AP Biology Unit 6 (Chapters 18-20) Test Preparation

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) Genes are organized into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once. B) The genes share a common intragenic sequence, and allow several activators to turn on their transcription, regardless of location. C) The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit. D) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes. E) Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters.

Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis? A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment B) methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment D) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment E) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment

You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious 23) Which treatment could definitively determine whether or not the component is a viroid? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) first II and then III

4) The host range of a virus is determined by A) the proteins on its surface and that of the host. B) whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA. C) the proteins in the hostʹs cytoplasm. D) the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell. E) the enzymes carried by the virus.

5) Why are viruses referred to as obligate parasites? A) They cannot reproduce outside of a host cell. B) Viral DNA always inserts itself into host DNA. C) They invariably kill any cell they infect. D) They can incorporate nucleic acids from other viruses. E) They must use enzymes encoded by the virus itself.

6) Which of the following molecules make up the viral envelope? A) glycoproteins B) proteosugars C) carbopeptides D) peptidocarbs E) carboproteins

7) Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. However, a zoonosis is a disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans, at least sporadically, without requiring viral mutation. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis?

The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called A) RNA interference. B) RNA obstruction. C) RNA blocking. D) RNA targeting. E) RNA disposal.

The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that A) it is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler. B) only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR. C) it binds more readily than other polymerases to primer. D) it has regions that are complementary to primers. E) All of these are correct.

What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in common? A) Their products act as transcription factors. B) They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila. C) Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization. D) They act independently of other positional information. E) They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the fly's life.

Which of the following best describes siRNA? A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA B) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns C) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor D) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits E) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences

Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? 1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA. 2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA. 3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added. 4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. A) 2, 1, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 3, 4, 1, 2 D) 3, 4, 2 E) 2, 3, 4

Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? A) It is an activator for other genes. B) It speeds up the cell cycle. C) It causes cell death via apoptosis. D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage. E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.

Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? A) a cyclin that usually acts in G₁, now that the cell is in G₂ B) a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER C) an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated D) a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached E) an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization

If a Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene, A) she will not develop past the early embryonic stage. B) all of her offspring will show the mutant phenotype, regardless of their genotype. C) only her male offspring will show the mutant phenotype. D) her offspring will show the mutant phenotype only if they are also homozygous for the mutation. E) only her female offspring will show the mutant phenotype.

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity? A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1 B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction

Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell? A) enzymatic shortening of the poly-A tail B) removal of the 5' cap C) methylation of C nucleotides D) methylation of histones E) removal of one or more exons

Which of the following genes map out the basic subdivisions along the anterior-posterior axis of the Drosophila embryo? A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers

Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells? A) They can differentiate into many cell types. B) They make up the majority of cells of the tissue from which they are derived. C) They can continue to replicate for an indefinite period. D) They can provide enormous amounts of information about the process of gene regulation. E) One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.

Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use? A) restriction enzymeanalysis of RFLPs B) DNA ligasecutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments C) DNA polymerasepolymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA D) reverse transcriptaseproduction of cDNA from mRNA E) electrophoresisseparation of DNA fragments

Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material? A) It could be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction. B) It could be used to create a complete genomic library. C) It was produced from mRNA using reverse transcriptase. D) It could be used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain. E) It lacks the introns of the human genes.

Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) ubiquitin B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor

Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes? A) DNA fragments are too small to use individually. B) A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA. C) Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small. D) A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone. E) It is important to have multiple copies of DNA in the case of laboratory error.

Within a cell, the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on A) the degree of DNA methylation. B) the rate at which the mRNA is degraded. C) the presence of certain transcription factors. D) the number of introns present in the mRNA. E) the types of ribosomes present in the cytoplasm.

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur? A) A corepressor must be present. B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present. C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive. E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.

Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell. C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. E) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.

I1) In Drosophila after ~100 minutes postfertilization, the embryo looks like the following diagram, with all nuclei having moved to the periphery and, subsequently, four of the nuclei being sequestered at the posterior end. Formation of the pole cells (the four sequestered cells) demonstrates the role of A) segmentation genes. B) homeotic genes. C) maternal effect genes. D) zygotic genes. E) all of the above.

I1) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1? A) ligase B) transcriptase C) a restriction enzyme D) RNA polymerase E) DNA polymerase

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to A) be replicating nearly continuously. B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis. C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. D) be very actively transcribed and translated. E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.

Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression? A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons D) gene amplification contributing to cancer E) the folding of DNA to form heterochromatin

Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones? A) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells B) use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA C) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation D) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells E) abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction

Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme? A) AAGG TTCC B) AGTC TCAG C) GGCC CCGG D) ACCA TGGT E) AAAA TTTT

Which of the following techniques used to analyze gene function depends on the specificity of DNA base complementarity? A) Northern blotting B) use of RNAi C) in vitro mutagenesis D) in situ hybridization E) restriction fragment analysis

In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones of gametes. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis? A) These oocytes have no histones. B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility. C) All proteins in the cell must be phosphorylated. D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation. E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.

In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to A) the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments. B) the sticky end of a DNA fragment. C) a SNP marker. D) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell. E) a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene.

Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts? A) morphogens B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) homeotic genes E) inducers

One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), makes homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancers. 80) Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? A) inherited cancer taking a few years to be expressed B) embryonic or fetal cancer C) inherited predisposition to mutation D) inherited inability to repair UV-induced mutation E) susceptibility to chemical carcinogens

Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because A) it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a "better" nematode, which is resistant to disease. B) it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about. C) the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness. D) a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates. E) a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms.

Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways. B) activating translation of certain mRNAs. C) promoting the degradation of specific mRNAs. D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes. E) promoting the formation of looped domains in certain regions of DNA.

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The operon will never be transcribed. D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously. E) The repressor protein will no longer be produced.

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and the permease gene, which of the following would be likely? A) Three structural genes will no longer be expressed. B) RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease. C) The operon will no longer be inducible. D) Beta galactosidase will be produced. E) The cell will continue to metabolize but more slowly.

The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur? A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size. B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs. C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die. D) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo. E) The embryo would develop normally.

The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why? A) The environment, as well as genetics, affects phenotypic variation. B) Fur color genes in cats are influenced by differential acetylation patterns. C) Cloned animals have been found to have a higher frequency of transposon activation D) X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns. E) The telomeres of the parent's chromosomes were shorter than those of an embryo.

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose. B) the cyclic AMP levels are low. C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell. D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) ATP C) protein-based hormones D) other transcription factors E) tRNA

Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are A) DNA methylation and histone amplification. B) DNA amplification and histone methylation. C) DNA acetylation and methylation. D) DNA methylation and histone modification. E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.

What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator? A) irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter B) reduced transcription of the operon's genes C) buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon D) continuous transcription of the operon's genes E) overproduction of catabolite activator protein (CAP)

Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer? A) It degrades single-stranded DNA. B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA. C) It degrades mRNA with no poly-A tail. D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation. E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.

Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene? A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor

Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic? A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product. B) Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue. C) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate. D) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity. E) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.

Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes? A) Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth. B) They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses. C) They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances. D) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth. E) They are underexpressed in cancer cells.

Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning? A) They easily form colonies. B) They can remove exons from mRNA. C) They do not have plasmids. D) They are eukaryotic cells. E) Only yeast cells allow the gene to be cloned.

Why might a laboratory be using dideoxy nucleotides? A) to separate DNA fragments B) to clone the breakpoints of cut DNA C) to produce cDNA from mRNA D) to sequence a DNA fragment E) to visualize DNA expression

You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious 25) Which treatment would you use to determine if the agent is a prion? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) either I or IV

Which of the following describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression? A) Southern blotting B) Northern blotting C) Western blotting D) Eastern blotting E) RT-PCR

28) The difference between vertical and horizontal transmission of plant viruses is that A) vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant. B) vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from upper leaves to lower leaves of the plant, and horizontal transmission is the spread of a virus among leaves at the same general level. C) vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from trees and tall plants to bushes and other smaller plants, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of similar size. D) vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from one type of plant virus to another, and horizontal transmission is the exchange of DNA between two plant viruses of the same type. E) vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from a plant of one species to a plant of a different species, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of the same species.

29) What are prions? A) misfolded versions of normal brain protein B) tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants C) viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome D) viruses that invade bacteria E) a mobile segment of DNA

I3) Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) D is the child of A and C. B) D is the child of A and B. C) D is the child of B and C. D) A is the child of C and D. E) B is the child of A and C.

20) What is the name given to viruses that are single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) retroviruses B) proviruses C) viroids D) bacteriophages E) lytic phages

22) Which of the following can be effective in preventing viral infection in humans? A) getting vaccinated B) taking nucleoside analogs that inhibit transcription C) taking antibiotics D) applying antiseptics E) taking vitamins

30) Which of the following is the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes? A) ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division B) ability of the infected cell to carry on translation C) whether the infected cell produces viral protein D) whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed E) how much toxin the virus produces

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media? A) the nutrient broth only B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth C) the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth D) the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth E) all three broths

A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye. Two children are born from the same parents. Child one inherits a predisposition to retinoblastoma (one of the mutations) and child two does not. However, both children develop the retinoblastoma. Which of the following would you expect? A) an earlier age of onset in child one B) a history of exposure to mutagens in child one but not in child two C) a more severe cancer in child one D) increased levels of apoptosis in both children E) decreased levels of DNA repair in child one

A genetic test to detect predisposition to cancer would likely examine the APC gene for involvement in which type(s) of cancer? A) colorectal only B) lung and breast C) small intestinal and esophageal D) lung only E) lung and prostate

A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all. Which of the following is a likely explanation for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line? A) A transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome. B) A transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome. C) The transgene was mutated during the process of integration into the host cell genome. D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene. E) A transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone acetylation.

A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator. D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site. E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure.

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin condensation C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes

A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur? A) recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene B) use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene C) replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid D) transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC E) attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated

A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells, and can identify its location or that of its smaller subsections experimentally, using a fluorescent probe. Within the first quarter hour, the researcher sees that the intact RNA is found in the cells. After 3 hours, she is not surprised to find that A) Dicer enzyme has reduced it to smaller double-stranded pieces. B) the RNA is degraded by 5' and 3' exonucleases. C) the double-stranded RNA replicates itself. D) the double-stranded RNA binds to mRNAs to prevent translation. E) the double-stranded RNA binds to tRNAs to prevent translation.

