aPHR Practice Test #2

38. Match the healthcare plan to its description. - Prioritizes reducing employee expenses and requires all healthcare be obtained from a specific group of providers - Has similarities to PPOs, but doctors control the costs of the plan by making referrals to specialists when patients need additional care - Helps to reduce healthcare costs by involving cooperative contracts with insurance providers - Allows more choice than HMOs but costs more for patients who go outside a prescribed network of healthcare providers

A,C,B,D

81. Which of the following are hardship distributions that allow for early withdrawals from a retirement fund? Select all choices that apply. a) medical care expenses for an employee's spouse b) mortgage expenses directly related to an employee's principal residence c) certain expenses to repair damage to the employee's principal residence d) educational fees for postsecondary education for an employee's dependen

A,C,D. Hardship distributions include medical care expenses for an employee's spouse, certain expenses to repair damage to the employee's principal residence, and educational fees for postsecondary education for an employee's dependent.

4. What steps can a leader take to guide a team through substantive conflict while avoiding personal strife in the workplace? Select all choices that apply. a) ask team members to focus on opinions b) model being open to other people's ideas c) encourage teams to seek a "victory" point of view d) request that team members remain objective

B and D. To guide a team through substantive conflict, leaders can encourage team members to be open and respectful to other people's ideas, remain objective, focus on facts (not opinions and personalities), and work towards a common goal (not seek a "victory" point of view).

31. Which of the following paid benefits are optional (not legally required)? Select all choices that apply. a) worker's compensation b) tuition reimbursement c) personal days d) maternity leave

B,C, and D. Only worker's compensation is a legally-required benefit.

65. What is the least serious violation type recognized by OSHA? a) de minimis b) willful c) serious d) failure to abate

The correct answer is A. A de minimis violation occurs when a standard is violated, but that violation does not currently affect the health or safety of employees.

42. Which rating method requires managers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings? a) forced distribution method b) paired comparison method c) simple ranking method d) BARS

The correct answer is A. A forced distribution rating method requires employers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings. For example, supervisors may rate employees along a bell curve.

3. Which of the following describes what happens during a job analysis? a) Job tasks and requirements are reviewed. b) Benchmarking is conducted to establish external equity. c) Broadbanding is done to ensure internal equity. d) Red circle employee salaries are frozen.

The correct answer is A. A job analysis includes two components: job description and job specification.

82. Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when replacement charting? a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization b) plan for the promotion of employees with no interest in supervisory positions c) recruit employees to fill positions internally d) recruit applicants to fill positions externally

The correct answer is A. A replacement chart categorizes employees who have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to take on greater responsibilities in the organization. Employees may also be identified as candidates to be "developed for future promotion."

53. Which of the following requires that employment exams test skills that are relevant to the job that is being applied for? a) content validity b) predictive validity c) concurrent validity d) construct validity

The correct answer is A. Content validity requires that a job exam actually tests skills that are relevant to the job for which the candidate is applying.

121. What is outlined in a disaster recovery plan? a) how an organization will move forward after an emergency and initial emergency response has concluded b) how safety training will be implemented in the workplace c) how employees should shut down critical operations during an emergency d) how an organization will continue to function during an emergency

The correct answer is A. Disaster recovery plans indicate how an organization will move forward once the initial emergency and emergency response is over.

96. Which executive order added the identity classifier "sex" to the list of protected groups, thereby making it illegal to discriminate against employees on the basis of sex? a) EO 11375 b) EO 11246 c) EO 11333 d) EO 11478

The correct answer is A. EO 11375, issued by President Johnson in 1967, added "sex" to the list of protected classes covered by EO 11246.

67. This executive order exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246. a) EO 13279 b) EO 11333 c) EO 11375 d) EO 11478

The correct answer is A. EO 13279, issued by President George W. Bush in 2002, exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246.

76. Which of the following is an ergonomic hazard? a) repeated unnatural motions b) unsafe objects c) unsafe procedures d) emotional stress

The correct answer is A. Ergonomic hazards are caused by repeated or unnatural motion and can lead to musculoskeletal injuries or conditions, such as carpal tunnel syndrome.

51. What is an HRIS? a) a technological system used to store and organize information b) a metric used to measure HR efficiency c) a review board that evaluates employee complaints d) a legal concept that holds an employer responsible for due diligence when conducting background checks

The correct answer is A. Human resource information systems (HRIS) are one especially powerful way to improve efficiency. HRIS use technology to streamline many of the otherwise time-consuming responsibilities of human resource departments, including timekeeping, payroll, work schedules, recurring, workforce planning, benefit eligibility, recruitment, and much more.

90. Which of the following interview questions is best described as hypothetical? a) Imagine you were overseeing the work of an employee who is struggling to meet his deadlines. How would you go about addressing that issue? b) Could you describe a case in the past where you've had to present difficult information to a general audience? c) How long did you work at your previous job? d) Why did you leave your previous position?

The correct answer is A. Hypothetical interview questions involve asking applicants how they would respond to imagined situations in the future.

