Anatomy Exam 2

Synchondroses are always classified as synarthroses. T or F?? and why

True because they contain hyaline cartilage

Which is not a feature of the ulna?

Ulnar notch

Which is not a cranial bone? Vomer Frontal Occipital Temporal Parietal

Vomer

If you contract your right sternocleidomastoid muscle, what movement would you expect?

Your head would turn to the left

Which bone forms by intramembranous ossification? Zygomatic Radius Axis Hamate First metatarsal

Zygomatic

Which are considered specific characteristics of all muscle cells? a: Contractility b: Extensibility c: Excitability d: Elasticity e: Originality

abcd

In general, a skeletal muscle is composed of a: Connective tissue sheaths b: Nerves c: Arteries d: Veins e: Muscle fibers

abcde

interossei

abducts and adducts digits; metacarpals 2-5, phalanges 2-5

supraspinatus

abducts arm first 15 degrees; supraspinatus fossa, humeral tuberositites

gluteus medius

abducts thigh; ilium and femur

gluteus minimus

abducts thigh; ilium and femur

deltoid

abducts, flexes, extends, and rotate arm; scapular spine, clavicle, and humerus

You have asked your patient to move their arm toward the midline of the body. Which movement is this?

adduction

what part of the maxilla holds the teeth

alveolar process

synovial joints have

articular fibrous capsule (outer fibrous layer, inner synovial membrane), joint cavity filled with synovial fluid, articular (hyaline) cartilage, ligaments, blood supply and innervated

Patients with osteoporosis often suffer _________ fractures of the vertebral bodies due to loss of bone mass.

Compression

Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae? Costal facets and demifacets Transverse foramina Spinous processes Vertebral foramina Laminae

Costal facets and demifacets

Which feature is unique to the axis?

Dens

Before beginning orthodontic treatment, a patient may have her wrist and hand x-rayed to determine her stage of growth. What long bone feature will the orthodontist use to assess this?

Epiphyseal plate

An elderly patient comes into the ER. She "broke her hip" falling. Which bone is most likely fractured in this patient?

Femur

The "soft spots" on an infant's head are caused by which of the following?

Fontanelles

Hole in a bone (typically for nerves or blood vessels)

Foramen

Depression in a bone

Fossa

Which of these is not a sinus that drains into the nasal cavity? Maxillary sinus Ethmoid sinus Sphenoid sinus Mastoid sinus Frontal sinus

Mastoid sinus

Cartilage tissue structure

No blood supply (avascular- receives nutrients through diffusion), cells: chondrocytes in lacunae

Which bones articulate with the femur?

Os coxae, tibia, patella

What is the location of the auditory ossicles?

Petrous part of temporal bone

Projection from bone, narrow or wide, protrudes from surrounding bone

Process

starting at the radial styloid process, the carpals are as follows...

So Long To Pinky, Here Comes The Thumb Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, Trapezium

What are the three main regions of temporal bone?

Squamous, petral, tympanic

Functions of the vertebral column

Supporting the weight of the head Maintaining upright body position Passageway for spinal nerves Protecting the spinal cord

Which bone is not part of the facial complex? Temporal Mandible Zygomatic Maxilla Nasal

Temporal

Which of these bones are NOT part of the orbit? Frontal Ethmoid Sphenoid Zygomatic Temporal

Temporal

Which is not correct regarding the patella? The patella is triangular in shape. The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. The posterior aspect of the patella articulates with the femur. The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex. The patella can be palpated on the anterior surface of the knee.

The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex.

Collectively, these muscles support and position the head, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. They also control movements associated with respiration and form part of the floor of the pelvic cavity.

axial muscles

Which is the correct order of the connective tissue layers of a skeletal muscle, beginning with the outermost first? a: Endomysium b: Epimysium c: Perimysium

bca

Where is fibrocartilage found?

between vertebral disks, knee joint, pubic symphysis

The coracoid process is an attachment point of the ____ muscle

biceps

hallux is the

big toe

symphyses are

bones joined by fibrocartilage

synchondroses are

bones joined by hyaline cartilage

convergent muscle orientation def and ex

broad origin (proximal end of muscle), narrow insertion (distal end of muscle), direction of pull can be changed because different groups of fibers can be activated; pectorals major, gluteus medius, latissimus dorsi

what is the epicranial aponeurosis

broad sheet of tendon over the parietal bones

function of zygomaticus major and attachments

elevates corners of the mouth, "smile muscle"; zygomatic bone, skin of mouth

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

ends of long bones, costal cartilages, respiratory structures, fetal skeleton

what bone is just anterior to sphenoid

ethmoid

forearm extensors

extend wrist and digits; lateral epicondyle humerus, wrist and digist

gluteus maximus

extends and laterally rotates thigh; ilium and femur

triceps

extends forarm; scapula (long head), humerus, and olecranon (of ulna)

vastus medialis, intermedius, lateralis

extends leg; femur, tibia via patella

biceps femoris

extends thigh and flexes leg; ischium and femur, fibula

teres major

extends, adducts medially rotates arm; scapula and humerus

latissimus dorsi

extends, adducts, medially rotates arm; lower back and humerus

Which elevates the ribs?