A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding? A) The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation. B) Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts. C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays. D) The nonstem cells have fewer repressed genes. E) The nonstem cells have lost the promoters for more genes.

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early. One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome? A) prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients B) prevention of vaccine-containing plants being consumed by insects C) use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA D) inability of the human digestive system to accept plant-derived protein E) the need to cook all such plants before consuming them

Cell differentiation always involves A) the production of tissue-specific proteins, such as muscle actin. B) the movement of cells. C) the transcription of the myoD gene. D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome. E) the cell's sensitivity to environmental cues, such as light or heat.

DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. What is the purpose of transferring the DNA from a gel to a nitrocellulose paper? A) to attach the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate B) to separate the two complementary DNA strands C) to transfer only the DNA that is of interest D) to prepare the DNA for digestion with restriction enzymes E) to separate out the PCRs

Epstein Bar Virus (EBV) causes most of us to have an episode of sore throat and swollen glands during early childhood. If we first become exposed to the virus during our teen years, however, EBV causes the syndrome we know as mononucleosis. However, in special circumstances, the same virus can be carcinogenic. In a different part of the world, namely in parts of southeast Asia, the same virus is associated with a different kind of cancer of the throat. Which of the following is most probable? A) Viral infection is correlated with a different immunological reaction. B) The virus infects the people via different routes. C) The virus only infects the elderly. D) The virus mutates more frequently in the Asian population. E) Malaria is also found in this region.

Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of A) post-transcriptional processing. B) electroporation. C) post-translational processing. D) nucleic acid hybridization. E) restriction fragment ligation.

How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes? A) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines B) by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle C) by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA D) by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching E) by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds

I1) In Drosophila after ~100 minutes postfertilization, the embryo looks like the following diagram, with all nuclei having moved to the periphery and, subsequently, four of the nuclei being sequestered at the posterior end. The developmental stages described for Drosophila illustrate A) a hierarchy of gene expression. B) homeotic developmental control. C) the blockage of cell-to-cell communication. D) homeotic developmental control and the blockage of cell-to-cell communication. E) a hierarchy of gene expression and the blockage of cell-to-cell communication.

In 1971, David Baltimore described a scheme for classifying viruses based on how the virus produces mRNA. The table below shows the results of testing five viruses for nuclease specificity, the ability of the virus to act as an mRNA, and presence (+) or absence (-) of its own viral polymerase. Virus Nuclease Sensitivity Genome as mRNA Polymerase A Dnase - - B Rnase + - C Dnase - + D Rnase - + E Rnase + - 10) Based on the above table, which virus meets the requirements for a bacteriophage? A) T-series bacteriophages B) retroviruses that require a DNA intermediate C) single-stranded DNA viruses such as herpesviruses D) nonenveloped double-stranded RNA viruses E) linear double-stranded DNA viruses such as adenovirus

In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that A) embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent. B) embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, and adult stem cells are totipotent. C) embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells. D) embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells. E) embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body.

In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adults. This is due to A) nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during development. B) identical genes that generate many copies of the ribosomes needed for fetal globin production. C) pseudogenes, which interfere with gene expression in adults. D) the attachment of methyl groups to cytosine following birth, which changes the type of hemoglobin produced. E) histone proteins changing shape during embryonic development.

In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). In order to make this conversion, what has been done to the adult cells? A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes. B) The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells. C) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells. D) An adenovirus vector is used to transfer embryonic gene products into adult cells. E) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.

Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation? A) inducer B) promoter C) RNA polymerase D) transcription factor E) cAMP

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they A) express different genes. B) contain different genes. C) use different genetic codes. D) have unique ribosomes. E) have different chromosomes.

Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures? A) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory. B) Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply. C) Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize. D) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned. E) Recombinant plasmids cannot be replicated.

The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in A) BACs. B) recombinant viral RNA. C) individual wells. D) DNA-RNA hybrids. E) radioactive eukaryotic cells.

The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? A) relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor B) DNA replication C) DNA repair D) cell-cell adhesion E) cell division

The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that A) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote. B) genes are lost during differentiation. C) the differentiated state is normally very unstable. D) differentiated cells contain masked mRNA. E) differentiation does not occur in plants.

The functioning of enhancers is an example of A) transcriptional control of gene expression. B) a post-transcriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA. C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors. D) post-translational control that activates certain proteins. E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning.

11) A linear piece of viral DNA of 8 kb can be cut with either of two restriction enzymes (X and Y). These are subjected to electrophoresis and produce the following bands: Cutting the same 8 kb piece with both enzymes together results in bands at 4.0, 2.5, 1.0, and 0.5. Of the possible arrangements of the sites given below, which one is most likely? A) B) C) D) E)

17) Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation? A) RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides. B) Replication of their genomes does not involve the proofreading steps of DNA replication. C) RNA viruses replicate faster. D) RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases. E) RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.

21) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It hydrolyzes the host cellʹs DNA. B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. D) It translates viral RNA into proteins. E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.

26) Which of the following describes plant virus infections? A) They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics. B) They are spread throughout a plant by passing through the plasmodesmata. C) They have little effect on plant growth. D) They are seldom spread by insects. E) They can never be inherited from a parent.

27) Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids? A) Viruses infect many types of cells, whereas viroids infect only prokaryotic cells. B) Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids. C) Viruses contain introns; viroids have only exons. D) Viruses always have genomes composed of DNA, whereas viroids always have genomes composed of RNA. E) Viruses cannot pass through plasmodesmata; viroids can.

3) Viral envelopes can best be analyzed with which of the following techniques? A) transmission electron microscopy B) antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes C) staining and visualization with the light microscope D) use of plaque assays for quantitative measurement of viral titer E) immunofluorescent tagging of capsid proteins

31) Antiviral drugs that have become useful are usually associated with which of the following properties? A) ability to remove all viruses from the infected host B) interference with the viral reproduction C) prevention of the host from becoming infected D) removal of viral proteins E) removal of viral mRNAs

A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye. In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to make a cell a cancer cell, supporting Knudsen's hypothesis. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? A) genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon B) genes involved in control of the cell cycle C) genes that are especially susceptible to mutation D) the same genes that Knudsen identified as associated with retinoblastoma E) the genes of the bacteria that are abundant in the colon

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest. Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate? A) Each pair of students has a different gene for this function. B) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region. C) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene. D) The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites." E) Each of these students is heterozygous for this gene.

A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing? A) RFLP analysis B) polymerase chain reaction C) electroporation D) gel electrophoresis E) Southern blotting

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments using this procedure in Drosophila, she was readily successful in increasing phosphorylation of amino acids adjacent to methylated amino acids in histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin condensation C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes

A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells, and can identify its location or that of its smaller subsections experimentally, using a fluorescent probe. Some time later, she finds that the introduced strand separates into single-stranded RNAs, one of which is degraded. What does this enable the remaining strand to do? A) attach to histones in the chromatin B) bind to complementary regions of target mRNAs C) bind to Dicer enzymes to destroy other RNAs D) activate other siRNAs in the cell E) bind to noncomplementary RNA sequences

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell? A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator. B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein. C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene. D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase. E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator.

Among the newly discovered small noncoding RNAs, one type reestablishes methylation patterns during gamete formation and block expression of some transposons. These are known as A) miRNA. B) piRNA. C) snRNA. D) siRNA. E) RNAi.

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are considered to be tumor-suppressor genes because A) they prevent infection by retroviruses that cause cancer. B) their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage. C) the mutant forms of either one of these promote breast cancer. D) the normal genes make estrogen receptors. E) they block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens.

Gap genes and pair-rule genes fall into which of the following categories? A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers

Genetically engineered plants A) are more difficult to engineer than animals. B) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency. C) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants. D) are able to fix nitrogen themselves. E) are banned throughout the world.

I1) In Drosophila after ~100 minutes postfertilization, the embryo looks like the following diagram, with all nuclei having moved to the periphery and, subsequently, four of the nuclei being sequestered at the posterior end. At this point, the embryo is characterized as A) a first-stage larva. B) nuclei in the cortex that has not undergone cytokinesis. C) nuclei in the cortex forming a single-cell layer over the surface. D) an embryo with segmentation beginning to be apparent.

I1) In Drosophila after ~100 minutes postfertilization, the embryo looks like the following diagram, with all nuclei having moved to the periphery and, subsequently, four of the nuclei being sequestered at the posterior end. The four sequestered cells at one end are most probably destined to become A) the legs of the adult fly. B) the germ cells of the adult. C) mouthparts. D) antennae. E) wing primordial.

I3) The DNA profiles that follow represent four different individuals. Which of the following statements is consistent with the results? A) B is the child of A and C. B) C is the child of A and B. C) D is the child of B and C. D) A is the child of B and C. E) A is the child of C and D.

In 1971, David Baltimore described a scheme for classifying viruses based on how the virus produces mRNA. The table below shows the results of testing five viruses for nuclease specificity, the ability of the virus to act as an mRNA, and presence (+) or absence (-) of its own viral polymerase. Virus Nuclease Sensitivity Genome as mRNA Polymerase A Dnase - - B Rnase + - C Dnase - + D Rnase - + E Rnase + - 8) Given Baltimoreʹs scheme, a positive sense single-stranded RNA virus such as the polio virus would be most closely related to which of the following? A) T-series bacteriophages B) retroviruses that require a DNA intermediate C) single-stranded DNA viruses such as herpesviruses D) nonenveloped double-stranded RNA viruses E) linear double-stranded DNA viruses such as adenovirus

In eukaryotes, general transcription factors A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes. B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box. C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing. D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors. E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.

In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, correlation is sought between A) lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population. B) single nucleotide polymorphisms found only in persons with a particular disorder. C) single nucleotide polymorphisms found in families with a particular introns sequence. D) single nucleotide polymorphisms in two or more adjacent genes. E) large inversions that displace the centromere.

In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP? A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor

In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production of various enzymes C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes D) inactivate their mRNA molecules E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins

Pharmacogenetics is an increasingly important discipline that uses genetic information to tailor the prescription of drug treatments to individuals. In the case of chemotherapy for breast cancer, for example, different patients need and/or respond to different treatments. Breast tumor biopsy specimens can be typed for a number of gene expression patterns. Together, these can provide risk analysis for the likely aggressive growth and metastasis of the tumor. How can this most help the physician and patient? A) Some patients want to know as much as possible. B) This can help them to decide whether and what kind of chemotherapy is warranted. C) This can help them decide whether the tumor should be removed. D) Some physicians may use the information to decide what to do, but not tell the patient. E) This can help to aggregate health statistics.

Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells? A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections. B) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk." D) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes. E) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age.

RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful? A) to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme B) to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene C) to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual D) to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny E) to raise the concentration of a desired protein

Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation? A) Use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than use of embryonic stem cells. B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many. C) Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning. D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA. E) No embryos would be destroyed in the process of therapeutic cloning.

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome If she moves the operator to a position upstream from the promoter, what would occur? A) The lac operon will function normally. B) The lac operon will be expressed continuously. C) The repressor will not be able to bind to the operator. D) The repressor will bind to the promoter. E) The repressor will no longer be made.

To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods? A) the shotgun approach B) electroporation followed by recombination C) introducing a plasmid into the cell D) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid E) transcription and translation

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon A) occurs continuously in the cell. B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present. C) starts when the pathway's product is present. D) stops when the pathway's product is present. E) does not result in the production of enzymes.

What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo? A) cell division occurring after fertilization B) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins C) determination of specific cells for certain functions D) changes in the size and shape of the cell E) changes resulting from induction

You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene's expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene's expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an answer? A) You explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very similar proteins. B) You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the same. C) You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene. D) An analysis of amino acid production by the cell shows you that there is an increase at this stage of embryonic life. E) You use an antibiotic known to prevent translation.

13) In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following would you expect of the genes of the bacteriophage? A) regulation via acetylation of histones B) positive control mechanisms rather than negative C) control of more than one gene in an operon D) reliance on transcription activators E) utilization of eukaryotic polymerases

15) Which of the following terms describes bacteriophage DNA that has become integrated into the host cell chromosome? A) intemperate bacteriophages B) transposons C) prophages D) T-even phages E) plasmids

16) Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ) phage? A) After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses. B) Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene. C) The phage genome replicates along with the host genome. D) Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome, switching from the lytic to the lysogenic. E) The phage DNA is incorporated by crossing over into any nonspecific site on the host cellʹs DNA.

19) A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. Which of the following would be expected to occur? A) The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection. B) The plants would develop symptoms typically produced by viroids. C) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection. D) The plants would not show any disease symptoms. E) The plants would become infected, but the sap from these plants would be unable to infect other plants.

A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye. One of the human leukemias, called CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia), is associated with a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 in somatic cells of bone marrow. Which of the following allows CML to provide further evidence of this multistep nature of cancer? A) CML usually occurs in more elderly persons (late age of onset). B) The resulting chromosome 22 is abnormally short; it is then known as the Philadelphia chromosome. C) The translocation requires breaks in both chromosomes 9 and 22, followed by fusion between the reciprocal pieces. D) CML involves a proto-oncogene known as abl. E) CML can usually be treated by chemotherapy.

A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene. B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces. C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA. D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product. E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide.

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest. Their next two steps, in order, should be A) use of a fluorescent probe for the gene sequence, then electrophoresis. B) electrophoresis of the fragments followed by autoradiography. C) electrophoresis of the fragments, followed by the use of a probe. D) use of a ligase that will anneal the pieces, followed by Southern blotting. E) use of reverse transcriptase to make cDNA, followed by electrophoresis.

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest. Why might they be conducting such an experiment? A) to find the location of this gene in the human genome B) to prepare to isolate the chromosome on which the gene of interest is found C) to find which of the students has which alleles D) to collect population data that can be used to assess natural selection E) to collect population data that can be used to study genetic drift

A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a BAC, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that A) prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes. B) bacteria translate polycistronic messages only. C) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns. D) bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA. E) bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA.

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. She tried decreasing the amount of methylation enzymes in the embryonic stem cells and then allowed the cells to further differentiate. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin condensation C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes

A researcher has arrived at a method to prevent gene expression from Drosophila embryonic genes. The following questions assume that he is using this method. The researcher in question measures the amount of new polypeptide production in embryos from 2—8 hours following fertilization and the results show a steady and significant rise in polypeptide concentration over that time. The researcher concludes that A) his measurement skills must be faulty. B) the results are due to building new cell membranes to compartmentalize dividing nuclei. C) the resulting new polypeptides are due to translation of maternal mRNAs. D) the new polypeptides were inactive and not measurable until fertilization. E) polypeptides were attached to egg membranes until this time.

A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells, and can identify its location or that of its smaller subsections experimentally, using a fluorescent probe. In addition, she finds what other evidence of this single-stranded RNA piece's activity? A) She can measure the degradation rate of the remaining single strand. B) She can measure the decrease in the concentration of Dicer. C) The rate of accumulation of the polypeptide to be translated from the target mRNA is reduced. D) The amount of miRNA is multiplied by its replication. E) The cell's translation ability is entirely shut down.

A student wishes to clone a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb. Which vector would be appropriate? A) a plasmid B) a typical bacteriophage C) a BAC D) a plant virus E) a large polypeptide

Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts. This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene A) is transcribed in the early embryo. B) normally leads to formation of tail structures. C) normally leads to formation of head structures. D) is a protein present in all head structures. E) leads to programmed cell death.