19. Flexible spending funds that are not used are: a) forfeited b) returned to the employee c) rolled over to the next year d) an employee has an option to either have the funds returned or rolled over to the next year

The correct answer is A. If an employee chooses to make deposits into a flexible spending account but does not use those funds by the end of the year, those funds are forfeited.

39. When unemployment levels are high, which of the following is most likely to be the case during the hiring process? a) Recruitment will be easy. b) Recruitment will be difficult. c) Turnover will be high. d) Turnover will be low.

The correct answer is A. In these cases, it is likely that there will be a lot of interest from potential candidates, so recruitment will be relatively easy.

120. ________ is a restricted computer network that allows only authorized people to access the site. a) Intranet b) Cloud computing c) Enterprise resource planning d) Employee self-service

The correct answer is A. Intranet is a restricted computer network that allows only authorized people to access the site.

103. It is necessary to pay overtime to: a) telecommuting full-time employees b) employees who work less than 40 hours a week c) employees who work on a Saturday d) exempt employees

The correct answer is A. It is necessary to pay overtime to telecommuting full-time employees who work more than 40 hours in one week.

84. Implementing a pilot program of a training program will be most useful for: a) determining how effective the training program is prior to delivery b) capturing the opinions of experts c) determining how successful future participants expect the program to be d) pilot programs are not useful and waste valuable resources that should be reserved for complete training programs

The correct answer is A. One of the most important types of formative evaluation is the pilot test, also known as a pilot program, in order to see how it works and how effectively it teaches needed skills.

36. Price competition is a concern for the blank"________" force of Porter's Five Forces. a) intensity of rivalry among competing firms b) threat of new entrants c) bargaining power of vendors/suppliers d) bargaining power of firm's customers

The correct answer is A. Price competition is a concern for the "intensity of rivalry among competing firms" force of Porter's Five Forces.

92. What does the D in QDRO stand for? a) Domestic b) Disability c) Disaster d) Disorder

The correct answer is A. QDRO stands for Qualified Domestic Relations Order.

112. Qualitative research involves analyzing blank________ data. a) non-numerical b) numerical c) tangible d) all of the above

The correct answer is A. Qualitative research involves analyzing non-numerical data.

79. Which of the following would result in imputed income? a) group life insurance over $50,000 b) group life insurance under $50,000 c) dental insurance d) flexible work schedules

The correct answer is A. Some benefits must be treated as income for tax purposes. Imputed income is the value of a service or benefit received by the employee that must be treated as income for the purpose of taxes and reporting earnings to the Internal Revenue Service. Group life insurance over $50,000 is imputed income.

24. High salaries with low benefits are most characteristic of which stage of the organizational life cycle? a) startup b) growth c) maturity d) decline

The correct answer is A. Startups are uncertain ventures, so employees who join at that stage of growth should be appropriately compensated for the risk they are assuming. Higher salaries, rather than lavish bonuses and benefits, are typical at this point in the life cycle.

58. Which of the following employee protections is provided by the CCPA? a) Employees are protected from termination based on their wages being garnished for a single debt. b) Employees are protected against levies on their paychecks. c) Employees are protected against unfair labor practices. d) Employees are protected against predatory investors.

The correct answer is A. The CCPA provides certain protections for employees whose wages are garnished. Employers are not allowed to terminate employees who have their wages garnished for a single debt, and limits are placed on how much may be garnished in any particular week.

28. Which of the following is covered by the FLSA? a) record-keeping b) meal periods c) pay raises d) procedures for discharging employees

The correct answer is A. The FLSA requires employers to keep records of wages paid, hours worked, and other relevant data for each nonexempt employee.

47. Which was the first major legislation passed to outlaw the formation or the attempt to create monopolies? This legislation also made it illegal to conspire to monopolize. a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act

The correct answer is A. The Sherman Act was the first major legislation passed to outlaw any "monopolization, attempted monopolization, or conspiracy or combination to monopolize." After the Sherman Act was passed in 1890, two additional antitrust laws were passed in 1914: the Federal Trade Commission Act and the Clayton Act.

20. Which type of analysis focuses exclusively on external factors that affect a business, like the political and legal environment? a) PEST analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric

The correct answer is A. The letters that make up the acronym PEST stand for political, economic, social, and technological. These are all factors that could help determine what threats and opportunities an organization faces.

26. Which of the following is most characteristic of the maintenance stage of the career life cycle? a) During this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time. b) During this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low. c) During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. d) During this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases.

The correct answer is A. The maintenance stage is the third traditional career stage, in which a person's talents are optimized. Performance may reach a plateau or begin to stagnate during this phase.

69. Which approach to job design works best for jobs that involve specialized, routine tasks? a) mechanistic b) biological c) motivational d) relational

The correct answer is A. The mechanistic approach to job design is most applicable to jobs that involve routine assembly tasks, like those found in a manufacturing firm.

116. Documents posted on government websites are: a) public domain b) subject to copyright protections c) may be copied but only for educational purposes d) may be copied only if that is indicated on the webpage

The correct answer is A. U.S. government works (like website documents) are considered public domain. They are created by a federal government employee as part of their job.

12. Union elections are conducted by: a) the National Labor Relations Board b) the Congress of Industrial Organizations c) the Financial Accounting Standards Board d) the National Education Association of the United States

The correct answer is A. Union elections are held by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB).

56. When HR takes on a strategic role, line managers become responsible for: a) day-to-day operational tasks involved with managing people b) strategic planning c) HR alignment d) the company code of ethics

The correct answer is A. When HR professionals become more involved in the strategic development of an organization, line managers tend to take on more of the day-to-day operational tasks involved with managing human capital.

64. According to the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act, when employees take a leave of absence to serve in the military, employers must do all of the following EXCEPT: a) continue to pay the employee during the period of leave b) continue to extend benefits to the employee during the time of leave c) ensure the employee still has their job when they return from leave d) make reasonable accommodations for veterans who become disabled during service

The correct answer is A. While the Act protects an employee's right to their job during service, employers are not required to pay employees who are on leave for service.

55. A SMART goal is "time-bound" if blank________. a) it requires more time to complete than originally planned b) it includes a realistic time constraint c) it can be achieved in 30 days or less d) it cannot be accomplished within a realistic time frame

The correct answer is B. A SMART goal is time-bound if it includes a realistic time constraint, such as a reasonable due date or deadline.

8. Which type of analysis considers how both internal and external factors serve as benefits and obstacles for an organization? a) time series analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric

The correct answer is B. A SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats) analysis focuses on identifying factors both within and outside of an organization that will impact its performance.

21. A competitive way to shrink the market or leverage resources can be from which of the following? a) contract manufacturer b) merger or acquisition c) outsourcing d) divestiture

The correct answer is B. A merger or acquisition is a competitive way to shrink the market and leverage resources.

44. An employer may face jail time if an employee dies after which of the following violations is issued? a) de minimis b) willful c) serious d) failure to abate

The correct answer is B. A willful violation occurs when employers intentionally ignore or intentionally violate OSHA standards. The employer will be cited for the violation and required to pay fines ranging between $5,000 and $70,000. If an employee's death results from the violation, an employer may face additional penalties and jail time.

91. A job exam tests skills that are relevant to the job for which the candidate is applying. Which requirement does this meet? a) construct validity b) content validity c) predictive validity d) reliability validity

The correct answer is B. Content validity requires that a job exam tests skills that are relevant to the job for which the candidate is applying.

86. Which of the following career development techniques would most likely focus on an employee's emotional or psychological well-being? a) coaching b) counseling c) mentoring d) assessing

The correct answer is B. Counseling is a way that managers may participate in career development by providing an employee with advice or emotional support involving job-related or personal issues.

110. Which of the following interview questions is best described as behavioral? a) Imagine you were overseeing the work of an employee who is struggling to meet his deadlines. How would you go about addressing that issue? b) Could you describe a case in the past where you've had to present difficult information to a general audience? c) How long did you work at your previous job? d) Why did you leave your previous position?

The correct answer is B. During behavioral interviews, candidates are asked to explain how they responded to problems or events in the past.

70. Which interview technique presumes that how an employee has responded in the past is a strong indicator of how the employee will behave in the future? a) patterned interview b) behavioral interview c) team interview d) chronological interview

The correct answer is B. During behavioral interviews, candidates are asked to explain how they responded to problems or events in the past. The assumption is that these past behaviors will predict how employees would respond to similar situations in the future.

11. All of the following are true of independent contractors EXCEPT: a) Independent contractors are responsible for paying their own Social Security taxes. b) Employers are required to pay overtime. c) Employers are not required to pay for on-call time. d) Independent contractors are responsible for submitting their own state and federal taxes.

The correct answer is B. Employers are not required to pay independent contractors for overtime.

62. Which of the following is not an employee right protected by OSHA? a) the right to review records of worksite injuries and illnesses b) the right to accompany an OSHA investigator during an OSHA investigation c) the right to request a workplace inspection d) the right to information and training about workplace hazards

The correct answer is B. Employers may ask that an employee accompanies an OSHA investigator during an on-site investigation, but this is not something an employee has a right to do according to OSHA standards.

85. According to FMLA, employers can request that employees provide notice of leave blank________. a) one week prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated b) 30 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated c) 60 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated d) An employee is never required to provide notice before taking family leave.

The correct answer is B. Employers may require that all paid leave be used before unpaid leave begins and can request 30 days' notice when that is practical.

33. What determines the strategic goals of HR? a) the values of the employees managed by the HR department b) the goals of the organization c) the goals of competitive organizations d) the values of HR managers

The correct answer is B. Human resource goals should align with the goals of the organization as a whole.

17. Which of the following is true regarding employer responsibility and hostile work environment harassment? a) Employers are always responsible for hostile work environment harassment. b) Employers are responsible for hostile work environment harassment if they know about it or should have known about it, and they do not take appropriate action. c) Employers are only responsible for hostile work environment harassment in cases where an employee files charges or a formal complaint, and the employer does not take appropriate action. d) Employers are never responsible for hostile work environment harassment.

The correct answer is B. Legally speaking, employers are considered liable if they knew or should have known about the occurrence of hostile work environment harassment and failed to take appropriate corrective action.

101. Which of the following best describes HR intervention known as Management by Objectives (MBO)? a) This is a method for developing training programs. b) This intervention aims to align measurements of employee performance with the organization's goals. c) This is an employee discipline method that aims to treat employees fairly and provide employees with an opportunity to correct problematic behavior. d) This is a quality management program that holds managers responsible for the quality of an organization's performance.

The correct answer is B. Management by Objectives is a performance appraisal system where employees and their managers agree to specific goals at the beginning of a rating period and periodically evaluate performance against the organization's targets.

109. Which of the following is not a legally mandated benefit? a) social security b) paid time off c) workers' compensation d) unemployment compensation

The correct answer is B. Many employers opt to offer employees the benefit of being compensated for some time that they do not spend working. However, this is not a legally mandated benefit.

72. Which of the following best describes a mission statement? a) This is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations. b) This is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors. c) This document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going. d) This document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business.

The correct answer is B. Mission statements should also differentiate an organization from its competitors.

68. Most employees who are paid by the hour are considered blank________ according to the Fair Labor Standards Act. a) exempt b) nonexempt c) excluded d) protected

The correct answer is B. Most (though not all) workers who are paid by the hour are nonexempt employees.

118. What would an employer use an OSHA Form 300 for? a) to provide more information about work-related illnesses and injuries, including what injured employees were doing before each incident b) to report particular incidents of work-related illnesses or injuries c) to review all work-related injuries and illnesses that take place at a worksite over the course of a year d) to detail the employer's response to a particular work-related illness or injury

The correct answer is B. OSHA Form 300, also known as the log of work-related injuries and illnesses, is used to report work-related injuries and illnesses. On this form, an employer records information about the type of injury or illness, how the injury or illness was caused, identifying information about the individual who was injured or became ill, and where and when the injury or illness took place. This form must be completed within a week of the employer's coming to be aware of the incident.

45. High rates of absenteeism may suggest: a) Reward programs are effective. b) Reward programs should be reconsidered. c) Employees are very satisfied with their jobs. d) The cost per hire for new employees is too high.

The correct answer is B. One metric to monitor performance and reward systems is the absentee rate, a measurement of employee absences each month.

89. Which of the following is a strategic role played by human resource management? a) managing employee records and administering employee benefits b) aligning HR priorities when organizations are in the process of restructuring c) conducting performance appraisals at the beginning of the year

The correct answer is B. Operational tasks tend to focus more on the day-to-day management of employees. Strategic tasks, on the other hand, tend to have more to do with the organization's future and assisting in meeting long-term goals.

111. In which of the following circumstances would outsourcing be most likely to be a good decision? a) when the outsourced task is one of the functions the organization believes differentiates it from its competitors b) when the outsourced task is not among the organization's core competencies c) when it would be more costly to have the task performed by employees d) when the outsourced task could be accomplished with better quality by employees at the organization

The correct answer is B. Outsourcing describes the increasingly common practice of paying an outside company to perform some specialized business function that is not within the main company's core competencies.

32. Which of the following is mostly used to assess the company as a whole? a) PEST (or STEP) analysis b) SWOT analysis c) demographic analysis d) all of the above

The correct answer is B. SWOT analyses are mostly used to assess the company as a whole.

66. An employee makes salary deferrals to their 401(k) plan. They earn $80,000 a year and decide to contribute $300 from their salary each month to their 401(k) plan. What is the employee's taxable income? a) $3,600 b) $76,400 c) $80,000 d) $83,600

The correct answer is B. Salary deferrals are employee-initiated contributions made in lieu of salary. These contributions lower an employee's taxable income. In this case, the employee's annual income is lowered by $3600 in total annual deferrals, bringing taxable income to $76,400.

61. Under HIPAA, which of the following would NOT qualify as protected health information? a) the results from an individual's blood test b) statistics relating to the prevalence of lung disease among a community of mining workers c) billing information for a patient who visits a walk-in clinic d) a patient's prescription record

The correct answer is B. Statistics relating to the prevalence of lung disease among a community of mining workers, rather than information about any one individual, are not protected under HIPAA.

9. Which of the following is true regarding the EEOC and the timeliness of complaints? a) In most cases, complaints must be filed immediately after the alleged incident. b) In most cases, complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged incident. c) In most cases, complaints must be filed within 3 years of the alleged incident. d) Complaints may be filed at any time; there's no restriction on how long an employee can wait to file a complaint.

The correct answer is B. Strict time limits apply to claims filed with the EEOC. Most claims must be filed within 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination.

50. Rules prohibiting discrimination against older employees are laid out in: a) Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act b) Age Discrimination in Employment Act c) Portal-to-Portal Act d) Equal Pay Act

The correct answer is B. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees or job candidates on the basis of age.

