AP2: Chapter 21- The Immune System
Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)? A: B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby B: A-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby C: O-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby D: AB-negative female pregnant with an AB-negative baby
A: B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby *Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can develop when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. Unlike anti-A and anti-B antibodies, anti-Rh antibodies are not preformed (i.e., a person doesn't produce them until they've been exposed to Rh-antigens for the first time). This initial exposure can occur when the Rh-negative mother carries her first Rh-positive baby. The first such pregnancy usually results in the delivery of a healthy baby. But during this pregnancy and particularly during delivery, the mother may be sensitized by her baby's Rh-positive antigens that pass into her bloodstream. If so, she will form anti-Rh antibodies unless treated with RhoGAM during pregnancy and around the time of delivery. RhoGAM is a serum containing anti-Rh antibodies. By agglutinating the Rh factor, it blocks the mother's immune response and prevents her sensitization. If the mother is not treated and becomes pregnant again with another Rh-positive baby, her antibodies will cross through the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs, producing the condition known as hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)? A: CD8 B: CD4
A: CD8 *Yes, class I MHC proteins are recognized by CD8 cells.
Cilia and mucous are examples of which line of defense? A: First line of defense B: Second line of defense C: Third line of defense
A: First line of defense *Surface barriers encompass the skin and mucous membranes in the body; these are the body's first line of defense. Mucous membranes, including the secretion of mucous and action of cilia, help form a physical barrier against the entrance of foreign microbes.
How do interferons protect against viral infection in healthy cells? A: Interferons encourage the production of antiviral proteins. B: Interferons promote fever, or an abnormally high body temperature. C: Interferons perform opsonization to coat microorganisms. D: Interferons activate complement.
A: Interferons encourage the production of antiviral proteins *These antiviral proteins are coded in the cell's DNA. These proteins can degrade viral RNA and interfere with viral protein synthesis.
Which of the following is NOT a property of mucous membranes? A: Mucus contains macrophages that attack invading pathogens. B: Mucous membranes produce defensins that can damage pathogen cell membranes. C: Mucin in mucus allows it to trap pathogens. D: Mucus contains lysozymes that destroy bacteria.
A: Mucus contains macrophages that attack invading pathogens *Mucus itself does not typically contain macrophages.
Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe a difference between the innate and adaptive defenses of the body? A: The innate defenses of the body apply strictly to external pathogens, while adaptive defenses apply strictly to internal pathogens. B: Innate defenses tend to occur much faster than adaptive defenses. C: Innate defenses involve physical barriers, cells, bloodborne chemicals, and inflammatory responses, while adaptive defenses primarily utilize lymphocytes and antibodies. D: Any foreign substances may activate the innate defenses, while adaptive defenses are specific to the type of invading pathogen.
A: The innate defenses of the body apply strictly to external pathogens, while adaptive defenses apply strictly to internal pathogens. *This statement is not true. Innate defenses can be both internal and external.
How is the adaptive third line of defense able to target specific pathogens? A: The third line of defense responds to antigens on the pathogen. B: The third line of defense triggers inflammation, which mobilizes a specific attack on the invading pathogen. C: The third line of defense activates natural killer cells that hunt down and selectively destroy pathogens. D: The third line of defense responds to antibodies produced by the pathogen.
A: The third line of defense responds to antigens on the pathogen. *All foreign invaders of the body present antigens that can activate the adaptive immune response. The adaptive immune response can then produce antibodies that bind to the antigens to help identify, disable, and destroy the pathogens.
Which specific type of cell produces antibodies? A: activated plasma cells B: activated memory T cells C: activated antigen-presenting cells D: activated helper T cells
A: activated plasma cells *When activated by the presence of antigens, B lymphocytes proliferate into plasma cells. Plasma cells generate antigen-specific antibodies.
Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them? A: all nucleated cells B: dendritic cells C: macrophages D: B cells
A: all nucleated cells *Yes, nucleated body cells bring pieces of endogenous proteins to the surface to display on the MHC protein.