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways? A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions D) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms E) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome

As genetic technology makes testing for a wide variety of genotypes possible, which of the following is likely to be an increasingly troublesome issue? A) use of genotype information to provide positive identification of criminals B) using technology to identify genes that cause criminal behaviors C) the need to legislate for the protection of the privacy of genetic information D) discrimination against certain racial groups because of major genetic differences E) alteration of human phenotypes to prevent early disease

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to A) insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid. B) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme Y into the plasmid. C) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme. D) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X. E) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid.

DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome. B) can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells. C) allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once. D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time. E) dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes.

DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present? A) production of hormones for treating diabetes and dwarfism B) production of microbes that can metabolize toxins C) introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes D) prenatal identification of genetic disease alleles E) genetic testing for carriers of harmful alleles

During DNA replication, A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication. B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied. C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication. D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template. E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA is copied in the nucleus.

Epstein Bar Virus (EBV) causes most of us to have an episode of sore throat and swollen glands during early childhood. If we first become exposed to the virus during our teen years, however, EBV causes the syndrome we know as mononucleosis. However, in special circumstances, the same virus can be carcinogenic. A very rare human allele of a gene called XLP, or X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome, causes a small number of people from many different parts of the world to get cancer following even childhood exposure to EBV. Given the previous information, what might be going on? A) The people must have previously had malaria. B) Their ancestors must be from sub-Saharan Africa or southeast Asia. C) They must be unable to mount an immune response to EBV. D) They must have severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). E) Their whole immune system must be overreplicating.

For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. The researchers will be looking for A) a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples. B) a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are overproliferating. C) a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples. D) a group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid. E) a group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast cancer control samples from the same population.

In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates so that the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to occur? A) The usual mRNAs transcribed from centromeric DNA will be missing from the cells. B) Tetrads will no longer be able to form during meiosis I. C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture. D) The cells will no longer be able to resist bacterial contamination. E) The DNA of the centromeres will no longer be able to replicate.

One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), makes homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancers. Given the damage caused by UV, the kind of gene affected in those with XP is one whose product is involved with A) mending of double-strand breaks in the DNA backbone. B) breakage of cross-strand covalent bonds. C) the ability to excise single-strand damage and replace it. D) the removal of double-strand damaged areas. E) causing affected skin cells to undergo apoptosis.

One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA) to bone marrow cells of a child with SCID, and delivery of these engineered cells back to the bone marrow of the affected child. What is one major reason for the success of this procedure as opposed to many other efforts at gene therapy? A) The engineered bone marrow cells from this patient can be used for any other SCID patient. B) The ADA-introduced allele causes all other ADA-negative cells to die. C) The engineered cells, when reintroduced into the patient, find their way back to the bone marrow. D) No vector is required to introduce the allele into ADA-negative cells. E) The immune system fails to recognize cells with the variant gene.

One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans

Pax-6 is a gene that is involved in eye formation in many invertebrates, such as Drosophila. Pax-6 is found as well in vertebrates. A Pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a compound fly eye. This information suggests which of the following? A) Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence. B) PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences. C) Pax-6 is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry. D) PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes. E) PAX-6 from a mouse can function in a fly, but a fly's Pax-6 gene cannot function in a mouse.

Pharmacogenetics is an increasingly important discipline that uses genetic information to tailor the prescription of drug treatments to individuals. In the case of chemotherapy for breast cancer, for example, different patients need and/or respond to different treatments. Patients whose tumors are HER-2 positive respond to herceptin whereas other patients do not. Patients whose tumors have estrogen receptors will be best served if A) their estrogen receptors are blocked by using RNAi. B) their estrogen release is activated and/or elevated. C) the estrogen receptors are blocked by other molecules that can use the same receptors. D) they are given herceptin as well as estrogen. E) they are given a complete hysterectomy.

Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because A) plant genes do not contain introns. B) more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells. C) a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant. D) genes can be inserted into plant cells by microinjection. E) plant cells have larger nuclei.

Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference (RNAi). Which of the following questions would not be answered with this process? A) What is the function of gene 432 in this species of annelid? B) What will happen in this insect's digestion if gene 173 is not able to be translated? C) Is gene HA292 responsible for this disorder in humans? D) Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause similar results? E) Is the gene on Drosophila chromosome 2L at this locus responsible for part of its production of nitrogen waste?

The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that A) plasmids are unable to replicate in cells. B) only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell. C) YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can. D) YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot. E) All of these are correct.

There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant? A) It cannot bind to the operator. B) It cannot make a functional repressor. C) It cannot bind to the inducer. D) It makes molecules that bind to one another. E) It makes a repressor that binds CAP.

Tumor-suppressor genes A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle. E) do all of the above.

