Airports, Airspace, and ATC
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
080 and 260 magnetic
How long will a Flight Service Station hold a VFR flight plan past the proposed departure time?
1 hour
A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline indicates?
1,000 ft of runway remaining
Figure 47 - Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?
1,200 ft AGL
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of...
10 miles
Figure 47 - What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?
10 miles
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating within
10 miles of any airport
When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on
122.9 MHz
The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is
123.0
Figure 55 - On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Dallas Executive when the control tower is not in operation?
127.25
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
18,000 feet MSL
Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is
18,000 ft MSL
Normally the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
2,500 ft
Figure 47 - What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?
20 NM
Figure 55 - At what time does the tower shut down at Dallas Executive?
2100 local
The visual glidepath of a 2 bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?
4 NM
Figure 47 - Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?
4,000 feet above airport
Figure 47 - Class C airspace usually extends up to
4,000 ft above airport
An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?
5 clicks
Figure 47 - What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?
5 miles
Figure 55 - What is the elevation of the Maverick VORTAC?
540 feet
Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet?
6 miles
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, 7700
Which transponder code should the pilot of a civil aircraft never use?
7777
If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered in a flight plan is
A
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
Beyond the jet's touchdown point
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
Chart supplement
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
Current NOTAM D and FDC NOTAMs
What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
Delineates runway with displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway
What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from taxiway
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes intersecting runways
What does a destination sign identify?
Direction to takeoff runways
When information is disseminated for a temporary flight restriction (TFR), it will be located in
FDC NOTAMS
What is the purpose of the hold position markings on a holding bay?
Holds aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operational need
What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
Holds aircraft short of the runway
If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and RNAV, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on the flight plan is
I
If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 ft AGL, it will be designated by
IR or VR and a four digit number
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies direction to take-off runways
What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?
Identifies taxiway does not continue beyond intersection
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white
You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hotspot"?
In the Chart Supplement U.S.
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
Figure 54 - Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
Left hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right hand traffic on Rwy 27
What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern?
Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area
When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in
NOTAM (D) distribution
When information is disseminated for a navigational facility, it will be located in
NOTAM (D) distribution
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
How much time do you have to close a VFR flight plan before search and rescue procedures are initiated?
One half hour after your ETA
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
Outward, upward, and around each tip
Public figures are protected by
Temporary Flight Restrictions
What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?
That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing
When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to class E or a combination of class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation
When on the upper glidepath of a 3 bar VASI, what would be the colors of the lights?
The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red
Figure 55 - Select the correct statement regarding Dallas Love Field
The runway gradient for RWY 18 is less than .3 percent
What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex
What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two way communications and a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?
Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft
A military airfield can be identified by
a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon
Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly
above the flight path of the large aircraft
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake
Most midair collision accidents occur during
clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids
To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must
contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established
from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the US
ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock," this advisory is relative to your
ground track
Figure 54 - The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is
left hand for Rwy 35 and right hand for Rwy 17
A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by
one white light and three red lights
The "No Entry" sign identifies
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is
permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has...
received prior authorization from the controlling agency
A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for purpose of
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic
When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot
should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with continuous lines, the pilot
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL, up to but not including
the base of the overlying controlled airspace
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
the ceiling is at least 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more
The "ILS critical area boundry" sign identifies
the edge of the ILS critical area
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
A slightly below glidepath indication on a 2-bar VASI glidepath is indicated by
two red lights over two more red lights
The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated at
up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL
