AP Bio Chapter 16 and 17 Test
At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3ʹ C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5ʹ An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? A) 5ʹ G C C T A G G 3ʹ B) 3ʹ G C C T A G G 5ʹ C) 5ʹ ACGTTAGG 3ʹ D) 5ʹ A C G U U A G G 3ʹ E) 5ʹ G C C U A G G 3ʹ
5ʹ A C G U U A G G 3ʹ
In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T C) A + C = G + T D) G + C = T + A
A + C = G + T
A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which might this illustrate? A) The sequence evolves very rapidly. B) The sequence does not mutate. C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against. D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters. E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.
Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already. Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide? A) A site B) P site C) E site D) Exit tunnel E) Directly to the cytosol
Exit tunnel
Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following? A) The evolution of telomerase enzyme B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5ʹ end C) Gaps left at the 5ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a 3ʹ onto which nucleotides can attach D) Gaps left at the 3ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer E) The ʺno endsʺ of a circular chromosome
Gaps left at the 5ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a 3ʹ onto which nucleotides can attach
The ʺuniversalʺ genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this could be found if which of the following is true? A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only). B) If one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have a different effect on translation than another stop codon, such as UAA. C) If prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide. D) If several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine. E) If a single mRNA molecule is found to translate to more than one polypeptide when there are two or more AUG sites.
If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).
Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome? A) It is composed of DNA alone. B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit. C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism. D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA. E) Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin.
It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA.
What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene? A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein. B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein. C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA. D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA. E) It prevents introns from being excised.
It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.
RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching? A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another. B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions. C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon. D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates. E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.
It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.
During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction? A) protein B) DNA C) RNA D) lipid E) sugar
RNA
Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide D) a DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product E) a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids
a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide
When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by A) a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself, which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes. B) a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane. C) moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus. D) a chemical signal given off by the ER. E) a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.
a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.
A frameshift mutation could result from A) a base insertion only. B) a base deletion only. C) a base substitution only. D) deletion of three consecutive bases. E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule? A) covalent bonding between sulfur atoms B) ionic bonding between phosphates C) hydrogen bonding between base pairs D) van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms E) peptide bonding between amino acids
hydrogen bonding between base pairs
A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already. Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel through the large subunit of the ribosome? A) tRNA with attached lysine (#1) B) tRNA with polypeptide (#2) C) tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid D) newly formed polypeptide E) initiation and elongation factors
newly formed polypeptide
The process of translation, whether in prokaryotes or eukaryotes, requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, and which of the following? A) polypeptide factors plus ATP B) polypeptide factors plus GTP C) polymerases plus GTP D) SRP plus chaperones E) signal peptides plus release factor
polypeptide factors plus GTP
Which of the following synthesizes short segments of RNA? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase
primase
A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of a phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that A) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine. B) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU. C) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons. D) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered. E) None of the above will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU
Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase? A) the protein product of the promoter B) start and stop codons C) ribosomes and tRNA D) several transcription factors (TFs) E) aminoacyl synthetase
several transcription factors (TFs)
Which of the following help to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated? A) primase B) ligase C) DNA polymerase D) single-strand binding proteins E) exonuclease
single-strand binding proteins
Chargaffʹs analysis of the relative base composition of DNA was significant because he was able to show that A) the relative proportion of each of the four bases differs within individuals of a species. B) the human genome is more complex than that of other species. C) the amount of A is always equivalent to T, and C to G. D) the amount of ribose is always equivalent to deoxyribose. E) transformation causes protein to be brought into the cell.
the amount of A is always equivalent to T, and C to G.
What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication? A) the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction B) the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell C) the nucleotide sequence of the template strand D) the primase used in the reaction E) the arrangement of histones in the sugar phosphate backbone
the nucleotide sequence of the template strand
Each eukaryotic mRNA, even after post-transcriptional modification, includes 5ʹ and 3ʹ UTRs. Which are these? A) the cap and tail at each end of the mRNA B) the untranslated regions at either end of the coding sequence C) the U attachment sites for the tRNAs D) the U translation sites that signal the beginning of translation E) the U — A pairs that are found in high frequency at the ends
the untranslated regions at either end of the coding sequence
In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following? A) the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon B) the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein C) the various domains of the polypeptide product D) the number of restriction enzyme cutting sites E) the number of start sites for transcription
the various domains of the polypeptide product
Introns are significant to biological evolution because A) their presence allows exons to be shuffled. B) they protect the mRNA from degeneration. C) they are translated into essential amino acids. D) they maintain the genetic code by preventing incorrect DNA base pairings. E) they correct enzymatic alterations of DNA bases.
their presence allows exons to be shuffled.
Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide? A) to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER B) to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription C) to terminate translation of the messenger RNA D) to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane E) to signal the initiation of transcription
to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane
About how many more genes are there in the haploid human genome than in a typical bacterial genome? A) 10 X B) 100 X C) 1000 X D) 10,000 X E) 100,000 X
1000 X
Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? A) 12 B) 24 C) 31 D) 38 E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
12
If proteins were composed of only 12 different kinds of amino acids, what would be the smallest possible codon size in a genetic system with four different nucleotides? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 12
2
A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be A) 5ʹ TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3ʹ. B) 3ʹ AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5ʹ. C) 5ʹ AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3ʹ. D) 3ʹ AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5ʹ. E) 3ʹ AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5ʹ.
3ʹ AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5ʹ
A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5ʹ AGT 3ʹ. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is A) 3ʹ UCA 5ʹ. B) 3ʹ UGA 5ʹ. C) 5ʹ TCA 3ʹ. D) 3ʹACU 5ʹ. E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base.
3ʹ UCA 5
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA? A) 3ʹ → 5ʹ along the template strand B) 3ʹ → 5ʹ along the coding (sense) strand C) 5ʹ → 3ʹ along the template strand D) 3ʹ → 5ʹ along the coding strand E) 5ʹ → 3ʹ along the double-stranded DNA
3ʹ → 5ʹ along the template strand
Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence. 1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site. 2. A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a polypeptide chain. 3. tRNA leaves the P site, and the P site remains vacant. 4. A small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA. 5. tRNA translocates to the P site. A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 C) 5,4,3,2,1 D) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 E) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
4, 1, 2, 5, 3
A typical bacterial chromosome has ~4.6 million nucleotides. This supports approximately how many genes? A) 4.6 million B) 4.4 thousand C) 45 thousand D) about 400
4.4 thousand
An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements? A) primase, polymerase, ligase B) 3ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5ʹ C) 5ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3ʹ D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III E) 5ʹ DNA to 3ʹ
5ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3ʹ
A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide? A) 3ʹ UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC B) 3ʹ AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG C) 5ʹ TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC D) 5ʹ GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG E) 5ʹ ACT-TAC-CAT-AAA-CAT-TAC-UGA
5ʹ TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC
Which of the following help(s) to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation? A) TATA box B) spliceosomes C) 5ʹ cap and poly (A) tail D) introns E) RNA polymerase
5ʹ cap and poly (A) tail
The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer. You add polynucleotide phosphorylase to a solution of adenosine triphosphate and guanosine triphosphate. How many artificial mRNA 3 nucleotide codons would be possible? A) 3 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) 64
8
Which of the following best describes the addition of nucleotides to a growing DNA chain? A) A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. B) A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. C) A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. D) A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. E) A nucleoside monophosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA.
A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate.
The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group? A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone B) proteins, ATP, and DNA C) ATP, RNA, and DNA D) alpha glucose, ATP, and DNA E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP
ATP, RNA, and DNA
Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Phage with labeled proteins or DNA was allowed to infect bacteria. It was shown that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therefore concluded to be the genetic material. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why wonʹt this experiment work? A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen. B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long. C) Avery et al. have already concluded that this experiment showed inconclusive results. D) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive. E) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.
Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.
In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. E) RNA includes ribose, while DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.
DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not.
Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base? A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive. C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive. D) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine. E) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
Which of the following removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of Okazaki fragments? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase
DNA polymerase I
Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5ʹ → 3ʹ direction? A) primase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase III D) topoisomerase E) helicase
DNA polymerase III
A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction because A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5ʹ end of the template. B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3ʹ to 5ʹ direction. C) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3ʹ end. D) replication must progress toward the replication fork. E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3ʹ end.
DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3ʹ end.