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule. II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. A) I, II, IV, III, V B) II, III, V, IV, I C) III, II, IV, V, I D) III, IV, V, I, II E) IV, V, I, II, III

You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious 24) If you already knew that the infectious agent was either bacterial or viral, which treatment would allow you to distinguish between these two possibilities? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) either II or IV

Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are analogous to which process in development? A) morphogenesis B) determination C) induction D) differentiation E) pattern formation

1) What characteristics of electron microscopes make them most useful for studying viruses? A) high energy electrons with high penetrance B) requirement that specimens be viewed in a vacuum C) necessity for specimens to be dry and fixed D) shorter wavelengths providing higher resolution E) use of magnetic fields to focus electrons

12) Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore getting flare-ups for the rest of life? A) re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain B) re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain C) co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms D) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei E) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm

14) Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. D) A large number of phages is released at a time. E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.

2) Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome? A) size of the viral capsomeres B) RNA versus DNA genome C) double versus single strand genomes D) size and shape of the capsid E) glycoproteins of the envelope

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow A) in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline. B) only in the broth containing both antibiotics. C) in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin. D) in all four types of broth. E) in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only.

A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye. Knudsen and colleagues also noted that persons with hereditary retinoblastoma that had been treated successfully lived on but then had a higher frequency of developing osteosarcomas (bone cancers) later in life. This provided further evidence of their theory because A) osteosarcoma cells express the same genes as retinal cells. B) p53 gene mutations are common to both tumors. C) both kinds of cancer involve overproliferation of cells. D) one of the mutations involved in retinoblastoma is also one of the changes involved in osteosarcoma. E) retinoblastoma is a prerequisite for the formation of osteosarcoma later in life.

A researcher has arrived at a method to prevent gene expression from Drosophila embryonic genes. The following questions assume that he is using this method. 78) The researcher continues to study the reactions of the embryo to these new proteins and you hypothesize that he is most likely to see which of the following (while embryonic genes are still not being expressed)? A) The cells begin to differentiate. B) The proteins are evenly distributed throughout the embryo. C) Larval features begin to make their appearance. D) Spatial axes begin to be determined. E) The embryo begins to lose cells due to apoptosis from no further gene expression.

At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest? A) "junk" DNA that serves no possible purpose B) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed D) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function E) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs without biological function

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early. Which of the following would be a reasonably efficient technique for confirming the diagnosis of CML? A) searching for the number of telomeric sequences on chromosome 22 B) looking for a Ph' chromosome in a peripheral blood smear C) enzyme assay for thymine kinase activity D) FISH study to determine the chromosomal location of all chromosome 22 fragments E) identification of the disease phenotype in review of the patient's records

Embryonic lethal mutations result in A) phenotypes that prevent fertilization. B) failure to express maternal effect genes. C) death during pupation. D) phenotypes that are never born/hatched. E) homeotic phenotype changes.

Epstein Bar Virus (EBV) causes most of us to have an episode of sore throat and swollen glands during early childhood. If we first become exposed to the virus during our teen years, however, EBV causes the syndrome we know as mononucleosis. However, in special circumstances, the same virus can be carcinogenic. In areas of the world in which malaria is endemic, notably in sub-Saharan Africa, EBV can cause Burkitt's lymphoma in children, which is usually associated with large tumors of the jaw. Which of the following is consistent with these findings? A) EBV infection makes the malarial parasite able to produce lymphoma. B) Malaria's strain on the immune system makes EBV infection worse. C) Malaria occurs more frequently in those infected with EBV. D) Malarial response of the immune system prevents an individual from making EBV antibodies. E) A cell infected with the malarial parasite is more resistant to the virus.

Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of A) genetic mutation. B) chromosomal rearrangements. C) karyotypes. D) epigenetic phenomena. E) translocation.

I1) In Drosophila after ~100 minutes postfertilization, the embryo looks like the following diagram, with all nuclei having moved to the periphery and, subsequently, four of the nuclei being sequestered at the posterior end. The next step after the embryo is formed would be A) division of the embryo into five broad regions. B) use of pair-rule genes to divide the embryo into stripes, each of which will become two segments. C) use of zygotic segment polarity genes to divide each segment into anterior and posterior halves. D) enclosure of the nuclei in membranes, forming a single layer over the surface. E) separation of head, thoracic, and abdominal segments of the embryo.

I2) The researcher measures the concentration of the polypeptides from different regions in the early embryo and finds the following pattern (darker shading = greater concentration): SEE IMAGE Which of the following would be his most logical assumption? A) The substance has moved quickly from region 5 to region 1. B) Some other material in the embryo is causing accumulation in region 1 due to differential binding. C) The cytosol is in constant movement, dispersing the polypeptide. D) The substance is produced in region 1 and diffuses toward region 5. E) The substance must have entered the embryo from the environment near region 1.

I3) Which of the following are probably siblings? A) A and B B) A and C C) A and D D) C and D E) B and D

If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then A) the amino acid inactivates the repressor. B) the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes. C) the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid. D) the amino acid acts as a corepressor. E) the amino acid turns on transcription of the operon.

In 1971, David Baltimore described a scheme for classifying viruses based on how the virus produces mRNA. The table below shows the results of testing five viruses for nuclease specificity, the ability of the virus to act as an mRNA, and presence (+) or absence (-) of its own viral polymerase. Virus Nuclease Sensitivity Genome as mRNA Polymerase A Dnase - - B Rnase + - C Dnase - + D Rnase - + E Rnase + - Based on the above table, which virus meets the Baltimore requirements for a retrovirus? A) T-series bacteriophages B) retroviruses that require a DNA intermediate C) single-stranded DNA viruses such as herpesviruses D) nonenveloped double-stranded RNA viruses E) linear double-stranded DNA viruses such as adenovirus

In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used? A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow C) separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe D) fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate E) isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent

In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning? A) Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not. B) Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not. C) Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated nonfertilized eggs. D) Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.

18) Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid. Which of the following observations supports this theory? A) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA. B) Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes. C) Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells. D) Viruses can infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. E) Viral genomes are usually more similar to the genome of the host cell than to the genomes of viruses that infect other cell types.

32) Which of the following series best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves between species? A) An avian flu virus undergoes several mutations and rearrangements such that it is able to be transmitted to other birds and then to humans. B) The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the pig products can be infected. C) A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans. D) An influenza virus gains new sequences of DNA from another virus, such as a herpesvirus; this enables it to be transmitted to a human host. E) An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.

33) Which of the following is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes high mortality in its host? A) It is able to spread to a large number of new hosts quickly because the new hosts have no immunological memory of them. B) The new virus replicates quickly and undergoes rapid adaptation to a series of divergent hosts. C) A change in environmental conditions such as weather patterns quickly forces the new virus to invade new areas. D) Sporadic outbreaks will be followed almost immediately by a widespread pandemic. E) The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal.

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in A) the nutrient broth only. B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only. C) the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth. D) all four types of broth. E) the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth.

A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes? A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) ubiquitin E) corepressor

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. One of her colleagues suggested she try increased methylation of C nucleotides in a mammalian system. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin condensation C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes

A researcher needs to clone a sequence of part of a eukaryotic genome in order to express the sequence and to modify the polypeptide product. She would be able to satisfy these requirements by using which of the following vectors? A) a bacterial plasmid B) BAC to accommodate the size of the sequence C) a modified bacteriophage D) a human chromosome E) a YAC with appropriate cellular enzymes

Why are BACs preferred today rather than bacteriophages for making genomic libraries? A) The BAC carries more DNA. B) The BAC can carry entire genes and their regulatory elements. C) Larger BACs are easier to store. D) The BAC can carry entire genes and their regulatory elements, and larger BACs are easier to store. E) The BAC carries more DNA, the BAC can carry entire genes and their regulatory elements, and larger BACs are easier to store.

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early. Why would Gleevec most probably cause remission of the disease? A) It reverses the chromosomal translocation. B) It eliminates the Ph' chromosome. C) It removes Ph'-containing progenitor cells. D) The drug inhibits the replication of the affected chromosome. E) The drug inhibits the specific thymine kinase receptor.

Forms of the Ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A) DNA replication to stop B) DNA replication to be hyperactive C) cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional D) cell division to cease E) growth factor signaling to be hyperactive

Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses A) production of human insulin B) production of human growth hormone C) production of tissue plasminogen activator D) genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines E) creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body

If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect to be a measurable effect? A) decreased concentration of the lac enzymes B) increased concentration of the trp enzymes C) decreased binding of the RNA polymerase to sugar metabolism-related promoters D) decreased concentration of alternative sugars in the cell E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell

In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done? A) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis. B) The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix. C) The probe must be hybridized with the fragment. D) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis and the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix. E) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.

Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still be problems? I. the possibility that, once introduced into the patient, the iPS cells produce nonpancreatic cells II. the failure of the iPS cells to take up residence in the pancreas III. the inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) all of them

Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the function of small RNAs is still being explained? A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions. B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA. C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was sequenced. D) Ethical considerations prevented scientists from exploring this material until recently. E) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have now made this possible.

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome If she moves the repressor gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which will you expect to occur? A) The repressor will no longer be made. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer. D) The lac operon will be expressed continuously. E) The lac operon will function normally.

The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about A) lethal genes. B) the dorsal-ventral axis. C) the left-right axis. D) segmentation. E) the anterior-posterior axis.

The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. B) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins. D) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it. E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is A) permanently turned on. B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium. D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium. E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.

Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins? A) cell cloning B) therapeutic cloning C) use of adult stem cells D) embryo transfer E) organismal cloning

Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA? A) restriction enzymes B) gene cloning C) DNA ligase D) gel electrophoresis E) reverse transcriptase

Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true? A) Most of the DNA codes for protein. B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed. C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer. D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters. E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.

Which of the following uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification? A) Southern blotting B) Northern blotting C) Western blotting D) Eastern blotting E) RT-PCR

Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements? A) centromeres only B) telomeres only C) origin of replication only D) centromeres and telomeres only E) centromeres, telomeres, and an origin of replication

AP Biology Unit 6 (Chapters 18-20) Test Preparation

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Acid/Base Balance

NCLEX - PN MERCY REVIEW

Unit Review - Linear Models

Research Methods in Psych

CHEGG RE Final Study Guide

Stats Flashcards 1-2

HN 2210D Midterm OSU w/ Dr. Williams Summer 2014

Man 4720 Final

Italia

CISM 1 of 4

2 - Ser o estar?

physics chapter 18 test

Indiana state test study guide

Macro test 3

Kaplan Simulated Exam #4

Chapter 40

Exam 1

HIM 298 Sayles CHAPTER 8 HEALTH LAW

MGMT Final: Ch15

ICM II - Respiratory Exam 2 Case Studies