inspect clothing and shoes before putting them on, consult an exterminator, remove nests, avoid swatting at insects, and carry a prescription epinephrine auto-injector at all times if they are known to be allergic to bee or wasp stings.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client who was struck in the temporal lobe with a baseball. For which clinical manifestations that are related to a temporal lobe injury should the nurse assess? *(Select all that apply)* a. Memory loss b. Personality changes c. Difficulty with sound interpretation d. Speech difficulties e. Impaired taste

A, C, D Wernickes area (language area) is located in the temporal lobe and enables the processing of words into coherent thought as well as the understanding of written or spoken words. The temporal lobe also is responsible for the auditory centers interpretation of sound and complicated memory patterns. Personality changes are related to frontal lobe injury. Impaired taste is associated with injury to the parietal lobe.

A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the clients coping strategies? *(Select all that apply)* a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

A, C, D, F Information about the clients preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the clients level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the clients spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.

Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies the clients with which injuries with yellow tags? *(Select all that apply)* a. Partial-thickness burns covering both legs b. Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses c. Neck injury and numbness of both legs d. Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes e. Head injury and difficult to arouse f. Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen

A, C, D, F Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore should be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags.

A nurse is providing health education at a community center. Which instructions should the nurse include in teaching about prevention of lightning injuries during a storm? *(Select all that apply)* a. Seek shelter inside a building or vehicle. b. Hide under a tall tree. c. Do not take a bath or shower. d. Turn off the television. e. Remove all body piercings. f. Put down golf clubs or gardening tools.

A, C, D, F When thunder is heard, shelter should be sought in a safe area such as a building or an enclosed vehicle. Electrical equipment such as TVs and stereos should be turned off. Stay away from plumbing, water, and metal objects. Do not stand under an isolated tall tree or a structure such as a flagpole. Body piercings will not increase a persons chances of being struck by lightning.

A nurse triages clients arriving at the hospital after a mass casualty. Which clients are correctly classified? *(Select all that apply)* a. A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag b. A 42-year-old male with full-thickness body burns: green tag c. A 55-year-old female with a scalp laceration: black tag d. A 60-year-old male with an open fracture with distal pulses: yellow tag e. An 88-year-old male with shortness of breath and chest bruises: green tag

A, D Red-tagged clients need immediate care due to life-threatening injuries. A client with severe chest pain would receive a red tag. Yellow-tagged clients have major injuries that should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours. A client with an open fracture with distal pulses would receive a yellow tag. The client with full- thickness body burns would receive a black tag. The client with a scalp laceration would receive a green tag, and the client with shortness of breath would receive a red tag.

An emergency department nurse plans care for a client who is admitted with heat stroke. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? *(Select all that apply)* a. Administer oxygen via mask or nasal cannula. b. Administer ibuprofen, an antipyretic medication. c. Apply cooling techniques until core body temperature is less than 101 F. d. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore intravenous cannula. e. Obtain baseline serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes.

A, D, E Heat stroke is a medical emergency. Oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids should be provided, and baseline laboratory tests should be performed as quickly as possible. The client should be cooled until core body temperature is reduced to 102 F. Antipyretics should not be administered.

A nurse is teaching a wilderness survival class. Which statements should the nurse include about the prevention of hypothermia and frostbite? *(Select all that apply)* a. Wear synthetic clothing instead of cotton to keep your skin dry. b. Drink plenty of fluids. Brandy can be used to keep your body warm. c. Remove your hat when exercising to prevent the loss of heat. d. Wear sunglasses to protect skin and eyes from harmful rays. e. Know your physical limits. Come in out of the cold when limits are reached.

A, D, E To prevent hypothermia and frostbite, the nurse should teach clients to wear synthetic clothing (which moves moisture away from the body and dries quickly), layer clothing, and wear a hat, face mask, sunscreen, and sunglasses. The client should also be taught to drink plenty of fluids, but to avoid alcohol when participating in winter activities. Clients should know their physical limits and come in out of the cold when these limits have been reached.

The complex care provided during an emergency requires interdisciplinary collaboration. Which interdisciplinary team members are paired with the correct responsibilities? *(Select all that apply)* a. Psychiatric crisis nurse Interacts with clients and families when sudden illness, serious injury, or death of a loved one may cause a crisis b. Forensic nurse examiner Performs rapid assessments to ensure clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources c. Triage nurse Provides basic life support interventions such as oxygen, basic wound care, splinting, spinal immobilization, and monitoring of vital signs d. Emergency medical technician Obtains client histories, collects evidence, and offers counseling and follow- up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence e. Paramedic Provides prehospital advanced life support, including cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management, and medication administration

A, E The psychiatric crisis nurse evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates follow- up treatment plans. The psychiatric crisis nurse also works with clients and families when experiencing a crisis. Paramedics are advanced life support providers who can perform advanced techniques that may include cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management and intubation, establishing IV access, and administering drugs en route to the emergency department. The forensic nurse examiner is trained to recognize evidence of abuse and to intervene on the clients behalf. The forensic nurse examiner will obtain client histories, collect evidence, and offer counseling and follow-up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence. The triage nurse performs rapid assessments to ensure clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources. The emergency medical technician is usually the first caregiver and provides basic life support and transportation to the emergency department.

An emergency department nurse cares for a middle-aged mountain climber who is confused and exhibits bizarre behaviors. After administering oxygen, which priority intervention should the nurse implement? a. Administer dexamethasone (Decadron). b. Complete a minimental state examination. c. Prepare the client for computed tomography of the brain. d. Request a psychiatric consult.

A. Administer Decadron The client is exhibiting signs of mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). Dexamethasone (Decadron) reduces cerebral edema by acting as an anti-inflammatory in the central nervous system. The other interventions will not treat mountain sickness or HACE.

Emergency medical technicians arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive client who has an oxygen mask in place. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess that the client is breathing adequately. b. Insert a large-bore intravenous line. c. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. d. Assess for the best neurologic response.

A. Assess that the client is breathing adequately The highest-priority intervention in the primary survey is to establish that the client is breathing adequately. Even though this client has an oxygen mask on, he or she may not be breathing, or may be breathing inadequately with the device in place.

While on a camping trip, a nurse cares for an adult client who had a drowning incident in a lake and is experiencing agonal breathing with a palpable pulse. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Deliver rescue breaths. b. Wrap the client in dry blankets. c. Assess for signs of bleeding. d. Check for a carotid pulse.

A. Deliver rescue breaths In this emergency situation, the nurse should immediately initiate airway clearance and ventilator support measures, including delivering rescue breaths.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client admitted after a lightning strike. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Electrocardiogram (ECG) b. Wound inspection c. Creatinine kinase d. Computed tomography of head

A. ECG Clients who survive an immediate lightning strike can have serious myocardial injury, which can be manifested by ECG and myocardial perfusion abnormalities. The nurse should prioritize the ECG. Other assessments should be completed but are not the priority.

A nurse teaches a community health class about water safety. Which statement by a participant indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. I can go swimming all by myself because I am a certified lifeguard. b. I cannot leave my toddler alone in the bathtub for even a minute. c. I will appoint one adult to supervise the pool at all times during a party. d. I will make sure that there is a phone near my pool in case of an emergency.

A. I can go swimming all by myself because I am a certified lifeguard. People should never swim alone, regardless of lifeguard status. The other statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

A nurse is caring for four clients in the neurologic intensive care unit. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a Glasgow Coma Scale score that was 10 and is now is 8 b. Client with a Glasgow Coma Scale score that was 9 and is now is 12 c. Client with a moderate brain injury who is amnesic for the event d. Client who is requesting pain medication for a headache

ANS: A A 2-point decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score is clinically significant and the nurse needs to see this client first. An improvement in the score is a good sign. Amnesia is an expected finding with brain injuries, so this client is lower priority. The client requesting pain medication should be seen after the one with the declining Glasgow Coma Scale score.

A client had an embolic stroke and is having an echocardiogram. When the client asks why the provider ordered a test on my heart, how should the nurse respond? a. Most of these types of blood clots come from the heart. b. Some of the blood clots may have gone to your heart too. c. We need to see if your heart is strong enough for therapy. d. Your heart may have been damaged in the stroke too.

ANS: A An embolic stroke is caused when blood clots travel from one area of the body to the brain. The most common source of the clots is the heart. The other statements are inaccurate.

After a stroke, a client has ataxia. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the clients plan of care? a. Ambulate only with a gait belt. b. Encourage double swallowing. c. Monitor lung sounds after eating. d. Perform post-void residuals.

ANS: A Ataxia is a gait disturbance. For the clients safety, he or she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding.

A client has a brain abscess and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is best? a. Increased pressure from the abscess can cause seizures. b. Preventing febrile seizures with an abscess is important. c. Seizures always occur in clients with brain abscesses. d. This drug is used to sedate the client with an abscess.

ANS: A Brain abscesses can lead to seizures as a complication. The nurse should explain this to the spouse. Phenytoin is not used to prevent febrile seizures. Seizures are possible but do not always occur in clients with brain abscesses. This drug is not used for sedation.

A client with a stroke has damage to Brocas area. What intervention to promote communication is best for this client? a. Assess whether or not the client can write. b. Communicate using yes-or-no questions. c. Reinforce speech therapy exercises. d. Remind the client not to use neologisms.

ANS: A Damage to Brocas area often leads to expressive aphasia, wherein the client can understand what is said but cannot express thoughts verbally. In some instances the client can write. The nurse should assess to see if that ability is intact. Yes-or-no questions are not good for this type of client because he or she will often answer automatically but incorrectly. Reinforcing speech therapy exercises is good for all clients with communication difficulties. Neologisms are made-up words often used by clients with sensory aphasia.

A nurse is providing community screening for risk factors associated with stroke. Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for a stroke? a. A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user b. A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day c. A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines d. A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications

ANS: A Heavy drug use, particularly cocaine, is a risk factor for stroke. Heavy alcohol use is also a risk factor, but one beer a day is not considered heavy drinking. Antihistamines may contain phenylpropanolamine, which also increases the risk for stroke, but this client uses them seasonally and there is no information that they are abused or used heavily. The 65-year-old has only age as a risk factor.

A client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit after a moderate traumatic brain injury. The clients spouse is very frustrated, stating that the clients personality has changed and the situation is intolerable. What action by the nurse is best? a. Explain that personality changes are common following brain injuries. b. Ask the client why he or she is acting out and behaving differently. c. Refer the client and spouse to a head injury support group. d. Tell the spouse this is expected and he or she will have to learn to cope.

ANS: A Personality and behavior often change permanently after head injury. The nurse should explain this to the spouse. Asking the client about his or her behavior isnt useful because the client probably cannot help it. A referral might be a good idea, but the nurse needs to do something in addition to just referring the couple.

A client has a shoulder injury and is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The nurse notes the presence of an aneurysm clip in the clients record. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client how long ago the clip was placed. b. Have the client sign an informed consent form. c. Inform the provider about the aneurysm clip. d. Reschedule the client for computed tomography.

ANS: A Some older clips are metal, which would preclude the use of MRI. The nurse should determine how old the clip is and relay that information to the MRI staff. They can determine if the client is a suitable candidate for this examination. The client does not need to sign informed consent. The provider will most likely not know if the client can have an MRI with this clip. The nurse does not independently change the type of diagnostic testing the client receives.

A client in the emergency department is having a stroke and needs a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting. The clients mental status is deteriorating. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Attempt to find the family to sign a consent. b. Inform the provider that the procedure cannot occur. c. Nothing; no consent is needed in an emergency. d. Sign the consent form for the client.

ANS: A The nurse should attempt to find the family to give consent. If no family is present or can be found, under the principle of emergency consent, a life-saving procedure can be performed without formal consent. The nurse should not just sign the consent form.

A client has a traumatic brain injury. The nurse assesses the following: pulse change from 82 to 60 beats/min, pulse pressure increase from 26 to 40 mm Hg, and respiratory irregularities. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Call the provider or Rapid Response Team. b. Increase the rate of the IV fluid administration. c. Notify respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment. d. Prepare to give IV pain medication.

ANS: A These manifestations indicate Cushings syndrome, a potentially life-threatening increase in intracranial pressure (ICP), which is an emergency. Immediate medical attention is necessary, so the nurse notifies the provider or the Rapid Response Team. Increasing fluids would increase the ICP. The client does not need a breathing treatment or pain medication.

A client who had a severe traumatic brain injury is being discharged home, where the spouse will be a full- time caregiver. What statement by the spouse would lead the nurse to provide further education on home care? a. I know I can take care of all these needs by myself. b. I need to seek counseling because I am very angry. c. Hopefully things will improve gradually over time. d. With respite care and support, I think I can do this.

ANS: A This caregiver has unrealistic expectations about being able to do everything without help. Acknowledging anger and seeking counseling show a realistic outlook and plans for accomplishing goals. Hoping for improvement over time is also realistic, especially with the inclusion of the word hopefully. Realizing the importance of respite care and support also is a realistic outlook.

A nurse assesses a client with the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale and determines the clients score to be 36. How should the nurse plan care for this client? a. The client will need near-total care. b. The client will need cuing only. c. The client will need safety precautions. d. The client will be discharged home.

ANS: A This client has severe neurologic deficits and will need near-total care. Safety precautions are important but do not give a full picture of the clients dependence. The client will need more than cuing to complete tasks. A home discharge may be possible, but this does not help the nurse plan care for a very dependent client.

A client has a subarachnoid bolt. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Balancing and recalibrating the device b. Documenting intracranial pressure readings c. Handling the fiberoptic cable with care to avoid breakage d. Monitoring the clients phlebostatic axis

ANS: A This device needs frequent balancing and recalibration in order to read correctly. Documenting readings is important, but it is more important to ensure the devices accuracy. The fiberoptic transducer-tipped catheter has a cable that must be handled carefully to avoid breaking it, but ensuring the devices accuracy is most important. The phlebostatic axis is not related to neurologic monitoring.

A nurse is seeing many clients in the neurosurgical clinic. With which clients should the nurse plan to do more teaching? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Client with an aneurysm coil placed 2 months ago who is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for sinus headaches b. Client with an aneurysm clip who states that his family is happy there is no chance of recurrence c. Client who had a coil procedure who says that there will be no problem following up for 1 year d. Client who underwent a flow diversion procedure 3 months ago who is taking docusate sodium (Colace) for constipation e. Client who underwent surgical aneurysm ligation 3 months ago who is planning to take a Caribbean cruise

ANS: A, B After a coil procedure, up to 20% of clients experience re-bleeding in the first year. The client with this coil should not be taking drugs that interfere with clotting. An aneurysm clip can move up to 5 years after placement, so this client and family need to be watchful for changing neurologic status. The other statements show good understanding.

A client has a small-bore feeding tube (Dobhoff tube) inserted for continuous enteral feedings while recovering from a traumatic brain injury. What actions should the nurse include in the clients care? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Assess tube placement per agency policy. b. Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees. c. Listen to lung sounds at least every 4 hours. d. Run continuous feedings on a feeding pump. e. Use blue dye to determine proper placement.

ANS: A, B, C, D All of these options are important for client safety when continuous enteral feedings are in use. Blue dye is not used because it can cause lung injury if aspirated.

A client has meningitis following brain surgery. What comfort measures may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Applying a cool washcloth to the head b. Assisting the client to a position of comfort c. Keeping voices soft and soothing d. Maintaining low lighting in the room e. Providing antipyretics for fever

ANS: A, B, C, D The client with meningitis often has high fever, pain, and some degree of confusion. Cool washcloths to the forehead are comforting and help with pain. Allowing the client to assume a position of comfort also helps manage pain. Keeping voices low and lights dimmed also helps convey caring in a nonthreatening manner. The nurse provides antipyretics for fever.

A nurse is working with many stroke clients. Which clients would the nurse consider referring to a mental health provider on discharge? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Client who exhibits extreme emotional lability b. Client with an initial National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale score of 38 c. Client with mild forgetfulness and a slight limp d. Client who has a past hospitalization for a suicide attempt e. Client who is unable to walk or eat 3 weeks post-stroke

ANS: A, B, D, E Clients most at risk for post-stroke depression are those with a previous history of depression, severe stroke (NIH Stroke Scale score of 38 is severe), and post-stroke physical or cognitive impairment. The client with mild forgetfulness and a slight limp would be a low priority for this referral.

A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Tape a halo wrench to the clients vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the clients oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the clients vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the clients chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest.

A nursing student studying the neurologic system learns which information? *(Select all that apply.)* a. An aneurysm is a ballooning in a weakened part of an arterial wall. b. An arteriovenous malformation is the usual cause of strokes. c. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding directly into the brain. d. Reduced perfusion from vasospasm often makes stroke worse. e. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by high blood pressure.

ANS: A, C, D An aneurysm is a ballooning of the weakened part of an arterial wall. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding directly into the brain. Vasospasm often makes the damage from the initial stroke worse because it causes decreased perfusion. An arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is unusual. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually caused by a ruptured aneurysm or AVM.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What should the nurse understand about this population? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age group.

ANS: A, C, D Older clients often tolerate stress poorly, which includes being admitted to a hospital that is unfamiliar and noisy. Because of decreased protective mechanisms, they are more susceptible to both local and systemic infections. Other medical conditions can complicate their treatment and recovery. Alcohol is typically not related to traumatic brain injury in this population; such injury is most often from falls and motor vehicle crashes. The 65- to 76-year-old age group has the second highest rate of brain injuries compared to other age groups.

The nurse working in the emergency department assesses a client who has symptoms of stroke. For what modifiable risk factors should the nurse assess? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Alcohol intake b. Diabetes c. High-fat diet d. Obesity e. Smoking

ANS: A, C, D, E Alcohol intake, a high-fat diet, obesity, and smoking are all modifiable risk factors for stroke. Diabetes is not modifiable but is a risk factor that can be controlled with medical intervention.

A nurse has applied to work at a hospital that has National Stroke Center designation. The nurse realizes the hospital adheres to eight Core Measures for ischemic stroke care. What do these Core Measures include? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Discharging the client on a statin medication b. Providing the client with comprehensive therapies c. Meeting goals for nutrition within 1 week d. Providing and charting stroke education e. Preventing venous thromboembolism

ANS: A, D, E Core Measures established by The Joint Commission include discharging stroke clients on statins, providing and recording stroke education, and taking measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. The client must be assessed for therapies but may go elsewhere for them. Nutrition goals are not part of the Core Measures.

A nursing student studying traumatic brain injuries (TBIs) should recognize which facts about these disorders? *(Select all that apply.)* a. A client with a moderate trauma may need hospitalization. b. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 indicates a mild brain injury. c. Only open head injuries can cause a severe TBI. d. A client with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 has severe TBI. e. The terms mild TBI and concussion have similar meanings.

ANS: A, D, E Mild TBI is a term used synonymously with the term concussion. A moderate TBI has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9 to 12, and these clients may need to be hospitalized. Both open and closed head injuries can cause a severe TBI, which is characterized by a GCS score of 3 to 8.

A client has an intraventricular catheter. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document intracranial pressure readings. b. Perform hand hygiene before client care. c. Measure intracranial pressure per hospital policy. d. Teach the client and family about the device.

ANS: B All of the actions are appropriate for this client. However, performing hand hygiene takes priority because it prevents infection, which is a possibly devastating complication.

A client with a traumatic brain injury is agitated and fighting the ventilator. What drug should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) b. Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

ANS: B Dexmedetomidine is often used to manage agitation in the client with traumatic brain injury. Carbamazepine is an antiseizure drug. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic.

A client is being prepared for a mechanical embolectomy. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess for contraindications to fibrinolytics. b. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. c. Perform a full neurologic assessment. d. Review the clients medication lists.

ANS: B For this invasive procedure, the client needs to give informed consent. The nurse ensures that this is on the chart prior to the procedure beginning. Fibrinolytics are not used. A neurologic assessment and medication review are important, but the consent is the priority.

A nurse is caring for four clients who might be brain dead. Which client would best meet the criteria to allow assessment of brain death? a. Client with a core temperature of 95 F (35 C) for 2 days b. Client in a coma for 2 weeks from a motor vehicle crash c. Client who is found unresponsive in a remote area of a field by a hunter d. Client with a systolic blood pressure of 92 mm Hg since admission

ANS: B In order to determine brain death, clients must meet four criteria: 1) coma from a known cause, 2) normal or near-normal core temperature, 3) normal systolic blood pressure, and 4) at least one neurologic examination. The client who was in the car crash meets two of these criteria. The clients with the lower temperature and lower blood pressure have only one of these criteria. There is no data to support assessment of brain death in the client found by the hunter.

A student nurse is preparing morning medications for a client who had a stroke. The student plans to hold the docusate sodium (Colace) because the client had a large stool earlier. What action by the supervising nurse is best? a. Have the student ask the client if it is desired or not. b. Inform the student that the docusate should be given. c. Tell the student to document the rationale. d. Tell the student to give it unless the client refuses.

ANS: B Stool softeners should be given to clients with neurologic disorders in order to prevent an elevation in intracranial pressure that accompanies the Valsalva maneuver when constipated. The supervising nurse should instruct the student to administer the docusate. The other options are not appropriate. The medication could be held for diarrhea.

A clients mean arterial pressure is 60 mm Hg and intracranial pressure is 20 mm Hg. Based on the clients cerebral perfusion pressure, what should the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Impending brain herniation b. Poor prognosis and cognitive function c. Probable complete recovery d. Unable to tell from this information

ANS: B The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the intracranial pressure subtracted from the mean arterial pressure: in this case, 60 20 = 40. For optimal outcomes, CPP should be at least 70 mm Hg. This client has very low CPP, which will probably lead to a poorer prognosis with significant cognitive dysfunction should the client survive.

After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 mL/hr. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients magnesium level. b. Assess the clients sodium level. c. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. d. Provide oral care every hour.

ANS: B This client has manifestations of hypernatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse should assess the clients serum sodium level. Magnesium level is not related. The nurse does not independently increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessing laboratory results.

A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt like his legs were very heavy. Currently the clients neurologic examination is normal. About what drug should the nurse plan to teach the client? a. Alteplase (Activase) b. Clopidogrel (Plavix) c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

ANS: B This clients manifestations are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition.

A nurse is dismissing a client from the emergency department who has a mild traumatic brain injury. What information obtained from the client represents a possible barrier to self-management? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Does not want to purchase a thermometer b. Is allergic to acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Laughing, says Strenuous? Whats that? d. Lives alone and is new in town with no friends e. Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home

ANS: B, D, E Clients should take acetaminophen for headache. An allergy to this drug may mean the client takes aspirin or ibuprofen (Motrin), which should be avoided. The client needs neurologic checks every 1 to 2 hours, and this client does not seem to have anyone available who can do that. Alcohol needs to be avoided for at least 24 hours. A thermometer is not needed. The client laughing at strenuous activity probably does not engage in any kind of strenuous activity, but the nurse should confirm this.

A nurse cares for a client with a lower motor neuron injury who is experiencing a flaccid bowel elimination pattern. Which actions should the nurse take to assist in relieving this clients constipation? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Pour warm water over the perineum. b. Provide a diet high in fluids and fiber. c. Administer daily tap water enemas. d. Implement a consistent daily time for elimination. e. Massage the abdomen from left to right. f. Perform manual disimpaction.

ANS: B, D, F For the client with a lower motor neuron injury, the resulting flaccid bowel may require a bowel program for the client that includes stool softeners, increased fluid intake, a high-fiber diet, and a consistent elimination time. If the client becomes impacted, the nurse would need to perform manual disimpaction. Pouring warm water over the perineum, administering daily enemas, and massaging the abdomen would not assist this client.

A nurse is caring for a client after a stroke. What actions may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Assess neurologic status with the Glasgow Coma Scale. b. Check and document oxygen saturation every 1 to 2 hours. c. Cluster client care to allow periods of uninterrupted rest. d. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees to prevent aspiration. e. Position the client supine with the head in a neutral midline position.

ANS: B, E The UAP can take and document vital signs, including oxygen saturation, and keep the clients head in a neutral, midline position with correct direction from the nurse. The nurse assesses the Glasgow Coma Scale score. The nursing staff should not cluster care because this can cause an increase in the intracranial pressure.

A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech-language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that a priority goal for this problem has been met? a. Chooses preferred items from the menu b. Eats 75% to 100% of all meals and snacks c. Has clear lung sounds on auscultation d. Gains 2 pounds after 1 week

ANS: C Impaired swallowing can lead to aspiration, so the priority goal for this problem is no aspiration. Clear lung sounds is the best indicator that aspiration has not occurred. Choosing menu items is not related to this problem. Eating meals does not indicate the client is not still aspirating. A weight gain indicates improved nutrition but still does not show a lack of aspiration.

A nurse is caring for four clients in the neurologic/neurosurgical intensive care unit. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client who has been diagnosed with meningitis with a fever of 101 F (38.3 C) b. Client who had a transient ischemic attack and is waiting for teaching on clopidogrel (Plavix) c. Client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) who has a change in respiratory pattern and rate d. Client who is waiting for subarachnoid bolt insertion with the consent form already signed

ANS: C The client receiving t-PA has a change in neurologic status while receiving this fibrinolytic therapy. The nurse assesses this client first as he or she may have an intracerebral bleed. The client with meningitis has expected manifestations. The client waiting for discharge teaching is a lower priority. The client waiting for surgery can be assessed quickly after the nurse sees the client who is receiving t-PA, or the nurse could delegate checking on this client to another nurse.

A client has a traumatic brain injury and a positive halo sign. The client is in the intensive care unit, sedated and on a ventilator, and is in critical but stable condition. What collaborative problem takes priority at this time? a. Inability to communicate b. Nutritional deficit c. Risk for acquiring an infection d. Risk for skin breakdown

ANS: C The positive halo sign indicates a leak of cerebrospinal fluid. This places the client at high risk of acquiring an infection. Communication and nutrition are not priorities compared with preventing a brain infection. The client has a definite risk for a skin breakdown, but it is not the immediate danger a brain infection would be.

A client had an embolectomy for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM). The client is now reporting a severe headache and has vomited. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer pain medication. b. Assess the clients vital signs. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Raise the head of the bed.

ANS: C This client may be experiencing a rebleed from the AVM. The most important action is to call the Rapid Response Team as this is an emergency. The nurse can assess vital signs while someone else notifies the Team, but getting immediate medical attention is the priority. Administering pain medication may not be warranted if the client must return to surgery. The optimal position for the client with an AVM has not been determined, but calling the Rapid Response Team takes priority over positioning.

The nurse assesses a clients Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score and determines it to be 12 (a 4 in each category). What care should the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Can ambulate independently b. May have trouble swallowing c. Needs frequent re-orientation d. Will need near-total care

ANS: C This client will most likely be confused and need frequent re-orientation. The client may not be able to ambulate at all but should do so independently, not because of mental status. Swallowing is not assessed with the GCS. The client will not need near-total care.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar laminectomy. Which complications should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? *(Select all that apply)* a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headache

ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after a laminectomy strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebral spinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache, which is also an emergency situation. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the clients hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? *(Select all that apply.)* a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Re-position the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the clients risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the clients hips and sacrum.

The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with cerebral perfusion pressure of 72 mm Hg b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg who is on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102 F (38.9 C)

ANS: D A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in clients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and cerebral perfusion pressure of 72 mm Hg are all desired outcomes.

A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.

A client in the intensive care unit is scheduled for a lumbar puncture (LP) today. On assessment, the nurse finds the client breathing irregularly with one pupil fixed and dilated. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. b. Document these findings in the clients record. c. Give the prescribed preprocedure sedation. d. Notify the provider of the findings immediately.

ANS: D This client is exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the provider immediately because performing the LP now could lead to herniation. Informed consent is needed for an LP, but this is not the priority. Documentation should be thorough, but again this is not the priority. The preprocedure sedation (or other preprocedure medications) should not be given as the LP will most likely be canceled.

A nurse receives a report on a client who had a left-sided stroke and has homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the clients lungs after eating or drinking. c. Prop the clients right side up when sitting in a chair. d. Rotate the clients meal tray when the client stops eating.

ANS: D This condition is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. The client may not see all the food on the tray, so the nurse rotates it so uneaten food is now within the visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control.

A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is scheduled for magnetic resonance angiography. Which priority question should the nurse ask before the test? a. Have you had a recent blood transfusion? b. Do you have allergies to iodine or shellfish? c. Are you taking any cardiac medications? d. Do you currently use oral contraceptives?

B Allergies to iodine and/or shellfish need to be explored because the client may have a similar reaction to the dye used in the procedure. In some cases, the client may need to be medicated with antihistamines or steroids before the test is given. A recent blood transfusion or current use of cardiac medications or oral contraceptives would not affect the angiography.

A nurse assesses the health history of a client who is prescribed ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain. Which assessment question should the nurse ask? a. Are you taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug? b. Do you have a mental health disorder? c. Are you able to swallow medications? d. Do you smoke cigarettes or any illegal drugs?

B Clients who have a mental health or behavioral health problem should not take ziconotide. The other questions do not identify a contraindication for this medication.

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a spinal fusion. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients postoperative instructions? a. Only lift items that are 10 pounds or less. b. Wear your brace whenever you are out of bed. c. You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery. d. You are prescribed medications to prevent rejection.

B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a brace that they must wear throughout the healing process (usually 3 to 6 months) whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything. The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.

A nurse plans care for a client who has a hypoactive response to a test of deep tendon reflexes. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Check bath water temperature with a thermometer. b. Provide the client with assistance when ambulating. c. Place elastic support hose on the clients legs. d. Assess the clients feet every shift.

B Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes and loss of vibration sense can impair balance and coordination, predisposing the client to falls. The nurse should plan to provide the client with ambulation assistance to prevent injury. The other interventions do not address the clients problem.

An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

B Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.

A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis who is prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and methylprednisolone (Medrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. Take warm baths to promote muscle relaxation. b. Avoid crowds and people with colds. c. Relying on a walker will weaken your gait. d. Take prescribed medications when symptoms occur.

B The client should be taught to avoid people with any type of upper respiratory illness because these medications are immunosuppressive. Warm baths will exacerbate the clients symptoms. Assistive devices may be required for safe ambulation. Medication should be taken at all times and should not be stopped.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar puncture (LP). Which complication of this procedure should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Weak pedal pulses b. Nausea and vomiting c. Increased thirst d. Hives on the chest

B The nurse should immediately contact the provider if the client experiences a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or a change in level of consciousness after an LP, which are all signs of increased intracranial pressure. Weak pedal pulses, increased thirst, and hives are not complications of an LP.

After a hospitals emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred clients from a community disaster to appropriate units, the hospital incident command officer wants to stand down from the emergency plan. Which question should the nursing supervisor ask at this time? a. Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED? b. Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need? c. Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently? d. Does the Chief Medical Officer agree this disaster is under control?

B Before standing down, the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more walking wounded victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can stand down.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department (ED). Which client should the nurse prioritize to receive care first? a. A 22-year-old with a painful and swollen right wrist b. A 45-year-old reporting chest pain and diaphoresis c. A 60-year-old reporting difficulty swallowing and nausea d. An 81-year-old with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min and a temperature of 101 F

B A 45-year-old reporting chest pain and diaphoresis A client experiencing chest pain and diaphoresis would be classified as emergent and would be triaged immediately to a treatment room in the ED. The other clients are more stable.

A nurse is evaluating levels and functions of trauma centers. Which function is appropriately paired with the level of the trauma center? a. Level I Located within remote areas and provides advanced life support within resource capabilities b. Level II Located within community hospitals and provides care to most injured clients c. Level III Located in rural communities and provides only basic care to clients d. Level IV Located in large teaching hospitals and provides a full continuum of trauma care for all clients

B Level II located within community hospitals and provides care to most injured clients Level I trauma centers are usually located in large teaching hospital systems and provide a full continuum of trauma care for all clients. Both Level II and Level III facilities are usually located in community hospitals. These trauma centers provide care for most clients and transport to Level I centers when client needs exceed resource capabilities. Level IV trauma centers are usually located in rural and remote areas. These centers provide basic care, stabilization, and advanced life support while transfer arrangements to higher-level trauma centers are made.

A nurse is caring for clients in a busy emergency department. Which actions should the nurse take to ensure client and staff safety? *(Select all that apply)* a. Leave the stretcher in the lowest position with rails down so that the client can access the bathroom. b. Use two identifiers before each intervention and before mediation administration. c. Attempt de-escalation strategies for clients who demonstrate aggressive behaviors. d. Search the belongings of clients with altered mental status to gain essential medical information. e. Isolate clients who have immune suppression disorders to prevent hospital-acquired infections.

B, C, D To ensure client and staff safety, nurses should use two identifiers per The Joint Commissions National Patient Safety Goals; follow the hospitals security plan, including de-escalation strategies for people who demonstrate aggressive or violent tendencies; and search belongings to identify essential medical information. Nurses should also use standard fall prevention interventions, including leaving stretchers in the lowest position with rails up, and isolating clients who present with signs and symptoms of contagious infectious disorders.

An emergency room nurse is caring for a trauma client. Which interventions should the nurse perform during the primary survey? *(Select all that apply)* a. Foley catheterization b. Needle decompression c. Initiating IV fluids d. Splinting open fractures e. Endotracheal intubation f. Removing wet clothing g. Laceration repair

B, C, E, F The primary survey for a trauma client organizes the approach to the client so that life-threatening injuries are rapidly identified and managed. The primary survey is based on the standard mnemonic ABC, with an added D and E: Airway and cervical spine control; Breathing; Circulation; Disability; and Exposure. After the completion of primary diagnostic and laboratory studies, and the insertion of gastric and urinary tubes, the secondary survey (a complete head-to-toe assessment) can be carried out.

After administering a medication that stimulates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, the nurse assesses the client. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? *(Select all that apply)* a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased level of consciousness d. Increased force of contraction e. Decreased blood pressure

B, D Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system initiates the fight-or-flight response, increasing both the heart rate and the force of contraction. A medication that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system would also increase the clients respiratory rate, blood pressure, and level of consciousness.

A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event. Which functions are correctly paired with the personnel role? *(Select all that apply)* a. Paramedic Decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients b. Hospital incident commander Assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan c. Public information officer Provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital d. Triage officer Rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment e. Medical command physician Serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media

B, D The hospital incident commander assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. The paramedic provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital. The public information officer serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients.

A nurse assesses a client with an injury to the medulla. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? *(Select all that apply)* a. Loss of smell b. Impaired swallowing c. Visual changes d. Inability to shrug shoulders e. Loss of gag reflex

B, D, E Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (accessory), and XII (hypoglossal) emerge from the medulla, as do portions of cranial nerves VII (facial) and VIII (acoustic). Damage to these nerves causes impaired swallowing, inability to shrug shoulders, and loss of the gag reflex. The other manifestations are not associated with damage to the medulla.

A nurse assesses an older client. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as normal changes in the nervous system related to aging? *(Select all that apply)* a. Long-term memory loss b. Slower processing time c. Increased sensory perception d. Decreased risk for infection e. Change in sleep patterns

B, E Normal changes in the nervous system related to aging include recent memory loss, slower processing time, decreased sensory perception, an increased risk for infection, changes in sleep patterns, changes in perception of pain, and altered balance and/or decreased coordination.

A hospital prepares to receive large numbers of casualties from a community disaster. Which clients should the nurse identify as appropriate for discharge or transfer to another facility? *(Select all that apply)* a. Older adult in the medical decision unit for evaluation of chest pain b. Client who had open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture 3 days ago c. Client admitted last night with community-acquired pneumonia d. Infant who has a fever of unknown origin e. Client on the medical unit for wound care

B, E The client with the femur fracture could be transferred to a rehabilitation facility, and the client on the medical unit for wound care should be transferred home with home health or to a long-term care facility for ongoing wound care. The client in the medical decision unit should be identified for dismissal if diagnostic testing reveals a noncardiac source of chest pain. The newly admitted client with pneumonia would not be a good choice because culture results are not yet available and antibiotics have not been administered long enough. The infant does not have a definitive diagnosis.

A client presents to the emergency department after prolonged exposure to the cold. The client is difficult to arouse and speech is incoherent. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Reposition the client into a prone position. b. Administer warmed intravenous fluids to the client. c. Wrap the clients extremities in warm blankets. d. Initiate extracorporeal rewarming via hemodialysis.

B. Administer warmed IV fluids to the client Moderate hypothermia manifests with muscle weakness, increased loss of coordination, acute confusion, apathy, incoherence, stupor, and impaired clotting. Moderate hypothermia should be treated by core rewarming methods, which include administration of warm IV fluids, heated oxygen, and heated peritoneal, pleural, gastric, or bladder lavage, and by positioning the client in a supine position to prevent orthostatic changes. The clients trunk should be warmed prior to the extremities to prevent peripheral vasodilation. Extracorporeal warming with cardiopulmonary bypass or hemodialysis is a treatment for severe hypothermia.

A trauma client with multiple open wounds is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which action should the nurse take prior to providing advanced cardiac life support? a. Contact the on-call orthopedic surgeon. b. Don personal protective equipment. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Obtain a complete history from the paramedic.

B. Don PPE Nurses must recognize and plan for a high risk of contamination with blood and body fluids when engaging in trauma resuscitation. Standard Precautions should be taken in all resuscitation situations and at other times when exposure to blood and body fluids is likely. Proper attire consists of an impervious cover gown, gloves, eye protection, a face mask, a surgical cap, and shoe covers.

A provider prescribes diazepam (Valium) to a client who was bitten by a black widow spider. The client asks, What is this medication for? How should the nurse respond? a. This medication is an antivenom for this type of bite. b. It will relieve your muscle rigidity and spasms. c. It prevents respiratory difficulty from excessive secretions. d. This medication will prevent respiratory failure.

B. It will relieve your muscle rigidity and spasms Black widow spider venom produces a syndrome known as latrodectism, which manifests as severe abdominal pain, muscle rigidity and spasm, hypertension, and nausea and vomiting. Diazepam is a muscle relaxant that can relieve pain related to muscle rigidity and spasms. It does not prevent respiratory difficulty or failure.

On a hot humid day, an emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is confused and has these vital signs: temperature 104.1 F (40.1 C), pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min, blood pressure 106/66 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the client to drink cool water or sports drinks. b. Start an intravenous line and infuse 0.9% saline solution. c. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally. d. Encourage rest and re-assess in 15 minutes.

B. Start an IV line and infuse 0.9% NS The client demonstrates signs of heat stroke. This is a medical emergency and priority care includes oxygen therapy, IV infusion with 0.9% saline solution, insertion of a urinary catheter, and aggressive interventions to cool the client, including external cooling and internal cooling methods. Oral hydration would not be appropriate for a client who has symptoms of heat stroke because oral fluids would not provide necessary rapid rehydration, and the confused client would be at risk for aspiration. Acetaminophen would not decrease this clients temperature or improve the clients symptoms. The client needs immediate medical treatment; therefore, rest and re-assessing in 15 minutes is inappropriate.

A nurse plans care for a client admitted with a snakebite to the right leg. With whom should the nurse collaborate? a. The facility's neurologist b. The poison control center c. The physical therapy department d. A herpetologist (snake specialist)

B. The poison control center For the client with a snakebite, the nurse should contact the regional poison control center immediately for specific advice on antivenom administration and client management.

The ED is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a client when the clients spouse arrives at the ED. Which action should the nurse take FIRST? A. request that the clients spouse sit in the waiting room B. ask the spouse if he wishes to be present during the resuscitation C. suggest that the spouse begin to pray for the client D. refer the clients spouse to the hospitals crisis team

B. ask the spouse if he wishes to be present during the resuscitation If resuscitation are still under way when the family arrives, one or two family members may be given the opportunity to be present during lifesaving procedures. The other options do not give the spouse the opportunity to be present for the client or to begin to have closure.

A nurse cares for several clients on a neurologic unit. Which prescription for a client should direct the nurse to ensure that an informed consent has been obtained before the test or procedure? a. Sensation measurement via the pinprick method b. Computed tomography of the cranial vault c. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid sampling d. Venipuncture for autoantibody analysis

C A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure with many potentially serious complications. The other assessments or tests are considered noninvasive and do not require an informed consent.

A nurse is teaching a client with cerebellar function impairment. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. Connect a light to flash when your door bell rings. b. Label your faucet knobs with hot and cold signs. c. Ask a friend to drive you to your follow-up appointments. d. Use a natural gas detector with an audible alarm.``

C Cerebellar function enables the client to predict distance or gauge the speed with which one is approaching an object, control voluntary movement, maintain equilibrium, and shift from one skilled movement to another in an orderly sequence. A client who has cerebellar function impairment should not be driving. The client would not have difficulty hearing, distinguishing between hot and cold, or smelling.

A nurse plans care for an 83-year-old client who is experiencing age-related sensory perception changes. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Provide a call button that requires only minimal pressure to activate. b. Write the date on the clients white board to promote orientation. c. Ensure that the path to the bathroom is free from equipment. d. Encourage the client to season food to stimulate nutritional intake.

C Dementia and confusion are not common phenomena in older adults. However, physical impairment related to illness can be expected. Providing opportunities for hazard-free ambulation will maintain strength and mobility (and ensure safety). Providing a call button, providing the date, and seasoning food do not address the clients impaired sensory perception.

A nurse assesses a client with early-onset multiple sclerosis (MS). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Hyperresponsive reflexes b. Excessive somnolence c. Nystagmus d. Heat intolerance

C Early signs and symptoms of MS include changes in motor skills, vision, and sensation. Hyperresponsive reflexes, excessive somnolence, and heat intolerance are later manifestations of MS.

A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod (Gilenya). For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Black tarry stools c. Bradycardia d. Nausea and vomiting

C Fingolimod (Gilenya) is an antineoplastic agent that can cause bradycardia, especially within the first 6 hours after administration. Peripheral edema, black and tarry stools, and nausea and vomiting are not adverse effects of fingolimod.

A nurse plans care for a client with lower back pain from a work-related injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Encourage the client to stretch the back by reaching toward the toes. b. Massage the affected area with ice twice a day. c. Apply a heating pad for 20 minutes at least four times daily. d. Advise the client to avoid warm baths or showers.

C Heat increases blood flow to the affected area and promotes healing of injured nerves. Stretching and ice will not promote healing, and there is no need to avoid warm baths or showers.

A nurse asks a client to take deep breaths during an electroencephalography. The client asks, Why are you asking me to do this? How should the nurse respond? a. Hyperventilation causes vascular dilation of cerebral arteries, which decreases electoral activity in the brain. b. Deep breathing helps you to relax and allows the electroencephalograph to obtain a better waveform. c. Hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction and increases the likelihood of seizure activity. d. Deep breathing will help you to blow off carbon dioxide and decreases intracranial pressures.

C Hyperventilation produces cerebral vasoconstriction and alkalosis, which increases the likelihood of seizure activity. The client is asked to breathe deeply 20 to 30 times for 3 minutes. The other responses are not accurate.

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a computed tomography scan of the head with contrast medium. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement? a. Educate the client about strict bedrest after the procedure. b. Place an indwelling urinary catheter to closely monitor output. c. Obtain a prescription for intravenous fluids. d. Contact the provider to cancel the procedure.

C If a contrast medium is used, intravenous fluid may be given to promote excretion of the contrast medium. Contrast medium also may act as a diuretic, resulting in the need for fluid replacement. The client will not require bedrest. Although urinary output should be monitored closely, there is no need for an indwelling urinary catheter. There is no need to cancel the procedure as long as actions are taken to protect the kidneys.

After teaching a client who is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I must increase my fluids because of the dye used for the MRI. b. My urine will be radioactive so I should not share a bathroom. c. I can return to my usual activities immediately after the MRI. d. My gag reflex will be tested before I can eat or drink anything.

C No postprocedure restrictions are imposed after MRI. The client can return to normal activities after the test is complete. There are no dyes or radioactive materials used for the MRI; therefore, increased fluids are not needed and the clients urine would not be radioactive. The procedure does not impact the clients gag reflex.

A nurse teaches an 80-year-old client with diminished touch sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Place soft rugs in your bathroom to decrease pain in your feet. b. Bathe in warm water to increase circulation. c. Look at placement of feet when walking. d. Walk barefoot to decrease pressure ulcers from your shoes.

C Older clients with decreased sensation are at risk of injury from the inability to sense changes in terrain when walking. To compensate for this loss, the client is instructed to look at the placement of her or his feet when walking. Throw rugs can slip and increase fall risk. Bath water that is too warm places the client at risk for thermal injury. The client should wear sturdy shoes for ambulation.

A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for lower back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques c. A 45-year-old male with osteoarthritis d. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker

C Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the clients risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk.

A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better. How should the nurse respond? a. If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, Ill let the provider know. b. Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance. c. The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability. d. When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first.

C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this clients needs.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The clients blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. The client opens his eyes when the nurse calls his name, mumbles in response to questions, and follows simple commands. How should the nurse document this clients assessment using the Glasgow Coma Scale shown below? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

C The client opens his eyes to speech (Eye opening: To sound = 3), mumbles in response to questions (Verbal response: Inappropriate words = 3), and follows simple commands (Motor response: obeys commands = 6).

A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.

An emergency department charge nurse notes an increase in sick calls and bickering among the staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. Which action should the nurse take? a. Organize a pizza party for each shift. b. Remind the staff of the facility's sick-leave policy. c. Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing. d. Talk individually with staff members.

C The staff may be suffering from critical incident stress and needs to have a debriefing by the critical incident stress management team to prevent the consequences of long-term, unabated stress. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as a group debriefing. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful, but are not as important and beneficial as a debriefing.

A nurse prepares to teach a client who has experienced damage to the left temporal lobe of the brain. Which action should the nurse take when providing education about newly prescribed medications to this client? a. Help the client identify each medication by its color. b. Provide written materials with large print size. c. Sit on the clients right side and speak into the right ear. d. Allow the client to use a white board to ask questions.

C The temporal lobe contains the auditory center for sound interpretation. The clients hearing will be impaired in the left ear. The nurse should sit on the clients right side and speak into the right ear. The other interventions do not address the clients left temporal lobe damage.

A nurse cares for clients during a community-wide disaster drill. Once of the clients asks, Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care? How should the nurse respond? a. To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some. b. Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on. c. In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others. d. With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care.

C In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Clients are not sacrificed. Telling students to move on after identifying the expectant dead belittles their feelings and does not provide an adequate explanation. Clients are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.

A nurse is caring for a client whose wife died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client says, I cant believe that my wife is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself. How should the nurse respond? a. Please accept my sympathies for your loss. b. I can call the hospital chaplain if you wish. c. You sound anxious about being a single parent. d. At least your children still have you in their lives.

C Therapeutic communication includes active listening and honesty. This statement demonstrates that the nurse recognizes the clients distress and has provided an opening for discussion. Extending sympathy and offering to call the chaplain do not give the client the opportunity to discuss feelings. Stating that the children still have one parent discounts the clients feelings and situation.

While triaging clients in a crowded emergency department, a nurse assesses a client who presents with symptoms of tuberculosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Administer intravenous 0.9% saline solution. c. Transfer the client to a negative-pressure room. d. Obtain a sputum culture and sensitivity.

C Transfer the client to a negative-pressure room A client with signs and symptoms of tuberculosis or other airborne pathogens should be placed in a negative- pressure room to prevent contamination of staff, clients, and family members in the crowded emergency department.

After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? *(Select all that apply.)* a. I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner. b. I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury. c. Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before. d. I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection. e. I should be able to have an erection with stimulation.

C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the clients partner will not get an infection.

An emergency room nurse is triaging victims of a multi-casualty event. Which client should receive care first? A 30-year-old distraught mother holding her crying child B. 65-year-old conscious male with a head laceration C. 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin D. 48-year-old with a simple fracture of the lower leg

C. 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin The client with pale, cool, clammy skin is in shock and needs immediate medical attention. The mother does not have injuries and so would be the lowest priority. The other two people need medical attention soon, but not at the expense of a person in shock.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client should the nurse classify as nonurgent? a. A 44-year-old with chest pain and diaphoresis b. A 50-year-old with chest trauma and absent breath sounds c. A 62-year-old with a simple fracture of the left arm d. A 79-year-old with a temperature of 104 F

C. A 62-year-old with a simple fracture of the left arm A client in a nonurgent category can tolerate waiting several hours for health care services without a significant risk of clinical deterioration. The client with a simple arm fracture and palpable radial pulses is currently stable, is not at significant risk of clinical deterioration, and would be considered nonurgent. The client with chest pain and diaphoresis and the client with chest trauma are emergent owing to the potential for clinical deterioration and would be seen immediately. The client with a high fever may be stable now but also has a risk of deterioration.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client should be considered urgent? a. A 20-year-old female with a chest stab wound and tachycardia b. A 45-year-old homeless man with a skin rash and sore throat c. A 75-year-old female with a cough and a temperature of 102 F d. A 50-year-old male with new-onset confusion and slurred speech

C. A 75-year-old female with a cough a temperature of 102 F A client with a cough and a temperature of 102 F is urgent. This client is at risk for deterioration and needs to be seen quickly, but is not in an immediately life-threatening situation. The client with a chest stab wound and tachycardia and the client with new-onset confusion and slurred speech should be triaged as emergent. The client with a skin rash and a sore throat is not at risk for deterioration and would be triaged as nonurgent.

A provider prescribes Crotalidae Polyvalent Immune Fab (CroFab) for a client who is admitted after being bitten by a pit viper snake. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to administering this medication? a. Assess temperature and for signs of fever. b. Check the clients creatinine kinase level. c. Ask about allergies to pineapple or papaya. d. Inspect the skin for signs of urticaria (hives).

C. Ask about allergies to pineapple and papaya CroFab is an antivenom for pit viper snakebites. Clients should be assessed for hypersensitivity to bromelain (a pineapple derivative), papaya, and sheep protein prior to administration. During and after administration, the nurse should assess for urticaria, fever, and joint pain, which are signs of serum sickness.

A nurse assesses a client recently bitten by a coral snake. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Unilateral peripheral swelling b. Clotting times c. Cardiopulmonary status d. Electrocardiogram rhythm

C. Cardiopulmonary status Manifestations of coral snake envenomation are the result of its neurotoxic properties. The physiologic effect is to block neurotransmission, which produces ascending paralysis, reduced perception of pain, and, ultimately, respiratory paralysis. The nurse should monitor for respiratory rate and depth. Severe swelling and clotting problems do not occur with coral snakes but do occur with pit viper snakes. Electrocardiogram rhythm is not affected by neurotoxins.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is homeless. Which action should the nurse take to gain the clients trust? a. Speak in a quiet and monotone voice. b. Avoid eye contact with the client. c. Listen to the clients concerns and needs. d. Ask security to store the clients belongings.

C. Listen to the client's concerns and needs To demonstrate behaviors that promote trust with homeless clients, the emergency room nurse should make eye contact (if culturally appropriate), speak calmly, avoid any prejudicial or stereotypical remarks, show genuine care and concern by listening, and follow through on promises. The nurse should also respect the clients belongings and personal space.

After teaching a client how to prevent altitude-related illnesses, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching? a. If my climbing partner cant think straight, we should descend to a lower altitude. b. I will ask my provider about medications to help prevent acute mountain sickness. c. My partner and I will plan to sleep at a higher elevation to acclimate more quickly. d. I will drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated while on the mountain.

C. My partner and I will plan to sleep at a higher elevation to acclimate more quickly Teaching to prevent altitude-related illness should include descending when symptoms start, staying hydrated, and taking acetazolamide (Diamox), which is commonly used to prevent and treat acute mountain sickness. The client should be taught to sleep at a lower elevation.

An emergency department (ED) case manager is consulted for a client who is homeless. Which intervention should the case manager provide? a. Communicate client needs and restrictions to support staff. b. Prescribe low-cost antibiotics to treat community-acquired infection. c. Provide referrals to subsidized community-based health clinics. d. Offer counseling for substance abuse and mental health disorders.

C. Provide referrals to subsidized community-based health clinics. Case management interventions include facilitating referrals to primary care providers who are accepting new clients or to subsidized community-based health clinics for clients or families in need of routine services. The ED nurse is accountable for communicating pertinent staff considerations, client needs, and restrictions to support staff (e.g., physical limitations, isolation precautions) to ensure that ongoing client and staff safety issues are addressed. The ED physician prescribes medications and treatments. The psychiatric nurse team evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates the follow-up treatment plan, including possible admission to an appropriate psychiatric facility.

An ER nurse assesses a client who has been raped. With which health care team member should the nurse collaborate with when planning the client's care? A. emergency physician B. case manager C. forensic nurse examiner D. psychiatric crisis nurse

C. forensic nurse examiner All other members of the health care team listed may used in management of the clients care. However, the forensic nurse examiner is educated to obtain client histories and collect evidence dealing with the assault, and can offer the counseling and follow-up needed when dealing with the victim of an assault.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a diskectomy 6 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse address first? a. Sleepy but arouses to voice b. Dry and cracked oral mucosa c. Pain present in lower back d. Bladder palpated above pubis

D A distended bladder may indicate damage to the sacral spinal nerves. The other findings require the nurse to provide care but are not the priority or a complication of the procedure.

A nurse cares for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client states, I do not want to be placed on a mechanical ventilator. How should the nurse respond? a. You should discuss this with your family and health care provider. b. Why are you afraid of being placed on a breathing machine? c. Using the incentive spirometer each hour will delay the need for a ventilator. d. What would you like to be done if you begin to have difficulty breathing?

D ALS is an adult-onset upper and lower motor neuron disease characterized by progressive weakness, muscle wasting, and spasticity, eventually leading to paralysis. Once muscles of breathing are involved, the client must indicate in the advance directive what is to be done when breathing is no longer possible without intervention. The other statements do not address the clients needs.

A nurse assesses a clients recent memory. Which client statement confirms that the clients remote memory is intact? a. A young girl wrapped in a shroud fell asleep on a bed of clouds. b. I was born on April 3, 1967, in Johnstown Community Hospital. c. Apple, chair, and pencil are the words you just stated. d. I ate oatmeal with wheat toast and orange juice for breakfast.

D Asking clients about recent events that can be verified, such as what the client ate for breakfast, assesses the clients recent memory. The clients ability to make up a rhyme tests not memory, but rather a higher level of cognition. Asking clients about certain facts from the past that can be verified assesses remote or long-term memory. Asking the client to repeat words assesses the clients immediate memory.

A nurse assesses a client with a neurologic disorder. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a late manifestation of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Dysarthria b. Dysphagia c. Muscle weakness d. Impairment of respiratory muscles

D In ALS, progressive muscle atrophy occurs until a flaccid quadriplegia develops. Eventually, the respiratory muscles are involved, which leads to respiratory compromise. Dysarthria, dysphagia, and muscle weakness are early clinical manifestations of ALS.

A nurse teaches a client with a lower motor neuron lesion who wants to achieve bladder control. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Stroke the inner aspect of your thigh to initiate voiding. b. Use a clean technique for intermittent catheterization. c. Implement digital anal stimulation when your bladder is full. d. Tighten your abdominal muscles to stimulate urine flow.

D In clients with lower motor neuron problems such as spinal cord injury, performing a Valsalva maneuver or tightening the abdominal muscles are interventions that can initiate voiding. Stroking the inner aspect of the thigh may initiate voiding in a client who has an upper motor neuron problem. Intermittent catheterization and digital anal stimulation do not initiate voiding or bladder control.

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing deteriorating neurologic functions. The client states, I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children. How should the nurse respond? a. Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you have to. b. Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so you have energy to care for your children. c. You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to your changing status? d. Give me more information about what worries you, so we can see if we can do something to make adjustments.

D Investigate specific concerns about situational or role changes before providing additional information. The nurse should not tell the client what is or is not a priority for him or her. Although community resources may be available, they may not be appropriate for the client. Consulting a psychologist would not be appropriate without obtaining further information from the client related to current concerns.

A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which condition should alert the nurse to contact the provider and cancel the procedure? a. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) of 100 IU/L b. Atrioventricular graft c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 50 mg/dL d. Internal insulin pump

D Metal devices such as internal pumps, pacemakers, and prostheses interfere with the accuracy of the image and can become displaced by the magnetic force generated by an MRI procedure. An atrioventricular graft does not contain any metal. CPK and BUN levels have no impact on an MRI procedure.

A nurse prepares a client for prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which action should the nurse implement prior to the test? a. Implement nothing by mouth (NPO) status for 8 hours. b. Withhold all daily medications until after the examination. c. Administer morphine sulfate to prevent claustrophobia during the test. d. Place the client in a gown that has cloth ties instead of metal snaps.

D Metal objects are a hazard because of the magnetic field used in the MRI procedure. Morphine sulfate is not administered to prevent claustrophobia; lorazepam (Ativan) or diazepam (Valium) may be used instead. The client does not need to be NPO, and daily medications do not need to be withheld prior to MRI.

A nurse cares for a client who presents with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Baclofen (Lioresal) b. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) c. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) d. Methylprednisolone (Medrol)

D Methylprednisolone is the drug of choice for acute exacerbations of the disease. The other drugs are not used to treat acute exacerbations of MS. Interferon beta-1b is used to treat and control MS, decrease specific symptoms, and slow the progression of the disease. Baclofen and dantrolene sodium are prescribed to lessen muscle spasticity associated with MS.

An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.

A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How should the nurse respond? a. Do you need something for pain right now? b. Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could. c. I suggest that you get control of yourself. d. You seem upset. I have time to talk if you'd like.

D Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the clients options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.

A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition should the nurse triage with a red tag? a. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg b. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose c. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath

D Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath most likely has developed a pneumothorax, which may be fatal if not treated immediately. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II; these major but stable injuries can wait 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the walking wounded and classified as nonurgent.

An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event? a. Ask ED staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room for critically injured victims. b. Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to assist when victims are brought in. c. Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims may be handled by the ED. d. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.

D The ED charge nurse should direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they should not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The house supervisor and unit directors would collaborate to discharge stable clients. The hospital incident commander is responsible for mobilizing resources and would have the responsibility for calling in staff. The medical command physician would be the person best able to communicate with on-scene personnel regarding the ability to take more clients.

A nurse prepares to discharge an older adult client home from the emergency department (ED). Which actions should the nurse take to prevent future ED visits? *(Select all that apply)* a. Provide medical supplies to the family. b. Consult a home health agency. c. Encourage participation in community activities. d. Screen for depression and suicide. e. Complete a functional assessment.

D, E Due to the high rate of suicide among older adults, a nurse should assess all older adults for depression and suicide. The nurse should also screen older adults for functional assessment, cognitive assessment, and risk for falls to prevent future ED visits.

While at a public park, a nurse encounters a person immediately after a bee sting. The persons lips are swollen, and wheezes are audible. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Elevate the site and notify the persons next of kin. b. Remove the stinger with tweezers and encourage rest. c. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and apply ice. d. Administer an EpiPen from the first aid kit and call 911.

D. Administer an EpiPen from the first aid kit and call 911. The clients swollen lips indicate that anaphylaxis may be developing, and this is a medical emergency. 911 should be called immediately, and the client transported to the emergency department as quickly as possible. If an EpiPen is available, it should be administered at the first sign of an anaphylactic reaction. The other answers do not provide adequate interventions to treat airway obstruction due to anaphylaxis.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who has died from a suspected homicide. Which action should the nurse take? a. Remove all tubes and wires in preparation for the medical examiner. b. Limit the number of visitors to minimize the family's trauma. c. Consult the bereavement committee to follow up with the grieving family. d. Communicate the clients death to the family in a simple and concrete manner.

D. Communicate the clients death to the family in a simple and concrete manner. When dealing with clients and families in crisis, communicate in a simple and concrete manner to minimize confusion. Tubes must remain in place for the medical examiner. Family should be allowed to view the body. Offering to call for additional family support during the crisis is suggested. The bereavement committee should be consulted, but this is not the priority at this time.

A nurse assesses a client admitted with a brown recluse spider bite. Which priority assessment should the nurse perform to identify complications of this bite? a. Ask the client about pruritus at the bite site. b. Inspect the bite site for a bluish purple vesicle. c. Assess the extremity for redness and swelling. d. Monitor the clients temperature every 4 hours.

D. Monitor the client's temperature every 4 hours Fever and chills indicate systemic toxicity, which can lead to hemolytic reactions, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, cardiovascular collapse, and death. Assessing for a fever should be the nurses priority. All other symptoms are normal for a brown recluse bite and should be assessed, but they do not provide information about complications from the bite, and therefore are not the priority.