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume all of the following except A) a gene from an organism could theoretically be expressed by any other organism. B) all organisms have a common ancestor. C) DNA was the first genetic material. D) the same codons in different organisms usually translate into the same amino acids. E) different organisms have the same number of different types of amino acids.
DNA was the first genetic material.
5) After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living non-phosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait? A) DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. C) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright. D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent. E) Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent.
Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
Erwin Chargaff
Which of the following statements is true of chromatin? A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA. B) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm. C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact. D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed. E) Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.
Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.
Which of the following statements describes histones? A) Each nucleosome consists of two molecules of histone H1. B) Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead it is involved in the formation of higher-level chromatin structures. C) The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a ʺhistone tail.ʺ D) Histones are found in mammals, but not in other animals or in plants. E) The mass of histone in chromatin is approximately nine times the mass of DNA.
Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead it is involved in the formation of higher-level chromatin structures.
In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis? A) These oocytes have no histones. B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility. C) Phosphorylation of all proteins in the cell must result. D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation. E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.
Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation.
Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.
Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
4) The following scientists made significant contributions to our understanding of the structure and function of DNA. Place the scientistsʹ names in the correct chronological order, starting with the first scientist(s) to make a contribution. I. Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod II. Griffith III. Hershey and Chase IV. Meselson and Stahl V. Watson and Crick A) V, IV, II, I, III B) II, I, III, V, IV C) I, II, III, V, IV D) I, II, V, IV, III E) II, III, IV, V, I
II, I, III, V, IV
Which of these is the function of a poly (A) signal sequence? A) It adds the poly (A) tail to the 3ʹ end of the mRNA. B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~10 —35 nucleotides away. C) It allows the 3ʹ end of the mRNA to attach to the ribosome. D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA polymerase. E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3ʹ end of the mRNA.
It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~10 —35 nucleotides away.
Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of proteinʹs activity? A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon. C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon. D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site. E) It might substitute the N terminus of the polypeptide for the C terminus.
It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.
In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe? A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections. B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form. C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic. D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains. E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation? A) No proofreading will occur. B) No replication fork will be formed. C) The DNA will supercoil. D) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone. E) Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
No replication fork will be formed.
Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Chemicals from heat-killed S cells were purified. The chemicals were tested for the ability to transform live R cells. The transforming agent was found to be DNA. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod
For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and proteins. The prevailing opinion was that the genetic material was proteins, and not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins are more complex than DNA. What was the basis of this thinking? A) Proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA. B) Proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four. C) Proteins are made of 40 amino acids and DNA is made of four nucleotides. D) Some viruses only transmit proteins. E) A and B are correct.
Proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA.
Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter? A) Purines pair with pyrimidines. B) C nucleotides pair with A nucleotides. C) Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose sugars. D) Nucleotides bind with nucleosides. E) Nucleotides bind with nucleoside triphosphates.
Purines pair with pyrimidines.
Using RNA as a template for protein synthesis instead of translating proteins directly from the DNA is advantageous for the cell because A) RNA is much more stable than DNA. B) RNA acts as an expendable copy of the genetic material. C) only one mRNA molecule can be transcribed from a single gene, lowering the potential rate of gene expression. D) tRNA, rRNA and others are not transcribed. E) mRNA molecules are subject to mutation but DNA is not.
RNA acts as an expendable copy of the genetic material.
In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? A) ligase B) RNA polymerase I C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase III E) primase
RNA polymerase II
Which of the following is true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression? A) After transcription, a 3ʹ poly-A tail and a 5ʹ cap are added to mRNA. B) Translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is complete. C) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region to begin transcription. D) mRNA is synthesized in the 3ʹ → 5ʹ direction. E) The mRNA transcript is the exact complement of the gene from which it was copied.
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region to begin transcription.
In which of the following actions does RNA polymerase differ from DNA polymerase? A) RNA polymerase uses RNA as a template, and DNA polymerase uses a DNA template. B) RNA polymerase binds to single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to double-stranded DNA. C) RNA polymerase is much more accurate than DNA polymerase. D) RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA synthesis. E) RNA polymerase does not need to separate the two strands of DNA in order to synthesize an RNA copy, whereas DNA polymerase must unwind the double helix before it can replicate the DNA.
RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA synthesis.
Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes? A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase. B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to fall off the DNA and release the transcript. C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript. D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.
RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to fall off the DNA and release the transcript.
Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions? A) Replication is semi-conservative. B) Replication is not dispersive. C) Replication is not semi-conservative. D) Replication is not conservative. E) Replication is neither dispersive nor conservative.
Replication is not conservative.
Each of the following options is a modification of the sentence THECATATETHERAT. Which of the following is analogous to a single substitution mutation? A) THERATATETHECAT B) THETACATETHERAT C) THECATARETHERAT D) THECATATTHERAT E) CATATETHERAT
THECATARETHERAT
Each of the following options is a modification of the sentence THECATATETHERAT. Which of the following is analogous to a frameshift mutation? A) THERATATETHECAT B) THETACATETHERAT C) THECATARETHERAT D) THECATATTHERAT E) CATATETHERAT
THECATATTHERAT
What is meant by the description ʺantiparallelʺ regarding the strands that make up DNA? A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B) The 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of the other strand. C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands. D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. E) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.
The 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of the other strand.
An experimenter has altered the 3ʹ end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3ʹ AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result? A) tRNA will not form a cloverleaf. B) The nearby stem end will pair improperly. C) The amino acid methionine will not bind. D) The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon. E) The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.
The amino acid methionine will not bind.
If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect? A) There would be an increase in the amount of ʺsatelliteʺ DNA produced during centrifugation. B) The cellʹs DNA couldnʹt be packed into its nucleus. C) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase. D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones. E) Pseudogenes would be transcribed to compensate for the decreased protein in the cell.
The cellʹs DNA couldnʹt be packed into its nucleus.
40) In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after he has removed its 5ʹ cap and poly(A) tail. Which of the following would you expect him to find? A) The mRNA could not exit the nucleus to be translated. B) The cell recognizes the absence of the tail and polyadenylates the mRNA. C) The molecule is digested by restriction enzymes in the nucleus. D) The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected at the 5ʹ end. E) The molecule attaches to a ribosome and is translated, but more slowly.
The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected at the 5ʹ end.
As a ribosome translocates along an mRNA molecule by one codon, which of the following occurs? A) The tRNA that was in the A site moves into the P site. B) The tRNA that was in the P site moves into the A site. C) The tRNA that was in the A site moves to the E site and is released. D) The tRNA that was in the A site departs from the ribosome via a tunnel. E) The polypeptide enters the E site.
The tRNA that was in the A site moves into the P site.
Studies of nucleosomes have shown that histones (except H1) exist in each nucleosome as two kinds of tetramers: one of 2 H2A molecules and 2 H2B molecules, and the other as 2 H3 and 2 H4 molecules. Which of the following is supported by this data? A) DNA can wind itself around either of the two kinds of tetramers. B) The two types of tetramers associate to form an octamer. C) DNA has to associate with individual histones before they form tetramers. D) Only H2A can form associations with DNA molecules. E) The structure of H3 and H4 molecules is not basic like that of the other histones.
The two types of tetramers associate to form an octamer.
When T2 phages infect bacteria and make more viruses in the presence of radioactive sulfur, what is the result? A) The viral DNA will be radioactive. B) The viral proteins will be radioactive. C) The bacterial DNA will be radioactive. D) both A and B E) both A and C
The viral proteins will be radioactive.
Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight. This occurs because their cells have which impaired ability? A) They cannot replicate DNA. B) They cannot undergo mitosis. C) They cannot exchange DNA with other cells. D) They cannot repair thymine dimers. E) They do not recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
They cannot repair thymine dimers.
Which of the following is (are) true of snRNPs? A) They are made up of both DNA and RNA. B) They bind to splice sites at each end of the exon. C) They join together to form a large structure called the spliceosome. D) They act only in the cytosol. E) They attach introns to exons in the correct order.
They join together to form a large structure called the spliceosome.
Which of the following statements are true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes? A) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated. B) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress. C) Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles. D) Translation requires antibiotic activity. E) Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation factors.
Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.
A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is A) TTT. B) UUA. C) UUU. D) AAA. E) either UAA or TAA, depending on first base wobble.