external intercostals

parallel muscle orientation def and ex

fascicles run parallel to long axis of muscle, narrow insertions and broader middle (tapered at both ends), high endurance, not very strong though; biceps, sternocleidomastoid, sartorial, brachioradialis

pennate muscle orientation def and ex

fascicles short, attach obliquely to tendon or raphe, uni- bi- multi-, stronger than parallel muscle of same size; rectus femoris, deltoid

what bones does intramembranous ossification form

flat bones, maxillae, zygomatic, mandible, center of clavicle

ball and socket joint allows

flection/extension/ adduction/ abduction/ rotation

forearm flexors

flex wrist and digits; medial epicondyle humerus and forearm, wrist and digits

tensor facie lata

flexes and abducts thigh; ilium and femur

biceps brachii

flexes and supinates forearm; scapula, radial tuberosity

coracobrachialis

flexes arm; scapula and humerus

brachialis

flexes forearm; humerus and ulna

brachioradialis

flexes forearm; humerus, radius

sternocleidomastoid muscle

flexes head laterally, flexes head/neck toward sternum

iliopsas

flexes leg or thigh, also known as hip flexor; ilium and lumbar vertebra, femur

rectus femoris

flexes thigh and extends leg; ilium, patella

sartorius

flexes, abducts, laterally rotates thigh and flexes leg; pubis and tibia

pectorals major actions and attachments

flexes, adducts, medially rotates arm; sternum, clavicle ribs, and humerus

hinge joint allows

flexion and extension

The term diarthrosis refers to a joint that is

freely mobile

functional classification- diarthrosis: def and ex

freely moveable; joints in limbs

The coronal suture separates

frontal and parietal bones (front and back of head)

cranium is made up of 8 bones- name them

frontal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid, 2 parietals, 2 temporals

function of depressor anguli oris and attachments

frown muscle; mandible and skin of mouth

what articulation forms the shoulder joint

glenoid fossa of scapula and humerus

Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) _________ model.

hyaline cartilage model

describe process of endochondral bone ossification

hyaline cartilage model, primary center of ossification forms in diaphysis, secondary centers form in epiphysis, bone replaces cartilage, epiphyseal plates eventually ossify

three types of cartilage

hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

When you rest your hands on your hips, just below the waist, you are resting them on the

iliac crests

The bones of the ox coxae (name them) articulate at the ____.

ilium, ischium, pubis; acetabulum

Functional classification- synarthrosis: def and ex

immovable; skull sutures, epiphyseal plates

what are fontanelles

infant skull bones connected by flexible CT to allow head to deform during birth, and allows rapid brain growth, eventually fusing over time

What is achondroplasia

inhibits cartilage proliferation so epiphyseal plates close too early, dwarfism (chondro- cartilage, plasia- form)

two types of ossification

intramembranous ossification, endochondral bone ossification

what part of the pelvic girdle do you sit on

ischial tuberosities

The circular muscle around the eye is called

orbicularis oculi

circular muscle orientation def and ex

sphincter, surrounds external body openings, close when they contract; orbiculares oris and oculi

which part of the vertebrae are ligament and muscle attachment sites

spinous process and transverse process

what is composed of bony struts called trabeculae

spongey bone

This muscle has its origin on the manubrium and sternal end of the clavicle and its insertion on the mastoid process.

sternocleidomastoid

What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with?

sternum and scapula

when naming muscles, rectus means

straight

what is an osteon

structural unit of compact bone made up of lamellae with haversian canal in middle holding arteries and veins, parallel to bone

The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the

styloid processes

Which extrinsic eye muscle moves through a pulleylike loop?

superior oblique

After a pop quiz in anatomy class, you find out that you are one of the top scorers and have earned a fabulous prize. As you reach out your hand to receive your prize, what movements are involved?

supination and extension

in ____ the radius is parallel to the ulna, while in __ the radius is crossed over the ulna

supination, pronation

Functions of the skeletal system

support, protection, movement, hemopoiesis (blood cell production), energy and mineral reserves

Functions of axial skeleton

supports head, neck, trunk. Protects brain, spinal cord, thoracic organs

Functions of cartilage

supports soft tissues, model for formation of bone, gliding surface at articulations

perimysium

surrounds each fascicle, divides skeletal muscle into compartments

epimysium

surrounds entire muscle, separates individual muscles

endomysium

surrounds muscle fibers within a fascicle

two cartilaginous joints:

synchondroses, symphyses

An articular capsule is present in

synovial joints

The only bone of the ankle that articulates with the tibia is the

talus

what tarsal articulates with the tibia and fibula and what does it articulate with inferiorly

talus; calcaneous

the squamous suture separates

temporal, occipital, and parietal bones

muscles may attach indirectly or directly, name the two indirect by two ways

tendon- muscle to bone, aponeurosis- flat sheet of tendon

the striations that you see in skeletal muscle come from

the differences in the density and size of the filaments

Maxilla articulates with all other facial bones except for

the mandible

describe the placement of the three arches of the foot

the medial longitudinal lies over the talus, the transverse is between them, the lateral longitudinal is on the bottom (cuboid is key)

the only cranial bone that articulates with every other cranial bone

sphenoid

The skull consists of _____ cranial bones and _____ facial bones.

8; 14

At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse?

Acetabelum

lambdoid suture separates

occipital and parietal

There are four muscles of mastication. Select the exception. Buccinator Masseter Temporalis Lateral pterygoid Medial pterygoid

Buccinator

Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton? Malleus Sacrum Clavicle Atlas Frontal bone

Clavicle

What muscle protracts the tongue?

Genioglossus

Which muscle does not move the mandible? Temporalis Masseter Lateral pterygoid Medial pterygoid Genioglossus

Genioglossus

Which joint is not capable of circumduction? Coxal (hip) joint Glenohumeral joint Metacarpophalangeal joint Radiocarpal joint Humeroulnar joint

Humeroulnar joint

What is the template for the developing long bone?

Hyaline cartilage

the three components of the erector spinae muscle group.

Iliocostalis, Longissimus, spinalis

The superior portion of the sternum is called the

Manubrium

Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals? Triquetrum Lunate Scaphoid Trapezoid Pisiform

Trapezoid

T or F, bone healing requires both osteoblasts and osteoclasts

True

The heel of the foot is the

calcaneus

groove or tube-like structure

canal

4 types of fascicle orientation

circular, parallel, pennate, convergent

What is the action of the orbiculares oris

compresses and protrudes the lips

structural classification- synovial: def and ex

connected at a joint cavity within a capsule; most joints

structural classification- cartilaginous: def and ex

connected by cartilage tissue; pubic symphysis

structural classification- fibrous: def and ex

connected by fibrous connective tissue; skull sutures

skeletal muscle tissue properties

contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity

basic functional unit of a skeletal muscle-

contraction of the sarcomere is what contracts the muscle. Each sarcomere shortens as muscle contracts

helps form the roof of nasal cavities; foramina allow passage of olfactory nerves into brain

cribriform plate

attaches to cribriform plate; separates nasal cavity from brain, site of attachment for dura mater

crista galli

what is compartment syndrome

damaged muscle swells, surrounding fascia constricts, puts pressure on vessels and nerves also prevents blood from entering or draining

The shaft of the bone is also called the

diaphysis

demonstrate dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

dorsiflexion: lifting superior portion to approach shin, plantar flexion: depressing foot elevating heel

The steps in the process of endochondral ossification are a: Ossification center forms in the diaphysis b: Ossification centers form in the epiphyses c: Bone continues to replace cartilage d: Epiphyseal plates ossify e: Cartilage model develops The correct chronological order for these steps is

e, a, b, c, d

function of lateral and medial pterygoids and attachments

elevates and protracts mandible, side to side grinding, muscle of mastication; sphenoid and mandible

function of temporals and attachments

elevates and retracts mandible (closes jaw), muscle of mastication; lateral cranium and coronoid process of mandible

The _______ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones.

lambdoid

In compact bone, osteons are formed by concentric rings of bone called ___________.

lamellae

In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna.

lateral

lateral and medial condyles of the femur articulate with the

lateral and medial condyles of tibia

infraspinatus

laterally rotates arm; infraspinatous fossa, humeral tuberosities

teres minor

laterally rotates arm; infraspinatous fossa, humeral tuberosities

the sagittal suture separates

left and right parietals

You hear a sharp noise to your left causing you to shift your eyes in that direction. Which muscles were responsible for your glance?

left eye- lateral rectus, right eye- medial rectus

function of master and attachments

levant and protracts mandible (closes jaw), muscle of mastication; strongest of the muscles of mastication; zygomatic arch and mandible

There are 14 facial bones- name them

mandible, vomer, 2 nasals, 2 maxillae, 2 zygomatics, 2 palatine bones, 2 inferior nasal conchae

Hole or tube-like structue

meatus

The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the

medial and lateral condyles of the femur.

what bone projects to form ankle bone

medial malleolus

subscapularis

medially rotates arm; sub scapular fossa, humeral tuberosities

Describe process of intramembranous ossification

mesenchymal cells come together in connective tissue membrane becoming osteoblasts, region is an ossification center, osteoblasts become osteocytes, new bone is formed, embryonic blood vessels grow through the region forming trabeculae (spongey bone) which will then become compact bone with blood

hypothenar group

move 5th finger opposing to thumb; wrist and pinky

thenar group

move thump, opposition to other digits; wrist and pollex

what is the opposition movement

moving the thumb to touch the tips of the other fingers

subdivisions of skeletal muscle

muscle -> fascicles -> muscle fiber-> myofibrils

Which muscles arise from the skull and often attach to the skin?

muscles of facial expression

The inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc is called the

nucleus pulposus.

Your patient has Bell's palsy, which causes paralysis of the muscles of facial expression. The muscles of mastication are not paralyzed. Which of the following muscles is affected in your patient? temporalis orbicularis oris masseter lateral pterygoid

orbicularis oris

three types of cells in bones

osteocytes (mature bone cells), osteoblasts (build new bone), osteoclasts (consume bone/ break it down)

process of bone formation

osteogenesis

Where is elastic cartilage found?

outer ear and epiglottis

The biceps brachii is an example of a ________ muscle.

parallel

An example of a flat bone would be the

parietal.

Appendicular skeleton consists of

pectoral girdle, upper limb, pelvic girdle, lower limb

skeletal muscle functions

produce movement, maintain posture, support, generate heat, storage and movement of materials

Serrates anterior actions and attachments

protracts and rotates scapula, holds scapula against body wall; scapula and ribs

function of genioglossus

protracts tongue; mandible and posterior part of tongue

The capitulum articulates with the head of the ____ while the trochlea of the humerus articulates with the _____ of the _____

radius, trochlear notch, ulna

function of frontals and attachments

raises eyebrows; frontal bone and epicranial aponeurosis

A condition in which a portion of the viscera protrudes through a weakened point of the muscular wall of the abdominopelvic cavity is known as a hernia. Which of these muscles might be weak?

rectus abdominus

he most medial of the abdominal muscles are the _________ muscles.

rectus abdominus

The diaphragm is a muscle that aids

respiration. urination. defecation. childbirth.

osteoporosis

results from imbalance in normal bone building and degradation cycle. osteoclasts break bone down to release calcium into bloodstream

pivot joint allows

rotation

What is the unilateral action of the external abdominal oblique muscle?

rotation of the trunk

The pectoral girdle is made up of

scapula and clavicle

Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle?

scapula and clavicle

deep fascia

sheet of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscles as well as groups of muscles with same action

when naming muscles, brevis means

short

Axial skeleton consists of

skull, vertebral column, thoracic cage (sternum and ribs)

functional classification- amphiarthosis: def and ex

slightly moveable; pubic symphysis

muscles in opposite compartments are antagonistic, meaning

they have different actiosn

muscles in the same compartment are synergistic, which means

they have similar actions

sliding filament mechanism

thin and thick filaments slide past each other during muscle contraction to shorten the sarcomere, leading to muscle contraction

function of buccinator and attachments

tightens cheeks, even though it's a muscle of facial expression, plays large role in mastication- holds food within the teeth during chewing; mandible/maxilla and within the skin of face

name the three arches of the foot

transverse, medial longitudinal, lateral longitudinal

The deepest of the abdominal muscles are the _________ muscles.

transversus abdominis

skeletal muscles are also organs. true or false and why

true because they contain mostly skeletal muscle tissue but also connective tissue, nerves, and blood vessels

The joint movement called eversion involves

turning the sole of the foot laterally

radial head also articulates with the ____ of the ulna to form the pivot joint (allowing pronation and supination)

ulnar notch

Trapezius actions and attachments

upper fibers elevate scapula middle fibers retract scapula lower fibers depress scapula all work together to rotate scapula ; vertebrae C1-T12 scapular spine & clavicle

when does growth stop

when centers of ossification meet (one in the diaphysis and one in the epiphysis)

What is the sella turica

within the sphenoid, body depression that holds the pituitary bone

a sarcomere extends from

z disk to z disk