Anatomy and Physiology chapters 1,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16

Compared to the should joint, the complete dislocation of the knee joint is rare because:

the knee joint is stabilized by 7 major ligaments

Delta Waves

the large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep

Serous membrane

thin epithelium that lines the walls of the thoracic & abdominal cavities and covers the viscera within those cavities

Zone of Calcified cartilage

thin layer of dead cartilage cells and calcified matrix (Rabbits Prefer Hopping "Continuously")

articular cartilage

thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the ends of bones where they form a joint

Endosteum

thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity (reticular connective tissue)

Cerebral Cortex

thin outer layer of grey matter which covers surface of cerebrum. involved in sensory, motor and association functions. consists of frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobes + the insula

Membrane

thin, pliable tissue that covers, lines, partitions, or connects structures

Reyes syndrome

this disorder is associated with aspirin intake, usually seen in children recovering from viral illness

zone of resting cartilage

this epiphyseal zone is nearest the epiphysis and consists of small, scattered chondrocytes that anchor the epiphyseal plate to the epiphysis.

1. photoreceptor cells 2. bipolar cells 3. ganglion cells

what are the 3 cell layers of the retina?

diaphysis epiphysis metaphyses articular cartilage periosteum medullary cavity endosteum

what are the 7 parts of a long bone?

1. formation of ridges 2. formation of endosteum 3. creation of an osteum 4. addition of new circumferential lamellae 5. osteoclasts destroy bone tissue lining the medullary cavity

what are the five steps in appositional growth of the thickness of a long bone?

osteogenic cells osteoblasts osteocytes osteoclasts

what are the four types of cells present in osseous tissue?

zone of resting cartilage zone of proliferating cartilage zone of hypertrophic cartilage zone of calcified cartilage

what are the four zones of the epiphyseal plate?

reduction of friction absorption of shock

what are the functions of articular cartilage?

protection and support resists stress by weight and movement

what are the two functions of compact bone tissue?

trabecular cancellous bone tissue

what are two other names for spongy bone tissue?

collagen fibers

what causes bones to be flexible

crystallized salts

what causes bones to be hard?

osteoblasts under the periosteum deposit the new circumferential lamellae, increasing the thickness of the bone

what cells create the circumferential lamellae?

a thin layer of bone forming cells with a little bit of connective tissue

what cells make up the endosteum?

leukemia metastatic neoplasms lymphoma Hodgkin's disease aplastic anemia

what conditions are diagnosed through bone marrow needle biopsy?

perforating fibers also known as Sharpey's fibers

what connects the outer circumferential lamellae to the periosteum?

dead portions of the fragments of broken bones are resorbed by osteoclasts compact bone replaces spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture

what happens in the bone remodeling phase?

parathyroid hormone

what hormone is the most important regulator of calcium levels because it increases the blood calcium level

insulin growth factor stimulates osteoblasts, promotes cell division at the epiphyseal plate and periosteum, and enhances synthesis of bone proteins human growth hormone causes insulin growth factor to be secreted thyroid hormones stimulate osteoblasts insulin increases the synthesis of bone proteins androgens increase osteoblast activity and ultimately shut down growth at the epiphyseal plate estrogen promotes skeletal changes

what hormones influence bone remodeling?

osseous tissue

what is another name for bone tissue?

9 - 11 mg/100 ml

what is normal blood level for calcium?

calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2

what is the most abundant mineral salt in the osseous tissue matrix?

maintain and increase bone mass

what is the primary effect of weight-bearing exercise on bones?

the development of a secondary ossification center a. secondary ossification center b. uncalcified extracellular matrix c. primary ossification center

what is this diagram showing? a b c

Visceral autonomic reflex

what mechanism acts to control a contraction or relaxation of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle, and controles the rate of secretion by glands. Maintains homeostasis of bp, heart rate, respiration, urination, defectaion, digestion

large amounts of calcium and phosphorous small amounts of magnesium, fluoride, manganese

what minerals are necessary for bone remodeling?

Voltage gated Ca++ channels

what opens on the axon terminal as action potential is traveling?

80% compact bone 20% spongy bone

what percentage of bone is compact bone? what percentage of bone is spongy bone?

bone remodeling

what stage of fracture healing is represented?

fibrocartilaginous callus formation (soft callus)

what stage of fracture healing is represented?

formation of fracture hematoma

what stage of fracture healing is represented?

bony callus formation

what stage of fracture healing is represented?

bone grows outward as osteoblasts build new circumferential lamellae

what step is this in appositional growth?

osteoblasts in endosteum build concentric lamellae inward, forming an osteum

what step is this in appositional growth?

periosteal ridges fuse, forming an endosteum lined tunnel

what step is this in appositional growth?

degenerative bone disease decalcified bone fracture bone infection rheumatoid arthritis osteoporosis

what things can result in decreased blood supply to the bone?

bone cancer abnormal healing of fracture abnormal bone growth

what things can result in increased blood supply to the bone?

minerals vitamins hormones

what three factors affect bone growth and remodeling?

99% of the body's calcium and the majority of the body's phosphorous

what two major minerals are stored in the skeletal system?

Terminal Cisternae.

A expanded chamber that forms when the tubules of the SR enlarge and fuse.

Thin Filaments.

A filament that is 5-6 micron in diameter and is 1 micron long.

Myogloblin.

A globular protein similar to hemoglobin and it reversibly bind oxygen molecules like hemoglobin.

Myogram.

A graphic representation of muscle tension.

Myelin sheath

A layer of fatty tissue encasing the fibers of many neurons; enables greater transmission speed of neural impulses as the impulse hops from one node to the next.

d) effort and load.

A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are called the a) fulcrum and resistance. b) leverage and load. c) lever and resistance. d) effort and load. e) lever and effort.

Spinal Tap (Lumbar Puncture)

A long hollow needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic purposes.

Axon

A long projection off the cell body of a neruon down which an action potential can be propagated.

Ganglion

A mass of nerve cells, A collection of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR).

A membrane that forms a tubular network around each myofibril, fitting over it like lacy shirtsleeves.

Tropomyosin.

A molecule that is a double stranded protein that covers seven active sites.

Motor Unit.

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that controls.

c) fixator

A muscle that acts as a __________ stabilizes the origin of the prime mover so that the prime mover may act more efficiently. a) antagonist b) abductor c) fixator d) synergist e) agonist

d) sphincter.

A muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a a) rotator. b) tensor. c) pronator. d) sphincter. e) depressor.

b) triceps.

A muscle that has three origins is called a a) biceps. b) triceps. c) quadriceps. d) deltoid. e) trapezius.

a) pronator.

A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a a) pronator. b) tensor. c) flexor. d) depressor. e) levator.

Fasciculation.

A muscle twitch.

Posterior Median Sulcus

A narrow furrow on the posterior (dorsal) side of the brain.

Neuron

A nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system.

Action Potential

A neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon.

Multipolar neuron

A neuron with a single axon and multiple dendrites; the most common type of neuron in the nervous system.

Unipolar neuron

A neuron with one axon attached to its soma; the axon divides, with one branch receiving sensory information and the other sending the information into the central nervous system.

What compromises plasmas? : Proteins percentage make up?

Ablumins 54%, Globulins 38%, and Fibinogen 7% All others 1%

Hydrocephalus

Abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluids in the ventricles of the brain.

tibia

About 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone?

Clinical Application 7.1

About fractures- you should take a look

Sour

Acidic, citrus fruits, one of the 5 flavors of food

Microglia

Act as phagocytes, eating damaged cells and bacteria, act as the brains immune system

Cerebrospinal fluid

Acts as a liquid shock absorber protecting the delicate brain and spinal cord and removes metabolic waste products

Meningitis

Acute infection of the meninges.

Epinephrine

Adrenaline; A monoamine neurotransmitter responsible for bursts of energy after an event that is exciting or threatening

Bitter

Alkaloids and spolied food, alkaloids are often poisonous, so bitter taste makes humans reject the food

Peripheral nervous system

All nerves that lie outside the brain and spinal cord.

Epineurium

Dense connective tissue that surrounds entire nerve including fascicles and blood vessels.

1. chemical messengers cause the mesenchymal cells to cluster and differentiate 2. mesenchyme turns into osteogenic cells 3. osteogenic cells turn into osteoblasts 4. osteoblasts secrete extracellular matrix until they are surrounded

Describe the four steps involved in developing the ossification center.

1. a nutrient artery penetrates the perichondrium in the mid region, stimulating osteogenic cells 2. perichondrium starts to form bone and becomes periosteum 3. periosteal capillaries grow into the cartilage inducing a growth of the primary ossification center 4. osteoblasts deposit matrix over the remains of the cartilage forming spongy bone trebeculae. 5. ossification spreads from the center to the ends of the bone

Describe the four steps that occur in the development of the primary ossification center

the mesenchyme condenses at the periphery of the bone it becomes the periosteum

How is the periosteum created?

giantism.

Hypersecretion of human growth hormone during childhood results in _________.

Cranial Reflex

If integration occurs in the brain stem rather than the spinal cord, the reflex is called a ______. An example is the tracking movements of your eyes as you read this sentence.

The response to a stimulus in either a negative or positive feedback system is initiated by what body systems?

Nervous system & Endocrine system

Which 2 body systems are largely responsible for maintaining homeostasis?

Nervous system & Endocrine system

Postsynaptic neuron

Neuron that carries impulses away from the synapse

Sensory neuron

Neurons that carry incoming information from the sensory receptors to the brain and spinal cord.

Motor neuron

Neurons that carry outgoing information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and glands.

What compromises "formed elements" in blood?: White blood cells?

Neutrophils 60-70%, Lymphocytes 20-25%, Monocytes 3-8%, Esoinphils 2-4%, Basophils .5%-1%

Do formed elements divide when they leave red bone marrow?

No

Pupillary Light Reflex

Normal response is constriction of same-sided pupils (direct) and simultaneous constriction of the other pupil (consensual) when light is advanced across pupil.

Abdominal Reflex

Normal response is the ipsilateral contraction of the abdominal muscles with an observed deviation of the umbilicus towards the stroke.

Olfactory Optic Oculomotor

O, O, O pairs of Cranial nerves

Temporal summation

Occurs when a single synapse generates EPSPs so quickly that each is generated before the previous decays. This allows the EPSPs to add up to reach a threshold voltage that triggers an action potential.

Basal cells replace what kind of cells every...days

Olfactory every 60 days

Ipsilateral

On the same side of the body as another structure

Bipolar neuron

Only has 2 processes: one dendrite and one axon; Dendrite often specialized to receive stimulus, axon conducts action potentials to CNS; EX - sensory in retina of eye and nose

Tendon Reflex

Operates as a feedback mechanism to control muscle tension by causing muscle relaxation before muscle force becomes so great that tendons might be torn.

Which level of organization is composed of 2 or more different types of tissues that work together to perform a specific function?

Organ

Skeletal Muscles.

Organs composed mainly of skeletal muscle tissue, but they also contain connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves.

Viscera

Organs inside the thoracic & abdominalpelvic cavities

How are organs and tissues different?

Organs: composed of different kinds of tissues which join together Tissues: groups of cells and the materials around them which work together to perform a particular function

Neurolemma

Outer plasma membrane of the Schwann cell- covers the myelin produced around the axon in the PNS

Epineurium

Outermost covering of the entire nerve is the _______. It consists of fibroblasts and thick collagen fibers.

What does blood transport?

Oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, hormones, heat, and wastes

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Gases

Oxygen,Carbon dioxide, and Nitrogen/ Imporant in many cellular functions, Involved in regulations of blood pH and No known functions.

Paraplegia

Paralysis (loss of sensation of voluntary movement) of the lower part of the body and both legs.

Craniosacral division

Parasympathetic NS is sometimes called the ____________?

Terminal ganglia

Parasympathetic ganglia are called ______ ______ because they are located far from their origin at the ends of the pathways (near the target organs).

Blood calcium level is regulated by...

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) and Calcitonin

Wernicke's Area

Part of Parietal and Temporal lobes, Interprets the meaning of speech. If damaged, speech won't be able to be understood

Vasomotor center

Part of the Medulla Oblongata that regulates blood pressure

Decussation of the pyramids

Part of the Medulla Oblongata where nerve tracks cross over

What compromises formed elements in blood?

Patelets, White blood cells, Red blood cells.

Spinal Nerve

Paths of communication between the spinal cord and specific regions of the body.

what are the four parts of the temporal bone

Squamous (flat, vertical, encircled by the squamous suture), tympanic (small ring of bone that borders the opening of the ear canal), mastoid (posterior to the tympanic, behind ear lobe), petrous (seen in the cranial floor, resembles little mountain range, separates middle and posterior cranial fossa)

Myosatellite Cells.

Stern cells that help repair damaged muscle cells.

Ipsilateral Reflex Arc

Sensory nerve impulses enter the spinal cord in the same side from which motor nerve impulses leave it.

Tendon Organ

Sensory receptor for tendon reflex.

Dendrites

Short branchlike parts of a neuron that are specialized to receive information.

what occurs during lateral and medial excursion?

Side to side grinding movements occurring during chewing

Precentral sulcus

Site of the primary motor cortex

Muscle Spindle

Slight stretching of a muscle stimulates sensory receptors in the muscle called _______.

Description/Function of Cytokines

Small glycoprteins hormones typically produced by cells such as red bone marrow cells and macrophages, stimulates white blood cells.

Facet

Small, nearly flat surface

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Albumins

Smallest and most numerous proteins/Help maintin osmotic pressure

Subarachnoid Space

Space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. Contains shock-absorbing cerebrospinal fluid.

Receptor

Specialized cell that can detect a stimulus

Recruitment.

The smooth but steady increase in muscular tension produced by increasing the number of active motor units.

Synaptic cleft

The space between the presynaptic and the postsynaptic membranes

Recovery Period.

The state where the conditions in muscle fibers re returned to a normal, pre-exertion level.

Extensibility.

The stretching movement of a muscle.

Thoracolumbar division

The sympathetic division of the ANS is also called the__________________.

e) the thumb

The thenar eminence is a raised and rounded area on the palm of the hand that is associated with what digit? a) the index finger (finger 2) b) the middle finger (finger 3) c) the ring finger (finger 4) d) the little finger (finger 5) e) the thumb

Thick Filaments.

They are 10-12 micron in diameter and 1.6 micron long.

Multiunit Smooth Muscle.

They are innervated in motor units comparable to those of skeletal muscles, but each smooth muscle cell may be connected more than one motor neuron.

Intermediate Fibers.

They are intermediate between fast and slow fibers.

Transverse Tubules or T Tubules.

They are narrow tubes whose surface are continuous with the sarcolemma and extend and extend deep into the sarcoplasm.

Dense Bodies.

They are structures distributed throughout the sarcoplasm in a network of intermediate filament composed of the protein Desmin.

Fast Fibers.

They can reach peak twitch tension in 0.01 sec or less after stimulus. they can be found in skeletal muscle.

Visceral Smooth Muscle Cells.

They lack a direct contact with any motor neuron.

Slow Fibers.

They take three times as long to reach peak tension after stimulation as fast fibers.

zone of calcified cartilage

This epiphyseal plate zone is only a few cells thick. Most of the chondrocytes are dead because the matrix around them has been calcified.

e) scalenes

This group of back muscles have their origins on the cervical vertebra, and insert on the first or second ribs. Their action is to elevate these ribs during deep inhalation. a) iliocostalis group b) transversospinales c) spinalis group d) splenius muscles e) scalenes

Isotonic Concentric Contraction.

This is when muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle shortens.

Isotonic Contraction.

This is when tension increases and the skeletal muscle length changes

isometric Contraction.

This is when the muscle as a whole does not change length,and the tension produced produced never exceeds the load.

Isotonic Eccentric Contractions.

This is when the peak tension developed is less than the load, and the muscle, elongates due to the contraction of another or the pull of energy.

Intercalated Disc.

This is where the sarcolemma of two adjacent cardiac muscle cells are extensively intertwined and bound together by gap junctions and desmosomes.

Olfactory Area

area of the temporal lobe, located on the medial surface, receives impulses from the receptors in the nose

interstitial lamellae

areas between osteons; fragments of old osteons

what are the tarsal bones

arranged in proximal and distal groups; calcaneus (heel), talus, navicular, medial intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms, cuboid

what are carpal bones

arranged in two rows of four bones each

what is the ulnar notch

articulates with the end of the ulna

What is the inferior costal facet

articulates with the ribs of the upper vertebrae

Tubercle (rib)

articulates with vertebrae

what is the atlantoaxial joint

articulation between the atlas and axis

what is the atlanto-occipital joint

articulation between the atlas and the cranium

In the elbow joint the largest and strongest joint is the:

articulation between the humerus and the ulnar bone (humero-ulnar joint)

what are the category names of bone markings

articulations, extensions and projections, depressions, passages and condyles

what is the hypoglossal canal

at the anterolateral edge of each condyle, where the hypoglossal nerve passes through to innervate the muscles of the tongue

perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

bundles of collagen fibers that attach periosteum to bone

Vitamin D

calcium absorption; deficiency causes rickets or osteomalacia

No, spongy bone is always covered by a thin layer of compact bone

can spongy bone be found without compact bone?

what are the passages and cavities

canal (tubular passage or tunnel in bone), fissue (slit through a bone), foramen (hole through the bone, usually round), meatus (a canal), sinus (an airfilled sac in a bone)

haversian (central) canals

canals that extend longitudinally through the bone and carry blood vessels and nerves to the osteon

perforating canals also known as Volkmann's canals

canals that run in a transverse direction and allow blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves to penetrate compact bone

Articular cartilage

cartilage at the end of epiphysis

cartilaginous

cartilage being located at the joint

Synchondrosis

cartilage bridge between two articulating bones (immovable)

Spiral Fracture

caused by excessive twisting of a bone

Thyroid Hormone

causes replacement of cartilage with bone in epiphyseal plate, osteoblast activity

supporting cell

cell that resembles a taste cell, but has no synaptic vesicle or sensory role

osteoblasts

cells that secrete the components required to build bone

pupil

central opening of the eye

what are four bends in the vertebrae

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, pelvic

Curvatures of vertebral column

cervical-posterior, thoracic-anterior, lumbar-posterior, sacral-anterior

vestibule

chamber where the labyrinths begin, contains organs of equilibrium

lacunae

chambers that contain osteocytes

accommodation

change in the curvature of the lens that enables you to focus on a nearby object

The menisci are responsible for:

channeling the flow of synovial fluid in the knee joint

tastants

chemical stimuli for gustation (taste)

concentric lamellae

circular plates of mineralized extracellular matrix of increasing diameter, surrounding a central canal

Fissure

cleft or groove

what is the carotid canal

close to the inner ear; a passage for the internal carotid artery, which is a major blood supply to the brain

Bone extracellular matrix

collagen fibers and calcium phosphate

Vitamin C

collagen synthesis; deficiency results in slender, fragile bones

cones

color vision, fine detail work in bright light low sensitivity concentrated in center of retina (fovea centralis)

zone of hypertrophic cartilage

column-like layer of maturing chondrocytes

nasolacrimal duct

comes from the lacrimal sac, carries tears to the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity, can result in a runny nose while crying

what are the inferior articular facets

comparatively flat or only slightly concave on a cervical vertebrae

binaural hearing

comparing signals from right and left hear to identify the direction a sound is coming from

Transverse Fracture

complete fracture, break occurs at a right angle to the axis of the bone

Comminuted Fracture

complete fracture, contains fragments of bone

what is the sphenoid bone

complex shape with a thick median body, outstretched greater and lesser wings, making the bone look like a ragged moth shape

lens

composed of transparent cells called lens fibers, suspended behind the pupil by suspensory ligaments, tension of ligaments slightly flattens this structure Primary Function: fine tune images between near-sighted and far-sighted

osteomalacia

condition characterized by failure of new bone formed by remodeling to calcify in adults

osteosarcoma

connective tissue bone cancer that affects osteoblast and occurs most often in teenagers during their growth spurt

Limbic System

connects hypothalamus to cerebral cortex and drives hunger, thirst, desire and emotions, and translates them into actions. The "emotional" brain. Works with the hippocampus in storing memory.

what is the anterior arch

connects lateral masses on cervical vertebrae

what is the superior costal facet

connects with the inferior costal fact below it

Head

consist of skill & face

Trunk

consist of the chest, abdomen, pelvis

vestibular apparatus

consists of 3 semicircular ducts and 2 chambers, helps maintain equilibrium

what is the pelvic girdle

consists of a complete ring composed of three bone, two hip (coxal) bones, and the sacrum

what are vertebrae

consists of a flexible chain of 33 bones

compact bone

consists of osteons; weight bearing, resist compression (wall of diaphysis)

what is the thoracic cage

consists of the thoracic vertebrae, sternum, and ribs

spongy bone

consists of trabeculae; somewhat flexible, nutrients diffuse through canaliculi (makes up epiphysis)

Cranial Cavity

contains the brain

Postcentral sulcus

contains the primary somasensory area of the cerebral cortex.

Vertebral Cavity

contains the spinal cord

Pelvic Cavity

contains urinary bladder, inferior part of large intestine and reproductive organs

pupillary dilator

contractile element; consists of a spokelike arrangement of myoepithelial cells, stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system to widen the pupil and allow more light in

pupillary constrictor

contractile element; consists of smooth muscle cells that encircle the pupil, stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system to narrow the pupil and allow less light in

Ascending pathways for general sensory info is...

contralateral

Frontal Eye Field

controls muscles for moving the eye

transduction

conversion of one from of energy to another, the fundamental purpose of any sensory receptor (ex: light, sound, heat, etc. into nerve signals)

equilibrium

coordination, balance, and orientation in a 3D space, vestibular apparatus

articular cartilage

covers epiphysis

Pelvic girdle

coxal/hip/pelvic bone (2)

what are the cavities in the skull

cranial (encloses brain), orbits (eye sockets), nasal, oral (buccal), middle/inner ear, paranasal sinuses

what is the anterior cranial fossa

crescent shaped, accommodates the frontal lobes of the brain

short bones

cubelike, length=width (sesamoid/round bones)

what are primary curvatures

curvatures in the vertebrae that you are born with; thoracic and pelvic

osteon

cylinder shaped unit

Axoplasm

cytoplasm of axon

CT

decreases blood calcium levels by accelerating calcium deposition in bones and inhibiting osteoclasts

flexion

decreases the angle of a joint. (bending elbow or wrist)

what is the supraspinous fossa

deep indentation superior to the spine

what is the supraorbital margin

deep to the eyebrows, the eyebrow ridge

what is the posterior cranial fossa

deepest and houses a large posterior division of the brain called the cerebellum

what is the superior articular facet

deeply concave, articulates with the occipital condyle of the skull

hair receptors (peritrichial endings)

dendrites that coil around a hair follicle and respond to movements of the hair, adapt quickly to stimuli, important in the eyelashes

unencapsulated nerve ending

dendrites with no connective tissue wrapping

Compared with that of the shoulder, the articular capsule of the hip is very:

dense and strong

Gomphosis

dense connective tissue (fibrous joints) Example: periodontal ligaments

fibrous joints

dense regular connective tissue

Acetabulum

depression for the head of femur

what is the lacrimal fossa

depression that houses a membranous lacrimal sac in life; where tears are collected and drain into the nasal cavity

what is the mandibular fossa

depression where the mandible articulates with the cranium

1. fibroblasts from the periosteum invade the fracture site and produce collagen 2. chondroblasts begin to produce fibrocaartilage 3. the collagen and fibrocartilage produces the soft callus, which bridges the broken ends of the bone

describe how a fibrocartilage (soft) callus is formed.

the chondroblasts are surrounded by extracellular matrix and are now called chondrocytes the cartilage model grows in length by the cell division of the chondrocytes and further secretion of matrix chondrocytes in the mid-region hypertrophy and surrounding cartilage matrix begins to calcify creating lacunae

describe how the cartilage model grows

Patella

flat sesamoid bone (quadriceps tendon); anterior surface of knee joint, helps with lever actions of movement for lower limbs

intramembranous ossification (14 wk fetus)

flat skull bones forming between sheets of primitive connective tissue

Interstitial

fluid between cells within a tissue

Blood Plasma

fluid in blood vessels

Lymph

fluid in lymphatic vessels

Synovial

fluid in spaces of joints

Cerebrospinal

fluid in spaces of the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)

perilymph

fluid that lies between the bony and membranous labyrinth, similar to cerebrospinal fluid

endolymph

fluid that lies within the membranous labyrinth, similar to intracellular fluid, has a lot of K+

rods

for low light vision high sensitivity low resolution no color vision concentration in periphery of retina

Frontal bone

forehead, roof of nasal cavity, roof of orbits; frontal sinuses, supraorbital foramen

what are the temporal lines

form an arc across the parietal and frontal bones

what are the lacrimal bones

form part of the medial wall of each orbit; smallest bones of the skull, about the size of a fingernail

what is the zygomatic bone

form the angles of the cheeks at the inferolateral margins of the orbits and part of the lateral wall of each orbit, extending half way to the tree

Bone Deposition

formation of bone, action of osteoblasts

what is the axial skeleton

forms the central supporting axis of the body, includes the skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid bone, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

what is the vomer

forms the inferior half of the nasal septum; literally means "plowshare"

what is the temporal bone

forms the lower wall and part of the floor of the cranial cavity

what is the occipital bone

forms the rear of the skull and much of its base

what is the palate

forms the roof of the mouth and floor of the nasal cavity; functions to separate the nasal cavity from the oral cavity so mammals can breath while chewing

Synaptic end bulb

found at end of axon terminal & contain synaptic vesicles that are filled with neurotransmitters

what are the anterior and posterior inferior spines

found below the superior spines

what is the suprasternal (jugular) notch

found between the clavicle bones

what is the infraorbital foramen

found just below the orbit, provides passage for a blood vessel to the face and a nerve that receives sensations from the nasal region and cheek

what is the pterygoid process

found on each plate as a narrower inferior extension; provides attachment for some of the jaw muscles

what is the lateral mass

found on each side of the cervical vertebrae

what is the auricular surface

found on each side of the sacrum; an ear-shaped region; articulates with a similarly shaped surface on the hip bone, forming a strong nearly immovable joint

what is an occipital condyle

found on either side of the foramen magnum, a smooth knob

what is the ramus

found on the ischium, joins the inferior ramus of the pubis anteriorly

what is the condylar canal

found posterior to each occipital condyle

what are the sacral vertebrae

found within children, 5 bones, begin to fuse around age 16 and are fully fused by 26

How many moleclues of oxygen can one hemo globin bind?

four for each heme group

what are the anterior sacral (pelvic) foramina

four pairs of large holes that allow for passage of nerves and arteries to the pelvic organs

what is the coccyx

four-five vertebral bones that fuse by age of 20-30. the tailbone.

colles fracture

fracture of the distal end of the lateral forearm bone in which the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly

pott fracture

fracture of the distal end of the lateral leg bone, with serious injury of the distal tibial articulation

Simple (closed) fracture

fracture protected by uninjured skin

Compound (open) fracture

fracture where bone is exposed to the outside through opening in the skin

diarthrosis

freely movable joints example: synovial joints

ultrasonic frequency

frequency about 20,000HZ

infrasonic frequency

frequency below 20Hz

Face

front portion of the head, includes eyes, nose, mouth, forehead, cheeks, chin

what are the bones within the sinuses

frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary

Prevertebral ganglia

ganglia lying in front of the vertebral colum

Nodes of Renvier

gaps in the myelin sheath between Schwann cells

what is the superior orbital fissure

gash in the posterior wall of the orbit, angles upwards lateral to the optic canal

cupula

gelatinous cap in which the hair cells of the crista ampullaris are embedded in, extends from crista ampullaris to the roof of the ampulla

otolithic membrane

gelatinous membrane in which tips of stereocilia and kinocilium are embedded, weighted with protein-calcium carbonate granules (otoliths); used to decect linear motion

ossification osteogenesis

give two names for the process by which bone is formed

osteon also known as Haversion systems

give two names for the repeating structural unit of compact bone

Cerebral Aqueduct

goes through the midbrain where CSF flows from the third ventricle into the fourth ventricle

what is the mastoid notch

groove that lies medial to the mastoid process

Basal Ganglia

group of nucli (grey mater) found in the cerebral hemispheres. regulate muscle tone for movement, and control automatic skeletal movements.

Tissue Level

groups of cells function together

epiphyseal plate

growth zone of hyaline cartilage

eyelashes

guard hairs that help keep debris out of the eyes, touching these triggers a blink reflex

vestibular nerve

hair cells of the macula sacculi, macula utriclui, and semicircular ducts synapse at their bases with sensory fibers of the _________ _______

tympanic reflex

happens when there is a loud noise, occurs when the stapedius reduces the motion of the stapes, and the tensor tympani pulls the tympanic membrane inward and tenses it

Organs

have a recognizable shape, are composed of 2 or more different types of tissue, and have specific functions

what are sutural bones

having extra bones, another reason for adult variation, also called wormian bones

what are the parts of a rib

head, neck, tubercle, shaft, angle, costal groove

Calcaneus

heel bone

right hemisphere

hemisphere involved in musical and artistic abilities, pattern recognition, knowing faces, understanding the emotional content of language and visualizing descriptions

left hemisphere

hemisphere that is more involved in reasoning; number & logical skills, written & spoken language. usually contains Wernicke and Broca area

red bone marrow

hemopoetic tissue

Zone of Resting cartilage

layer closest to epiphysis; resting cells, anchor epiphyseal plate to epiphysis ("Rabbits" Prefer Hopping Continuously)

zone of proliferating cartilage

layer of actively dividing chondrocytes

zone of resting cartilage

layer of small, scattered chondrocytes anchoring the epiphyseal plate to the bone

lamella

layers of matrix around central canal

what are the nasal fossae

left and right air spaces within the nasal cavity that the septum divides

male pelvis

less flared, heavier in weight

elevation

movement that raises a bone vertically. mandibles are elevated during biting and clavicles during a shrug

adduction

movement towards the midsagittal line

stapedius

muscle that arises from the posterior wall of the cavity and inserts on the stapes

tensor tympani

muscle that arises from the wall of the auditory tube and inserts on the malleus

inferior oblique

muscle that extends from the medial wall of the orbit to the inferolateral aspect of the eye

Rheumatism is a general term for:

pain and stiffness affecting the musculoskeletal system

somatic pain

pain from joints

visceral pain

pain from viscera, usually a result of stretch, chemical irritants, ischemia, and can be accompanied by nausea

spinoreticular tract

pain pathway that carries pain signals to the reticular formation of the brainstem, ultimately relayed to the hypothalamus and limbic system; activate visceral, emotional, and behavioral interactions to pain such as nausea, fear, and some reflexes

gracile fasciculus

pain pathway that carries signals to the thalamus for visceral pain, such as a stomachache or passing a kidney stone

what are alae

pair of large, rough, winglike extensions

what is the superior articular processes

pair of processes that articulate with vertebra L5

central canal

parallel, tube-like cylinders of bone that run along the axis of long bones and house blood vessels and nerves

Quadriplegia

paralysis of all four limbs

Diplegia

paralysis of both upper limbs or both lower limbs

Monoplegia

paralysis of one limb

Hemiplegia

paralysis of one side of the body

collagen

part of extracellular matrix that gives bone resilience

inorganic salts

part of extracellular matrix that make bone hard

Hemisection

partial transection of the cord on either the right or left side

what is the foramen rotundum

passage for two branches of trigeminal nerve

Oblique Plane

passes through the body or an organ at an oblique angle (other than 90 degrees)

macula

patch of hair cells and supporting cells in the saccule and utricle, (_________ sacculi and __________ utriculi)

projection pathways

pathways followed by sensory signals to their ultimate destinations in the CNS

what is the mental foramen

permits the passage of nerves and blood vessels of the chin

tactile (Meissner) corpuscles

phasic receptor for light, touch, and texture; tall, ovoid-pear shaped; consists of 2-3 nerve fibers meandering upward through a mass of flattened Schwann cells; occur in dermal papillae or skin, and are concentrated in laces with no hair

lamellar (pacinian) corpuscles

phasic receptors for deep pressure, stretch, tickle and vibration; occur in periosteum of bone, in joint capsules, in the pancreas, deep in the dermis, hands, feet, breasts, and genitals

function of Hemopoitic growth factors?

regulate the differentiations and prolifertaion of particular formed elements.

System Level

related organs with common function; an organ can be part of more than one system

Trochanter

relatively large process

Bone Resorption

removal of bone, action of osteoclasts

bone resorption

removal of minerals and collagen fibers from bone by osteoclasts, destroying matrix

vitamin C

required for collagen synthesis

vitamin K

required for protein synthesis

what is the scapula

resembles a spade or shovel, a triangular plate that posteriorly overlies ribs 2 through 7.

tensile strength

resistance to being stretched or torn apart

Neutrophils

respond the qickest to a bacterial infection Has lysozyme enyzme that breaks down the cell, and oxidents (H2O2 and OCl)

Frontal Lobe

responsible for reasoning, personality, speech, and motor coordination

Shivering when a cold wind blows over you is an ex. of what basic life process?

responsiveness

Which forms of red blood cells are found in circulating blood?

reticulocytes and erythrocytes

what are true ribs

ribs 1-7, each has its own costal cartilage connecting it to the sternum

what are floating ribs

ribs 11-12, have absolutely no connecting to the sternum

what are false ribs

ribs 8-12, lack independent cartilaginous connections to the sternum

what is the intercondylar eminence

ridge that separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

what are the parietal bones

right and left; form most of cranial roof and parts of its walls. bordered by four sutures

circumferential lamellae

rings of hard calcified matrix found just beneath the periosteum and lining the medullary cavity

1. outer segment 2. inner segment

rods and cones have 2 layers called...

bipolar cells

rods and cones synapse with dendrites of these cells, first-order neurons of visual pathway, synapse with ganglion cells

Ethmoid bone

roof and wall of nasal cavity, floor of cranium, wall of orbits; cribriform plates, perpendicular plate, superior and middle nasal conchae, crista galli

what are alveolus

root of each tooth is inserted into a deep socket known as this

Pivot joint is:

rotaion, monoaxial

supination

rotation of forearm so that the palm faces forward

pronation

rotation of forearm so the palm faces to the rear

Baseball pitchers are the greatest risk of developing:

rotator cuff injury

what is the tibial tuberosity

rough anterior surface of the tibia, palpated just below the patella

what is the sacral canal

runs through he sacrum and ends in an inferior opening

Clavicle

s-shaped; articulate with the manubrium and scapula, brace scapula

what are the carpal bones

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrium, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

modiolus

screwlike axis of spongy bone, like threads of a screw that supports the fleshy tube of the cochlea

Inferior nasal conchae

scroll-shaped bones, extend from lateral walls of cavity, largest of conchae

Length-Tension Relationship.

the concept of the relation between tension produced by the entire fiber to the length of individual sarcomeres.

remodeling

the construction of new bone tissue and breaking down of old bone tissue

perichondrium

the covering that develops around a cartilage model

hemopoiesis

the creation of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the red bone marrow

osteoarthritis

the degeneration of articular cartilage such that the bony ends touch

open reduction

the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by a surgical procedure using internal fixation devices such as screws, plates, pins, rods, and wires

closed reduction

the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by manual manipulation and the skin remains intact

what is the acetabulum

the hip socket

what is the costal margin

the inferior border, or arc of the lower ribs. protects the thoracic organs, but also spleen, liver, and kidneys

receptor potential

the initial effect of a stimulus on a sensory cell is a small local electrical charge called _______ _______.

Nasal bones (2)

bridge of nose

what is the subscapular fossa

broad anterior surface of the scapula, slightly concave, and relatively featureless

what is the manubrium

broad superior portion, shaped like the knot of a necktie

what is the infraspinous fossa

broad surface inferior to the supraspinous fossa

Anabolism

building complex chemicals from smaller units

osteomyelitis

infection of the bone

Coccyx

4 fused; attached to the margins of the sacral hiatus

parathyroid hormone

Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?

Central nervous system

Brain and spinal cord

zone of resting cartilage

D

Arachnoid

Delicate web-like layer of the meninges; middle layer

osteomyelitis

infection of the bone usually caused by bacteria

What does blood regulates?

pH, body temperature, and water content of cells

Bursea are situated to:

reduce friction in some joints

osteopenia

reduced bone mass below normal

zone of calcified cartilage

region of dead chondrocytes

resorption

the breakdown of bone extracellular matrix

closed (simple) fracture

the broken ends of the bone do not protrude through the skin

open (compound) fracture

the broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin

near point of vision

the closest and object can be and still be in focus

what is the axis

vertebrae C2; allows rotation of the head

Sagital Plane

vertical plane that divides the body or organ into right & left sides

choroid

very pigmented, highly vascular layer behind the retina

lingual papillae

visible bumps on the tongue, there are 4 types of them

light

visible electromagnetic radiation, human vision is limited to 400-700nm

photopsin (iodopsim)

visual pigment of cones

rhodopsin (visual purple)

visual pigment of rods, consists of opsin and retinal

tarsal plate

waterline of eyelids

Compare with that of the hip, the articular capsule of the knee is:

weak

Sympathetic division

"fight or flight" A branch of the autonomic nervous system and prepares the body for quick action in emergencies; fight or flight; busiest when frightened, angry, or aroused; increases heart rate, increases breathing rate, enlarges pupils, stops digestion; connects to all internal organs; sudden reaction

Beta waves

(14-30 Hz) rythmic waves and have a higher frequency; occur when we are mentally alert, thinking, brain is active or during REM sleep

Theta waves

(4-7 Hz) more irregular; common in children; uncommon in adults but may appear when concentrating. Indicate early stages of sleep

Negative feedback regulation of erythopoiesis (red blood cell formation)

(Picture)

Fissure

(anatomy) a long narrow slit or groove that divides an organ into lobes

Sulcus

(anatomy) any of the narrow grooves in an organ or tissue especially those that mark the convolutions on the surface of the brain

Regeneration

(biology) growth anew of lost tissue or destroyed parts or organs

cold receptor

(free nerve ending) receptor that responds to falling temperature

nociceptor

(free nerve ending) receptor that responds to pain

warm receptor

(free nerve ending) receptor that responds to rising temperature

Intensity

(information transmitted by sensory receptors) encoded in 3 ways a) firing frequencies of sensory nerves b) number of nerve fibers firing c) weak stimuli can activate only the most sensitive nerve fibers, strong stimuli activate less sensitive nerve fibers with higher thresholds

Duration

(information transmitted by sensory receptors) how long stimulus last, encoded by changes in firing frequency over time

olfactory tracts

(olfactory projection pathway), axons of tufted and mitral cells form bundles that create this structure, most fibers of this structure end up in the primary olfactory cortex

olfactory bulbs

(olfactory projection pathway), beneath frontal lobe of the brain, olfactory fibers pass through it, synapse with dendrites of mitral cells and tufted cells

third-order neurons

(somatosensory projection pathway), complete the pathway route to the cerebrum

second-order neurons

(somatosensory projection pathway), decussate and lead to contralateral thalamus; carry proprioception signals directly to the cerebrum

first-order neurons

(somatosensory projection pathway), those for touch, pressure, and proprioception are large, myelinated and fast; those for heat and cold are small, unmyelinated and slower

Repolarization

- cell returned to a more negative potential after Na+ ions have rushed into the cell, K+ ions rush out of the cell to restore the balance and the original polarity

Depolarization

- reduction in membrane potential A positive shift in the electrical charge in the neuron's resting potential, making it less negatively charged

Population percentage of WBC/Description/function : Basophils

.5-1% WBC/large cytoplasmic granules/Liberate herpain, histamine and serotonin in allergic reactions that intensify overall inflammatory reponse.

Proximal epiphysis

1

development of the ossification center: osteoblasts secrete organic extracellular matrix

1

epiphysis

1

what are the eight cranial bones

1 frontal, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, 1 occipital, 1 sphenoid, 1 ethmoid

How are negative and positive feedback systems similar? How are they different? Which one bears primary responsiblity for maintaining homeostasis?

1- both occur in response to a stimulus to regulate a controlled condition 2- negative feedback reverses the stimulus; positive feedback enhances the stimulus 3- negative feedback system

Five ligaments of the hip joint include;

1. iliofemoral 2. pubofemotal 3. ischiofemoral 4. ligament teres (ligaments of the head of femur) 5. transverse ligament of the acetabulum

Seven ligaments of the knee joint include:

1. patellar ligament 2. popliteal ligament (2) 3. ACL 4. PLC 5. Tibial collateral 6. Fibular collateral

How does the tympanic membrane work?

1.) Sound waves cause bailer membrane to move 2.) Tecterial membrane doesn't move 3.) Hair cells push against tectorial membrane and the cilia become bent 4.) Cilia are connected by tip links and when bent, they open up ion channels=mecchanoreceptors 5.) Ions flow in depolarizing cell 6.) NT reeled onto cochlear nerve

compact bone

10

endosteum

10

compact bone

11

medullary cavity

11

epiphyseal line (epiphyseal growth plate)

12

metaphyseal vein

12

Cranial nerves

12 pairs of nerves that carry messages to and from the brain

what are ribs

12 pairs, connect with costal cartilage and their respective vertebrae

how many thoracic vertebrae are there

12 thoracic

How long is the average Red blood cell live span?

120

Thoracic vertebra

12; transverse process that project posteriorly at sharp angles, pointed spinous processes that slope down, facets that articulate with ribs (giraffe)

metaphyseal artery

13

red bone marrow

13

epiphyseal line

14

spongy bone

14

Phalanges

14 bones (fingers and toes); proximal, middle, distal

articular cartilage

15

epiphyseal vein

15

Population percentage of WBC/Description/function : Thrombocytes (platelets)

150,000-400000 per microliter/ Cell fragments/ Form platelet plug in hemostatsis; release chemicals that promote vascular spasm and blood clotting

epiphyseal artery

16

articular cartilage

17

Metaphysis

2

calcification: calcium and other mineral salts are deposited and the extracellular matrix calcifies (hardens)

2

metaphysis

2

what are the 14 facial bones

2 maxillae, 2 palatine, 2 zygomatic, 2 lacrimal, 2 nasal, 2 inferior nasal conchae, 1 vomer, 1 mandible

Floating Ribs

2 pairs; not connected to sternum (part of false ribs)

Population percentage of WBC/Description/function : Eosinophils

2-4% WBC/has 2 lobes connected by thick strand of chomatin/ Combat effects of histamines in allergic reactions, phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, and destroy certain parasitic worms

Population percentage of WBC/Description/function : Lymphocytes

20-25 WBC/ indented circular cytoplasm/ B cells, T cells, Natural killer cells

Diaphysis

3

diaphysis

3

formation of trabecular: extracellular matrix develops into trabecular that fuse to form spongy bone

3

semicircular ducts

3 of these (anterior, later, posterior) in the vestibular apparatus, responsible for detecting angular acceleration, filled with endolymph, rotates when head turns

Coxal bones (hip bone)

3 parts: ilium, ischium, pubis; acetabulum, obturator foramen

Population percentage of WBC/Description/function : Monocytes

3-8% WBC/ Horseshoe-shaped/ Phagocytosis (after transforming into fixed or wandering macrophages)

Spinal nerves

31 pairs of nerves coming out from the spinal cord between two vertebrae; dorsal roots are sensory and ventral roots are motor

Pia mater

3rd membrane and is bound to the brain

Metaphysis

4

development of the periosteum: mesenchyme at the periphery of the bone develops into the periosteum

4

nutrient artery

4

vestibular nuclei

4 of these on either side of the pons and medulla oblongata, process signals about position and movement of the body and relay information to 5 targets

1. cornea 2. aqueous humor 3. lens 4. vitreous body

4 optical components of the eye

Ventricles

4 spaces where CSF flows and is formed

1. filiform papillae 2. foliate papillae 3. fungiform papillae 4. vallate (circumvallate) papillae

4 types of lingual papillae

how many vertebrae are in the coccyx

4-5 coccygeal vertebrae

what are coccygeal vertebrae

4-5 tiny bone that create the coccyx

Distal epiphysis

5

nutrient vein

5

Metatarsals

5 bones; 1-5 medial to lateral

Sacrum

5 fused; posterior sacral foramina, sacral hiatus, anterior sacral foramina

Metacarpals

5 hand bones; 1-5 lateral to medial

how many lumbar vertebrae are there

5 lumbar

False Ribs

5 pairs; connected to sternum via cartilage (see Floating ribs)

Lumbar vertebra

5; large bodies, thinner transverse processes that project laterally, short/thick spinous process that project posteriorly (moose)

articular cartilage

6

nutrient foramen

6

Population percentage of WBC/Description/function : Neutrophils

60-70% WBC/2-5 lobes connected by thin chromatins/ Phagocytosis

How many number of events take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells?

7

periosteum

7

Tarsals (Cute Tina Never Could Cooperate)

7 bones; Calcaneus, Talus, Navicular, medial Cuneiform, lateral Cuneiform, intermediate Cuneiform, Cuboid

how many cervical vertebrae are there

7 cervical

True Ribs

7 pairs; directly connected to sternum

Cervical vertebra

7; transverse foramina, spinous processes (mouse)

medullary cavity

8

periosteal vein

8

Carpal (So Long To Pinky, Here Comes The Thumb)

8 bones; Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, Trapezium

nutrient artery

9

periosteal artery

9

Marcus injured his epiphyseal plate when he broke his arm and this resulted in premature closure of the plate. The premature closure interfered with the lengthwise growth of the arm bone.

9 year old Marcus fell and broke his left arm. The arm was placed in a cast and seemed to heal normally. As an adult, Marcus found out his right arm was longer. What happened?

developing bone of diaphysis

A

interstitial lamellae

A

lacuna

A

osteogenic cell

A

zone of calcified cartilage

A

Transient ischemic attack

A Temporary stroke. a brief episode in which the brain gets insufficient blood supply

Sympathetic division

A branch of the autonomic nervous system and prepares the body for quick action in emergencies; fight or flight; busiest when frightened, angry, or aroused; increases heart rate, increases breathing rate, enlarges pupils, stops digestion; connects to all internal organs; sudden reaction

Intermediate Mass

A bridge that connects the two halves of the thalamus

Contusion

A bruise of soft tissue; a collection of blood to a damaged area.

Fascicle.

A bundle of muscle fibers in each compartment.

Myofilaments.

A bundle of protein filaments that the myofibrils consist of.

Calmodulin.

A calcium-binding protein.

Stimulus

A change that can activate a receptor

c) medial and lateral pterygoid

A child who doesn't get his or her way, in addition to pouting, may also stick out (protract) the chin. Which muscle(s) allow a child to protract the chin? a) masseter and buccinator b) buccinator and digastrics c) medial and lateral pterygoid d) masseter and temporalis e) medial pterygoid and temporalis

Brain

A complex chemical and electrical organism. It weighs 3 pounds. No two are alike. Main processing unit of the CNS

b) strabismus.

A condition where the two eyeballs are not properly aligned is referred to as a) inguinal hernia. b) strabismus. c) presbyopia. d) myopia. e) hypermetropia.

Muscle Tone.

A contraction that do not produce enough tension to cause movement but they tense and firm the muscle.

Zone of overlap.

A dark region where thin filaments are located between the thick filament.

Epimysium.

A dense layer of collagen fibers that surround the entire muscle.

Parasympathetic division

A division of the autonomic nervous system; it returns the body to its resting state. "rest and digest".

Norepinephrine

A neurotransmitter involved in arousal, as well as in learning, mood regulation, memory, dreaming, awakening, emotion, and responses to stress.