UUU
In the 1920s Muller discovered that X-rays caused mutation in Drosophila. In a related series of experiments, in the 1940s, Charlotte Auerbach discovered that chemicals she used nitrogen mustardshave a similar effect. A new chemical food additive is developed by a cereal manufacturer. Why do we test for its ability to induce mutation? A) We worry that it might cause mutation in cereal grain plants. B) We want to make sure that it does not emit radiation. C) We want to be sure that it increases the rate of mutation sufficiently. D) We want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency. E) We worry about its ability to cause infection.
We want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency.
Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein? A) a base substitution B) a base deletion near the start of a gene C) a base deletion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon D) deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon E) a base insertion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon
a base deletion near the start of a gene
Which of the following DNA mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies? A) a base-pair deletion B) a codon substitution C) a substitution in the last base of a codon D) a codon deletion E) a point mutation
a base-pair deletion
Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A) a deletion of a codon B) a deletion of 2 nucleotides C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon E) an insertion of a codon
a deletion of 2 nucleotides
Which would you expect of a eukaryotic cell lacking telomerase? A) a high probability of becoming cancerous B) production of Okazaki fragments C) inability to repair thymine dimers D) a reduction in chromosome length E) high sensitivity to sunlight
a reduction in chromosome length
Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon? A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG E) a sequence in tRNA at the 3ʹ end
a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG
31) The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method? A) adding a single 5ʹ cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases B) causing specific double strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands C) causing linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize D) adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn E) adding numerous GC pairs which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity
adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn
What is a ribozyme? A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate B) an RNA with enzymatic activity C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication
an RNA with enzymatic activity
When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following would you be able to isolate? A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site B) separated ribosomal subunits, a polypeptide, and free tRNA C) an assembled ribosome with a separated polypeptide D) separated ribosomal subunits with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA E) a cell with fewer ribosomes
an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site
When does translation begin in prokaryotic cells? A) after a transcription initiation complex has been formed B) as soon as transcription has begun C) after the 5ʹ caps are converted to mRNA D) once the pre-mRNA has been converted to mRNA E) as soon as the DNA introns are removed from the template
as soon as transcription has begun
What does transformation involve in bacteria? A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA E) aassimilation of external DNA into a cell
assimilation of external DNA into a cell
Gene expression in Archaea differs from that in other prokaryotes. It shares features with which of the following? A) eubacteria only B) eukaryotes only C) protists only D) fungi only E) bacteria and eukaryotes
bacteria and eukaryotes
Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA. B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes. C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon. D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs. E) both C and D
both C and D
Alternative RNA splicing A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription. B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA. C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs. D) increases the rate of transcription. E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.
can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
Which of the following sets of materials are required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication? A) double-stranded DNA, 4 kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins B) topoisomerases, telomerase, polymerases C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, chromosome nicks D) nucleosome loosening, 4 dNTPs, 4 rNTPs E) ligase, primers, nucleases
double-stranded DNA, 4 kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins
To repair a thymine dimmer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act? A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that includes A) union with ribosomes. B) fusion into circular forms known as plasmids. C) linkage to histone molecules. D) excision of introns. E) fusion with other newly transcribed mRNA.
excision of introns.
A mutation in which of the following parts of a gene is likely to be most damaging to a cell? A) intron B) exon C) 5ʹ UTR D) 3ʹ UTR E) All would be equally damaging.
exon
What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called? A) introns B) exons C) codons D) replicons E) transposons
exons
Garrod hypothesized that ʺinborn errors of metabolismʺ such as alkaptonuria occur because A) genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause them to lack certain enzymes. B) enzymes are made of DNA, and affected individuals lack DNA polymerase. C) many metabolic enzymes use DNA as a cofactor, and affected individuals have mutations that prevent their enzymes from interacting efficiently with DNA. D) certain metabolic reactions are carried out by ribozymes, and affected individuals lack key splicing factors. E) metabolic enzymes require vitamin cofactors, and affected individuals have significant nutritional deficiencies.
genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause them to lack certain enzymes.
What are polyribosomes? A) groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously B) ribosomes containing more than two subunits C) multiple copies of ribosomes associated with giant chromosomes D) aggregations of vesicles containing ribosomal RNA E) ribosomes associated with more than one tRNA
groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously
Which of the following separates the DNA strands during replication? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase
helicase
What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix? A) hydrogen B) ionic C) covalent D) sulfhydryl E) phosphate
hydrogen
When a tRNA molecule is shown twisted into an L shape, the form represented is A) its linear sequence. B) its 2-dimensional shape. C) its 3-dimensional shape. D) its microscopic image.
its 3-dimensional shape.
What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? A) synthesize RNA nucleotides to make a primer B) catalyze the lengthening of telomeres C) join Okazaki fragments together D) unwind the parental double helix E) stabilize the unwound parental DNA
join Okazaki fragments together
You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments. B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments. C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers. D) leading strands and RNA primers. E) RNA primers and mitochondrial DNA.
leading strands and Okazaki fragments.
Which of the following covalently connects segments of DNA? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase
ligase
A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA. B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code. C) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid. D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process. E) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5ʹ AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3ʹ A) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg B) met-glu-arg-arg-gln-leu C) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser D) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu E) met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
When DNA is compacted by histones into 10 nm and 30 nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity? A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1 B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction
methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? A) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain B) looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome C) looped domain, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber D) nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber E) 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain
nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain
A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already. Which enzyme causes a covalent bond to attach lysine to the polypeptide? A) ATPase B) lysine synthetase C) RNA polymerase D) ligase E) peptidyl transferase
peptidyl transferase
What is the sequence of a peptide based on the following mRNA sequence? 5ʹ . . . UUUUCUUAUUGUCUU 3ʹ A) leu-cys-tyr-ser-phe B) cyc-phe-tyr-cys-leu C) phe-leu-ile-met-val D) leu-pro-asp-lys-gly E) phe-ser-tyr-cys-leu
phe-ser-tyr-cys-leu
Sickle-cell disease is probably the result of which kind of mutation? A) point B) frameshift C) nonsense D) nondisjunction E) both B and D
point
What is the most abundant type of RNA? A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) pre-mRNA E) hnRNA
rRNA
What is the function of topoisomerase? A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork B) elongation of new DNA at a replication fork by addition of nucleotides to the existing chain C) the addition of methyl groups to bases of DNA D) unwinding of the double helix E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork
relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise? A) replication followed by mitosis B) replication without separation C) meiosis followed by mitosis D) fertilization by multiple sperm E) special association with histone proteins
replication without separation
It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following? A) sequence of bases B) phosphate-sugar backbones C) complementary pairing of bases D) side groups of nitrogenous bases E) different five-carbon sugars
sequence of bases
The DNA of telomeres has been found to be highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. What does this most probably reflect? A) the inactivity of this DNA B) the low frequency of mutations occurring in this DNA C) that new evolution of telomeres continues D) that mutations in telomeres are relatively advantageous E) that the critical function of telomeres must be maintained
that the critical function of telomeres must be maintained
In a linear eukaryotic chromatin sample, which of the following strands is looped into domains by scaffolding? A) DNA without attached histones B) DNA with H1 only C) the 10 nm chromatin fiber D) the 30 nm chromatin fiber E) the metaphase chromosome
the 30 nm chromatin fiber
Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA? A) the diameter of the helix B) the rate of replication C) the sequence of nucleotides D) the bond angles of the subunits E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides
the diameter of the helix
The leading and the lagging strands differ in that A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5ʹ end. C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together. D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.
the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose. B) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups. C) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two. D) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells. E) triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphates, but not in ATP.
the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose.
The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following? A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA B) the triplet nature of the codon C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site E) the 3-dimensional shape of a DNA molecule
the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
Mendel and Morgan did not know about the structure of DNA; however, which of the following of their contributions was (were) necessary to Watson and Crick? A) the particulate nature of the hereditary material B) dominance vs. recessiveness C) sex-linkage D) genetic distance and mapping E) the usefulness of peas and Drosophila
the particulate nature of the hereditary material
There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons. B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible. C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable. D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed. E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.
the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.
From the following list, which is the first event in translation in eukaryotes? A) elongation of the polypeptide B) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA C) the larger ribosomal subunit binds to smaller ribosomal subunits D) covalent bonding between the first two amino acids E) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5ʹ cap of mRNA
the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5ʹ cap of mRNA
What is the function of DNA polymerase III? A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C) to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication
to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand
