Anatomy: The Back: Mock Multiple Choice Questions

Which of the following muscles is NOT a muscle of the deep layer of the deep back muscles? A. Semispinalis B. Multifidus C. Rotatores D. Spinalis

D. Spinalis The spinalis muscle is a muscle of the intermediate layer of the deep back muscles All of the other options are muscles of the deep layer of the deep back muscles!

Where do dorsal nerve roots travel through/terminate at? A. Gray matter of dorsal horn B. White matter of dorsal horn C. Gray matter of ventral horn

A. Gray matter of dorsal horn C describes where then ventral nerve roots travel through/terminate at

Which of the following ligaments does NOT connect adjacent spinous processes? A. Ligamentum flavum B. Interspinous ligaments C. Supraspinous ligaments

A. Ligamentum flavum The ligamentum flavum connects the lamina between each vertebrae Both interspinous and supraspinous ligaments connect adjacent spinous processes. The interspinous ligaments attach along inferior and superior portions of the spinous processes, where supraspinous ligaments attach at apices of each spinous process.

Which of the following BEST describe spina bifida occulta? A. Bony defect of the vertebral arch in which the meninges protrude through B. Bony defect in which the vertebral arch fail to fuse, typically demarcated on the back by a patch of hair C. Bony defect of the vertebral arch in which the meninges and spinal cord protrude through

B. *The part about the patch of hair is found in one of the Moore Blue Boxes A describes meningocele, C describes myelomenigocele

All of the following describe the tectorial membrane EXCEPT: A. Runs posterior to cruciate ligament B. Acts as a continuation of the ALL C. Is found from C2 to the foramen magnum

B. Acts as continuation of the ALL The tectorial membrane acts as a continuation of the PLL from below, NOT the ALL All of the other options are true of the tectorial membrane!

Which of the following sacral landmarks contains nerve roots of the caudal equina? A. Sacral hiatus B. Sacral canal C. Sacral cornu D. Sacral ala

B. Sacral canal The sacral hiatus is formed by the failure of the lamina of S5 to fuse, the sacral cornu is formed by the pedicles of S5, and the sacral ala is the superior/lateral portion of the sacrum

Which of the following is NOT an articulation of an atlantoaxial joint? A. Right facets B. Left facets C. Median atlantoaxial joints D. Atlanto-occipital joints

D. Atlanto-occipital joints A, B, and C are the 3 articulations of the atlantoaxial joint

Which of the following muscles is not a part of the superficial layer of the muscles of the back? A. Splenius cervicis B. Trapezius C. Latissimus dorsi D. Rhomboid minor

A. Splenius cervicis The splenius cervicis is part of the superficial layer of the DEEP layer of back muscles The rest of the options are all apart of the superficial layer, including also the rhomboid major and the levator scapula

The trapezius muscle is innervated by: A. Thoracodorsal nerve B. Spinal accessory motor nerve C. Dorsal scapular nerve D. Dorsal primary rami of spinal nerves C2-C6

B. Spinal accessory motor nerve A describes innervation of latissimus dorsi, C describes innervation of the rhomboids and legator scapula and D describes innervation of splenius capitis and spleius cervicis

Which of the following characteristics of the atlas (C1) allows for articulation with C2 that results in rotation? A. The spinous process B. The inferior facets of the lateral mass C. Facets located on the anterior arch D. The vertebral body

B. The inferior facets of the lateral mass A and D are incorrect because C1 does not have either! Facets located on the anterior arch articulates with the dens of C2. The SUPERIOR facets of the lateral mass articulate with occipital condyles and allows for flexion and extension

What fraction of the vertebral column length is due to intervertebral discs? A. 1/3 B. 1/2 C. 1/4

C. 1/4 The "typical" length of the vertebral column is 72-75cm, with 1/4 of that due to the intervertebral discs

How many cervical vertebrae would you find in a normal vertebral column? A. 6 B. 12 C. 7 D. 5

C. 7 There are 7 cervical vertebrae in a normal vertebral column. There are 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar, 5 fused in the sacrum and 4 fused in the coccyx

Which of the following processes form fact joints between vertebrae when they are adjacent to one another? A. Transverse processes B. Spinous processes C. Articular processes

C. Articular processes Both transverse and spinous processes provide attachment and lever for spinal muscles

The superficial layer of the muscles of the back: A. Assist in the control of respiration and are extrinsic B. Act directly on the vertebral column and are intrinsic C. Control upper limb movement and are extrinsic

C. Control upper limb movement and are extrinsic A describes the intermediate layer of back muscles, B describes the deep layer of back muscles

Which of the following is not a gross movement of the vertebral column/trunk? A. Extension B. Flexion C. Dorisflexion D. Lateral flexion E. Rotation

C. Dorsiflexion Dorsiflexion is an action of the foot/ankle. All of the other options can be done by the vertebral column/trunk

Which of the following pathologies would NOT cause referred back pain? A. Pancreatitis B. Prostate CA C. Osteomyelitis D. Gastric ucler

C. Osteomyelitis Osteomyelitis would cause intrinsic back pain, whereas the other options would cause referred back pain, meaning pathology of the viscera that may cause pain to radiate to the back

All of the following describe the coccyx EXCEPT: A. Made up of 4 fused vertebrae B. Wedge-shaped C. Has 4 pairs of foramina for dorsal/ventral nerve root exit D. Provides attachment for pelvic muscles

C. The SACRUM has 4 pairs of foramina, not the coccyx All of the other options are true!

All of the following describe the typical vertebrae EXCEPT: A. Composed of a body, arch and seven processes B. There are 4 articular processes on a typical vertebrae C. The epiphyseal ring of the body is a primary ossification center during growth D. The bodies of T4 and below gradually increase in size

C. The epiphyseal ring of the body is a primary ossification center during growth It is actually a secondary ossification center during growth, and all of the other options are correct!

Which of the following collectively provides a passageway for the spinal cord? A. Intervertebral foramen B. Vertebral foramen C. Vertebral canal D. Transverse foramen

C. Vertebral canal The vertebral foramen of each vertebrae contributes to the vertebral canal, so that when they are stacked on top of each other, they create the vertebral canal, and a passageway for the spinal cord.

Which cervical vertebrae has a spinous process that is a common landmark for palpation? A. C1 B. C3 C. C2 D. C7

D. C7 C7 has the most prominent spinous process of the cervical vertebrae and therefore is a landmark for palpation

Kyphosis can be described by all of the following EXCEPT: A. An excessive posterior curvature B. Occurs in thoracic spine C. Can occur due to compression fractures D. Excessive anterior curvature

D. Excessive anterior curvature All of the options relate to kyphosis except D, which describes lordosis

All of the following describe the PLL EXCEPT: A. Width decreases as it descends down vertebral column B. Attaches C2 to sacrum C. Runs anterior to the spinal column D. Limits extension

D. Limits extension The PLL limits FLEXION, the ALL limits EXTENSION, making option D false All of the other options are true of the PLL!

Which of the following muscles makes up the medial border of the suboccipital triangle? A. Obliquus capitus superior B. Obliquus capitus inferior C. Semispinalis capitis D. Rectus capitis posterior major

D. Rectus capitis posterior major A describes the lateral border, B describes the inferior border, C describes the roof

An infant that begins to stand and/or walk has begun to develop which vertebral curvature? A. Primary curve in the thoracic B. Secondary curve in the cervical C. Primary curve in the sacrum D. Secondary curve in the lumbar

D. Secondary curve in the lumbar Infants are born with a primary curve only, eliminating A and C. The development of the secondary curve in the cervical occurs when infants can hold their head up and sit upright.

The primary curvature of the vertebral column involves which of the following vertebrae sections? A. L and C B. L and S C. T and L D. T and S

D. T and S The thoracic and sacral vertebral sections make up the primary curvature of the vertebral column. The L and C vertebral sections make up the secondary curvature of the vertebral column. The rest of the options are just made up!

All of the following are distinguishing characteristics of the thoracic vertebrae EXCEPT: A. The body of thoracic vertebrae are heart shaped B. The upper thoracic vertebrae transition from the cervical vertebrae and the lower thoracic vertebrae transition to lumbar vertebrae C. T1-T10 have transverse costal facets for articulation with ribs D. The articular processes have mamillary processes that are located on the superior articular pillar

D. The articular processes of the LUMBAR vertebrae have mamillary processes, not the thoracic vertebrae All of the other options are true!

All of the following are distinguishing characteristics of the cervical vertebrae EXCEPT: A. The body is small and wider side to side B. The vertebral foramen is large C. Superior facets of the articular processes face superior and posterior D. The transverse foramen allow the transverse artery to pass through (C6-1)

D. The transverse foramen allow for the VERTEBRAL artery to pass through, not the transverse artery All of the other options are true!

The intervertebral disc consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A. Water B. Collagen fibers C. Proteoglycans D. Veins E. Nerves

D. Veins IV discs do not have a blood supply in normal adults, but DO contain all of the other options, whether found in the annulus fibrosis (collagen fibers, nerves) or nucleus pulpous (water, proteoglycans)