Acetylcholine

A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction

Treppe.

A pattern where muscle tension rises in stages like the step of a stare case.

Relative refractory period

A period after firing when a neuron is returning to its normal polarized state and will fire again only if the incoming message is much stronger than usual

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

A postsynaptic potential that depolarizes the neuronal membrane, making the cell more likely to fire an action potential

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

A postsynaptic potential that hyperpolarizes the neuronal membrane, making a cell less likely to fire an action potential

Anaerobic Process.

A process that does not require oxygen.

Aerobic Metabolism.

A process where mitochondria absorbs oxygen, ADP, phosphate ions, and organic substances from the surrounding cytoplasm. The substances enter the citric acid cycle, and enzymatic pathways break down organic molecules.

Alzheimer's

A progressive disease characterized by plaque in the brain, lack of acetylcholine. Neurons of frontal and medial temporal lobes affected.

Neurotransmitter receptor

A protein that captures and reacts to molecules of a neurotransmitter or hormone. Embedded in plasma membrane of post-synaptic cell. Either are ion channels themselves or interface with ion channels

Monosynaptic Reflex Arc

A reflex pathway having only one synapse in the CNS.

I Band.

A region of the sarcomere that contains thin filaments but no thick filaments.

Blood-brain barrier

A semipermeable barrier between the blood and the brain that selectively lets certain substances enter the brain tissue and keeps other substances out

The Contraction Cycle.

A series of molecular events that enable muscle contraction.

Stimulus

A signal to which an organism responds.

Twitch.

A single stimulus-contraction-relaxation sequence in a muscle fiber.

Dementia

A slowly progressive decline in mental abilities, including memory, thinking, and judgment, that is often accompanied by personality changes

Central Canal

A small space in the center of the gray commissure. It extends the entire length of the spinal cord and is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

Epidural Space

A space between the dura mater and the wall of the vertebral canal.

Infundibulum

A stalk that attaches the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus.

Stupor

A state of reduced or suspended sensibility; state of mental numbness, as that resulting from shock; a daze; condition of dullness, often resulting from stress; unconsciousness

Lethargy

A state of sluggishness, inactivity, and apathy

Complete Tetanus.

A state where a higher stimulation frequency eliminates the relaxation phase.

Imcomplete Tetanus.

A state where a muscle produces almost maximum tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation.

Wave Summation.

A stimulus that arrives before the relaxation phase, resulting in a second, more powerful contraction.

Autonomic nervous system

A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. Controls involuntary activity of visceral muscles and internal organs and glands.

Somatic nervous system

A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. Enables voluntary actions to be undertaken due to its control of skeletal muscles.

Stroke

A sudden attack of weakness or paralysis that occurs when blood flow to an area of the brain is interrupted

Posterior (Dorsal, Sensory) Root Ganglion

A swelling of the posterior root. Contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons.

Delirium

A temporary state in which individuals experience a clouding of consciousness in which they are unaware of what is happening around them and are unable to focus or pay attention.

Subdural Space

A thin space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. Contains interstitial fluid.

Nonstriated Muscles.

A tissue that has no striation due to a lack of myofibrils and sarcomeres.

Glioma

A tumor composed of neuroglial cells is known as a:

Chemical synapse

A type of synapse at which a neurotransmitter is released from the axon of a neuron into the synaptic cleft where it binds to receptors on the next structure in sequence, either another neuron or an organ.

Electrical synapse

A type of synapse in which the cells are connected by gap junctions, allowing ions (and therefore an action potential) to spread easily from cell to cell, usually in smooth and cardiac muscle.

Poliomyelitis

A viral infection of the gray matter of the spinal cord.

Anterior Median Fissure

A wide groove on the anterior (ventral) side of the brain.

Accessory Hypoglossal

A, H pairs of cranial nerves

Proprioception

Ability to keep balance. Self awareness of objects in space. Keeps us from bumping into other objects and from falling forward / backward when we stumble.

d) internal oblique.

All of the following are muscles that move the eyeball EXCEPT a) superior rectus. b) lateral rectus. c) inferior oblique. d) internal oblique. e) superior oblique.

Umami

Amino Acids, savory taste of meat, one of 5 flavors of food

A person who is from the privileged class probably has better nutrition but doesn't have to do as much physical labor (exercise) as a person from the servant or slave class. The anthropologist probably notes a difference in bone density in the two skeletons—especially on parts of bones where muscles attached. The skeleton of the servant probably has more density than the skeleton of the privileged class at those points. It is also possible that the servant suffered from malnutrition during life. If so, her skeleton might show evidence of rickets or osteopenia.

An archeologist and an anthropologist are studying two skeletons from an ancient tomb that had apparently been looted in an earlier time. Both skeletons are females and both are approximately the same height. Howeverthe anthropologist is absolutely certain that one skeleton is the remains of someone from the privileged class while the other skeleton is the remains of a servant or slave. How could the anthropologist be so sure of the economic status of the individuals based solely on their skeletal remains?

Substantia Nigra

An area of the midbrain that is involved in motor control and contains a large concentration of dopamine-producing neurons

Action Potential.

An electrical impulse that is propagated along their plasma membranes.

Resting membrane potential

An electrical potential established across the plasma membrane of all cells by the Na+/K+ ATPase and the K+ leak channels. IN most cells it is approximately -70 mV with respect to the outside of the cell.

Hypertrophy.

An enlargement of the stimulated muscle.

Spinal Shock

An immediate response to spinal cord injury characterized by loss of reflex function

calcitonin and calcitriol

An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?

A significant drop in RBC's indicate what?

Anemia

Creatine Phosphate (CP).

Another high-energy compound that the energy transfer creates.

Striated Muscle.

Another name for skeletal muscle, due to having visible striated fibers under microscope.

Primary Association & Reasoning

Anterior Frontal Lobe, for logical thinking and personality

Anterior White Commissure

Anterior to the gray commissure. Connects the white matter of the right and left side of the spinal cord.

Stimulus Location: Receptive Field

Area of body that leads to activity in a particular neuron (Stimulation anywhere in receptive field activates same neuron) ex: being touched on the hand you can tell where they are touching you compared to the back where it is harder to tell

Medulla Oblongata

Area where spinal cord becomes the brain stem. Contains vasomotor center and decussation of pyramids. Involved in sneezing, vomiting, hiccups, swallowing and coughing.

Filum Terminale

Arising from the conus medullaris is the _______, an extension of the pia mater that extends inferiorly, fuses with the arachnoid mater and dura mater, anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx.

excercise causes mechanical stress on bones, but because there is effectively zero gravity in space, the pull of gravity on bones is missing. The lack of stress from gravity results in bone demineralization and weakness.

Astronauts in space exercise as part of their daily routine, yet they still have problems with bone weakness after prolonged stays in space. Why does this happen?

Postganglionic neuron

Autonomic motor neuron that has its cell body in a peripheral ganglion and projects its axon to an effector.

Preganglionic neuron

Autonomic motor neuron that has its cell body in the central nervous system and projects its axon to a peripheral ganglion.

Sensation

Awareness of the presence of a stimulus

Inferior

Away from head or lower part

Deep

Away from the surface of the body

Plexus

Axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerves, except for thoracic nerves T2-T12, do not go directly to the body structures they supply. Instead, they form networks on both the left and right sides of the body by joining with various members of axons from anterior rami of adjacent nerves. Such a network of axons is called a ________.

Outer circumferential lamellae

B

lamellae

B

osteoblast

B

zone of calcified cartilage

B

zone of hypertrophic cartilage

B

Three main types of lymphocytes

B cell T cells Natural killer cells

Location/ Function of Lymphoid stem cells

Begin their development in red bone marrow but complete it in the lymphatic tissues and give rise to lymphocytes and natural killer cells.

Intermediate

Between 2 structures

Description/Function of Erythrocytes (Red blood cells)

Bioconcave (concave on both sides) discs with a simple structure : they lack a nucleus and other organelles and can neither reporduce nor carry on extensive metabolic activities. Carries oxygen rich cytosol

Hematopoiesis

Blood cell formation

Extrinsic strage

Blood clotting is rapid. Tissue factor leaking inside the outside blood surrounding blood vessels and Ca2+ activates prothrombinase

Cardiovascular System Components:

Blood, the heart and the vessels

Spongy bone is light, which reduces the overall weight of a bone so that it moves more readily when pulled by a skeletal muscle. The trabeculae of spongy bone tissue support and protect the red bone marrow. Compact bone, usually found in the exterior of bone, is heavy and dense and made up of osteons. Its function is to resist breakage and provide support of the body.

Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.

The only means by which bone can increase in length (interstitial growth) is by activity at the epiphyseal plate. Until full height is reached, the plate consists of layers of chondrocytes, which generate matrix that is then calcified and replaced by bone matrix secreted by osteoblasts on the diaphyseal side of the plate. Around ages 18-20 the cartilage is replaced completely by bone and no more lengthwise growth can occur. Bone increases in diameter via appositional growth as new bone matrix is laid down by osteoblasts in the periosteum.

Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.

during bone deposition, osteogenic cells develop into osteoblasts. The osteoblasts secrete collagen fibers and other organic substances to begin formation of matrix. Within the spaces between fibers, calcification occurs to form a solid matrix that eventually surrounds the osteoblast and some extracellular fluid. The osteoblast in its new lacuna is isolated and becomes an osteocyte. The osteocyte continues to secrete matrix but at a lower level.

Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.

during bone resorption, an osteoclast attaches tightly to the endosteum or periosteum of the bone and forms a leak proof seal at the edges. Then it releases protein-digesting lysosomal enzymes and several amino acids into the sealed pocket. The enzymes digest collagen fibers and other organic substances while the acids dissolve the bone materials. Working together several osteoclasts carve out a small tunnel in the old bone. The degraded bone proteins and extracellular matrix minerals enter an osteoclast by endocytosis, cross the cell in vesicles, and undergo exocytosis on the side opposite the ruffled border. Now in the interstitial fluid, the products of bone resorption diffuse into nearby blood capillaries. Once a small area of bone has been resorbed, osteoclasts depart and osteoblasts move in to rebuild bone in that area.

Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.

The diagram is depicting intramembranous ossification in a child's skull. Stage1 involves the development of an ossification center. During stage 2 calcification begins. In stage 3 trabeculae begin to form. Finally in stage 4 the periosteum develops.

Briefly describe what is happening in each of the numbered stages of intramembranous ossification as observed in a child's skull shown in the diagram below.

The diagram illustrates repair of a bone fracture. In step one, there is formation of a fracture hematoma. In step two, a fibrocartilaginous callus is formed. In step three, a bony callus is formed. In step four, bone remodeling begins.

Briefly describe what is happening in each step of fracture repair shown in the diagram.

When blood Ca2+ levels drop, PTH is secreted from the parathyroid glands. PTH increases the activity of osteoclasts to increase bone resorption, which ultimately increases Ca2+ in blood. PTH also acts on the kidneys to prevent Ca2+ loss in the urine. PTH also stimulates the production of calcitriol, which acts on the GI tract to increase absorption of Ca2+ from the intestinal lining. When blood Ca2+ level increases, it causes the synthesis and release of calcitonin from the thyroid gland. Calcitonin, inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblastic activity to increase Ca2+ deposition into bones which promotes bone formation.

Briefly explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Concussion

Bruise like injury to the brain resulting from violent impact with an object

Cerebellum

Bulg posterior to brain stem. Contains 2 hemispheres connected at the vermis. Involved in complex muscle movement for balance, equilibrium and posture.

Cauda Equina

Bundle of nerve roots that branch off the bottom of the spinal cord. Nerves arise from the lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal regions of the spinal cord. Meaning "horse's tail".

canaliculi

C

concentric lamellae

C

osteocyte

C

zone of hypertrophic cartilage

C

zone of proliferating cartilage

C

Atlas

C1; supports head, articulates with occipital condyle

Axis

C2; pivots around the dens

Ependymal cells

CNS (line ventricles of brain and central canal of spinal cord) / Active rolein formation and circulation of Cerebral Spinal Fluid

analgesic

CNS pain-relieving mechanism

Astrocyte

CNS tissue cells responsible for physical support and maintaining blood brain barrier, GFAP marker

Oligodendrocyte

CNS tissue cells that form the myelin sheath in CNS

e) being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells

Calcium is involved in all of the following important body functions EXCEPT a) blood clotting. b) nervous system communication. c) muscle contraction. d) acting as a cofactor in some enzymatic reactions. e) being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells.

Pacemaker Cells.

Cardiac muscle cells that determine the timing of contractions.

c) median nerve

Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of what nerve as it passes through the narrow passageway formed anteriorly by the flexor retinaculum and posteriorly by the carpal bones? a) ulnar nerve b) radial nerve c) median nerve d) deep radial nerve e) axillary nerve

Effectors

Cause responses that alter conditions in the internal environment, part of the PNE

Stretch Reflex

Causes contraction of skeletal muscle in response to stretching of muscle.

Sinua

Cavity within a bone

Beta receptor

Cell membrane structures that respond to the neurotransmitter epinephrine from the sympathetic division of the nervous system as well as to adrenergic drugs. These receptors will increase heart rate and dilate bronchioles.

Interneuron

Central nervous system neurons that internally communicate and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs

Mediastinum

Central portion of thoracic cavity btw lungs

A spinal tap is a procedure in which fluid is drawn from the space between the membranes that surround the spinal cord. What type of body fluid is being extracted?

Cerebrospinal fluid

Gap junctions

Channel-forming junctions between cells that allow passage of electrolytes, metabolytes and nerve impulse to transport quickly

Zygomatic bones (2)

Cheek bone; lateral wall and floor of orbit; temporal process, zygomatic arch

Neurotransmitter

Chemical messengers that cross the synaptic gaps between neurons. When released by the sending neuron, they travel across the synapse and bind to receptor sites on the receiving neuron, thereby influencing whether that neuron will generate a neural impulse.

What are the 6 levels of organization?

Chemical, Cellular, Tissue, Organ, System, Organismal

Which levels of structural organization are you unable to see with your naked eye?

Chemical, Cellular, tissues

Thoracic Cavity

Chest Cavity; contains pleural & Pericardial Cavities & Mediastinum

Tears

Clean, lubricants deliver O2/nutrients to conductive prevent infection

Autonomic ganglia

Collections of nerve cell bodies, belonging to the autonomic division of the PNS, that are found in various location and innervate the major organs

Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ)

Communication between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber.

Reciprocal Innervation

Components of a neutral circuit simultaneously cause contraction of one muscle and relaxation of its antagonist.

Visceral afferent neuron

Conduct sensory impulses (usually pain or reflex sensations) from the viscera, glands, and blood vessels to the central nervous system.

Presynaptic neuron

Conducts impulses toward the synapse

what are the articulations

Condyle (rounded nob that articulates with another bone, ex. occipital condyles in skull), facet (smooth, flat, slightly concave or convex articular surface), and head (the prominent expanded end of a bone, sometimes rounded)

Neuroglia

Connective tissue cells in nerve tissue, are cells that support and take care of the neurons, they don't conduct electric impulse

Perineurium

Connective tissue covering surrounding the nerve fascicle

Endoneurium

Connective tissue that surrounds the nerve fibers / axons

Pons

Connects spinal cord and cerebellum to the brain. Contains breathing centers.

Perception

Conscious awareness of a sensation, A person's cognitive (mental) interpretation of events.

Descending (Motor) Tract

Consist of axons that carry nerve impulses from the brain.

Ascending (Sensory) Tract

Consist of axons that conduct nerve impulses toward the brain.

Vermis

Constriction that connects the 2 hemispheres of the cerebellum

Anterior (Ventral, Motor) Root

Contain axons of motor neurons, which conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to effectors (muscles and glands).

Posterior (Dorsal, Sensory) Root

Contain only sensory axons, which conduct nerve impulses from sensory receptors in the skin, muscles, and internal organs into the CNS.

Grey matter

Contains glial cells dendrites, nerve cell bodies, unmylinated

Epithalamus

Contains pineal gland and optic nerve. Secretes melatonin which regulates sleep rhythms.

Abdominal Cavity

Contains stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, small intestine and most of large intestine

a) buccinator

Contraction of this muscle presses the cheeks against the teeth and lips as would be observed in whistling, blowing or sucking. a) buccinator b) zygomaticus c) frontalis d) epicranius e) occipitalis

Hypothalamus

Controls the autonomic nervous system. Relays information between the CNS and endocrine system. Monitors blood substances. No blood -brain barrier. Involved in hunger, thirst, sex drives, temperature regulation, & maintain sleep cycle.

Cranial Sutures ( C, S, Sq, L)

Coronal, Sagittal, Squamous (2), Lambdoid

What are the three major cavities?

Cranial, Vertebral, Thoracic, Abdominopelvic

Skull (parts)

Cranium (8 bones), Facial skeleton (14 bones)

what are the extensions and projections

Crest (narrow ridge), epicondyle (expanded region superior to condyle), line (slightly raised, elongated ridge), process (any bony prominence), protuberance (bony outgrowth or protruding part), spine (sharp, slender, or narrow process), trochanter (two massive processes unique to the femur), tubercle (small, rounded process), tuberosity (rough elevated surface)

Sarcoplasm.

Cytoplasm of the muscle fiber.

osteoclast

D

periosteum

D

zone of proliferating cartilage

D

1. the osteocytes are surrounded by matrix so they stop secreting it 2. the osteocytes lie in lacunae and extend their cytoplasm into the canaliculi 3. calcium and mineral salts are deposited and the extracellular matrix calcifies

Describe the process of calcification

In osteoporosis, bone resorption outpaces bone deposition so that bone mass is depleted, sometimes to the point of spontaneous fracture. Pain and height loss may occur as vertebrae shrink. Postmenopausal women are especially at risk due to dramatically reduced estrogen levels after menopause. Family history may play a role, as does ethnicity (white and Asian women have a higher rate of disease), inactivity, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and a diet low in calcium and vitamin D.

Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.

after the break in the bone occurs, blood vessels in that area are damaged and blood surrounds the fracture. The blood solidifies to form a clot, which reduces bleeding. White blood cells migrate into the area to remove bacteria and damaged cells. Osteoclasts migrate in to remove dead bone matrix. Secondly, fibroblasts migrate into the fracture to form a plate of cartilage to prevent further movement and damage at the fracture site. Thirdly, osteoblasts invade to replace the cartilage with bone matrix in the form of spongy bone. Lastly, the bone matrix will be remodeled as compact bone replaces spongy bone.

Describe the steps in bone repair.

Body Fluids

Dilute, watery solutions containing dissolved chemicals that are found inside cells and surrounding them

Homeostatic Imbalances are caused by?

Disorder, Disease, Signs, Symptoms

What is differential white blood cell count?

Doctor's order to count of each of the five types of WBCs, to detect infection orinflammation, determine the effects of possile posioning by hemicals or drugs, monitor blood disorders (such as leukemia) and the effects of chemotherapy, or detect allergic reactions of parasitic infections.

epinephrine

During adulthood which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone remodeling and growth? parathyroid hormones vitamin D epinephrine sex steroids human growth hormone

perichondrium

During endochondral ossification in a fetal bones initially develop as a cartilage model surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the _______

Latent Period.

During this period, the action potential sweeps across the sarcolemma, and the SR releases calcium ions.

Relaxation Phase.

During this period, the calcium levels decreases as calcium ions are are pumped back into the SR, active sites are being covered by tropomyosin, and the number of active cross-bridges is declining as they detach.

Perforating (Sharpey's fibers)

E

osteocyte

E

zone of resting cartilage

E

Perineurium

Each fascicle is wrapped in ______, the middle layer. The ______ is the thickest layer of connective tissue. It consists of ip to 15 layers of fibroblasts within a network of collagen fibers.

What is the name for the body structure that responds to the control center signal in a feedback system?

Effector

Thalamus

Egg - shaped area of grey matter

What compromises plasmas? : Other solutes?

Electrolytes, Nutrients, Gases, Regulatory substances, and Waste products

Gyri

Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called:

Pituitary gland

Endocrine gland attached to the base of the brain that secretes hormones that affect the function of other glands as well as hormones that act directly on physical processes.

Head

Enlargement on the end of a bone

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Regulatory substances

Enyzmes, Hormones, Vitamins/ Catalyze chemical reactions, regulate metabolism, growth and development, and cofactors enzymatic reactions

What are the four basic tissues?

Epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous

a) bipennate / fusiform

Examine the fascicle arrangement of the fusiform muscle and the bipennate muscle. The biceps brachii is a fusiform muscle, and the rectus femoris is a bipennate muscle. The __________ muscle will be powerful, but have a more limited range of motion than the __________ muscle. a) bipennate / fusiform b) fusiform / bipennate

d) rectus abdominis

Exercise can produce a fashionable "six pack" of toned muscles. Which of the following muscles is involved in giving the appearance of this defined pack of muscles? a) external oblique b) internal oblique c) transversus abdominis d) rectus abdominis e) serratus anterior

Babinski Sign

Extensions of the great toe in response to gentle stroking of the outer margin of the soul of the foot is called a positive ____.

Denticulate Ligaments

Extensions. Thickenings of the pia mater. They project laterally and fuse with the arachnoid mater and the inner surface of the dura mater between the anterior an posterior nerve roots of the spinal nerves on either side. Extending along the entire length of the spinal cord, the _______ project the spinal cord against sudden displacement that could result in shock.

compact bone

F

The structure that assists the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are:

FAT PADS

Prone

Face down

Supine

Face up

3 different neurons we use to distinguish taste

Facial Glossophayngeal Vagus

Lateral

Farther from midline

Distal

Farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk; farther from the origination of a structure

c) 3 only

Following a serious ear infection, Rosa develops paralysis on one side of her face. Her mouth and eyelids droop on that side. She can't raise her eyebrow or pucker her lips on the affected side either. Which of the following statements are correct about Rosa's condition? 1. she has a condition known as Bell's Palsy 2. her trochlear nerve (IV) is affected 3. her trigeminal nerve (V) is affected 4. her facial nerve (VII) is affected a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 4

Brachial Plexus

Formed by the roots (anterior rami) of spinal nerves C5-C8 and T1. Extends inferiorly and laterally on wither side of the last four cervical and first thoracic vertebrae. It basses above the first rub posterior to the clavicle and then enters the axilla. Provides almost the entire nerve supply of the shoulders and upper limbs.

Lumbar Plexus

Formed by the roots (anterior rami) of spinal nerves L1-L4. Unlike the brachial plexus, there is minimal intermingling of fibers in this plexus. Supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall, external genitals, and parts of the lower limbs.

Sacral Plexus

Formed by the roots (anterior rami) of spinal nerves L4-L5 and S1-S4. This plexus is largely anterior to the sacrum. Supplies the buttocks, perineum, and lower limbs. The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic nerve, arises from this plexus.

Cervical Plexus

Formed by the roots (anterior rami) of the first four cervical nerves (C1-C4), with contributions from C5. There is one on each side of the neck alongside the first four cervical vertebrae. Supplies the skin and muscles of the head, neck, and superior part of the shoulders and chest.

Gray Commissure

Forms the crossbar of the H.

Muscarinic receptor

Found at cholinergic neuromuscular or neuroglandular junctions in the parasympathetic division; the effects of stimulating these receptors are longer lasting and may be excitatory or inhibitory

Location/ Function of Pluripotent stems cells

Found in the red bone marrow/ Reporduce themsleves, prolierate, and differentiate into cells that give rise to further stem cells Myeloid stem cells and Lymphoid stem cells

Superior sagittal sinus

Found within the superior margin of the falx cerebri, a cavity created which collects blood draining from the brain tissue

Sulcus

Furrow or groove

spongy bone

G

1. initial formation of bones in embryo and fetus 2. growth of bones during infancy, childhood, adolescence 3. remodeling of bone 4. repair of fractures

Give the four principal situations in which ossification occurs.

15% water 30% collagen fiber 55% crystallized mineral salts

Give the percentage of each component that makes up the extracellular matrix of osseous tissue

1. homeostasis is disrupted 2. blood calcium level drops 3. parathyroid gland cells detect the drop (receptors) 4. parathyroid gland increases production of cAMP (input_ 5. genes in the parathyroid gland nucleus sense the increase in cAMP (control center) and increase release of PTH (output) 6. PTH activates effectors, osteoclasts increase bone resorption, kidneys retain Calcium, kidneys excrete phosphate, kidneys produce calcitrol 7. blood level of calcium increases and goes back to normal 8. normal levels of calcium are detected by the parathyroid glands which decrease production of cAMP

Give the steps taken by the body when calcium levels are disrupted and decreased.

second event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

Globin is broken down into amino acids, which can be reused by body cells to synthesize other proteins

Longitudinal Fissure

Groove in the cerebrum that divides the left and right hemispheres

Columns

Group of white matter tracts in the spinal cord.

Fascicle

Groups of axons with their endoneurium are held together in bundles called ______.

Myoblasts.

Groups of embryonic cells that fuse during development, forming individual multinuclaete skeletal fibers.

what is Platelet plug formation

Help fills the gap of a injured vessel

Physiology of Enrythrocyte

Heme, Globin, iron ion

Formed element production in the blood is called?

Hemopoiesis

Significance of High and Low White blood count? : Basophils

High count: Alergic reaction, leukemias, cancers, hypothyriodism Low count: Pregnancy, ovulation, stress, hyperthyriodism

Significance of High and Low White blood count? : Neutrophils

High count: Bacterial inffections, burns, stress, inflammation Low count: Radiation exposure, drug toxicity, vitamin B 12 deficenency, systemic lupus erythamatosus

Significance of High and Low White blood count? : lymphocytes

High count: Viral infections, some leykemias Low count: Prolonged illness, HIV infections, immunosupression treatment with cortisol

Significance of High and Low White blood count? : monocytes

High count: Viral or fungal infections, tuberculosis, some leukemias, other chronic diseases. Low Count: Bone marrow suppression, treatment with cortisol.

Significance of High and Low White blood count? : Eosinophils

High count: allergic reactions, parastic infections, autoimmune diseases Low count: drug toxicity, stress acute allergic reactions

Sensory receptor

Highly specialized cells in the sense organs that detect and respond to one type of sensory stimuli - light, sound, or odor, for example - and transduce (convert)the stimuli into neural impulses.

parallel to the length of the diaphysis.

How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned?

1. at the surface, periosteal cells differentiate into osteoblasts 2. osteoblasts secrete collagen fibers and matrix 3. osteoblasts become surrounded by matrix becoming osteocytes 4. the osteocytes form bone ridges on either side of a periosteal blood vessel

How are the ridges formed in appositional growth?

b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis

If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen, what abdominal muscles, in order from superficial to deep, will the knife go through? a) rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis c) transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, external oblique d) external oblique, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis e) internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external oblique

Why do positive feedback systems that are part of a normal physiological response include a mechanism to stop them?

If unstopped, the mechanism can produce life-threatening conditions in the body

c) fibularis longus

If you wished to evert the foot (turn the sole of the foot outward or laterally), which muscle below would you need to contract? a) tibialis anterior b) extensor digitorum longus c) fibularis longus d) gastrocnemius e) soleus

synarthrosis

Immovable joints/doesn't move example: sutures, synostosis (adults)

Dyslexia

Impairment of the ability to read

d) erector spinae

Improper lifting of a heavy load (such as trying to lift a box of books from its position on the floor), is most likely to cause painful back spasms in which muscle(s)? a) splenius capitis b) splenius cervicis c) longissimus thoracis d) erector spinae e) scalene

d) the aortic hiatus

In a hiatus hernia, the stomach protrudes through which opening of the diaphragm? a) the caval opening b) the esophageal hiatus c) the mediastinum d) the aortic hiatus e) the inguinal hiatus

e) B, C, D

In addition to the subscapularis, three other muscles form the rotator cuff—a group of four deep muscles that strengthen and stabilize the shoulder. Their tendons merge to nearly encircle the shoulder joint, a joint which provides the body's greatest range of motion. Study the below image: along with the subscapularis, which of the choices below correctly identifies the other muscles of the rotator cuff? a) B, C, H b) A, B, C c) B, C, E d) B, C, G e) B, C, D

Premotor Area

In the Frontal Lobe, controls and stores learned skilled movements and communicates with the cerebellum

Broca's Speech Area

In the Frontal Lobe, controls speaking and all muscles involved in speech - in the left and controlled by the left hemisphere

Somatosensory Association Area

In the Parietal Lobe, interprets sensations and relates them with previous experiences

Primary Somatosensory Area

In the Parietal Lobe, receives impulses for touch and proprioception. Posterior to Central Sulcus

Gustatory Area

In the Parietal Lobe, receives nerve impulses from the tongue for experiencing different tastes

Primary Auditory Area

In the Temporal lobe, receives impulses from ears and interprets basic sounds - pitch & rhythm

E

In the diagram where is the central (Haversian) canal?

B

In the diagram where is the zone of hypertrophic cartilage?

D

In the diagram where is the zone of resting cartilage?

a) A

In the diagram, where is the effort? a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices e) None of these choices

b) B

In the diagram, where is the fulcrum? a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices e) None of these choices

seventh event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

In the large intestine, Bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen, some urobilinogen is absorbed back into the blood, is converted to a yellow pigment called urobilin and excreted in urine. Most urobilinogen is eliminated in feces in the form of a brown pigment called stercobilin, which gives feces its characteristic color.

Paget's disease

In this disease, osteoclast proliferate excessively and bone resorption occurs faster than bone deposition. The new bone is weaker and has a higher proportion of spongy to compact bone with decreased amount of minerals and higher amounts of spongy bone.

3

In which region of the diagram would you find the medullary cavity?

Chemical Level

Includes atoms (smallest components of a chemical element) and molecules (two or more atoms joined together)

what does the increase of reticulocytes do?

Increases a larger number of red blood cells in circulation due increases a increased oxygen to delievery to tissues

Endoneurium

Individual axons within a nerve, whether myelinated or unmyelinated, are wrapped in _______, the innermost layer. Consists of a mesh of collagen fibers, fibroblasts, and macrophages.

Spatial summation

Individual signals from separate synapses located at different locations across the neuron, occur close enough in time that they converge and "add up" as they travel across the neuron.

Shingles

Infection of PNS caused by herpes zoster, the virus that also causes chicken pox.

Lumbar Enlargement

Inferior enlargement. Extends from ninth to the twelfth thoracic vertebra. Nerves to and from the lower limbs arise from this enlargement.

Conus Medullaris

Inferior to the lumbar enlargement, the spinal terminates as a tapering, conical structure called the _______, which ends at the level of the intervertebral disc between the first and second lumbar vertebrae in adults.

Neuritis

Inflammation of a nerve or nerves

Sciatica

Inflammation of the sciatic nerve

Myelitis

Inflammation of the spinal cord

Fast pain

Info passed thru myelinated fibers =sharp pain

Synaptic vesicles

Located inside the synaptic end bulb, contains neurotransmitters to be released into the synapse

Epidural Block

Injection of anesthetic drug into the epidural space (between dura mater and cerebral column) in order to cause a temporary loss of sensation.

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Electrolytes

Inorganic salts: positive charge and negative charge/Help maintain osmotic pressure and essential roles in cell functions

Suture

Interlocking line of union between bones

Perception

Interpretation of a stimulus

Parietal Lobe

Interprets sensations from all areas of the body

Polysynaptic Reflex Arc

Involves more than two types of neurons and more than one CNS synapse.

Flexor Reflex

Involves post synaptic reflex arc. Results from painful stimulus. Ex: step on a tack and immediately withdraw your leg.

third event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

Iron is removed from the heme protein associates with the plasma protein transferrin, a transporter for iron in the bloodtream

Perimysium.

It divides the skeletal muscle into a series of compartments.

Smooth Muscle Tissue.

It forms sheets, bundles, or sheaths around other tissue in almost every organ.

Cross-Bridges.

It forms when myosin heads binds to exposed active sites.

Titin.

It helps keep the thick and thin filaments in proper alignment and aids in restoring resting sarcomere length after contraction.

When the kidney cells detect hypoxia, what does it do?

It increases the erythropoietin secretion in blood.

Creatine.

It is a small molecule that muscle cells assemble from fragments of amino acids.

Active Site.

It is where myosin (in the thick filaments) can bind.

The Function of Skeletal Muscle.

It produces movement, maintains posture and body posture, supports soft tissue, guards body entrances and exits, maintains body temperature, and store nutrients.

Endomysium.

It surrounds the individual skeletal muscle cells.

What cell has receptors to regulate the oxygen in the body?

Kidney cells detect hypoxia

Tubercle

Knoblike process

Tuberosity

Knoblike process usually larger than a tubercle

What organ lies distinctly in both the abdominal & pelvic cavities?

Large Intestine

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Globulins

Large proteins ( plama cells produce immunoglobulins)/ Immunoglobulins transport iron, lipids, and fat-soluble vitamins

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Fibrinogen

Large proteins/ Plays essentioal role in blood clotting

The Periods of a Twitch.

Latent period, contraction phase, and a relaxation phase.

Temporal Lobe

Lateral area responsible for interpreting sounds and rhythm, speech, music and noise

what is Platelet plug formation: platelet release reaction

Liberate the contents of their vesicles, Liberated chemicals activate nearby platelets and sustain the vascular spasm, which decreases blood flow through the injured vessel.

Pineal gland

Lies in posterior portion of roof of 3rd ventricle, the gland that plays a major role in sexual development, sleep, and metabolism

connective tissues

Like other _____ bone tissue contains an abundant extracellular matrix that surrounds widely separated cells.

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Water

Liquid portion of blood/Solvent and suspending medium: absorbs, transports and releases heat

1, The skeletal system is used for support for the soft tissues of the body and as attachment sites for tendons of most skeletal muscles. 2. The skeletal system functions in protection for the internal organs. 3. The skeletal system assists in movement working together with the muscle system. 4. Skeletal system aids in mineral (calcium and phosphorus) homeostasis by storing several minerals and releasing them into the bloodstream on demand. 5. Within some bones is red bone marrow that produces blood cells. 6. Bones also contain yellow bone marrow which is a storage site for energy in the form of triglycerides.

List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes

List bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell.

1. formation of fracture hematoma 2. fibrocartilaginous callus formation 3. bony callus formation 4. bone remodeling

List the four steps involved in the repair of a bone fracture

1. development of the ossification center 2. calcification 3. formation of trabecular 4. development of the periosteum

List the four steps of intramembraneous ossification.

1. development of the cartilage model 2. growth of the cartilage model 3. development of primary ossification center 4. development of the medullary cavity 5. development of secondary ossification centers 6. formation of articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

List the six steps of endochondral ossification.

resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage

Lists the order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis.

Nicotinic receptor

Located in the CNS, adrenal medulla, the autonomic ganglia, and the neuromuscular junction. Initiates muscle contraction. Binding sites for acetylchoine. parasympathetic division.

Which WBC's are called agranular leukocytes? why?

Lymphocyte and monocyte/ they are called agranular leukocytes because they do not have a granular vesicles in the cytoplasm.

The Divisions of Thin Filament A Bands.

M line, H band, and zone of overlap.

first event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

Macrophages in the spleen,liver, and red bone marrow phagocytize ruptured and worn-out red blood cells, splitting apart the globin and heme portions of hemoglobin

Diencephalon

Made up up of the thalamus and hypothalamus. Involved in sorting and processing sensory information. Recognizes pain and emotions.

Homeostasis

Maintenance of relatively stable internal body conditions despite changes that occur inside or outside the body; Dynamic process with constant monitoring and adjustments within normal limits; Body fluids constitute internal body environment that is regulated-Composition, Volume, Pressure, Temperature

Sternum (3 parts)

Manubrium, Body, Xiphoid process

Name 4 fontanels

Mastoid, sphenoid, anterior, and posterior

What are the 6 most important life processes of the human body?

Metabolism, Responsiveness, Movement, Growth, Differentiation, Reproduction

Absolute refractory period

Minimum length of time after an action potential during which another action potential cannot begin

Information Transmitted by sensory receptors

Modality Location Intensity Duration

Troponin.

Molecules that consist of three globular subuniys.

Two or more atoms join together to form what? To which level of organization does this belong?

Molecules, chemical level

Visceroceptors

Monitor bp and chemical analysis of blood and digestive organ conditions

Interoceptors

Monitor internal environment

Exteroceptors

Monitor stimuli that comes from outside the body; touch, sight, hearing, taste and smell

Intrinsic stage

More complex than an Extrinsic pathway. Activators are inside the blood contact with collagen fibers releases some phosphoolipids Ca2+ and clotting factors are in motion and it activates Prothombinase

Dura mater

Most external and toughest of the three membranes (meninges) covering the brain and spina

How is the circulation of lymphoctres within the body different from other WBC's

Most lymphocytes continually move among lymphatic tissues, lymph, and blood, spending only a few hours at a time in blood.

b) joint

Most muscles cross at least one a) tendon b) joint c) bone d) ligament e) body plane

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Plasma proteins

Most produced by liver/ Responsible for colloid osmotic pressure: major contributioors to blood viscosity: transport hormones (steriod_, fatty aciods, and calcium: help regulate blood pH

Visceral efferent neuron

Motor neurons supplying involuntary, smooth muscle of viscera, blood vessels, cardiac muscle and glands

Reposition

Movement back to the anatomical position

Medial excursion

Movement back to the midline

Inversion

Movement in which the soles are turned medially

Opposition

Movement of the thumb to approach or touch the fingertips that allows you to grasp an object and hold on to it

b) elliptical

Muscle fascicles can be arranged in one of several patterns. Which of the following patterns is not an example of the arrangement of fascicles in a muscle? a) pennate b) elliptical c) fusiform d) triangular e) circular

Effector

Muscle of gland that responds to motor impulses.

c) the fulcrum

Muscles act on bones to produce movement. The bones act as levers and the joints act as __________. a) the load b) the resistance c) the fulcrum d) the force e) the effort

White Muscles.

Muscles dominated by fast fibers that appear pale.

Red Muscles.

Muscles dominated by slow fibers that appear reddish.

c) perineum

Muscles of the ____ assist in urination, defecation, erection of the penis or clitoris, and ejaculation. a) thorax b) abdomen c) perineum d) vertebral column e) none of these choices

Salty

Na, K, craving for this type of food can be caused by an electrolyte deficiency

support protection assistance in movement mineral homeostasis blood cell production triglyceride storage

Name 6 functions of the skeletal system

outer fibrous layer - dense irregular connective tissue inner osteogenic layer - cells

Name the two layers of the periosteum and give their composition

Linea

Narrow ridge

Crest

Narrow, ridgelike projection

Medial

Nearer to midline

Posterior

Nearer to or at the back of body

Anterior

Nearer to or at the front of body

Proximal

Nearer to the attachment of a limb to the trunk; nearer to the origination of a structure

Spinal cord

Nerves that run up and down the length of the back and transmit most messages between the body and brain

epiphyseal growth plate

a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the diaphysis of the bone to grow in length

High levels of PTH would cause high levels of osteoclast activity, thus removing calcium from bones. Bones would become weak and soft. Excess phosphate would be lost from the kidneys. High levels of calcium ions in blood may disrupt nerve and muscle function. Calcitonin levels would probably be high, trying to restore homeostasis by increasing deposition of calcium into bone.

Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands. Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.

Appendicular Skeleton

Pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, lower limbs

3, 1, 5, 2, 4

Place in order the steps involved in endochonral ossification (1) nutrient artery invades the perichondrium (2) osteoclasts create a marrow cavity (3) chondrocytes enlarge and calcify (4) secondary ossification centers appear at epiphyses (5) osteoblasts become active in the primary ossification center

2, 5, 1, 4, 3

Place in order the steps involved in intramembranous ossification (1) bony matrices fuse to form trabeculae (2) clusters of osteoblasts form a center of ossification that secretes the extracellular matrix (3) spongy bone is replaced with compact bone on the bone's surface (4) periosteum develops on the bone's periphery (5) the extracellular matrix hardens by deposition of calcium and mineral salts

2, 4, 5, 1, 3

Place in order the steps involved in the repair of a bone fracture. (1) osteoblast production of trabecular and bony callus formation (2) formation of hematoma at the site of fracture (3) resorption of remaining bone fragments and remodeling of bone (4) migration of fibroblasts to the fracture site (5) bridging of broken ends of bones by a fibrocartilaginous callus

The components of blood?

Plasma and formed elements

What are the three proccesses that occur in Platelet plug formation

Platelet adhesion Platelet release reaction Platelet aggregation Platelet plug

What is Platelet plug formation: Platelet adhesion

Platelet contact and stick to parts of the damaged blood vessel, such as collagen fibers of the connective tissue underlying the damadge endothelial cells.

Axon Hillock

Portion of the neuron that connects the cell body, soma, to the axon. The impulses the neuron receives from all the dendrites are summed up here. This determines whether an action potential will fire or not.

Cell body

Processes nutrients and provides energy for the neuron to function; contains the cell's nucleus; also called the soma.

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Nutrients

Products of digestion,such as amino acids, glucose, fatty acids, glycerol, vitamins, and minerals/ Essential in cells functions, growth and development.

what does Increase of erythropoietin do?

Proerythroblasts in red bone marrow mature more quickly into reticulocytes.

Epicondyle

Projection situated above a condyle

Process

Prominent projection on a bone

Body Cavities

Protect & support internal organs & isolate them from one another

What does blood protect?

Protects against blood loss through clotting and against disease throught phagocytic white blood cells and proteins such as antibodies, interferons, and complement.

Gated ion channels

Protein channels that open or close in response to stimuli and allows ions to pass through

What compromises plasmas?three main components?

Proteins, Water, and other solutes

a) hernia.

Protrusion of an organ through a structure that normally contains it is referred to as a a) hernia. b) goiter. c) strain. d) sprain. e) hydrocele.

Name major bone functions

Provide shape to body, support body structures, protect body structures, aid body movement, contain tissue that produces blood cells, store inorganic salts

Saltatory conduction

Rapid transmission of a nerve impulse along an axon, resulting from the action potential jumping from one node of Ranvier to another, skipping the myelin-sheathed regions of membrane.

What are the three basic components that make up the feedback system?

Receptor, control center, and effector

Crossed Extensor Reflex

Reflex involved in pulling away from painful stimulus and balancing with opposite limb

Fossa

Relatively deep pit or depression

Receptor

Responds to a stimulus by producing a generator or receptor potential.

c) 3 only

Ross is in a car accident, and experiences damage to the trigeminal (V) nerve. Which action will possibly be affected by this trauma? 1. lateral movement of the eye 2. blinking of the eyelids 3. chewing food 4. puckering of the lips a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) both 3 & 4 will be affected

Nissl bodies

Rough endoplasmic reticulum in neuron

Condyle

Rounded process that usually articulates with another bone

Zone of Hypertrophic cartilage

Rows of older cells left behind when new cells appear; thicken epiphyseal plate, lengthening the bone; matrix calcifies and cartilage cells die (Rabbits Prefer "Hopping" Continuously)

Zone of Proliferating cartilage

Rows of young cells, undergoing mitosis (Rabbits "Prefer" Hopping Continuously)

what are the four sutures

Sagittal (between parietal bones), coronal (front of head), lambdoid (back of head), squamous (sides, above ears)

5 taste sensations are

Salty Sweet Sour Bitter Umami

Physiology

Science of body function

Anatomy

Science of body structures and their relationships

Alpha receptor

Stimulation results in smooth muscle excitation or contraction which causes vasoconstriction in peripherals and non-vital organs. Pupil dilation.

Midbrain

Structure part of the brain stem that connects to the diencephalon. Involved in muscle movement & control. Connects cerebrum to cerebellum.

a) extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm

Study the below image. Which action would the teres major have on the humerus if it were contracted? a) extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm b) abduction and lateral rotation of the arm c) abduction of the arm d) medial rotation only of the arm e) none of these choices correct.

b) the insertion will be pulled toward the origin

Study the image below. If the biceps brachii contracts, which of the following events will occur? a) the origin will be pulled toward the insertion b) the insertion will be pulled toward the origin c) the triceps brachii will also contract d) the movement will be reflexively opposed by the triceps brachii e) none of these will occur

Abdominopelvic Cavity

Subdivided into abdominal & pelvic cavities; from diaphragm to pelvic floor

Sweet

Sugars, lots of carbohydrates and high calorie food

Cervical Enlargement

Superior enlargement. Extends from the fourth cervical vertebra (C4) to the first thoracic vertebra (T1). Nerves to and from the upper limbs arise from this enlargement.

Schwann cell (neurolemmocyte)

Supporting cells of the peripheral nervous system responsible for the formation of myelin.

Neck

Supports the head & attaches it to the trunk

Satellite cells

Surround neuron cell bodies in sensory ganglia in the PNS

Pericardial Cavity

Surrounds the heart

Pleural Cavity

Surrounds the lungs

Adrenergic fibers

Sympathetic nerve endings of the autonomic nervous system that release norepinephrine

Cholinergic fibers

Sympathetic nerve endings of the autonomic nervous system that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

Trochlear Trigeminal Abducens Facial

T, T, A, F pairs of cranial nerves

Autonomic plexuses

Tangled networks of axons of both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons in the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis formed by autonomic nerves, they include...1.Cardiac 2.Pulmonary 3.Celiac (or Solar) 4.Mesentric 5.Renal.

Taryn has probably developed a stress fracture in her right tibia. The fracture would not be visible on an x-ray but it would be visible on a bone scan

Taryn is a high school senior who is undergoing a strenuous running regimen for several hours a day. Lately she has experienced intense pain in her right leg that is hindering her workouts. The doctor doe to notice any outward evidence of injury and orders a bone scan. What does her doctor suspect the problem is?

Chemical sensations are

Taste

Almost everything goes through the what except smell

Thalamus

Which part of the Red blood cell carries carbon dioxide?

The Globin part of the hemoglobin molecule

Sliding Filament Theory

The H bands and I bands narrow, the zone of overlap widen, the Z line move closer together, and the A band remains constant.

b) erector spinae

The __________ muscle(s) is (are) the primary extensor muscle(s) of the vertebral column. a) transversospinales b) erector spinae c) spinalis thoracis d) scalene group e) rotators

Contractivility.

The ability of a muscle to shorten when it is stimulated.

Plasticity.

The ability to function over a wide range of length.

Excitability.

The ability to receive and respond to a stimulus.

What is Platelet plug formation: platelet plug

The accumulation and attachment of large numbers of platelets form a mass called platelet plug

Oxygen Debt.

The amount of oxygen required to restore normal, pre-exertion conditions.

Endurance.

The amount of time during which a person can perform a particular activity.

Glycolysis.

The anaerobic breakdown of glucose to pyruvate in the cytosol of a cell.

Dermatome

The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves or the trigeminal (V) nerve is called a ______.

Parasympathetic division

The branch of the autonomic nervous system that generally conserves bodily resources, tries to store as much energy as possible. "Rest and digest"

Aponeurosis.

The broad sheet that forms when the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium come together.

Tendon.

The bundle that forms when the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium come together.

M Line.

The center of the A band.

a) diaphragm

The central tendon is an aponeurosis of the __________, and it fuses to the inferior portion of the pericardium (membrane covering the heart), and pleura (membrane covering each lung). a) diaphragm b) rectus abdominis c) transversus abdominis d) internal intercostals e) innermost intercostals

Triad.

The combination of a pair of terminal M plus a T tubule.

Electrochemical gradient

The combined difference in concentration and charge; influences the distribution and direction of diffusion of ions.

inner ear

a maze of temporal bone passageways (bony labyrinth) and lined by fleshy tubes (membranous labyrinth)

hardness tensile strenth

The crystallized inorganic mineral salts in bone contribute to bone's _______. Collagen fibers and organic molecules provide the bone with _______.

A Bands.

The dark bands of a sarcomere.

Axon Terminal

The endpoint of a neuron where neurotransmitters are stored

Myosin Light Chain Kinase.

The enzime Calmodulin activates, which in turn enables myosin heads to attach to actin.

Creatine Kinase.

The enzyme that catalyzes the (ADP + Creatine Phosphate = ATP + Creatine) reaction.

a) 1 only

The extrinsic muscles of the tongue have their origins on which of the following bones of the skull? 1. hyoid 2. maxilla 3. temporal 4. mandible a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1, 3 and 4

Describe Clot retraction

The fibrin attached to the damaged surfaces of the blood vessel, as the clot retracts, it pulls the edges of the damaged blood surfaces of the blood vessel. Closing the hole in the blood vessel even more, allow permanent repairing to occur.

Horns

The grey matter on each side of the spinal cord is subdivided into regions called ______.

Second positive Feedback of Thrombin

The increase of thrombin, increases platelets, which reinforces aggregation and the releases of platelet phospholipids. This makes the fibrin clot grow.

First positive Feedback of Thrombin.

The increases of thrombin, increases prothrombinases, which increases thrombin

Pia Mater

The innermost meninx is a thin transparent connective tissue layer that adheres to the surface of the spinal cord and brain. It consists of thin squamous to cuboidal cells within interlacing bundles of collagen fibers and some fine elastic fibers. Within the _____ are many blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord. Triangular shaped membranous extensions of the _____ suspend the spinal cord in the muddle of its dural sheath.

what portion o the heme group binds the oxygen?

The iron located in the heme

fourth event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

The iron-transferrin complex is then carried to the red bone marrow, where red blood cells precursor cells use it in hemoglobin synthesis. Iron is needed for the heme portion of the hemo globin molecule and amino acids are needed for the globin portion. Vitamin B12 is also needed for the synthesis of hemoglobin.

Aerobics Endurance.

The length of time a muscle can continue while supported by mitochondrial activities.

Threshold

The level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse

I Bands.

The light bands of a sarcomere.

H band.

The lighter region on either side of the M line when the sarcomere is resting.

e) 2 & 3

The linea alba is made up of what structures? 1. the aponeurosis of the rectus abdominis 2. the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis 3. the aponeurosis of the internal and external obliques a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 e) 2 & 3

Excitation-Contraction Coupling.

The link between the generation of an action potential in the sarcolemma and the start of a muscle contraction.

Force.

The maximum amount of tension produced by a particular muscle or muscle group.

Dura Mater

The most superficial of the three spinal meninges is a thick strong layer composed of dense irregular connective tissue. The ______ forms a sac from the level of the foramen magnum in the occipital bone, where it is continuous with the meningeal ______ of the brain, to the second sacral vertebra. The ______ is also continuous with the epineurium, the outer covering of the spinal and cranial nerves.

Power Stroke.

The movement of the head swinging toward the M line.

Hyperpolarization

The movement of the membrane potential of a cell away from rest potential in a more negative direction.

c) ischial spine / coccyx

The muscles of the pelvic floor originate on the pubis and __________, and insert onto soft tissues and the __________. a) anterior inferior iliac spine / ischial spine b) posterior superior iliac spine / sacrum c) ischial spine / coccyx d) sacrum / coccyx e) anterior inferior iliac spine / coccyx

Reflex Arc

The pathway followed by nerve impulses that produce a reflex is a ________.

Contraction Phase.

The period where tension reaches peak, calcium ions binding to troponin, active sites on thin filaments are exposed, and cross-bridge interactions are occurring.

Sarcolemma

The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber that surrounds the sarcoplasm.

Axolemma

The plasma membrane of the axon

White matter

The portions of the central nervous system that are abundant in axons rather than cell bodies of neurons.

Automaticity.

The property of cardiac muscles tissue contracts without neural stimulation.

Importance of why red blood cells live 120 days?

The rate of Red blood cells formation by red bone marrow norammly equals the rate of Red blood cells destruction by macrophages.

d) bipennate

The rectus femoris of the upper leg is an example of what type of fascicle arrangement? a) fusiform b) triangular c) pennate d) bipennate e) multipennate

Atrophy.

The reduction of muscle size, tone, and power.

Achilles Reflex

The response of this reflex is plantar flexion when the achilles (calcaneal) tendon is tapped with the reflex hammer.

Sarcomeres.

The smallest functional units of the muscle fiber.

Arachnoid Mater (Arachnoid)

This layer, the middle of the meningeal membranes, is a thing, avascular covering comprised of cells and thing, loosely arranges collagen and elastic fibers. It is called the _______ because of it's spider's web arrangement of delicate collagen fibers and some elastic fibers. It is deep to the dura mater and it continuous through the foramen magnum with the _______ of the brain.

d) obturator externus, and superior and inferior gemellus

This muscle group makes up the posterior compartment (a group of muscles, nerves and blood vessels with a similar purpose)of the thigh, and is innervated by branches of the sciatic nerve). This group is also a powerful extensor of the thigh. a) quadriceps femoris b) hamstrings c) adductors magnus, longus and brevis d) obturator externus, and superior and inferior gemellus e) iliopsoas muscle

c) extensor digitorum

This muscle is a prime mover (agonist) in extending the fingers. a) extensor carpi radialis longus b) extensor carpi radialis brevis c) extensor digitorum d) extensor digiti minimi e) extensor carpi ulnaris

a) mylohyoid

This muscle, which is found in the neck, functions to elevate the hyoid bone and help press the tongue against the roof of the mouth during swallowing. a) mylohyoid b) sternothryroid c) sternocleidomastoid d) digastric e) masseter

Somatic Reflex

This reflex involves the contraction of skeletal muscles.

Autonomic (Visceral) Reflex

This reflex is generally not consciously perceived. It involves the response of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. Heart rate, digestion, and urination are controlled my this reflex.

a) triangular

This type of fascicle arrangement has the fascicles spread over a broad area and converges at a thick central tendon. a) triangular b) pennate c) circular d) fusiform e) multipennate

d) fixator

This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it can act more efficiently. a) synergist b) agonist c) antagonist d) fixator e) secondary mover

Spine

Thornlike projection

Meninx (sing.)/ Meninges (pl.)

Three protective, connective tissue covering that encircle the spinal cord and brain. From superficial to deep they are the (1) dura mater, (2) arachnoid mater, and (3) pia mater.

Common pathway Second stage consequence

Throbin activiates, Thrombin also activiates a clotting factorthat a stregthens and stabilizes the fibrin threads into a sturdy clot.

The oygen pathway starting from the capillaries?

Tissue capillaries, Interstital fluid, into cells

d) supinator

To turn a doorknob to the right, which muscle(s) of the forearm would you use? a) anconeus b) brachioradialis c) pronator teres d) supinator e) pronator quadratus

Superficial

Toward or on the surface of the body

Superior

Toward the head or upper part

What are the 3 functions of blood?

Transportation, Regulation, and Protection

true

True or False The formation of bone from cartilage is known as endochondral ossification.

true

True or False The growth of bone is controlled primarily by hormones.

true

True or False bone resorption involves increased activity of osteoclasts

True

True/False A compartment is a group of muscles that have a common function, blood vessels and nerves associated with that muscle group.

False

True/False A compartment is a group of muscles, associated fascia, nerves, and blood vessels, which perform a related function. The arm has both an anterior (flexor) compartment, and a posterior (extensor) compartment. Based upon innervations, the biceps brachii, brachialis and brachioradialis would all be members of the anterior compartment.

False

True/False All of the intrinsic muscles of the foot are innervated by the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

True

True/False All of the muscles of both the superficial and deep posterior (extensor) compartments of the forearm are innervated by the radial nerve or branches of the radial nerve.

False

True/False All of the muscles of the superficial posterior (extensor) compartment have at least one of their origins on the interosseus membrane between the radius and ulna.

True

True/False Damage to the radial nerve could result in difficulties with both flexing and extending the lower arm.

True

True/False Four of the six extrinsic muscles that move the eyeball are innervated by the oculomotor nerve (III).

True

True/False If the hip is the fulcrum, and the muscles of the thigh represent the effort, and the weight of the leg provides the resistance (or load). This is a good example of a third class lever.

False

True/False Impingement syndrome, a common stress-related injury in sports such as tennis or baseball, is caused by compression of the tendon of the infraspinatus.

False

True/False In extending the arm, the role of the triceps brachii is to act as the antagonist.

False

True/False In muscles of the limbs, the origin of the muscle is usually distal and the insertion is proximal.

True

True/False It would not be possible to raise the arm above the head if the scapula could not be elevated to move with the humerus.

True

True/False Most of the muscles of both the superficial and deep anterior (flexor) compartments of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve.

False

True/False Most of the muscles that move the upper leg (thigh) originate on the femur and insert on the pelvic girdle.

True

True/False The action of the suprahyoid muscles causes elevation of the hyoid bone, while the infrahyoid muscles generally cause depression of the hyoid.

True

True/False The belly of the muscle that moves a joint often does not itself cover the joint.

False

True/False The diaphragm, a muscle involved with breathing, is innervated by the phrenic nerve, a major nerve of the thoracic spinal nerves.

False

True/False The extrinsic muscles of the tongue insert on the lateral and superior portions of the tongue.

True

True/False The extrinsic tongue muscles originate outside the tongue and insert within the tongue, while the intrinsic muscles of the tongue have their origins and insertions within the tongue.

True

True/False The gluteus medius is a common site for intramuscular injections.

True

True/False The intrinsic muscles of the foot have their origins and their insertions within the foot.

False

True/False The intrinsic muscles of the hand all have their origins on the distal ends of either the radius or ulna, and their insertions on the metacarpals or phalanges of the hand.

False

True/False The longer the fibers in a muscle, the less range of motion it is able to produce.

True

True/False The mastoid process of the temporal bone is an important insertion point for muscles of the neck that move the head.

True

True/False The more fibers per cross-sectional area that a muscle has, the more power it can produce in a contraction.

True

True/False The most important muscle that powers breathing is the diaphragm.

False

True/False The muscle of the posterior abdominal wall play an important role in forced exhalation, providing muscular force for urination and defecation, and in helping to expel the infant during childbirth.

False

True/False The muscle that elevates the eyelid (opens the eye), unlike most of the extrinsic muscles of the eye, is innervated by the abducens (VI) nerve.

True

True/False The muscles of facial expression insert onto the skin, so when they contract, they move skin rather than a joint.

False

True/False The muscles of the perineum are superior to the muscles of the pelvic floor.

False

True/False The only muscles that are ever used in breathing are the diaphragm, and the external intercostals muscles.

True

True/False The only type of lever in the body that might not provide mechanical advantage is a first class lever (and these are rare).

True

True/False The pelvic diaphragm is penetrated by the anal canal and the urethra in both sexes, and by the vagina in females.

True

True/False The plantar aponeurosis (plantar fascia) extends from the calcaneus to the phalanges of the toes, and when inflamed is a common source of heel pain (plantar fasciitis).

True

True/False The quadriceps femoris muscle (made up of a group of four muscles) is the largest muscle of the body.

True

True/False The quadriceps tendon and the patellar ligament are continuous with each other—the quadriceps tendon blends into the patellar ligament.

False

True/False The quadriceps tendon is the strongest tendon in the body.

False

True/False The sternocleidomastoid muscles serves as important landmarks (both anatomically and surgically) that divide the neck into anterior and posterior triangles. The anterior triangle is bordered inferiorly by the clavicle, and laterally by the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid, and by the anterior border of the trapezius muscle.

True

True/False The suprahyoid muscles are involved with swallowing (deglutition), while the infrahyoid muscles return the hyoid to its pre-swallowing position, and also act on the thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple) of the larynx in the production of speech.

False

True/False The term quadriceps refers to the shape of a muscle, and indicates this muscle is shaped approximately like a square, with four corners.

True

True/False The tibialis anterior is important for dorsiflexion of the foot.

False

True/False The trapezius and deltoid muscles are both innervated by the axillary nerve.

True

True/False When the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall become weakened and stretched, the result is a "pot belly."

Meatus

Tubelike passageway within a bone

Eversion

Turning the soles to face laterally

Modality

Type of stimulus (information transmitted by sensory receptors), uses labeled line code ex: vision, hearing, taste

General Sensory Categories

Unencapsulated Encapsulated

Substances in Plasma? Description/Function : Waste products

Urea, Uric acid, Creatine, Creatinine, Bilirubin, Ammonia/ Most are breakdown products of proteins metabolism that are carried by the blood to organs of excretion.

Vestibulocochlear Glossopharyngeal Vagus

V, G, V pairs of cranial nerves

Three mechanisms that reduce blood loss from blood vessels

Vascular spasm Platelet plug formation Blood clotting (coagulation)

Slow pain

Via unmyelated fibers =dull pain

Emigration in white blood cells

WBC rolls along the endotheilum of capillary walls, stick to it, and then squeezr through the wall

fifth event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

WIthin red bone marrow, erythropoiesis (red blood cell productions) releases red blood cells into the circulation.

Reason why blood cells lives 120 days?

Wear and tear their plasma membranes undergo as they squeeze through blood capillaries.

osteoclasts

What are bone-dissolving cells called?

canaliculi

What are the extracellular fluid filled extensions of the lacunae called?

as the extracellular matrix forms it develops into trabecular that fuse to form spongy bone around the network of blood vessels in the tissue. the blood vessels differentiate into red bone marrow

What happens in the formation of trebeculae?

It turns into yellow bone marrow that consists mainly of adipose cells which store triglycerides

What happens to red bone marrow in an adult? How does the composition change?

diaphysis

What is another name for the shaft of a long bone?

d) protracts mandible (as in opening the mouth)

What is the action of the muscle labeled C? a) laterally flex and rotate head b) extends head c) depresses tongue d) protracts mandible (as in opening the mouth) e) elevates the mandible (as in closing the mouth)

a) adducts and medially rotates arm at shoulder joint

What is the action of the muscle labeled G? a) adducts and medially rotates arm at shoulder joint b) abducting arm at shoulder joint c) laterally rotates arm at shoulder joint d) laterally rotates and extends arm at shoulder joint e) extends forearm at elbow joint

b) flexes the forearm at the elbow joint

What is the action of the muscle labeled I? a) extends the forearm at the elbow joint b) flexes the forearm at the elbow joint c) pronates the forearm at the radioulnar joints d) abduct arm at shoulder joint e) rotates arm at shoulder joint

periosteum

What is the fibrous covering on the surface of bone that is involved in thickening of the bone called?

c) calcaneus by way of Achilles tendon

What is the insertion of the muscle labeled D? a) lateral and medial condyles of femur and capsule of knee b) head of fibula c) calcaneus by way of Achilles tendon d) anterior surface of fibula and interosseous membrane e) distal phalanx of great toe

a) mastoid process of temporal bone

What is the insertion of the muscle labeled E? a) mastoid process of temporal bone b) sternum and clavicle c) occipital bone d) clavicle and spine of the scapula e) coracoid process of the scapula

c) olecranon of ulna

What is the insertion of the muscle labeled F? a) ulnar tuberosity and coronoid process of ulna b) radial tuberosity of radius and bicipital aponeurosis c) olecranon of ulna d) lateral border of distal end of humerus e) lateral epicondyle of humerus

e) deltoid tuberosity of humerus

What is the insertion of the muscle labeled G? a) greater tubercle of humerus b) inferior angle of scapula c) spine of the scapula d) acromial extremity of the clavicle e) deltoid tuberosity of humerus

b) cartilage of the fifth to seventh rib and xiphoid process

What is the insertion of the muscle labeled Q? a) iliac crest and linea alba b) cartilage of the fifth to seventh rib and xiphoid process c) ribs 5-12 d) central tendon e) costal cartilages and adjacent portion of the inferior 6 ribs

calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2 combines with calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2 to form hydroxyapatite Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2

What is the major reaction of salt crystallization in osseous tissue

c) third class lever

What is the most common class of levers found in the body? a) first class lever b) second class lever c) third class lever

c) medial wall of orbit

What is the origin of the muscle labeled B? a) upper lip b) mandible c) medial wall of orbit d) skin at the corner of the mouth e) skin of the eyebrow

d) epicranial aponeurosis

What is the origin of the muscle labeled D? a) fascia over parotid gland b) fascia over deltoid and pectoralis muscles c) skin of the lower lip d) epicranial aponeurosis e) mandible

metaphysis

What is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis called?

the development of a cartilage model a. hyaline cartilage in the epiphysis b. brown is periosteum c. ossification center

What is this diagram showing? a b c

calcium carbonate magnesium flouride potassium sulfate

What salts does calcium phosphate combine with other than calcium hydroxide?

ridges in the periosteum create a groove

What step is this in appositional growth?

15

What structure in the diagram is the only place on a long bone NOT covered by the periosteum?

2

What type of bone cell starts forming the bone matrix?

osteoblasts

What type of cell is considered to be bone-building cells?

Vascular spasm

When blood arteries or arterioles are damaged, the smooth muscle in their wall contracts.

Spinal Reflex

When integration takes place in the spinal cord gray matter, the reflex is a ______. An example is the familiar patellar reflex (knee jerk)

sixth event take place for the body to remove ruptured red blood cells

When iron is removed from heme, the non-iron portion of heme is converted into biliverdin, a green pigment, then into bilirubin, a yellow pigment. bilirubin enters the blood and is transported to the liver. Within the liver, bilirubin is secreted by livers into bile, which passes into the small intestine and thein into the large intestine.

Chemotaxis

When the WBC ingest bateria, it releases chemicals which other WBC are attracted to.

scleral venous sinus

aqueous humor is reabsorbed by this structure to balance the rate of secretion

e) the muscle fascicles run parallel to the midline of the body

When the term rectus appears in the name of a muscle, it indicates that a) it is a relatively small muscle b) it is a relatively large muscle c) it is circular in shape d) it is flat in shape e) the muscle fascicles run parallel to the midline of the body

in the spaces between the trabeculae

Where can the bone marrow be found within the spongy bone?

all bone marrow in developing bones of the fetus all bone marrow in a newborn baby adult hip bones, ribs, sternum, vertebrae, skull, and the ends of the bones of the humerus and femur

Where do you find red bone marrow in a fetus? Newborn? Adult?

d) the first metatarsal and the medial cuneiform

Where does the tibialis anterior insert onto the foot? a) by means of the calcaneal tendon b) the interosseus membrane c) the distal phalanx of the great toe d) the first metatarsal and the medial cuneiform e) the base of the fifth metatarsal

1, 2, and 4

Where in the diagram can you find red bone marrow in an adult?

B

Where in the diagram is articular cartilage located?

??????

Where in the diagram is the endosteum located?

E

Where in the diagram is the endosteum located?

A

Where in the diagram is the proximal epiphysis?

G

Where in the figure is spongy bone located?

c) E

Where is the abductor digiti minimi? a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G

a) H

Where is the adductor longus? a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L

c) C

Where is the brachioradialis? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

c) I

Where is the buccinator? a) F b) G c) I d) J e) K

c) F

Where is the deltoid? a) C b) D c) F d) G e) I

a) K

Where is the depressor anguli oris? a) K b) L c) M d) N e) None of these choices

A

Where is the epiphyseal vein?

b) E

Where is the external oblique? a) D b) E c) F d) H e) I

b) G

Where is the external oblique? a) D b) G c) H d) I e) E

b) E

Where is the flexor carpi radialis? a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H

b) D

Where is the gastrocnemius? a) C b) D c) G d) H e) I

b) I

Where is the gracilis? a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L

a) A

Where is the iliacus? a) A b) B c) C d) H e) None of these choices

c) G

Where is the infraspinatus? a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I

c) E

Where is the lateral rectus? a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G

a) A

Where is the latissimus dorsi? a) A b) B c) F d) G e) I

a) B

Where is the levator palpebrae superioris? a) B b) D c) E d) F e) G

a) H

Where is the levator scapulae? a) H b) F c) I d) L e) A

b) B

Where is the masseter? a) A b) B c) F d) G e) H

e) E

Where is the masseter? a) A b) B c) G d) I e) E

e) N

Where is the mentalis? a) J b) K c) L d) M e) N

H

Where is the nutrient artery?

a) D

Where is the orbicularis oculi? a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H

C

Where is the osteon?

D

Where is the periosteum located?

c) C

Where is the rectus femoris? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) I

e) I

Where is the rhomboid major? a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I

c) C

Where is the sartorius? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices

e) N

Where is the semitendinosus? a) J b) K c) L d) M e) N

c) C

Where is the serratus anterior? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G

c) E

Where is the soleus? a) A b) C c) E d) I e) H

e) I

Where is the splenius capitis? a) A b) B c) C d) H e) I

b) B

Where is the splenius capitis? a) A b) B c) C d) K e) L

B

Where is the trabeculae?

d) H

Where is the transverse abdominus?a) D b) E c) F d) H e) I

c) F

Where is the vastus intermedius? a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H

Location

Where the stimulus is detected within receptive field, (information transmitted by sensory receptors)

articular cartilage

Which a layer of hyaline cartilage reduces friction between bones involved in a joint?

C

Which bone cell is a mature bone cell that helps maintain bone tissue?

D

Which bone cell is an osteoclast?

A

Which bone cell is an osteogenic cell?

flat bones of the skull facial bones mandible center part of the clavical

Which bones are formed through intramembranous ossification?

parathyroid hormone

Which hormones is the most important for Ca2+ regulation?

b) opponens pollicis

Which intrinsic muscle of the hand allows us to move our thumb so that we can oppose (touch) the tip of the other four fingers of the hand? a) abductor policis brevis b) opponens pollicis c) flexor policis brevis d) adductor policis e) opponens digiti minimi

E

Which labeled structure is an osteocyte?

C

Which labeled structures are canaliculi?

B

Which labeled structures are lamellae?

epiphyseal plate

Which layer of hyaline cartilage allows the diaphysis to grow in length?

e) zygomaticus major, risorius, platysma

Which list includes muscles that are responsible for facial expressions? a) deltoid, pectoralis major, serratus anterior b) rectus abdominis, internal oblique, transversus abdominis c) serratus anterior, external intercostals, internal intercostals d) levator scapulae, rhomboid minor, subscapularis e) zygomaticus major, risorius, platysma

b) inferior oblique, superior rectus, levator palpebrae

Which list includes the muscles responsible for moving the eyeballs and eyelids? a) orbicularis oculi, zygomaticus minor, temporalis b) inferior oblique, superior rectus, levator palpebrae c) rectus abdominus, internal oblique, transverse abdominus d) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, mylohyoid e) splenius capitis, teres major, infraspinatus

a) soleus

Which muscle would be important to a ballerina's ability to plantar flex the foot (commonly called "pointing the toes")? a) soleus b) flexor hallucis longus c) tibialis posterior d) popliteus e) extensor digitorum longus

G

Which of the structures are composed of trabeculae which are bony structures that lack osteons?

A

Which of the structures are fragments of older osteons that have been partially destroyed during bone rebuilding or growth?

both running and jumping

Which of the following activities has the greatest effect on bone remodeling and bone deposition? walking sleeping running jumping.

d) osteoarthritis

Which of the following conditions results when the articular cartilages in a joint degenerate to the point where the bony ends of articulating bones touch? a) osteogenic sarcoma b) rickets c) osteomalacia d) osteoarthritis e) osteopenia

d) 1 and 3

Which of the following extrinsic eye muscles would make it possible for you to look upward (elevation of the eyeball)? 1. superior rectus 2. inferior rectus 3. inferior oblique a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 e) 2 and 3

e) sex hormones

Which of the following hormones are more important post-puberty for bone growth? a) insulinlike growth factors b) thyroid hormones c) human growth hormone d) insulin e) sex hormones

c) Number of origins

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic commonly used to name skeletal muscles? a) Size b) Shape c) Number of origins d) Sites of origins e) Thickness of fibers

c) oval

Which of the following is NOT a common arrangement of muscle fascicles? a) pennate b) triangular c) oval d) parallel e) fusiform

a) communication

Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system? a) communication b) support c) protection d) mineral homeostasis e) blood cell production

a) trapezius

Which of the following is a muscle whose insertion is found on the clavicle and acromion process of the scapula within the pectoral girdle? a) trapezius b) pectoralis major c) latissimus dorsi d) gracilus e) sartorius

a) raising (extending) the head on the vertebral column

Which of the following is an example of a first class lever in action? a) raising (extending) the head on the vertebral column b) raising the forearm by contracting the biceps brachii c) raising the heel of the foot off the floor to stand on the ball of the foot

e) 1 and 3

Which of the following is not one of the quadriceps femoris group of muscles? 1. gracilis 2. sartorius 3. vastus medialis 4. vastus lateralis a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 3

e) fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the repair of a bone fracture? a) fracture hematoma bony callus formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling b) fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, bone remodeling c) bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling d) bone remodeling, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation e) fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling

b) masseter

Which of the following is the strongest muscle of mastication? a) buccinator b) masseter c) temporalis d) medial pterygoid e) lateral pterygoid

A

Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram is a site of red blood cell production in adult bones?

G

Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram stores triglycerides in adult bones?

b) Kegel exercises

Which of the following may be used to treat urinary stress incontinence? a) an episiotomy b) Kegel exercises c) RICE therapy d) faciotomy e) prosthetic shoe inserts

d) deltoid

Which of the following muscles abducts the arm and also has an origin on the clavicle? a) pectoralis major b) subclavius c) pectoralis minor d) deltoid e) subscapularis

e) 2 & 4

Which of the following muscles act to stabilize the scapula, and would also, when contracted, pull the shoulders back (like a soldier at attention)? 1. trapezius 2. levator scapulae 3. rhomboid major and minor a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1& 2 e) 2 & 4

e) 1 and 2

Which of the following muscles act(s) to increase the size of the thoracic cavity during inhalation?1. diaphragm 2. external intercostals 3. internal intercostals a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 e) 1 and 2

d) 1 and 3

Which of the following muscles have an insertion on the xiphoid process? 1. rectus abdominis 2. internal and external obliques 3. transversus abdominis a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 e) 2 and 3

c) adductor brevis

Which of the following muscles is "short?" a) levator scapulae b) vastus lateralis c) adductor brevis d) tensor fasciae latae e) extensor carpi ulnaris

d) bulbospongiosus

Which of the following muscles is (are) not a component of the pelvic diaphragm? a) levator ani b) pubococcygeus c) iliococcygeus d) bulbospongiosus e) ischiococcygeus

a) sartorius

Which of the following muscles is known as the "tailor's muscle" because it helps you cross your legs so that you could sit with the heel of one limb resting on the knee of the other limb (in centuries past, sitting with crossed legs was the way tailor's, makers of clothing, would sit to do their sewing). a) sartorius b) gracilis c) adductor longus d) vastus intermedius e) semitendinosus

e) rhomboid major

Which of the following muscles of the thorax is known as the "boxer's muscle" because of its role in moving the arm to make a punching motion?a) levator scapulae b) trapezius c) serratus anterior d) pectoralis minor e) rhomboid major

a) buccinator

Which of the following muscles that assist with mastication is not innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) buccinator b) masseter c) temporalis d) medial pterygoid e) lateral pterygoid

b) pectoralis major

Which of the following muscles would adduct the arm by acting on the humerus? a) deltoid b) pectoralis major c) supraspinatus d) infraspinatus e) teres minor

d) pectineus

Which of the following muscles would adduct the thigh when contracted? a) gluteus medius b) tensor fasciae latae c) quadratus femoris d) pectineus e) rectus femoris

b) flexor digitorum brevis and abductor digiti minimi

Which of the following muscles would be needed to flex (curl) the toes? a) extensor digitorum brevis and abductor hallucis b) flexor digitorum brevis and abductor digiti minimi c) lumbricals and abductor hallucis d) plantar interossei and flexor digitorum brevis e) extensor hallucis brevis and extensor digitorum brevis

c) hypoglossal (XII) nerve

Which of the following nerves controls most of the muscles of the tongue? a) trigeminal (V) nerve b) facial (VII) nerve c) hypoglossal (XII) nerve d) C1-C3 of the spinal nerves e) trochlear (IV) nerve

d) biceps brachii and triceps brachii

Which of the following pairs of muscles are agonist-antagonists (that is, one flexes and the other extends) the forearm? a) biceps brachii and brachioradialis b) brachialis and brachioradialis c) triceps brachii and anconeus d) biceps brachii and triceps brachii e) anconeus and supinator

c) triceps brachii and anconeus

Which of the following pairs of muscles inserts onto the olecranon of the ulna? a) brachialis and anconeus b) triceps brachii and pronator teres c) triceps brachii and anconeus d) biceps brachii and brachialis e) pronator teres and pronator quadratus

e) 1 and 3

Which of the following perineal muscle(s) is (are) not innervated by the perineal branch of the pudendal nerve of the sacral plexus? 1. external urethral sphincter 2. deep transverse perineal muscle 3. external anal sphincter a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 e) 1 and 3

b) bulbospongiosus

Which of the following perineal muscles is involved with erection of the penis in males, and of the clitoris in females? a) levator ani b) bulbospongiosus c) superficial transverse perineal d) deep transverse perineal e) sphincter urethrovaginalis

a) flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis (deep to other three muscles)

Which of the following represents the correct list of superficial anterior (flexor) compartment muscles from lateral to medial? a) flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis (deep to other three muscles) b) flexor digitorum profundus, flexor policis longus c) extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi ulnaris d) abductor policis longus, extensor policis brevis, extensor policis longus, extensor indicis

a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum.

Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during intramembranous ossification? a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new periosteum. d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabecular. e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation of trabecular.

e) it occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone

Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE? a) It occurs throughout your lifetime. b) It involves bone resorption. c) It involves bone deposition. d) It occurs at different rates at different locations. e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.

e) all of these are correct statements

Which of the following statements is correct about the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscles?a) acting together, the SCM muscles flex the head at the cervical portion of the vertebral column b) acting individually, an SCM muscle turns the head (flexes and rotates) c) it is innervated by both the accessory (XI) nerve, C2, and C3 d) it originates on the manubrium of the sternum, and the medial third of the clavicle e) all of these are correct statements

c) extension of the torso occurs when one is bowing, as an actor after a performance

Which of the following statements is not true about the gluteus maximus? a) it can act to extend the torso, which is an example of reverse muscle action (RMA) b) in RMA, the insertion of this muscle is on the pelvic girdle rather than on the femur c) extension of the torso occurs when one is bowing, as an actor after a performance d) it is the largest of the gluteal muscles e) is the prime mover for extension of the femur

Insula

area of the cerebrum that lies deep within the lateral cerebral sulcus

d) lacunae

Which of the following structures contain osteocytes? a) central (Haversian) canals b) perforating (Volkmann's) canals c) concentric lamellae d) lacunae e) canaliculi

e) more than one of these substances is stored in bone

Which of the following substances are stored in the structure of adult bones for use by other tissues in the body? a) calcium b) phosphorous c) triglycerides d) iron e) More than one of these substances is stored in bone.

b) rhomboid

Which of the following terms that can be used to name a muscle, implies that the muscle is diamond-shaped?a) deltoid b) rhomboid c) gracilis d) brevis e) tensor

D

Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is formed as the result of cartilage being replaced by bone after the cessation of bone growth?

B

Which of the structures are circumferential lamellae?

C

Which of the structures are concentric lamellae?

d) transversus abdominis

Which of these abdominal muscles does not flex or rotate the vertebral column? a) rectus abdominis b) internal oblique c) external oblique d) transversus abdominis e) quadratus lumborum

a) trapezius

Which one of the following muscles that move the scapula is innervated by the Accessory (XI) nerve? a) trapezius b) levator scapulae c) serratus anterior d) pectoralis minor e) rhomboid major and minor

b) B

Which one represents a second-class lever? a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices e) None of these choices

epiphysis

Which region of a long bone articulates with other bones?

d) abductor

Which term best applies to a muscle that acts to move a bone away from the midline of the body? a) oblique b) synergist c) flexor d) abductor e) adductor

a) L, M, N

Which three muscles make up the hamstring? a) L, M, N b) E, F, G c) H, I, J d) I, J, K e) A, B, C

calcium and phosphorous

Which two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing?

greenstick

Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children?

Is blood Connective Tissues?

Yes

Can a platelet plug can stop bleeding?

Yes if it the hole in vessel is small enough

d) fixator

__________ is a muscle that stabilizes the proximal end of a limb, while other muscles produce movement at the distal end of the same limb. a) prime mover (agonist) b) antagonist c) synergist d) fixator e) flexor

osseous tissue cartilage dense connective tissue epithelium adipose tissue nervous tissue

a bone is made up of what kinds of tissues?

what is the sacrum

a bony plate that forms the posterior wall of the pelvic girdle, largest most durable bone of the vertebral column

what is the pelvis

a bowl shaped structure composed of the coxal bones and sacrum along with the muscles that line the pelvic cavity and form its floor

fracture

a break in a bone

impacted fracture

a broken bone in which one end of the fractured bone is driven into the other end

closed (simple) fracture

a broken bone that does not break the skin

open (compound) fracture

a broken bone that protrudes through the skin

Fascicle

a bundle of fibers (especially nerve fibers)

osteoporosis

a condition of porous bones characterized by decreased bone mass and increased susceptibility to fractures

Section

a cut of the body or one of its organs made along one of the planes

osteoarthritis

a degeneration of articular cartilage allowing the bony ends to touch; worsens due to friction between the bones

osteoporosis

a disease where the bones are porous because bone resorption outpaces bone deposition

Diaphragm

a dome shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity

tip link

a fine, stretchy protein filament that extends like a spring from the ion channel of one stereocilium to the sidewall of the one next to it, connected to the ion gate and opens it to allow a flood of ions to enter, depolarizes and then hyperpolarizes the hair cells of the spiral organ; when cell is depolarized, hair cell releases a burst of neurotransmitter and generates a signal in the cochlear nerve

outer ear

a funnel for conducting airborne vibrations to the tympanic membrane, begins with the auricle and leads sound into the auditory canal which brings the sound to the tympanic membrane, has guard hairs and cerumen

Electroencephalogram

a graphical record of electrical activity of the brain

The should joint is mainly stabilized by:

a group of muscles (rotator cuff muscles) that move the humerus bone and reinforce the joint capsule

what is the humerus

a head that articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula, part of the brachium segment, shoulder to elbow

foramen

a hole through which arteries, veins, nerves pass

medullary cavity

a hollow cylindrical space within the diaphysis that contains fatty yellow bone marrow and numerous blood vessels in adults

Synostosis

a joint formed by fusion of two bones and the boundary between them disappears

epiphyseal growth plate

a layer of hyaline cartilage in the area between the shaft and end of a growing bone

Reticular Formation

a network of neurons in brainstem and diencephalon involved in sensory functions. Filters incoming stimuli and decides whether or not info is important.

what are the superior articular processes

a pair of processes that projects upward from one vertebra and meets a similar pair

greenstick fracture

a partial break in a bone in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends

greenstick fracture

a partial fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends

Fight or flight response

a physical reaction triggered by the sympathetic nervous system preparing the body to quickly react to a threatening situation

Patellar Reflex

a reflex extension of the leg resulting from a sharp tap on the patellar tendon

epiphyseal line

a remnant of the active epiphyseal plate; a sign that the bone has stopped growing in length

what is the median sacral crest

a ridge that the spinous processes of the vertebrae fuse into

what is the superior nuchal line

a ridge, horizontally traced from the external occipital protuberance toward the mastoid process

what is the sella turcica

a saddle-like surface feature within the body of the sphenoid bone, consists of a deep pit called the hypophyseal fossa, which houses the pituitary gland

stress fracture

a series of microscopic fissures in bone that form without any evidence of injury to other tissues

The elbow joint is mainly stabilized by:

a strong and thick articular capsule

Sense Organ

a structure composed of nervous tissue along with other tissues that enhance its response to a certain type of stimulus

articular cartilage

a thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the part of the epiphysis where the bone forms an articulation with another bone

endosteum

a thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity

spiral organ

a think epithelium of hair cells (with stereocilia) and supporting cells associated with basilar and tectorial membranes, converts vibrations into nerve impulses; inner hair cells and outer hair cells

periosteum

a tough connective tissue sheath and its associated blood supply that surrounds the bone surface wherever it is not covered by articular cartilage

Postsynaptic potential

a voltage change at the receptor site on a postsynaptic cell membrane

Examples of pivot joints

a. Atlanto axial joint b. proximal radio-ulnar joints

Example of a hinge joints

a. The articulation between tibia and talus bone (ankle joint) b. elbow joint c. interphalangeal joint

Functions of the intervertebral discs:

a. act as shock absorber b. prevent bone-to-bone contact c. contribute the height of the individual d. allow the movements associated with flexion, extention and rotation of the spine

Characteristics of articular cartilage

a. hyaline cartilage b. no perichondrium c. surfaces are normal slick and smooth d. the matrix contains more water than other cartilage

The ACL and PCL:

a. limit the anterior and posterior movement of the tibia b. maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles

Types of movements that may be permitted at a synovial joint:

a. linear motion (gliding) b. angular motions (flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction) c. rotation d. other special movements (eversion, inversion, protraction, retraction, depression, elevation, opposition)

Functions of synovial fluid:

a. lubrication b. shock absorption c. provide nutrients for the tissue in the joint d. protect articular cartilage (because it contains phagoytes)

Examples of condylar joints

a. radiocarpal joint b. medacarpophalangeal joints 2-5 c. metatarsophalangeal joint

Bursae

a. sac-like structures filled with a small amount of fluid that is similar to synovial fluid

Examples of ball and socket joints:

a. shoulder joint b. hip joint

When articular cartilage is damaged (arthritis)

a. the cartilage matrix is to break down b. the surface is rough c. more friction occur d. normal synovial joint function is unable to continue

Examples of saddle joint

a. the joint between carpal (trapezium bone) and metacarpal I (thumb)

When the articular cartilage is damaged:

a. the matrix begins to break down b. the expose articular surface become rough c. the friction of the joint increases d. normal synovial joint functions is unable to continue

what is the foramen spinosum

about the diameter of pencil lead, provides passage for an artery of the meninges

lacrimal gland

about the size of an almond, lies in a shallow fossa near the "brow bone"

what is the middle cranial fossa

abruptly deeper, shaped like a pair of outstretched bird's wings and accommodates the temporal bones

Areflexia

absence of a reflex

photoreceptor cells

absorb light and generate a chemical and electrical signal (rods and cones)

eyelids (palpbrae)

accessory structure of orbit, blocks foreign objects from eye, prevent visual stimuli from disturbing one's sleep, moisten eye,

lacrimal apparatus

accessory structure of orbit, consists of the lacrimal gland and a series of ducts that drain tears into the nasal cavity

eyebrows

accessory structure of orbit, enhances facial expressions and nonverbal communication, but may also protect eyes from glare and perspiration

conjunctiva

accessory structure of orbit, transparent mucous membrane that cover the inner surface of the eyelid and the anterior surface of the eyeball, secretes a thin mucous film that prevents the eye from drying out

The role of the menisci (medial and lateral menisci) is to:

act as cushions and conform to the shape of the articular cartilage

calcitrol

active form of vitamin D; raises blood calcium levels by increasing absorption of calcium from digestive tract

what is a lower limb and its regions

adapted for weight bearing and movement; femoral region (femur and patella, hip to knee), crural region (knee to ankle, tibia and fibula), tarsal region (ankle, tarsal bones), pedal region (foot, 7 tarsal bones, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges)

iris

adjustable diaphragm that controls the diameter of the pupil, has 2 pigmented layers: posterior pigment epithelium and anterior border layer which consists of chromatoreceptors

near response

adjustments made for close-range vision 1. convergence of the eyes 2. constriction of the pupil 3. accommodation of the lens

what is the foramen magnum

admits the spinal cord to the cranial cavity and provides a point of attachment for the dura mater

ordorants

airborne chemical stimulus in the nasal cavity that deals with olfaction

Metabolism

all chemical processes in body

Vomer

along midline of nasal cavity; inferior portion of nasal septum

what is the body of a vertebrae

also called a centrum; a mass of spongy bone and red bone marrow covered in a thin shell of compact bone

what is the sacroiliac joint

also known as SI joint, strong, nearly immovable joint that articulates with the auricular surface

what is a foramina

also known as a foramen, holes that allow passage for nerves and blood vessels

what are the posterior nasal apertures

also known as choanae, the internal opening of the nasal cavity

what is the dens

also known as odontoid process; most distinctive feature on the axis on its anterosuperior side

what is the sternum

also known as the breastbone, a bony plate anterior to the heart. subdivided into 3 regions (manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

what are the depressions

alveolus (pit of socket), fossa (shallow, broad or elongated basin), fovea (small pit), sulcus (groove for tendon, nerve or blood vessel

what is the ethmoid bone

an anterior cranial bone located between the eyes; contributes to the medial wall of the orbit, the roof and walls of the nasal cavity and the nasal septum

achondroplastic dwarfism

an inherited condition where the conversion of cartilage to bone is abnormal

nutrient foramen

an opening in the shaft of the bone allowing an artery to pass into the bone

what is the mandibular condyle

an oval know that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone

gomphoses

anchor teeth into sockets

Condylar joint is:

angular, biaxial

Ball and socket joint is:

angular, circumduction, rotation, tri-axial (multi-axial)

Hinge joint is:

angular, monoaxial

reduction

another name for setting a fracture, or bringing it into alignment

what is the foramen ovale

another passage fro two branches of the trigeminal nerve

what is costal cartilage

anterior attachment for ribs by way of a long strip of hyaline cartilage

saccule

anterior chamber of the vestibular apparatus, responsible for static equilibrium and linear acceleration

Pubis

anterior portion; pubic symphysis, pubic arch

cornea

anterior transparent region of modified sclera that emits light into the eye, composed of layers of collagen fibrils and fibroblasts, covered by stratified squamous epithelium

where do you find intramembranous ossification in a baby/child's bones

anterior, posterior, sphenoid and mastoid fontannels

what is the hard palate

anteriorly (bony), formed by horizontal extensions of the maxilla called palentine processes

what is the iliac fossa

anteromedial surface, smooth, slightly concave; covered by the broad iliac muscle

Disorder

any abnormality of structure or function

sound

any audible vibration of molecules, can be transmitted through water, solids, or air; produced by a vibrating object

Vertebral chain ganglia

any of a group of sympathetic ganglia which form two chains extending from the base of the skull to the coccyx along the sides of the spinal column

receptive field

any sensory neuron detects stimuli within an area called it's ________ ______

Sensory Receptors

any structure that us specialized to detect a stimulus

taste hairs

apical microvilli that lies on the surface of a taste cell, serves as a receptor surface for tastants, project into a taste pore

Catabolism

breaking down complex chemicals

what are the medial and lateral condyles

at the distal end of the femur, two smooth round surfaces of the knee joint, separated by the intercondylar fossa

what are the medial and lateral supracondylar lines

at the lower end, linea aspera forks into this to continue down to their respective epicondyles

extrinsic eye muscles

attach to the walls of the orbit and the external surface of the eyeball superior rectus inferior rectus lateral rectus medial rectus superior oblique inferior oblique

Upper limb

attached to the trunk & consist of the shoulder, armpit, arm, forearm, wrist, and hand

Lower Limb

attached to the trunk & consists of the buttock, thigh, leg, ankle, and foot

what is the external occipital protuberance

attachment for the nuchal ligament, which in turn binds the skull to the vertebral column

Slow axonal transport

axoplasmic flow; moves enzymes and cytoskeleton components down the axon, renews worn-out axoplasmic components in mature neurons; governs speed of damaged nerve fiber regeneration

Occipital bone

back of skull, base of cranium; foramen magnum, occipital condyles, lambdoid suture

types of synovial joints

ball and socket: multiaxial joints, shoulders and hips hinge joints: monaxial, elbow, knee, interphalangeal joints saddle joint: biaxial pivot: monaxial gliding: ampharthroses condyloid: biaxial

taste (gustatory) cells

banana shaped cell that has apical microvilli (taste hairs), epithelial cells, lives for 7-10 days, synapse with sensory nerve fibers, have synaptic vesicles that release neurotransmitters

Parkinson's

basal ganglia nucli doesn't produce enough dopamine causes muscular tremors

Sphenoid bone

base of cranium, sides of skull, floor and side of orbits; sella turcica, sphenoid sinuses, greater wings, and lesser wings

what is the condylar process

bears the mandibular condyle

endochondral bones

begin as masses of hyaline cartilage (femur, vertebrae, radius)

what is the incisive foramina

behind the incisors (front teeth)

Location/ Function of Myelod stem cells

bein and complete thier deevelopment in red bone marrow and give rise to red blood cells, platelets, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils, and monocytes.

what is the mandibular foramen

below the notch, on the medial surface of the ramus

refraction

bending of light rays

metaphysis

between diaphysis and epiphysis

Gliding join is:

biaxial or multiaxial

Red bone marrow

blood cell formation

collagen fibers

blue

osteoblast

blue cells around the perimeter

what is the sacral promontory

body of the vertebra S1 creates this surface

Responsiveness

body's ability to detect and respond to internal or external changes

Parts of typical vertebra

body, pedicles,laminae, spinous process, transverse processes, wertebral foramen, facets, superior/inferior articular processes

endochondral ossification

bone formed within hyaline cartilage that develops from mesenchyme

osteoblasts

bone forming cell; deposits bone matrix around themselves

intramembranous ossification

bone forms directly within mesenchyme

interstitial appositional

bone growth in length is called _______ growth, and bone growth in diameter is called ________ growth.

diaphysis

bone shaft

osteoblast

bone-building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen fibers, extracellular matrix components, and initiate calcification

what are the phalanges

bones of the fingers two in the thumb; three in the other four fingers, proximal, middle, distal.

what are the metacarpals

bones of the palm I through V, thumb to pinky

what are the sesamoid bones

bones that form within some tendons in response to strain. Patella is the largest of these, others are small rounded bones such as ones within the hands and feet

what is the styloid process of the forearm

bony point, can be palpated to the thumb

orbit

bony socket where the eyeball lies, contains eyebrows, eyelids, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus, and the 6 extrinsic eye muscles

what is a vertebral arch

borders each foramen composed of two parts: pedicle (pillarlike) and lamina (platelike)

what is the greater (false) pelvis

bowl-like shape; between the flare of the hips

what are the four segments of the upper limb

brachium (arm proper, extends from shoulder to elbow), antebrachium (forearm, extends from elbow to wrist and contains two bones), carpus (wrist, contains 8 bones), and manus (hand, 19 bones, 5 metacarpals, and 14 phalanges)

Ramus

branch or similar extension

Axon collateral

branches off of the axon to communicate with other neurons

trabeculae

branching bony plates, make up spongy bone

osteoclasts

break down calcified matrix

osteogenic cells develop into osteoblasts and begin to produce spongy bone trabecular. The trebeculae join the living and dead portions of the original bone fragments. When the soft callus is converted to spongy bone it is considered a hard callus.

describe how the hard callus is formed

Directional Terms

describe position of one body part relative to another

developing blood cells, adipocytes, fibroblasts , and macrophages within a network of reticular fibers

describe red bone marrow

the epiphyseal artery enters the epiphysis secondary ossification centers develop, usually around birth the process is the same as the primary ossification center except spongy bone remains in the interior and the ossification proceeds outwards

describe the process of the development of the secondary ossification centers

blood vessels crossing the fracture line are broken blood leaks into the site of the fracture swelling and inflammation occur phagocytes and osteoclasts move in to remove tissue

describe the process of the creation of a fracture hematoma

1. osteoclasts attach to the bone surface and forms a leakproof seal at the ruffled border 2. lysosomal enzymes and acids are released into the sealed pocket 3. several osteoclasts carve out a small tunnel in the bone 4. the proteins and minerals enter the osteoclast by endocytosis, cross the cell in vesicles, and undergo exocytosis on the side opposite the ruffled border. 5. the proteins and minerals are in the interstitial fluid where they diffuse into the blood capillaries

describe the steps taken when osteoclasts resorb bone.

what are secondary curvatures

develop later throughout life; cervical and lumbar

bone scan It tells where the blood supply to the bone is normal (gray color) where the blood supply is increased; a "hot spot" (dark) where there is decreased blood supply (lighter color)

diagnostic procedure where a radioactive tracer is injected intravenously and taken up by the bone What does this procedure tell a doctor?

Organ Level

different types of tissue join together

ampulla

dilated sac on one end of a semicircular duct, contains a mound of hair cells and supporting cells

what is the anterior border

distal to the tibial tuberosity, shaft of the tibia, can be palpated in the shin

what is the radius

distinctive discoidal head at its proximal end, part to the ante brachium segment

Frontal (Coronal) Plane

divides the body or organ into anterior & posterior portions

Transverse (horizontal) Plane

divides the body or organ into superior & inferior portions

what are facial bones

do not enclose the brain, lie anterior to the cranial cavity; support orbital, nasal, and oral cavities, shape the face, provide attachment for the muscles of facial expression and mastication

no

does spongy bone tissue always have osteocytes?

diplopia

double vision, eyes cannot converge accurately and focus the image on each fovea

insulin like growth factors

during childhood, it promotes growth at epiphyseal plate; production stimulated by human growth hormone

what is the supraorbital foramen

each supraorbital margin is perforated by a single passage that allows for a nerve, artery or vein to pass through

what is the external acoustic meatus

ear canal

mesenchyme

embryonic tissue from which the majority of connective tissue cells are derived

Skull

encloses & protects the brain

periosteum

encloses bone; dense connective tissue

Midsagittal (median) Plane

equal right & left sides

Control Center

evaluates input and generates output

giantism

excessive secretion of human growth hormone during childhood

epiphysis

expanded end; distal and proximal

what is the zygomatic process

extends anteriorly to form part of the zygomatic arch (cheekbone)

what is the medial longitudinal arch

extends from heel to hallux, formed from the calcenus, talus, navicular, cuneiforms, and metatarsals I-III

what is the lateral longitudinal arch

extends from heel to the little toe, includes calcaneus, cuneiforms, and metatarsals IV and V

what is the spinous process of a vertebrae

extends from the apex of the arch, directly posteriorly and downward

what is the frontal bone

extends from the forehead back to the prominent coronal suture. crosses the crown of the head from right to left and joins the frontal bone to the parietal bones

what is the ilium

extends from the iliac crest to the center of the acetabulum

what is the transverse process of a vertebrae

extends laterally from the point where the pedicle and lamina meet, provides points of attachment for ligaments, ribs, and spinal muscles

hyperextension

extension of a joint beyond 180 degrees or over the anatomical position

plantar flexion

extension of the foot so that the toes point downward as in standing on tiptoe

hyperopia

farsighted, eye is too short

what are the lumbar vertebrae

five vertebrae; most distinctive features are a thick, stout body and a blunt, squarish spinous process for attachment of the strong lumbar muscles

color blindness

hereditary alteration or lack of one photopsin or another, most common is red-green and can result from a lack of long-wavelength or medium-wavelength cones

scotoptic system

high degree of neural convergence, high degree of spatial summation and low-light sensitivity, but large receptive fields result in coarse, grainy images

medullary cavity

hollow chamber in diaphysis; contains yellow marrow

through gap junctions

how do neighboring osteocytes communicate?

The trebeculae are precisely oriented along lines of stress, allowing the bones to transfer stress without breaking

how do trebeculae help bones resist weight?

appositional growth

how does a long bone increase in thickness?

hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphysis becomes articular cartilage hyaline cartilage between the diaphysis and epiphysis does not change into articular cartilage

how is articular cartilage produced?

chemical messages cause the mesenchymal cells to crowd together in the general shape of the future bone the mesenchyme develops into chondroblasts the chondroblasts secrete cartilage extracellular matrix in the shape of the mesenchyme

how is the cartilage model created?

ridges fold together and fuse causing the groove to be a tunnel, the periosteum is now endosteum

how is the endosteum created in appositional growth?

as the primary ossification center grows towards the ends, osteoclasts break down the spongy bone trabecular leaving the medullary cavity

how is the medullary cavity formed?

osteoblasts in the endosteum deposit bone in concentric lamellae proceeding inward toward the blood vessel, filling in the tunnel until the osteum is created.

how is the osteum created in appositional growth?

6 - 8 hours after injury

how long does it take for a fracture hematoma to form?

3 to 4 months

how long does it take for a hard callus to form?

3 weeks after injury

how long does it take for the soft callus to form?

several weeks

how long does the fracture hematoma stage last?

osteoclasts

huge cells derived from the fusion of as many as 50 monocytes that releases enzymes and acids that digest the protein and mineral components of extracellular bone matrix.

endochondral ossification process (order)

hyaline cartilage-chondrocytes enlarge-osteoblast appear (spongy 1st, compact 2nd)-osteocytes

Costal Cartilage (rib)

hyaline cartilage; connects rib to sternum

labeled line code

idea that each nerve pathway from sensory cells to brain is labeled to carry specific sensory information ex: retina carries information about vision

female pelvis

iliac bones more flared, wider pelvic cavity, larger angle at pubic arch, sacral curvature is shorter and flatter, lighter in weight

Planes

imaginary flat surfaces dividing body or body parts into sections

olfactory hairs

immobile cilia, lies on the head of the olfactory cells, have binding sites for odor molecules

what are sutures

immovable joints, visible as seams on the surface

metaphysis

in a growing bone; the region that contains the epiphyseal plate

mesenchyme

in an embryo, what tissue is formed in the shape of bones and gives rise to cartilage and bone

Central Sulcus

in each hemisphere, separates the frontal and parietal lobes

Primary Motor area

in the Frontal Lobe, controls specific motor units. anterior to the central sulcus

Visual Association Area

in the Occipital Lobe, interprets images seen and compares them to previous visual experiences and memories

Primary Visual Area

in the Occipital Lobe, nerve impulses from photoreceptors in the retina of the eyes and constructs images

Auditory Association Area

in the Temporal lobe, Interprets and filters sounds as speech, music or noise

when does supination and pronation occur?

in the forearm and foot

Arachnoid Villi

in the venus sinuses - branch like structures that reabsorbs CSF into the blood

zone of hypertrophic cartilage

in this epiphyseal plate zone, large, maturing chondrocytes are arranged in columns

zone of proliferating cartilage

in this epiphyseal plate zone, larger chondrocytes undergo interstitial growth, division, and also secrete matrix

free nerve endings

include warm receptors, cold receptors, and nociceptors, most abundant in skin and mucous membranes, bare dendrite cells that have no association with specific accessory cells or tissues

what is the appendicular skeleton

includes the bones of the upper limb, pectoral girdle, and the bones of the lower extremities

what is the transverse arch

includes the cuboid, cuneiforms, and proximal heads of metatarsals

Greenstick Fracture

incomplete break occurs on the convex surface of the bend in the bone

Fissured Fracture

incomplete longitudinal break

Growth

increase in body size; due to 1) size of existing cells 2) number of cells 3) amount of material surrounding cells

Organismal Level

individual living human(organism)

scala tympani

inferior chamber of the cochlea, filled with perilymph and and communicates with superior chamber through the apex of the cochlea, begins at the apex, spirals back down and ends at the round window

what is the sacral hiatus

inferior opening that the sacral canal ends in

True Pelvis

inferior to pelvic brim, contains sacrum and coccyx posteriorly, lower ilium, ischium, pubic bones

what is the ischium

inferoposterior portion of the hip bone, consisting of a heavy body, prominent spine, a slight indentation of the lesser sciatic notch, and the thick rough surface ischial tuberosity

medial commisure

inner corner of eye

tunica interna

innermost tunic, consists of the retina and beginning of optic nerve

what is the deltoid tuberosity

insertion of the deltoid muscle, shaft has a rough area, on the lateral surface

Examples of gliding joints include:

inter-carpals inter-tarsals vertebrae with ribs clavicle with sternum ilium with sacrum

canaliculi

interconnected, tiny canals filled with extracellular fluid; connect lacunae to each other and to the central canal

syndesmoses

interosseous membrane.

sex hormones

involved in bone growth by increasing osteoblast activity; causes long bones to stop growing in length

trabeculae

irregular lattice of thin columns of bone found in spongy bone tissue

Symphysis:

is a cartilaginous joint in which the ends of the articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage, but a broad, flat disc of fibrocartilage connect to the bones (slightly movable)

Description/Function of Thrombopoietin

is a hormone produced by the liver that stimulates the formations of platelets from megakaryocytes.

Hemostasis(-statsis = standing still)

is a sequence of responses that stops bleeding when blood vessels are injured

Mandible

is horseshoe shaped and makes up the lower jaw; contains ramus, mandibular condyles, coronoid process, alveolar process, mandibular foramen (posterior), mental foramen (anterior)

new bone is more resistant to fracture than old bone

is new bone or old bone more resistant to fracture?

Myofibril.

it is a 1-2 micron in diameter and as long as the entire muscle fiber.

Filamentous Actin or F-Actin.

it is a twisted strand composed of two rows of 300-400 individual global molecules G-actin.

Function of Myofibril.

it is responsible for skeletal muscle fiber contraction.

Anaerobic Endurance.

it is the length of time muscular contraction can continue to be supported by the existing energy reserves of ATP and CP and by glycosis.

Excitable Membranes.

it permits rapid communication between different parts of a cell.

perforating canals

join adjacent central canals

Palatine bones (2)

l-shaped behind maxillae; posterior portion of hard palate, floor and lateral wall of nasal cavity

Ischium

l-shaped, lowest part; ischial spines, ischial tuberosity (supports weight while seated)

lacrimal canaliculus

lacrimal punctum opens up into this short structure, leads to lacrimal sac

circumferential lamellae

lamellae arranged around the entire outer and inner circumference of the shaft of a long bone

interstitial lamellae

lamellae in areas between neighboring osteon

osteoclasts

large cells derived from numerous monocytes; involved in resorption by release of lysosomal enzymes and acids

what is the obturator foramen

large round-to-triangular hole below the acetabulum, closed by a ligament called the obturator membrane

what is the jugular foramen

large, irregular opening just medial to the styloid process, between the temporal and occipital bones. what blood from the brain drains through, also contains 3 cranial nerves

Tibia

larger leg bone, lies medial to fibula; condyles at proximal end, tibial tuberosity, anterior crest, medial malleolus

Cerebrum

largest area of the brain. Receives incoming info, makes associations between new and stored data in the cortex, and coordinates responses

ganglion cells

largest cells in the retina, second-order neurons of visual pathway, these cell axons form the optic nerve, do not contribute to visual images, detect light intensity, sensory pigment is called melanopsin

what are the maxillae

largest facial bones, form the upper jaw and meet each other at a median intermaxillary suture

Ilium

largest, most superior part; iliac crest, iliac spines, greater sciatic notch

what is the acromioclavicular joint

lateral end of the clavicle articulates with the scapula

Radius

lateral forearm bone; head, radial tuberosity, styloid process, ulnar notch

what is the radial fossa

lateral pit that holds the head of the radius

what are the orbital plates

lateral surface of the labyrinth is a smooth, slightly concave thing seen on the medial wall of the orbit

what are the medial/lateral pterygoid plates

lateral to each aperture, the sphenoid bone exhibits this pair of parallel plates

what is the optic canal

lesser wing of the sphenoid bone forms this on the posterior wall of the orbit and contains this, allows passage of the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

Talus

lies inferior to the tibia; allows the foot to pivot up and down

what is the fovea capitis

ligament that extends from the acetabulum to a pit in the head of the femur

endosteum

lines spaces, cavity

protects the bone assists in fracture repair helps nourish bone tissue serves as an attachment point for ligaments and tendons

list four functions of the periosteum

Disease

local or systemic illness with specific characteristics

Description/Function of Hemoglobin

located in Red blood cells/ carries oxygen for the cells, also makes the RBC red.

Choroid Plexus

located in each of the ventricles, fine network of capillaries. made of ependymal cells which filter water and nutrients into the ventricles. creates the CSF.

what are palatine bones

located in the posterior nasal cavity, has an L shape formed by a horizontal plate and perpendicular plate

middle ear

located in the tympanic cavity of the temporal bone, starts with the tympanic membrane, includes auditory ossicles and the auditory tube

Mamillary bodies

located just posterior to the pituitary Structure of the limbic system that integrates sensory input and adds odor and emotional content

long bones

long and narrow

endochondral ossification (14 wk fetus)

long bones and most of skeleton are formed from hyaline cartilage models

Fibula

long, slender bone, lateral to tibia; head, lateral malleolus, non-weight bearing

Femur (thigh)

longest bone in the body; head, fovea capitis, neck, greater trochanter, lesser trochanter, linea aspera, medial and lateral condyles, medial and laterl epicondyles

depression

lowering the mandible or the shoulders

Serous Fluid

lubricating fluid secreted by serous membranes into space between double layer

what is the mastoid process

lump behind the earlobe; filled with small air sinuses that communicate with the middle-ear cavity

Shaft (rib)

main portion; long and slender

auditory ossicles

malleus, incus, and stapes, articulate with the tympanic membrane in the middle ear, 3 smallest bones in the body

what is the greater palatine foramen

marks each palatine bone, a large nerve passage to the palate

what are the 3 auditory ossicles

matteus, incus, and stapes

osteocytes

mature bone cells

osteocyte

mature bone cells that are involved in the daily metabolism

osteocytes

mature cells that maintain the daily metabolism of bone

what are ethmoidal cells

maze of air spaces

refractive index

measure of how much a medium retards light rays relative to air (n=1.00)

spinal gating

mechanism that causes pain signals to be stopped at the posterior horn

Ulna

medial forearm bone; trochlear notch (u-shaped), olecranon process, radial notch, head (distal end), styloid process

Lacrimal bones (2)

medial wall of orbits, groove from orbit to nasal cavity for tears

what is the crista galli

median blade in the cribriform plate, attachment point for the dura mater

endosteum

membrane lining the medullary cavity

The most common athletic knee injuries involve:

menisci

intramembranous cell evolution

mesenchymal-osteoblasts-osteocyte

stress fracture

microscopic bone breaks resulting from inability to withstand repeated stressful impact

osteon (haversion system)

microscopic unit of compact bone tissue

tunica vasculosa (uvea)

middle tunic, has 3 regions: choroid, ciliary body, and iris

Knee joint is a:

modified hinge joint that consists of three articulations within a single cavity

Receptor

monitors changes and sends input

bradykinin

most potent pain stimulus known, makes us aware of injuries, but also promotes healing

spinothalamic tract

most significant pain pathway, carries most of somatic pain signals that ultimately reach the cerebral cortex and make us conscious of pain

crista ampullaris

mound of hair cells and supporting cells inside of the ampulla

protraction

movement of a bone anteriorly (forward) on a horizontal plane. thrusting the jaw forward, shoulders or pelvis forward

retraction

movement of a bone posteriorly

abduction

movement of a part away from the midsagittal line (midline) Example: raising arm to the side, spreading finger

What are some ex. of movements that occur inside the human body?

movement of blood, food through the GI tract, skeletal muscles

superior oblique

muscle that travels along the medial wall of the orbit and passes through the trochlea and inserts on the superolateral aspect of the eyeball, innervated by trochlear nerve

what is the greater sciatic notch

named for the thick sciatic nerve that passes through it and continues down the posterior side of the thigh

what is the lesser (true) pelvis

narrower shape that is found below the greater pelvis

what is the zygomaticofacial foramen

near the intersections of the stem and crossbar of the T

myopia

nearsighted, eye is too long

end bulbs (Krause end bulbs)

nerve endings found in the mucous membrane of lips and tongue, conjunctiva, and epineurium; ovoid bodies composed of a connective tissue sheath around a sensory nerve fiber

Corpus Callosum

nerve fibers between the hemispheres for exchange of info between both hemispheres

descending analgesic fibers

nerve fibers that arise in the brainstem, travel down the spinal cord in the reticulospinal tract, and block pain signals from traveling up the cord and into the brain

encapsulated nerve endings

nerve fibers wrapped in glial cells or connective tissue; most are mechanoreceptors for touch, pressure, and stretch

Cerebral White matter

nerve tracts which connect areas of the cortex to each other and the rest of the brain. transmits info to and from the cortex

retina

neural component of the eye, thin transparent membrane attached to the rest of they eye at the optic disc and the ora serrata

Endogenous opioids

neuromodulators that can block pain transmission in spinal cord doesn't feel pain in when pain should be stimulated; enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins; secreted by CNS, pituitary gland, digestive tract, etc.

granule cells

neurons that send fibers back to the olfactory bulbs, can inhibit mitral and tufted cells

substance p

neurotransmitter at the synapse of the nociceptor and the second-order nerve fiber in order to block pain

What are the 11 body systems?

o Integumentary o Skeletal o Skeletal Muscular o Nervous o Endocrine o Cardiovascular o Lymphatic o Respiratory o Digestive o Urinary o Reproductive

Anatomical Position

o standard reference position ♣ body erect, facing forward, head level ♣ feet flat and forward ♣ arms at sides with palms forward

Signs

observable and measurable clinical changes

Oblique Fracture

occurs at any other angle than a right angle to the axis of the bone

what is the parietal foramen

occurs near the corner of the lambdoid and sagittal sutures

what is the cribriform foramina

on each side of the crista, and elongated depressed area perforated with numerous holes

what is the interotrochanteric line

on the anterior side, more delicate

tarsal glands

on the corners of the eyelids, secrete oil that coats the eye and reduces tear evaporation

Contralateral

on the opposite side of the body from another structure

what is the popliteal surface

on the posterior side of the femur, flat/slightly depressed area

what are the posterior sacral foramina

on the posterior side of the sacrum, four pairs of openings for spinal nerves

impacted fracture

one end of the fractured bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other

kinocilium

one true cilium on each hair cell of a macula in the saccule and utricle

bone remodeling

ongoing replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue

apertures

opening in the sides and back of the 4th ventricle

what is the internal acoustic meatus

opening that allows the passage of the vestibulocochlear nerve, which carries signals for hearing and balance from the inner ear to the brain

Foramen

opening through a bone that usually serves as a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments

mesenchymal cell

orange cell on the edge of the picture surrounded by the blue tissue

osteoblast

orange cells within the white area

cochlea

organ of hearing, coiled tube that arises from the anterior side of the vestibule, coils around the modiolus, has 3 fluid filled chambers

Retroperitoneal

organs, such as kidneys, located posterior to parietal peritoneum

intramembranous bones

originate within sheetlike layers of connective tissue (flat bones)

Vitamin A

osteoblast & osteoclast activity; deficiency retards bone development

pitch

our sense of whether a sound is "high" or "low," determined by the frequency at which the sound source, eardrum, and other parts of the ear vibrate

lateral commisure

outer corner or eye

anterior border layer

outer layer of the iris that contains chromatoreceptors

tunica fibrosa

outer tunic, divided into 2 regions, cornea and sclera

Extracellular

outside body cells

acromegaly

over secretion of human growth hormone during adulthood

referred pain

phenomenon when pain in the viscera is mistaken to come from the skin or other superficial sites, is caused by convergence of neural pathways in the CNS

what is the vertebral column

physically supports the skull and trunk, allows for movement, protects the spinal cord, absorbs stresses that are produced by walking, running, and lifting

falx cerebri

piece of the dura mater that separates the two hemispheres. inferior to the superior sagittal sinus

chromatoreceptors

pigmented cells that contain melanin and are responsible for eye color

fovea centralis

pit in the retina that produces the most finely detailed images

taste pore

place where taste hairs project into on the epithelial surface of the tongue

what is the acromion

platelike extension of the scapular spine that forms the apex of the shoulder

flat bones

platelike, with broad surfaces

Membrane names?

pleura, pericardium, peritoneum

optic disc

point at which all nerve fibers in the retina converge and leave through the optic nerve, creates a blind spot because this contains no receptor cells

what is the mental protuberance

point of the chin itself

what is the styloid process

pointed spine inferior to the external acoustic meatus; provides attachment for muscles of the tongue, pharynx, and hyoid bone

utricle

posterior chamber of the vestibular apparatus, responsible for static equilibrium and linear acceleration

Head (rib)

posterior end; articulates with vertebrae

what is the olecranon fossa

posterior pit, accommodates coronoid process of the ulna when the forearm is flexed

what is the interotrochanteric crest

posterior side, by a thick oblique ridge of bone

what is the spine of the scapula

posterior surface with a transverse ridge

what are vertebral foramen

posterior to the body of each vertebra is a triangular space

what is the linea aspera

primary feature of the shaft, posterior ridge

bone needle biopsy it is extremely painful as it passes through the periosteum but it is not painful after that

procedure in which a needle is inserted into the middle of the bone to withdraw a sample of red bone marrow is it painful?

Fast axonal transport

process by which neurotransmitter-containing vesicles are moved from the cell body to the axon terminal of a neuron; requires molecular motors.

intramembranous ossification

process of replacing embryonic connective tissue to form bone

endochondral ossification

process of replacing hyaline cartilage to form an endochondral bone

what are the greater and lesser trochanters

processes that are insertions for the muscles of the hip

Description/Function of Erythropoietin( EPO)?

producted by the kidneys, increases the number of red blood cell precursors.

Reproduction

production of new cells; For growth and repair in body, for production of new individual

what is the medial and lateral malleoli

prominent bony knob on each side of the tibia near the ankle

Sex Hormones (estrogen, testosterone)

promote bone formation; stimulate ossification of epiphyseal plates

guard hairs

protects the outer end of the ear canal, coated with cerumen (earwax) and block foreign particles from the auditory canal

otoliths

protein-calcium carbonate granules which add to the weight and inertia of the membrane and enhance the sense of gravity and motion

A hernia disc is cause by:

protrusion of the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc

what is the transverse foramen

provide passage and protection for the vertebral arteries and vertebral veins; found within all 7 vertebrae

what is the xiphoid process

provides attachment for some of the abdominal muscles, underneath the sternum body

epiphysis

proximal and distal ends of bones

what are the metatarsal

proximal to the tarsals, similar to metacarpals, metatarsal I being proximal to big toe

what is the trochlea

pulleylike smooth condyle of the humerus, articulates with the ulna

photopupillary reflex

pupillary restriction in response to light, mediated by autonomic reflex arc

PTH

raises blood calcium levels by increasing bone resorption

dorsiflexion

raising of the toes as when you swing the foot forward to take a step (heel strike)

Occipital Lobe

receives and interprets visual images

Effector

receives output and produces response to change controlled condition

olfactory mucosa

receptor cells in a patch of epithelium on the roof of the nasal cavity, contains 10-20 million olfactory cells, supporting cells, and basal stem cells, lined by nonsensory respiratory mucosa

blood capillary

red

bone marrow

red or yellow marrow; spongy bone and medullary cavity

cerumen (earwax)

secreted by sebaceous glands in the auditory canal, coats guard hairs, stickiness deters insects from entering the canal, waterproofs the canal and protects the skin and the tympanic membrane from water

olfaction

sense of smell, response to odorants in the nasal cavity

taste buds

sensory cells for gustation (taste), 4,000 of them, occur on tongue, cheeks, soft palate, pharynx, and epiglottis

Contralateral Reflex Arc

sensory impulses enter on one side of the spinal cord and motor impulses exit on the opposite side

spiral ganglion

sensory nerve fibers begin at the hair cells in the spiral organ, their somas form this structure, and around the modiolus, the axons lead away and feed into the cochlear nerve

Intersegmental Reflex Arc

sensory signal enters the spinal cord at one level, and the motor output leaves the cord from a higher or lower level

what is the pelvic brim

separates the greater and lesser pelvis

palpebral fissure

separation of upper and lower eyelids

aqueous humor

serous fluid secreted by the ciliary body into the posterior chamber (between the iris and the lens), that flows through the pupil into the anterior chamber (between cornea and iris

what are transverse costal facets

shallow cuplike regions at the end of each transverse process, articulates with ribs. only on T1 through T10

what is the glenoid cavity

shallow socket that articulates with the head of the humerus, forming the glenohumeral joint

what is the coracoid process

shaped like a bent finger, provides attachment for tendons of the biceps branch and other arm muscles

what is the posterior superior spine

sharp posterior angle extending from the iliac crest

interosseous membrane

sheet of collagen fibers that attach the shafts of two bones. between radius and ulna

what is the pectoral girdle

shoulder girdle, supports the arm and links it to the racial skeleton

The joint that permits the greatest ROM (Range of motion) is the:

shoulder joint

Temporal bones (2)

side and base of cranium, floor and side of orbits; squamous suture, external acoustic meatus, mandibular fossa, mastoid process, styloid process, zygomatic process, zygomatic arch

Parietal bones (2)

sides and roof of cranium; sagittal suture, coronal suture

Lateral excursion

sideways movement to right or left

Continuous conduction

signals that are conducted down unmyelinated axons; are slower

solitary nucleus

site in the medulla oblongata, second-order neurons arise here and relay signals to: 1. hypothalamus and amygdala- salivation, vomiting, and gagging 2. thalamus- become conscious of taste

sutures

skull only

Axial Skeleton

skull, middle ear bones, hyoid bone, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

what is the calvaria

skullcap, not a single bone but simply the dome of the top of the skull, composed of parts of multiple bones that form the roof and walls

what is the fibula

slender lateral strut that stabilizes the ankle, does not bear any of the body's weight; consists of an apex(point of the head), and a head

what is the hyoid bone

slender u-shaped bone between the chin and larynx, does not articulate with any other bones

amphiarthrosis

slightly moveable joints example: syndesmosis and symphysis

what is the calvicle

slightly s-shaped, somewhat flattened from the upper to lower surface, easily seen and palpated on the upper thorax

what are alveolar processes

small points of the maxillary bone, grow into the spaces between the bases of the teeth

lacuna

small spaces between lamellae that contain osteocytes

lacunae

small spaces between the concentric lamellae which contain osteocytes

what is the glabella

smooth area above the frontal bone just above the root of the nose

Fontanel (soft spot)

soft spot in the skull where membranes cover the space between bones

medullary cavity

space within the shaft of the bone that contains yellow bone marrow

what are fontanels

spaces between the unfused cranial bones in new borns

Complete Transection

spinal cord is severed from one side to the other, cutting all sensory and motor tracts

Scapula

spine, supraspinous fossa, infraspinous fossa, acromion process, coracoid process, glenoid cavity (fossa)

comminuted

splintered bone, with smaller fragments lying between main fragments

the relationship between mobility and stability joints

stable(yet limited mobility) suture interosseous membrane intervertebral joints knee joint glenohumeral joint mobile(yet unstable)

emmentropia

state in which the eye is relaxed and focused on an object more than 20ft away (light rays are essentially parallel)

1. convergence of the eyes 2. constriction of the pupil 3. accommodation of the lens

steps of the near response

what is the vertebral canal

vertebral foramina collectively form this, which is a passage for the spinal cord

what is Platelet plug formation: Platelet aggregation

stickness of the newly recruited and activated platelets causes them to stick to the orginally activated platelets.

Physical Stress

stimulates bone growth

Growth Hormone

stimulates cartilage cell division (pituitary dwarfism, gigantism)

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

stimulates osteoclasts, bone breakdown

Yellow bone marrow

stores fat

extension

straightens a joint and returns a body part to the anatomical position

Periosteum

strong membrane around bone (dense irregular connective tissue)

Cellular Level

structural and functional unit; molecules combine to form cells

auditory tube

structure in middle ear that is normally flattened and closed, but opens while swallowing and yawning to equalize pressure in the middle ear, connected with pharynx and can have a buildup of excess fluid when you are sick and cause a crackling sound

arthrology

study of joints

sensation

subjective awareness of the stimulus, occurs when a sensory signal goes to the brain

Symptoms

subjective changes experienced by patient

scala vestibuli

superior chamber of the cochlea, filled with perilymph and and communicates with inferior chamber through the apex of the cochlea, begins at oval window and ends at the apex

what is the iliac crest

superior crest of the hip

False Pelvis

superior to pelvic brim, contains lateral part of ilium, lumbar vertebrae posteriorly, abdominal wall anteriorly; help support abdominal organs

what are the three angles of the scapula

superior, inferior, and lateral

what are the three sides of the scapula

superior, medial (vertebral), and lateral (axillary) borders

what is the anterior clinoid process

superiorly, a pair of bony spines of the lesser wing, guards the optic foramina

Vertebral Column

supports head and trunk, protects spinal cord

Thoracic Cage

supports pectoral girdle and upper limbs; protects thoracic and upper abdominal viscera

what are the thoracic vertebrae

supports the thoracic cage which encloses the heart and lungs; corresponds with the 12 thoracic ribs that attach to it

Pelvis

supports trunk, protects viscera, transmits weight to lower limbs, provides attachment for lower limbs; pelvic girdle, sacrum, coccyx

Pectoral girdle

supports upper arm; clavicles (2) and scapulae (2)

orbital fat

surrounds the eye on the sides and the back, cushions the eye, allows the eye to move freely, and protects the nerves in the back of the orbit

Synovial membrane releases:

synovial fluid into the joint cavity

Sternoclavicular joint

synovial joint, diarthrosis, 1st rib and sternum, sternocostal

Arthritis affects the:

synovial joints

lacrimal sac

tears come from lacrimal canaliculus to this structure in the medial wall of the orbit, then the tears are carried to the nasolacrimal duct

frequency

term for number of cycles per second, determines the pitch of a sound, measured in hertz (Hz), human ears can hear from 20Hz-20,000HZ

Regional Terms

term in form of adjective for body parts based on Greek or Latin word

- free nerve endings - tactile (merkel) discs - hair receptors (peritrichial endings)

the 3 types of unencapsulated nerve ending

- tactile (Meissner) corpuscles - end bulbs (Krause end bulbs) - lamellar (pacinian) corpuscles - bulbous (Ruffini) corpuscles

the 4 types of encapsulated nerve ending

1. cerebellum 2. nuclei of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerve 3. reticular formation 4. spinal cord 5. thalamus

the 5 targets of the vestibular nuclei

Elasticity.

the ability of a muscle to recoil to its resting Length.

sensory projection

the ability of the brain to identify the site of stimulation

bone deposition

the addition of minerals and collagen fibers to bone by osteoblasts, creating matrix

what is the coronoid process

the anterior branch of the ramus, the point of insertion for the temporalis muscle, which pulls the mandible upward when you bite

what is the patellar surface

the anterior side of the femur, smooth medial depression, articulates with the patella

Dislocation occurs when:

the articulating surfaces of a synovial joint are foced out of position

what is the hallux

the big toe, contains only two bones, proximal and distal phalanx I

what is the gladiolus

the body of the sternum, dagger shaped, longest part of the sternum

comminuted fracture

the bone is splintered, crushed, or broken into pieces at the site of impact, and smaller bone fragments lie between the two main fragments

diaphysis

the bone's shaft or body - the long, cylindrical, main portion of the bone

visual filling

the brain uses the image around a blind spot to fill an area with similar but imaginary information

what is the inferior nasal conchae

the largest of the three conchae in the nasal cavity; but is separate from the superior and middle (they are with the ethmoid)

what is the capitulum

the lateral smooth condyle of the humerus, articulates with the radius

The stronger and more stable a joint...

the less mobility it has

diaphysis

the long, cylindrical main portion of the bone; the shaft

what is the femur

the longest and strongest bone of the body, 1/4 of a person's height

what is the temporomandibular joint

the meeting of the mandibular condyle with the temporal bone forms a hinge

The weaker and less stable a joint...

the more R.O.M. (range of motion) it has

what is the pubis (pubic bone)

the most anterior portion of the hip bone

what is the tibia

the only weight bearing bone of the crural region

what is the ulna

the other bone of the forearm, from elbow to wrist

dynamic equilibrium

the perception of motion or acceleration (linear and angular)

vision (sight)

the perception of objects in the environment by means of light they emit or reflect; process in which 1. light is absorbed by pigment 2. a photochemical reaction occurs 3. neurotransmitters are released 4. a nerve signal is produced 5. perception of the image is created

loudness

the perception of sound energy, intensity, or amplitude of the vibration, measured in decibels (dB)

static equilibrium

the perception of the orientation of the head when the body is stationary

what are the three major portions of the ethmoid bone

the perpendicular plate (a tin median plate of bone that forms the superior 2/3 of the nasal septum), the cribriform plate (forms the roof of the nasal cavity), and the labyrinth (large mass on each side of the perpendicular plate, contains a maze of air spaces)

1. 3 tunics from its wall 2. optical components that admit and focus light 3. neural components (retina and optic nerve)

the principle components of the eye

calcification

the process by which the salts in the cellular matrix crystallize within the collagen fibers and cause the bone to harden

epiphyses

the proximal and distal ends of the bone

metaphyses

the region between the diaphysis and the epiphyses

what is the inner (posterior) surface of the mandible

the region has a pair of small points, the mental spines, which serve for attachment of certain chin muscles

Alpha waves

the relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state of wawakefulness, idle. (8-13 Hz) regular and rhythmic, low amplitude.

Fatigue.

the state where it can no longer perform at the required level of activity.

what doe the clavicle consist of

the sternal end (rounded hammer-head like, medial); the lacrimal end (lateral, markedly flattened); and the conoid tubercle (a ligament attachment that faces toward the rear and slightly down

what is the mandible

the strongest bone of the skull and the only one that can move significantly

compact bone tissue

the strongest form of osseous tissue, containing few spaces

osteology

the study of bone structure and treatment of bone disorders

Bursea are found in:

the tendon sheaths, beneath the skin that covers vone, and most of synovial joints (shoulder, knee, elbow joints)

periosteum

the tough covering the surrounds the bone surface wherever cartilage is not present

interstitial growth also called endogenous growth

the type of cartilaginous growth where the cartilage model increases in length due to division of chondrocytes and secretion of extracellular matrix

appositional growth also called exogenous growth

the type of cartilaginous growth where the cartilage model increases in thickness due to the deposition of matrix on the cartilage surface of the model by new chondroblasts that develop from the perichondrium

duplicity theory

theory that a single receptor system cannot produce both high sensitivity and high resolution, so we need both rods and cones for day and night vision and color vision

tonic receptors

these adapt to a stimulus more slowly than phasic receptors, generate signals more steadily ex: proprioceptors

suspensory ligaments

these are attached to the ciliary body and keep the lens behind the pupil

phasic receptors

these generate a burst of action potentials when first stimulates and quickly adapt and reduce or stop signaling even if the stimulus continues, adapt quicker than tonic receptors

phagocytosis

they ingest bacteria and dispose dead matter

perforating fibers (Sharpey's fibers)

thick bundles of collagen that extend from the periosteum into the bone extracellular matrix

ciliary body

thickened extension of the choroid, forms a muscular ring around the lens, supports the iris and lens, secretes aqueous humor

trabeculae

thin columns of bone arranged in irregular patterns

Visceral Layer

thin epithelium covers and adheres to organs within body cavity

Parietal Layer

thin epithelium lines the walls of body cavity

saccades

this is the fastest muscular movement in the physical body, ensures that the same area of the visual field does not project into the same area as the retina

greenstick fracture

this type of fracture occurs only in children whose bones are not fully ossified and contain more organic than inorganic material

what are cranial bones

those that enclose the brain, and compose the cranium (brain case)

How many pathways in Clotting?

three

perforating (volkmann's) canals

tiny canals that penetrate compact bone; carry blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves from the periosteum

canaliculi

tiny channels that radiate in all directions from lacunae and are filled with extracellular fluid

canaliculi

tiny passageways that osteocytes use to exchange nutrients and wastes

Fovea

tiny pit or depression

bulbous (Ruffini) corpuscles

tonic receptors for heavy touch, pressure, stretching of skin, and joint movements; they are flattened, elongated capsules containing a few nerve fibers, located in the dermis, subcutaneous tissue, and joint capsules

tactile (merkel) discs

tonic receptors for light touch, thought to sense texture, edges, and shapes; flattened nerve endings that terminate cells adjacent to the basal layer of the epidermis

spurs

too much mineral material is deposited in the bone creating thick bumps

Laceration

torn, ragged-edged wound

vitreous body/humor

transparent jelly that fills the _________ chamber behind the lens

what is the lateral sacral crest

transverse processes fuse into a less prominent crest on each side of the median crest

cochlear duct

triangular middle chamber of the cochlea, separated from the superior chamber by the vestibular membrane and from the inferior chamber by the basilar membrane; filled with endolymph, spiral organ lies within this structure

yellow bone marrow

triglyceride storage tissue

what are the main regions of the ulna

trochlear notch, olecranon, coronoid process, radial notch, and styloid process

Interventricular foramen

tube that allows CSF to flow from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle

Tendon sheaths

tube-like bursae

cartilaginous joints

two bones bound together by cartilage.

what are the superior and middle nasal conchae

two curled, scroll-like plates of bone, project into the nasal fossa from its lateral wall toward the septum

rickets osteomalacia

two forms of a disease resulting from calcification of the extracellular bone matrix, usually caused by a vitamin D deficiency resulting in bowed legs and deformities of the skull, rib cage, pelvis

what are nasal bones

two small rectangular bones to form the bridge of the nose and support cartilages that shape its lower portion; often fractured by blows to the nose

vallate (circumvallate) papillae

type of lingual papillae, contain up to half of all taste buds, arranged in a V at the back of the tongue

foliate papillae

type of lingual papillae, has taste buds, form parallel ridges on the edges of the tongue, where most chewing is done, and most flavor is released from the food

fungiform papillae

type of lingual papillae, has taste buds, shaped like a mushroom, located mainly on apex, concentrated on tip and sides of tongue

filiform papillae

type of lingual papillae, tiny spikes with no taste buds, sense the texture of food

Synovial

type of membrane located at this joint, cavity at the articulation

basal cell

type of stem cell that multiply and replace taste and olfactory cells that have died, may also synapse with sensory nerve fibers of the taste buds and play a role in processing sensory information

what is the mandibular notch

u-shaped arch between the condylar process and coronoid process

pituitary dwarfism

under secretion of human growth hormone during childhood

posterior pigment epithelium

underneath layer of the iris that blocks stray light from reaching the retina so the visual image is not degraded

Parasagittal Plane

unequal right & left sides

osteogenic cells

unspecialized bone stem cells which are the only bone cells to undergo cell division

Differentiation

unspecialized cells (stem cells) become specialized in structure and function

osteogenic cells

unspecialized stem cells derived from mesenchyme

Humerus

upper arm; head, greater tubercle, lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, surgical neck, deltoid tuberosity, capitulum (lateral), trochlea (medial), lateral and medial epicondyles, coronoid fossa, olecranon fossa

what is the spiral (pectineal) line and lateral gluteal tuberosity

upper end, linea aspera forks into this

Maxillary bones (2)

upper jaw; anterior roof of mouth, floor of orbits, side and floor of nasal cavity; alveolar processes, maxillary sinuses, palatine processes

irregular bones

variety of shapes

what is the atlas

vertebrae C1; supports the head in a manner reminiscent of the greek "carrying the heavens on your shoulders"

1. interstitial growth of cartilage on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate 2. replacement of cartilage on the diaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate by endochondrial ossification

what two processes account for growth in length of long bones?

vitamin A stimulates osteoblasts vitamin C is needed for collagen synthesis vitamin D increases absorption of calcium from foods vitamin K and B12 are needed to synthesize bone proteins

what vitamins are necessary for bone remodeling?

hemidecussation

when a nerve converges and forms an X (chaism), and the fibers from each optic nerve cross over to the opposite side of the brain

sensory adaptation

when exposure to a stimulus is prolonged, the firing neuron gets slower over time and you become less aware of the stimulus

beneath the periosteum of all bones most of the diaphysis of long bones

where can compact bone tissue be found in the body?

in the lining of the medullary cavity

where can inner circumferential lamellae be found?

the inner portion of the periosteum endosteum canals within the bone that contain blood vessels

where can osteogenic cells be found in a long bone?

most of the interior bone tissue of short, flat, sesamoid, and irregularly shaped bones the core of the epiphyses in long bones a narrow rim bordering the medullary cavity of the diaphysis

where can spongy bone be found in the human body?

nutrient veins epiphyseal and metaphyseal veins periosteal veins

where can veins be found in long bones?

hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus

where do we form emotional attachments, memories, and visceral reactions to smell?

orbitofrontal cortex

where in the brain do we identify odors?

lateral geniculate nucleus

where most of the axons on the optic tract end, in the thalamus, third-order neurons arise here and form optic radiation or fibers in the white matter of the cerebrum

lacrimal punctum

where tears collect in the medial commissure into a tiny pore

oval window

where the base of the stapes is held in, forms an elliptical base with the stapes, on the outside of the cochlea

what is the anterior superior spine

where the iliac crest extends from an anterior point or angle

what is the pubic symphysis

where the interpubic disc and the adjacent region of each pubic bone constitute; found immediately above the genitalia

what is the mental symphysis

where the left and right mandible develop and join together by a median cartilaginous joint at the point of the chin

what is the inferior orbital fissure

where the maxilla forms part of the floor of the orbit, it exhibits a gash that angles downward and medially

what is the sternoclavicular joint

where the medial end of the clavicle articulates with the sternum

what is the radial tuberosity

where the neck of the radius widens into a rough prominence, on the medial surface

what is the interosseous membrane

where the radius and ulna attached along their shafts by this ligament

what are the clavicular notches

where the right and left clavicle articulate with the manubrium

what is the glenohumeral joint

where the scapula also articulates with the humerus

what is the intervertebral foramen

where two vertebrae are joined and have openings between their pedicles that allow the passage of the spinal nerves

superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique

which 4 extrinsic eye muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve?

superior rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, and medial rectus

which 4 muscles move the eyeball up, down, medially, and laterally?

lateral rectus

which extrinsic eye muscle is innervated by the abducens nerve?

periosteum

which part of a bone contains sensory nerves associated with pain

ossification center

white

sclera

white of the eye, covers most of the eye surface and has dense collagenous connective tissue with blood vessels and nerves

Movement

whole body or structures within body

1. women's bones are less massive than men's bones 2. production of estrogens in women declines dramatically at menopause

why are women more susceptible to osteoporosis than men?

what are the medial and lateral epicondyles

widest points of the femur at the knee

Intracellular

within body cells

outer hair cells

within the spiral organ, arranged in 3 rows, on the more lateral side of the basilar membrane, stereocilia arranged in a V on this structure, adjusts the response of the cochlea to different frequencies

inner hair cells

within the spiral organ, responsible for hearing, arranged in 1 row on the medial side of the basilar membrane, supply 90-95% of sensory fibers of the cochlear nerve

what are intervertebral discs

within the vertebral columns along with vertebrae, the fibrocartilage between the vertebrae; a cartilaginous pad located between the bodies of two adjacent vertebrae; consists of nucleus pulposus (inner gelatinous) and anulus fibrosus (ring of fibrocartilage)

9 Regions - anatomical study

♣ 2 Horizontal lines: inferior to rib cage and inferior to tops of hip bones ♣ 2 Vertical lines: through midpoints of clavicles

Cardiovascular System

♣ Components: Blood, heart, and blood vessels ♣ Functions: Heart pumps blood through blood vessels; blood carries oxygen and nutrients to cells and carbon dioxide and wastes away from cells and helps regulate acid-base balance, temperature, and water content of body fluids; blood components help defend against disease and repair damaged blood vessels

Skeletal System

♣ Components: Bones and joints of the body and their associated cartilages ♣ Functions: Supports and protects body; provides surface area for muscle attachments; aids body movement; houses cells that produce blood cells; stores minerals and lipids (fats)

Nervous System

♣ Components: Brain, spinal cord, nerves, and special sense organs, such as eyes and ears ♣ Functions: Generates action potentials (nerve impulses) to regulate body activities; detects changes in body's internal & external environments, interprets changes, and responds by causing muscular contractions or glandular secretions

Reproductive System

♣ Components: Gonads (testes in males and ovaries in females) and associated organs (uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, and mammary glands in females and epididymides, ductus deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate, and penis in males) ♣ Functions: Gonads produce gametes (sperm or oocytes) that unite to form a new organism; gonads also release hormones that regulate reproduction and other body processes; associated organs transport and store gametes; mammary glands produce milk

Endocrine System

♣ Components: Hormone-producing glands (pineal gland, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thymus, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, pancreas, ovaries, and testes) and hormone producing cells in several other organs ♣ Functions: Regulates body activities by releasing hormones (chemical messengers transported in blood from endocrine gland or tissue to target organ)

Urinary System

♣ Components: Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra ♣ Functions: Produces, stores, and eliminates urine; eliminates wastes & regulates volume & chemical composition of blood; helps maintain the acid-base balance of body fluids; maintains body's mineral balance; helps regulate production of red blood cells

Respiratory System

♣ Components: Lungs & air passageways such as the pharynx (throat), Larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), and bronchial tubes leading into & out of lungs ♣ Functions: Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood & carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air; helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids; air flowing out of lungs through vocal cords produces sounds

Lymphatic System

♣ Components: Lymphatic fluid and lymphatic vessels; spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, and tonsils; cells that carry out immune response (B cells, T cells, etc.) ♣ Functions: Returns proteins & fluid to blood; carries lipids from gastrointestinal tract to blood; contains sites of maturation & proliferation of B bells & T cells that protect against disease causing microbes

Digestive System

♣ Components: Organs of gastrointestinal tract, a long tube that includes the mouth, pharynx (throat), esophagus (food tube), stomach, small & large intestines, and anus; also includes accessory organs that assist in digestive processes, such as salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas ♣ Functions: Achieves physical & chemical breakdown of food; absorbs nutrients; eliminates solid wastes

Muscular System

♣ Components: Skeletal muscles-voluntarily controlled muscles usually attached to bones (smooth and cardiac muscles are components of other body systems) ♣ Functions: Participates in body movements, such as walking; maintains posture; produces heat

Integumentary System

♣ Components: Skin and associated structures, such as hair, fingernails, toenails, & sweat glands/oil glands ♣ Functions: Protects body; helps regulate body temperature; eliminates some wastes; helps make vitamin D; detects sensations such as touch, pain, warmth, and cold

Feedback System

♣ Cycle of events ♣ Controlled condition - a monitored body variable ♣ Stimulus - any disruption that changes condition

What are disruption sources of Homeostasis feedback?

♣ External environment stresses ♣ Internal environment stresses ♣ Psychological stresses

4 Quadrants - clinical description

♣ Midsagittal line through umbilicus ♣ Transverse line through umbilicus

What regulates Homeostasis?

♣ Nerve impulses - rapid ♣ Endocrine hormones - more slowly

Negative Feedback System

♣ Response of effector causes a physiological change that reverses controlled condition change from stimulus ♣ Returns controlled condition to normal limits

Positive Feedback System

♣ Response of effector intensifies or reinforces the controlled condition change from stimulus ♣ Physiological change continues until it is interrupted by some mechanism, after which homeostasis is restored