Which molecules of the adaptive defense system provide humoral immunity by circulating freely in the blood and lymph, where they bind to extracellular antigens and inactivate them and mark them for destruction? A: antibodies B: antigens C: complement proteins D: interferons
A: antibodies *Humoral immunity, also called antibody-mediated immunity, is provided by antibodies present in the body's "humors," or fluids (blood, lymph, etc.). Though they are produced by lymphocytes, antibodies circulate freely in the blood and lymph, where they bind primarily to extracellular targets—bacteria, bacterial toxins, and free viruses—inactivating them temporarily and marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement.
Which of the following events is not directly associated with inflammatory responses? A: antibody production B: phagocyte mobilization C: increased vascular permeability D: vasodilation
A: antibody production *Inflammation is a component of the body's innate defenses. Antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity is a component of adaptive defenses.
Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types? A: antigen-presenting cells B: all nucleated cells
A: antigen-presenting cells *Yes, class II MHC proteins are found only on antigen-presenting cells.
Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of inflammation? A: bruising B: heat C: swelling D: redness
A: bruising *Bruising is a sign of internal hemorrhaging and injury, but bruising is not a typical part of the inflammatory response.
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated? A: cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity) B: antibody-mediated immunity C: humoral immunity
A: cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity) *Yes, cell-mediated immunity involves an intracellular pathogen such as a virus.
Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens? A: class II MHC proteins B: class I MHC proteins
A: class II MHC proteins *Yes, class II MHC proteins present antigens that originated from outside the cell (phagocytized extracellular pathogens).
Which mechanism(s) of antibody action triggers the response of a plasma protein that will result in a membrane attack complex? A: complement activation B: neutralization C: precipitation D: agglutination
A: complement activation *Complement has the potential to bind antigen by itself (alternative pathway), but it may require an antibody to bind to the antigen first (classical pathway).
Activated CD8 T cells become __________. A: cytotoxic T cells B: helper T cells C: NK cells D: B cells
A: cytotoxic T cells *Activated CD8 T cells become cytotoxic T cells.
Which of the following cells engulf antigens by phagocytosis and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition? A: dendritic cells B: plasma cells C: T lymphocytes D: NK cells
A: dendritic cells *Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells that engulf antigens and then present fragments of them to their own surfaces, where T cells can recognize them.
What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient? A: humoral immunity B: cell-mediated immunity C: cellular immunity
A: humoral immunity *Yes, humoral immunity involves antibodies that can be transferred from one person to another.
What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected? A: interferon B: complement C: pyrogens D: opsonins
A: interferon *Interferon is a small protein that can stimulate nearby healthy cells to defend themselves against viral infection.
Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways? A: mast cells B: neutrophils C: macrophages D: NK cells
A: mast cells *Mast cells have granules that contain histamines.
What is the most important reason you should not try draining an abscess by pressing on it? A: may spread infection to deeper tissue B: may result in a permanent scar C: releases large amounts of pus/debris D: too painful a process to perform
A: may spread infection to deeper tissue
Phagocytes are unable to adhere to bacteria that have external capsules concealing their membrane carbohydrates. Our immune system gets around this problem by coating such pathogens with __________. A: opsonins B: phagosomes C: toll-like receptors D: mucin
A: opsonins *Opsonins are complement proteins or antibodies; both provide "handles" to which phagocyte receptors can bind. Any pathogen can be coated with opsonins, a process called opsonization ("to make tasty"), which greatly accelerates phagocytosis of that pathogen.
Which of the following should produce naturally acquired, active immunity? A: recovering from the chicken pox B: getting a flu vaccine C: injections of antibody produced by a goat D: drinking breast milk
A: recovering from the chicken pox *Exposure to an antigen and the subsequent immune response provides naturally acquired active immunity.
What types of antigen do mature T cells normally not recognize? A: self-antigens B: bacterial antigens C: cancer antigens D: processed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells
A: self-antigens *Due to negative selection during maturation, T cells do not recognize self-antigens.
What is/are the specific target(s) of interferons? A: the membrane receptors on healthy cells B: the DNA of the cell making the interferon C: the DNA of healthy cells D: the immature viruses in infected cells
A: the membrane receptors on healthy cells *Interferon binds to membrane receptors in healthy cells and triggers a response inside the cell that leads to the production of chemicals that interfere with virus manufacture.
T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________. A: thymus B: bone marrow C: tonsils D: lymph nodes
A: thymus *T cells are "educated" (go through a rigorous selection process) as they mature in the thymus; their goal is to become immunocompetent and self-tolerant. A self-tolerant T lymphocyte will not react to self-antigens so that it does not attack the body's own cells.
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient? AB A O B
AB *Type AB blood is considered to be the universal recipient because neither anti-A or anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) are present.
A person who lacks agglutinogen A but has agglutinogen B would have blood type __________. AB B O A
B *Agglutinogens are glycoproteins found on the surface of erythrocytes. Someone with type B blood has agglutinogen B (but not A) on the surface of their erythrocytes.
Which of the following describes a hapten? A: A hapten is displayed on surface membranes of cells to be destroyed by the immune system. B: A hapten is a foreign molecule that becomes immunogenic when combined with body proteins. C: A hapten is a foreign molecule that triggers an immune response upon contact with mucous membranes. D: A hapten is a compound secreted by immunocompetent lymphocytes to demonstrate self-tolerance.
B: A hapten is a foreign molecule that becomes immunogenic when combined with body proteins. *Haptens trigger adaptive defenses when combined with body proteins, making them appear foreign. Examples of haptens can be found in poison ivy, animal dander, and certain drugs.
Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true? A: A primary response occurs faster than a secondary response. B: A primary response results when naïve lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells. C: A primary response leads to higher levels of antibodies than does a secondary response. D: The antibodies produced in a primary response bind to antigens more efficiently than the antibodies produced in a secondary immune response.
B: A primary response results when naïve lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells. *A primary immune response is initiated when naïve lymphocytes are exposed to foreign antigens. Since naïve cells are being stimulated, the response is slower to progress than a secondary response in which memory lymphocytes are activated. In addition to being slower than the secondary response, the primary response yields fewer antibodies than a secondary response. Furthermore, primary response antibodies do not bind to antigens as efficiently as the antibodies produced in a secondary response. Lastly, a secondary response lasts longer than a primary response.
A class I MHC protein presents an antigen. What type of cell is likely presenting and to what type of cell would it be presented? A: An antigen-presenting cell (APC) would be presented to a CD4 cell. B: Any nucleated cell would present antigens to a CD8 cell. C: An antigen-presenting cell (APC) would present antigens to a CD8 cell. D: Any nucleated cell would present antigens to a CD4 cell.
B: Any nucleated cell would present antigens to a CD8 cell. *MHC I proteins are found on all nucleated cells except for antigen-presenting cells (APCs). MHC I expressing cells present antigens to CD8 cells, which become cytotoxic T cells when activated.
What roles do memory B cells play when a patient is re-exposed to an antigen? A: Due to previous exposure, memory B cells are able to quickly recognize invading pathogens, dock with them, and induce apoptosis. B: Memory B cells trigger a secondary immune response, which is faster, more prolonged, and more effective than the first immune response. C: Memory B cells trigger a secondary immune response that is slower and less effective than the primary immune response. D: Memory B cells activate helper T cells, which, in turn, activate CD8 cells.
B: Memory B cells trigger a secondary immune response, which is faster, more prolonged, and more effective than the first immune response. *Memory B cells that have already been activated by an antigen are primed and ready for action. They can respond very quickly to that antigen if it is encountered again, and the secondary response is faster and more effective.
Natural killer (NK) cells and the inflammatory response are examples of which line of defense? A: First line of defense B: Second line of defense C: Third line of defense
B: Second line of defense *Innate cellular and chemical defenses are the second line of defense. These include phagocytes, natural killer (NK) cells, the inflammatory response, antimicrobial proteins (like interferon and complement), and fever.
Proliferation of lymphocytes occurs immediately after which of these events? A: release from the bone marrow B: activation C: seeding of secondary lymphoid organs D: entering the circulation
B: activation *Activation after the binding of an antigen leads to proliferation and differentiation.
Which of the following activate CD8 cells? A: exogenous antigens B: antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins C: antigens on class II MHC proteins D: peptides containing 14-17 amino acids
B: antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins *T cells bearing CD8 receptors are activated by cells presenting endogenous antigens on class I MHC proteins.
Which antimicrobial protein triggers inflammation? A: pyrogen B: complement C: interferon
B: complement *The complement cascade activates inflammation to destroy foreign substances in the body.
Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis? A: precipitation B: complement activation C: agglutination D: neutralization
B: complement activation *Complement has the potential to bind antigen by itself (alternative pathway), but it may require an antibody to bind to the antigen first (classical pathway).
Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis? A: interferons B: complement proteins C: natural killer (NK) cells D: cytokines
B: complement proteins *Yes, the complement proteins can lyse microorganisms using the MAC (membrane attack complex) system to form pores, mark cells for phagocytosis (opsonization), and promote inflammation.
What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells? A: regulatory T (TReg) cells B: cytotoxic T (TC) cells C: APCs D: helper T (TH) cells
B: cytotoxic T (TC) cells *Cytotoxic T (TC) cells can distinguish between self cells and foreign cells. If a cytotoxic T cell recognizes its own antigen on a virus-infected cell, the T cell will destroy it.
Four (or five) cardinal signs indicate inflammation. What specific sign of inflammation is the result of exudate in the tissue spaces? A: pain B: edema (swelling) C: impaired function D: heat
B: edema (swelling) *Edema is caused when release of fluids from blood vessels exceeds their uptake. Not only is blood flow increased to inflamed areas, but capillaries are made more permeable to fluid, resulting in loss of fluid from the blood and tissue swelling.
Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is/are released by mast cells? A: complement B: histamine C: prostaglandins D: kinins
B: histamine *Histamine is one of the products produced by mast cells to moderate inflammation. It is also released by basophils, which are similar to mast cells but reside in the blood.
Which leukocytes are sometimes referred to as "housekeeping" phagocytes because of their role in clearing (cleaning up) cell debris? A: lymphocytes B: macrophages C: basophils D: megakaryocytes
B: macrophages
What type of immune system cell performs the most phagocytosis in the body? A: natural killer, or NK, cells B: macrophages C: neutrophils D: B lymphocytes.
B: macrophages *Macrophages, or "big eaters," perform most of the phagocytic activity in the body: they ingest bacteria, cellular debris, and aging blood cells, among others.
Which of the following occurs when antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins? A: precipitation B: neutralization C: complement fixation and activation D: agglutination
B: neutralization *The binding of antibodies can neutralize the action of viral binding, bacterial toxin release, and other harmful activities of antigen-bearing agents.
The antivenom used to treat a venomous snake bite is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake. How would you classify the resulting humoral immunity? A: active immunity, artificially acquired B: passive immunity, artificially acquired C: passive immunity, naturally acquired D: active immunity, naturally acquired
B: passive immunity, artificially acquired *The immunity to venom (usually short lived--the protection ends once the antibodies are naturally degraded by the body) is passive because the patient did not produce the antibodies, and it is artificially acquired since it was injected during a medical procedure.
Which of these mechanisms do cytotoxic T (TC) cells use to destroy a target--that is, to deliver a lethal hit? A: opsonization B: perforation of the membrane C: agglutination of target cells D: producing antibodies
B: perforation of the membrane *Perforin molecules released by the cytotoxic T cause the formation of pores in the target membrane, leading to the cell's death. T cells can also cause apoptosis (cell lysis).
Which is a part of the innate immune defenses? A: antibodies B: skin C: T cells D: B cells
B: skin *The skin is the first innate barrier that works to prevent entry of any pathogens into the body.
Which of the following is NOT one of the effects produced by the release of inflammatory chemicals? A: attraction of neutrophils B: vasoconstriction C: increased access of clotting chemicals D: redness
B: vasoconstriction *Inflammatory chemicals dilate, rather than constrict, local arterioles and make local capillaries more permeable.
Which letter represents the formation of a phagolysosome resulting from the fusion of a lysosome with the phagocytic vesicle? Ingestion and digestion of bacteria by a phagocytic cell. A B C D
C *The lysosome fuses with the phagocytic vesicle, forming a phagolysosome.
Which of the following is an effect of complement activation? A: fever B: tissue repair C: opsonization D: T cell activation
C: opsonization *Complement proteins stimulate inflammation, serve as opsonins to aid in the phagocytosis of targeted antigens, and facilitate cytolysis.
Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells? A: CD6 cells B: CD4 cells C: CD8 cells
C: CD8 cells *Yes, CD8 cells become cytotoxic T cells.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells? A: NK cells attack transplanted organs. B: NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide). C: NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. D: NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
C: NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane *Correct answer. NK cells do not recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. NK cells to do not have specific antigen receptors - like T cells do. NK cells look for the absence of normally occurring "self" proteins on infected or cancerous cells.
Antibodies are produced from which cells? A: CD8 cells B: Helper T (TH) cells C: Plasma cells D: Dendritic cells
C: Plasma cells *T helper (TH) cells activate B cells, which then form a clone of plasma cells and memory B cells. Plasma cells in turn release antibodies that will target the antigen.
Which of the following is not an antigen-presenting cells (APC)? A: B cell B: macrophage C: T cell D: dendritic cell
C: T cell *T cells do not act as APCs. Quite the opposite, APCs present antigens to T cells.
Which of the following is/are the most specific internal defense against disease? A: phagocytes B: NK cells C: T cells D: inflammation
C: T cells *T cells are a part of the adaptive (specific) defenses against disease. They are involved in cell-mediated immunity as they defend the body against specific pathogens.
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to? A: antibody B: pathogen C: an antigenic determinant D: antigen
C: an antigenic determinant *Yes, also called an epitope, the antigenic determinant is the specific part of an antigen that the antibody or lymphocyte antigenic determinant receptor binds to.
In the case of severe blood loss in a patient with an unknown blood type, which of the following would be the best treatment to restore the patient's blood volume and oxygen carrying capacity? A: an immediate transfusion of blood plasma B: an immediate intravenous provision of an isotonic saline solution C: an immediate transfusion of type O blood D: an immediate transfusion of type AB blood
C: an immediate transfusion of type O blood *Type O blood cells contain no agglutinogens. For this reason, type O blood is considered the universal donor and theoretically can be given to anyone.
Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation? A: kinins B: histamines C: antibodies D: prostaglandins
C: antibodies *Antibodies are proteins that recognize specific foreign antigens. Antibodies trigger complement reactions, which may trigger inflammation, but this is not a direct pathway.
Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis? A: interferons B: T cells C: antibodies and complement proteins D: natural killer (NK) cells
C: antibodies and complement proteins *Yes, both antibodies and complement proteins can act as opsonins on bacteria.
During erythroblastosis fetalis, a Rh− mother's anti-Rh antibodies that have crossed the placenta will cause agglutination of the fetus's Rh+ RBCs. However, the reverse problem never happens when a Rh+ mother is pregnant with a Rh− fetus; that is, antibodies produced by the fetus cannot cause agglutination of the mother's Rh+ RBCs. This is true because ______. A: agglutinogens are physically too large to pass across the placenta B: fetal antibodies are immature and non-functional C: antibodies that can cause this agglutination are not produced by a fetus D: the placenta is a barrier that prevents the passage of all antigens
C: antibodies that can cause agglutination are not produced by a fetus *The (+) in Rh+ indicates that the red blood cells of the fetus have this agglutinin (antigen) on their surface. Therefore, they don't produce antibodies to that surface protein. If the fetus made these antibodies, agglutination would occur in their own (fetal) blood.
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells? A: B cells B: macrophages C: Cytotoxic T cells
C: cytotoxic T cells *Yes, cytotoxic T cells attack cancer cells, since they are part of cell-mediated immunity.
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system? A: adaptive defenses B: innate internal defenses C: innate external defenses
C: innate external defenses *Yes, innate external defenses (surface barriers) are the first line of defense and include tears, mucus membranes, and the skin.
Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system? A: adaptive defenses B: innate external defenses C: innate internal defenses
C: innate internal defenses *Yes, the macrophage recognizes many molecules found on pathogens that are not present on normal body cells.
Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication? A: complement proteins B: T lymphocytes C: interferons D: phagocytes
C: interferons *Yes, interferons are antimicrobial proteins that interfere with viral replication. They are produced by a virus-infected cell. Although the infected cell will die, it sends out interferons that protect the neighboring cells from the virus.
Health workers working with diphtheria commonly receive a serum with antibodies against the pathogen. What type of immunity would this be? A: passive, natural immunity B: active, natural immunity C: passive, artificial immunity D: active, artificial immunity
C: passive, artificial immunity *Passive immunities are conferred when antibodies are given to an individual. Artificially acquired immunity occurs when humans intervene to confer immunity.
What is the role of complement in the innate immune response? A: to identify pathogens for phagocytosis by natural killer cells B: to block viral replication C: to amplify the inflammatory process D: to produce a fever
C: to amplify the inflammatory process *Activated complement proteins help amplify the immune response and lyse bacterial cells. These proteins also enhance the adaptive defenses.
Which of the following best illustrates artificially acquired active humoral immunity? A: antivenoms B: antibodies received in breast milk C: vaccines D: infection
C: vaccines *Vaccines induce the patient to produce antibodies, so the resulting immunity is active, but it is artificially acquired since it was injected during a medical procedure.
How do cytotoxic cells directly attack target cells? A: Cytotoxic cells release complement proteins that weaken pathogen cell membranes and amplify the immune response. B: Cytotoxic cells engulf target cells via phagocytosis. C: Cytotoxic cells release antibodies that track down foreign cells and destroy them. D: Cytotoxic cells bind to the target cell and secrete chemicals that induce apoptosis.
D: Cytotoxic cells bind to the target cell and secrete chemicals that induce apoptosis. *Cytotoxic cells are able to dock with antigens on the target cell membrane. Once docked, the cytotoxic cell releases perforins and granzymes, which weaken the cell membrane and induce apoptosis.
Choose the incompatible transfusion. A: Donate type A blood to a recipient with type AB blood. B: Donate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood. C: Donate type B blood to a recipient with type AB blood. D: Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
D: Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood. *A person with type B blood can only give blood to people of type AB and B blood. The type O recipient has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma, which would produce a transfusion reaction with the B-antigens from the type B blood.
Which of the following statements does not describe the adaptive immune response? A: It is systemic. B: It has memory. C: It is specific. D: It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.
D: It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material *The adaptive immune response does not occur immediately upon the body's exposure to foreign material. It takes time for the body to mount an adaptive immune response and particularly longer upon a first exposure to the foreign material.
What is the role of interferon? A: Form membrane attack complexes B: Phagocytize foreign bacteria C: Initiate the inflammatory response D: Prevent further viral replication
D: Prevent further viral replication *Interferon is released by a virus-infected cell and certain lymphocytes; the interferon targets cells adjacent to the infected cell, which heightens the production of antiviral proteins in these cells. Interferon has also been shown to play a role in activating the immune response, including upregulation of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) I and II molecules.
What will happen if an adult patient with type A blood is given a transfusion with type AB blood? A: The patient's blood type will change from type A to type AB due to the additional type B agglutinogens of the transfused blood. B: The patient will stop making anti-B agglutinins so that the blood can be successfully incorporated into the patient's blood supply. C: The patient will respond normally, since type AB blood and type AB blood both contain the same type A agglutinogens. D: The anti-B agglutinins in the patient's blood plasma will attack the healthy AB blood cells by binding to the B agglutinogens.
D: The anti-B agglutinins in the patient's blood plasma will attack the healthy AB blood cells by binding to the B agglutinogens. *The transfused type AB blood contains both type A and type B agglutinogens, and the patient's type A blood contains anti-B plasma agglutinins.
How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria? A: Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface. B: The phagocytes look for the absence of "self" proteins. C: All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize. D: The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
D: The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells *Yes, they use mannose and Toll-like receptors to bind to the molecules found on pathogens.
Which of the following statements is true? A: A person with type AB blood produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (agglutinins). B: A person with type O blood produces both type A and type B antigens (agglutinogens). C: Type A blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood. D: Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.
D: Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood. *Type O blood, which does not contain either A or B agglutinogens, will not cross react with the anti-A agglutinins found in a recipient person with type B blood.
Which of the following best describes humoral immunity? A: edema and formation of exudate B: activation of T cells in the lymphatic fluid C: mobilization of phagocytes D: antibodies being released in the body fluids
D: antibodies being released in the body fluids *Humoral immunity refers to the presence of specific antibodies in the body fluids.
Vaccines provide what type of immunity? A: naturally acquired passive B: naturally acquired active C: artificially acquired passive D: artificially acquired active
D: artifcially acquired active *When your B cells encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them, you are exhibiting active humoral immunity. Active immunity is acquired "artificially" when you receive a vaccine. Most vaccines contain pathogens that are dead or attenuated (living, but extremely weakened), or their components. Vaccines spare us most of the symptoms and discomfort of the disease that would otherwise occur during the primary response.
How does a lymphocyte exhibit immunocompetence? A: by rapidly proliferating to form an army of cells exactly like themselves and bearing the same antigen-specific receptors B: by being relatively unresponsive to self-antigens so that they do not attack the body's own cells C: by recognizing self-antigen D: by being able to recognize their one specific antigen
D: by being able to recognize their one specific antigen *All lymphocytes must be able to recognize their own antigen in order to be effective. This ability is called immunocompetence.
How do natural killer cells destroy invading pathogens? A: by producing interferons that block the replication and spread of pathogens B: by engulfing cells via phagocytosis C: by producing antibodies that target cells for destruction D: by inducing apoptosis in the target cell
D: by inducing apoptosis in the target cell *Natural killer cells bind to target cells and secrete perforins and granzymes that degrade the target cell membrane. They also bind to membrane receptors that induce apoptosis.
When do neutrophils enter the blood from the red bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors? A: during diapedesis B: during chemotaxis C: during margination D: during leukocytosis
D: during leukocytosis *During leukocytosis, neutrophils enter the blood from the red bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors from damaged cells.
Which lymphocytes act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses? A: cytotoxic T cells B: regulatory T cells C: B cells D: helper T cells
D: helper T cells *Helper T cells are lymphocytes that organize the cellular and humoral immune response branches of the immune system.
Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched? A: macrophages: antigen-presenting cells B: cytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells C: B cells: produce antibodies D: helper T cells: destroy infected body cells
D: helper T cells: destroy infected body cells *Helper T cells are lymphocytes that manage or orchestrate an immune response, but they do not directly kill cells.
A newborn with type A blood would have which agglutinins present in the plasma immediately after birth? A: anti-A agglutinins B: anti-B agglutinins C: both anti-A and anti-B agglutinins D: neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins
D: neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins *Newborns lack any agglutinins (antibodies) for the first few months after birth.
What cells make antibodies? A: memory B cells B: cytotoxic T cells C: memory T cells D: plasma B cells
D: plasma B cells *Yes, the plasma B cells make antibodies in response to specific antigens.
Which type of chemical induces fever? A: antibodies B: complement C: interferon D: pyrogens
D: pyrogens *Pyrogens target neurons in the hypothalamus to increase the set point for thermoregulation, raising body temperature above normal (37°C).
Which of the following provides a first line of defense against pathogens? A: inflammation B: complement C: antimicrobial proteins D: skin and mucous membranes
D: skin and mucous membranes *The first line of defense against disease is intact skin and mucous membranes. If an antigen (pathogen) cannot enter the body, a secondary defense is unnecessary.
Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent infections? A: tears B: pH of the urine C: mucus D: the pH of the blood
D: the pH of the blood *Although the blood is usually sterile, the slightly alkaline pH does not prohibit pathogen growth.
What specifically determines a person's ABO blood group? A: the presence or absence of A, B, or O markers specifically found in the blood cell glycocalyx B: the presence or absence of blood plasma A or B agglutinogens C: the presence or absence of anti-A or anti-B agglutinins in the blood cell plasma membrane D: the presence or absence of A or B agglutinogens in the blood cell plasma membrane
D: the presence or absence of A or B agglutinogens in the blood cell plasma membrane *ABO blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of agglutinogens type A and type B.
Which of the areas seen the figure must be occupied by T lymphocytes, at least for a while, but is NOT required for the production of B lymphocytes? A: lymph nodes B: the bone marrow C: the general circulation D: the thymus
D: the thymus *The thymus and the hormone thymosin are required for the maturation of T lymphocytes.
True or False: People with Type AB blood are considered "universal recipients" because they lack agglutinogens on their RBCs.
False *People with Type AB blood are considered "universal recipients" because they lack antibodies to both A and B antigens (agglutinogens). They don't have the antibodies that would cause a transfusion reaction with Type A, B or AB blood. Since type O blood is devoid of A or B antigens, anyone can receive it without concern of a transfusion reaction. People with type O blood are considered "universal donors" because they lack A and B agglutinogens on their RBCs.
True or False: Discharge is one of the cardinal signs of inflammation.
False *Redness, pain, heat, and swelling are the cardinal signs of inflammation.
Complete the Concept Map to describe surface membrane barriers and their protective functions, and describe the nonspecific internal defenses including the role of natural killer cells, phagocytosis, fever, and inflammation.
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Complete the Concept Map to describe the ABO blood groups and the basis of transfusion reactions.
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Complete the Concept Map to describe the adaptive defenses including the role of antibodies, B and T lymphocytes, antigen-presenting cells, and memory cells.
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Complete the Concept Map to describe the role of surface membrane barriers, phagocytes, natural killer cells, and fever in innate body defense, and describe the lymphocytes and antibodies involved in the adaptive defenses.
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Label the cause of infection and some structures involved in fighting the infection.
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Label the mechanism of antibody action
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Match the prefixes, roots, and suffixes about immune system
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Match the vocabulary terms to their meaning
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Drag and drop each of the cell types into the appropriate sentence to correctly identify the sequence of events in cellular immunity.
[see image] *As a dendritic cell encounters and engulfs a virus or a dead virus-infected cell, the process of cellular immunity develops in a lymph node. CD4 cells are activated by the dendritic cell, which in turn forms a clone of helper T cells, along with memory cells. The helper T cell and dendritic cell then activate the CD8 cell. Lastly, the activation of the CD8 cell forms a clone of cytotoxic T cells and memory cells; the cytotoxic T cells then target the virus.