108. Summary plans are required for: a) all health plans b) group health plans c) flexible benefits d) defined-benefit plans

The correct answer is B. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act requires that summary plan descriptions be provided for group health plans.

122. The beliefs of a person or social group are known as which of the following? a) mission statements b) values c) vision statements d) all of the above

The correct answer is B. The beliefs of a person or social group are known as values.

18. Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) adverse impact c) disparate treatment d) minimum wage

The correct answer is B. The case of Griggs v. Duke Power established that discrimination could occur unintentionally but that an employer is responsible for that discrimination nonetheless.

115. An organization with a high cost-per-hire rate should: a) hire more employees b) look to decrease the costs of recruitment and training c) invest in more training for new employees d) terminate employees

The correct answer is B. The cost-per-hire metric can be used to see whether HR needs to cut onboarding expenses.

15. An organization is considering implementing a new comprehensive training program. Which of the following should they do first? a) They should consider whether funds are available for the program. b) They should conduct a needs assessment. c) They should consider whether anyone on the staff is capable of conducting the training. d) They should consider the value of bringing training experts in from other organizations.

The correct answer is B. The first step is to conduct a training needs analysis. It's possible such a comprehensive program is not needed at all! But if it is, the training needs analysis will identify specific training goals for employees by examining areas in the company that could be improved.

104. The performance evaluation process is best thought of as: a) a process with a defined beginning and end b) a cycle c) isolated to a formal evaluation that takes place once a year d) an opportunity to criticize an employee's performance without concern for sensitivity

The correct answer is B. The performance management process can be thought of as a cycle, no matter what type of system is adopted by an organization.

113. Which approach to job design focuses attention on a worker's comfort, whether it be with the equipment they use or the work environment's noise level? a) mechanistic b) biological c) motivational d) perceptual-motor

The correct answer is B. The pros of the biological approach include the attention paid to a worker's comfort, whether it be with the equipment they use, the work environment's noise level and temperature, and the amount of a workweek that is spent on the job.

57. Which of the following must identify whether a job is exempt from applicable minimum wage or overtime regulations? a) job analysis b) job description c) job specification d) job function

The correct answer is B. To comply with the Federal Labor Standards Act (FLSA), a job description must identify whether the job is exempt from applicable minimum wage or overtime regulations.

100. Which training type takes place in a classroom and replicates the work environment and equipment? a) simulation b) vestibule training c) internship d) apprenticeship

The correct answer is B. Vestibule training takes place away from the job site in order to shelter the employee from the pressures of the actual work.

34. Which statement accurately describes a PEST (or STEP) analysis? a) Researching internal opportunities that help an organization to achieve its goals. b) Analyzing weaknesses within the organization that may prevent it from reaching its goals. c) Assessing external factors that determine what threats and opportunities an organization may face. d) Comparing workforce data within an organization to assess its future labor needs.

The correct answer is C. A PEST analysis assesses external threats and opportunities that may arise from political, economic, social, and technological factors.

117. The amount paid to an insurance company for coverage is called: a) a deductible b) a down payment c) a premium d) a flexible spending account

The correct answer is C. A premium is the amount paid to an insurance company for an insurance policy or healthcare coverage.

78. Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when performing a ratio analysis? a) makes predictions about how technological advances will change workforce needs b) makes predictions about what skills new employees will need in the coming year c) uses historical information to predict staffing needs d) collects information from professionals to reach a consensus about a problem

The correct answer is C. A ratio analysis is a means for determining whether an organization has enough employees to meet the requirements of the company, and it involves using historical information to make predictions about the workforce needs in the organization's future.

95. Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when succession planning? a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization b) plan for the promotion of employees with no interest in supervisory positions c) plan for the promotion of employees with supervisory potential d) recruit applicants to fill positions externally

The correct answer is C. A succession plan identifies promising employees who have the potential to occupy managerial or executive roles in an organization.

125. The first step in the process of selecting new employees is: a) conducting background check b) sending employees to an assessment center c) conducting a job analysis d) assembling a panel to interview applicants

The correct answer is C. A thorough job analysis is at the core of successful hiring practices. Before applicants can be considered, employers must first know what skills, knowledge, and abilities are necessary to perform the job well.

88. An analysis that compares the availability of members of protected groups in the workforce with the job group is called: a) broadbanding b) benchmarking c) a utilization analysis d) a job analysis

The correct answer is C. A utilization analysis compares an organization's workforce to the available labor supply in terms of gender, race, and ethnic composition.

93. Which of the following best defines a vision statement? a) This is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations. b) This is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors. c) This document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going. d) This document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business.

The correct answer is C. A vision statement should be an inspiring piece that provides everyone involved in the organization—from employees to shareholders to customers—insight into the organization's future.

105. Employees are not entitled to FMLA leave in which of the following circumstances? a) to care for the employee's newborn b) to adopt a child c) to care for the employee's sick father-in-law d) to care for the employee's sick mother

The correct answer is C. According to the Family Medical Leave Act, employees are entitled to family leave to care for a sick parent. However, the law does not recognize in-law parents as parents.

107. What is the last step in conducting a training needs analysis? a) budgetary estimations b) carrying out the training c) identifying the competency gap to be addressed d) identifying solutions

The correct answer is C. All the other answer choices refer to aspects of training programs that are not part of a training needs analysis.

119. What is the goal of an organizational audit? a) to reduce the cost per hire of employees b) to determine how to train new hires during the orientation process c) to review the company's assets, policies, and practices d) to establish if anything negligent occurred during the recruitment and selection of a recent hire

The correct answer is C. An organizational audit is a comprehensive review of the company's assets, policies, and practices that focuses on six areas: company mindset, competence, performance or consequence, governance, capacity for change, and leadership.

30. Age would count as a bona fide occupational qualification in which of the following situations? a) when hiring employees to work with cutting-edge technology b) when hiring employees to work extensively with customers c) when hiring employees to serve alcohol d) when hiring employees to meet frequent and high-pressure deadlines

The correct answer is C. Bona fide occupational qualifications are personal characteristics that legitimately affect a person's ability to perform a job, and employers are allowed to take these qualifications into consideration when making hiring decisions. Because individuals under the age of 21 may not legally serve alcohol, age is a bona fide occupational qualification in this case.

35. During the strategic planning process, goals with clearly identified milestones are known as which of the following? a) realistic goals b) specific goals c) measurable goals d) action-oriented goals

The correct answer is C. During the strategic planning process, goals with clearly identified milestones are known as measurable goals.

22. Which of the following is most characteristic of the disengagement stage of the career life cycle? a) During this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time. b) During this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low. c) During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. d) During this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases.

The correct answer is C. During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. Leaving the organization might become a serious consideration.

59. How many credits must an employee earn by contributing to the Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance program in order to retire and collect a percentage of their income? a) 100 b) 60 c) 40 d) 10

The correct answer is C. Employees may earn up to four credits a year for their contributions, and employees who have earned at least 40 credits are eligible to retire and collect a percentage of their income from Social Security.

41. The legal requirement that samples collected for drug testing be carefully tracked and documented is referred to as: a) double negative b) false positive c) chain of custody d) validity

The correct answer is C. Employees may sometimes be terminated for failing drug or alcohol tests. To protect the reliability of those tests, employers must keep a log of each person who was responsible for the sample from the time it is collected from the employee until it is tested at the appropriate facility.

80. Which of the following injuries should an employer report to OSHA? a) An employee deliberately harms themselves while at work. b) An employee develops food poisoning while at work after eating lunch they brought from home. c) An employee experiences an allergic reaction to a chemical used in the workplace and has to take the rest of the day off. d) An employee develops an allergy to medication they are taking for a non-work-related illness.

The correct answer is C. Employers must generally report injuries or illnesses that take place in the workplace that result in death, days away from work, restricted work or transfer, loss of consciousness, or medical treatment beyond first aid.

49. When a manager hires a candidate based on the employer's recommendation and overlooks potential issues in the candidate's resume, this is an example of: a) central tendency error b) contrast error c) halo effect d) leniency error

The correct answer is C. Halo effect occurs when a manager judges an applicant on only one trait or attribute and allows that judgment to influence their judgment of other unrelated traits.

54. When more stimulating and rewarding work is added to a job during redesign, this is called: a) job simplification b) job enlargement c) job enrichment d) job creation

The correct answer is C. Job enrichment is an attempt to add more stimulating and rewarding work into a particular job.

98. Long-term disability benefits are available when: a) A person does not want to exhaust their sick leave. b) A person does not want to use their short-term disability insurance. c) Sick leave and short-term benefits are exhausted. d) There is no such thing as long-term disability insurance.

The correct answer is C. Long-term disability insurance coverage begins once short-term disability insurance runs out.

16. Which of the following is a technique that would best be used to set behavioral expectations for employees? a) work simplification b) team-building programs c) new employee orientation programs d) supervisory skills training programs

The correct answer is C. Orientation programs are an opportunity to establish behavioral expectations for new employees, ensuring everyone within an organization understands the standards and expectations to which they are subject.

94. Which of the following describes a case of quid pro quo harassment? a) A supervisor's direct report repeatedly makes sexual advances toward her. b) An employee works in an office where his colleagues frequently make crude, sexual jokes that make him uncomfortable. c) An employee's supervisor suggests that she may have a bright future at the company if she spends some private time with him over the holidays. d) An employee working the front desk at a business frequently receives unwelcome and sexually explicit phone calls.

The correct answer is C. Quid pro quo harassment a situation in which a person in authority, usually a supervisor, demands sexual favors of a subordinate as a condition of getting or keeping a job benefit. C is the clearest example of quid pro quo harassment, although the other situations may constitute hostile work environment harassment.

73. Which act made it the case that injunctions could be used to end strikes only in instances where there is a threat of damage to property? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act

The correct answer is C. The Clayton Antitrust Act of 1914 clarified and strengthened many provisions of the Sherman Antitrust Act, but it specifically exempted labor unions from the law's provisions. It allows the use of injunctions to stop strikes only when there was a threat of damage to property.

6. Which of the following individuals is in violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act? a) an 18-year-old working at a hazardous worksite b) a minor employed by a parent c) a 15-year-old working during school hours d) a 13-year-old working on a parent's farm

The correct answer is C. The FLSA establishes criteria for child labor. According to these criteria, a 15-year-old would be permitted to work a limited number of hours at a nonhazardous job, but not during school hours.

23. What is the IRS 20-Factor test used to determine? a) if an employee is entitled to health insurance b) if an employee is entitled to a pension fund c) if an individual is an employee or an independent contractor d) how much an employer should withhold for federal taxes

The correct answer is C. The IRS 20-factor test is used to determine whether someone paid to complete work for an organization is a proper employee or an independent contractor. The weight of each factor in determining whether a worker is an employee or an independent contractor varies from case to case, depending on the services rendered.

87. Which of the following provides a complete measure of how much each employee costs an organization? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI

The correct answer is C. The Total Compensation Expense Per Employee is a more complete measure of the financial cost of each worker. It is compensation cost plus benefits cost divided by the total number of full-time employees.

124. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures require that employment tests are: a) reliable b) valid c) both reliable and valid d) neither reliable nor valid

The correct answer is C. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) require that all employment tests given to job applicants be both reliable and valid.

114. Which of the following acts requires that employees be given 60 days' notice before mass layoffs? a) NLRA b) FLSA c) WARN d) ADEA

The correct answer is C. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification (WARN) Act, enacted in 1988, requires larger employers to give their workers advance notice in the event of mass layoffs or plant closings.

106. Which job forecasting technique involves participants attending a structured meeting with the goal of coming to an agreement about a solution to a problem? a) ratio analysis b) trend analysis c) nominal group technique d) Delphi technique

The correct answer is C. The nominal group technique involves participants attending a structured meeting with the goal of coming to an agreement about a solution to a problem. Consensus is reached after a series of discussions and presentations, which are guided by a facilitator.

123. Which element of a PEST (or STEP) analysis is primarily concerned with demographics? a) Political b) Economic c) Social d) Technological

The correct answer is C. The social element of a PEST (or STEP) analysis is primarily concerned with demographics.

25. Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) arbitration c) disparate impact d) disparate treatment

The correct answer is C. This case established the concept of disparate impact discrimination.

1. Who provides employee feedback during a 360-degree feedback appraisal? a) peers b) managers c) direct reports d) all of the above

The correct answer is D. 360-degree feedback includes evaluations from all levels of workers who interact with the employee who is being reviewed.

14. Which of the following best describes a corporate values statement? a) This is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations. b) This is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors. c) This document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going. d) This document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business.

The correct answer is D. A corporate values statement is a statement issued by executives at a company to employees that indicates how business should be conducted within that organization.

13. Which of the following describes a tool with four categories managers use for grouping employees who need to be replaced? a) job bidding b) succession plan c) dual career ladder d) replacement chart

The correct answer is D. A replacement chart categorizes employees in four ways and can assist managers and HR professionals in succession planning.

74. When an employee is accused of misconduct, which of the following actions should take place first: a) The employee should be terminated immediately. b) The employee's peers should be informed. c) A polygraph test should be administered. d) The complainant should be interviewed.

The correct answer is D. An employee misconduct investigation should begin with a precise definition of what conduct or behavior is being investigated and what evidence is needed to prove the alleged misconduct. This will typically require that the person alleging the misconduct be interviewed.

46. According to the FMLA requirements, which of the following employees is entitled to time off, with the understanding that they'd be reinstated upon their return? a) a secretary who has worked for 10 years at a company that employs 40 people and needs to care for an elderly parent b) an executive who is among the 5 percent of employees who are most highly compensated at a corporation who wants to spend time with a spouse with a terminal illness c) an employee who has been with a company for 10 months and is adopting a child d) an administrative assistant who has worked an average of 30 hours a week for 1 year and needs to care for a sick parent

The correct answer is D. Because this employee works more than 25 hours each week, the employee is entitled to unpaid family leave.

83. Continuation of coverage under COBRA need not be extended to employees who: a) resign b) are terminated c) are laid off d) are on medical leave

The correct answer is D. COBRA requires employers to extend a health care coverage purchase option after an employee is terminated, is laid off, or resigns.

37. Which of the following is an example of constructive discharge? a) a legal concept that provides individuals with protection against accusations or other statements that are damaging to their reputations b) a common-law protection that holds an employer responsible for the actions of employees when they are acting on behalf of, or are performing tasks for, the employer c) a common-law protection that may require an employer to follow through on promises made to an employee in certain situations d) a situation in which an employer makes a work environment so intolerable that an employee is forced to quit

The correct answer is D. Constructive discharge refers to a situation in which an employer has made the workplace so hostile and unpleasant that an employee chooses to quit. Many states allow former employees to sue in cases of constructive discharge, but the standard of proof varies considerably.

5. Which employees should have similar compa-ratios? a) employees with similar skills b) employees with similar responsibilities c) employees with similar levels of seniority d) all of the above

The correct answer is D. Employees in similar positions (which should include considerations of seniority, training, performance, etc.) should have similar compa-ratios.

27. Which of the following job announcements would be most appropriate for external recruiting? a) job bidding b) job posting c) succession planning d) posting the position on a community site

The correct answer is D. External recruiting involves making the position and associated job description available to people outside the organization. This is typically done using a combination of media sources, job boards, community sites, and social media platforms.

97. During the ADDIE process, when are formative evaluations conducted? a) just before the design process b) just after the implementation process c) formative evaluations are not part of the ADDIE process d) formative evaluations are conducted throughout the ADDIE process

The correct answer is D. Formative evaluations are conducted throughout the ADDIE process to inform design and development; they include needs assessment, jobs analysis, pilot testing, and pre-testing.

10. Giving full attention to what other people are saying is known as which of the following? a) oral comprehension b) critical thinking c) speaking d) active listening

The correct answer is D. Giving full attention to what other people are saying is known as active listening.

29. Which of the following metrics considers how well employees are generating revenue given their compensation and benefits packages? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI

The correct answer is D. Human capital ROI (return on investment) is a common measure of an organization's financial success. It examines how much revenue employees produce in relation to their compensation packages.

40. Ensuring that employees with similar skills and responsibilities in the same organization are within the same pay range is called: a) broadbanding b) wage compression c) external equity d) internal equity

The correct answer is D. Internal equity involves ensuring that the pay levels within an organization correspond to the level of responsibility and skills required for the job.

75. A pay-for-performance plan is best used to promote: a) pay equity b) collaboration between managers and employees c) longevity d) increased output

The correct answer is D. One of the benefits of pay for performance is that it can motivate high performance and cut company costs in the event of low performance.

7. Which of the following is not covered by the FLSA? a) minimum wage b) child labor c) record-keeping d) procedures for discharging employees

The correct answer is D. Procedures for discharging employees are not covered by the FLSA.

63. The aim of progressive employee discipline is: a) to provide justification for terminations b) as a documentation exercise c) as a form of punishment d) to change behavior and get the best results possible

The correct answer is D. Progressive discipline involves steps that become progressively more severe and are designed to change an employee's inappropriate behavior and get the best possible results.

2. Which of the following employers would be required to notify employees of a mass layoff 60 days in advance according to the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN)? a) an employer with 90 full-time workers on staff b) an employer required to layoff employees following the abrupt cancellation of a large contract c) an employer required to layoff employees following a natural disaster d) an employer with 80 full-time and 30 part-time employees working more than 4,000 hours a week

The correct answer is D. The Act applies to employers with 100 or more full-time employees, or 100 or more full- and part-time employees who work a combined 4,000 or more hours per week. Employers are only excused from the requirement in exceptional circumstances.

52. Which of the following forecasting techniques involves experts independently developing and refining forecasts? a) ratio analysis b) trend analysis c) nominal group technique d) Delphi technique

The correct answer is D. The Delphi technique is a way to forecast future job needs that combines the input and expertise of many professionals who never physically meet but come to a consensus over time through questionnaires and anonymously-provided responses.

71. Which of the following is prohibited by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act? a) discrimination against pregnant women when making hiring decisions b) discrimination against women when it comes to fringe benefits c) discrimination against pregnant women when seniority rights are concerned d) all of the above

The correct answer is D. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act prohibits discrimination against pregnant women in different areas of employment, such as hiring, firing, seniority rights, job security, and receipt of fringe benefits.

77. Retaliation against whistleblowers is prohibited by: a) the National Labor Relations Board b) the Financial Accounting Standards Board c) the Walsh-Healey Act d) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act

The correct answer is D. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act prohibits employers from discriminating against whistleblowers. Within this act, whistleblowers refer to employees who disclose information that they reasonably believe is in violation of federal securities law, SEC rules, or any federal law related to fraudulent behavior against shareholders.

43. Which act guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act

The correct answer is D. The Wagner Act, also known as the National Labor Relations Act, guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers. It created the National Labor Relations Board to arbitrate deadlocked labor disputes, ensure democratic union elections, and penalize unfair labor practices by employers.

99. Essential job functions listed in a job description should focus on: a) skills b) personality traits c) the manner in which a job will be completed d) desired outcomes

The correct answer is D. The job description states the tasks performed on the job and the purpose of the job. However, employers should avoid specifying exactly how those outcomes should be brought about, or else they may inadvertently discriminate against qualified applicants.

60. Which of the following metrics indicates how well a company is doing at retaining employees? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) turnover rate

The correct answer is D. The turnover rate is the number of workers leaving a department at a particular pay grade and performance level divided by the average number of workers employed at that grade and performance level.

102. Which of the following is a term that describes a person or entity that is not directly involved in a transaction? a) partnership b) overhead c) co-source d) third party

The correct answer is D. Third party is a term that describes a person or entity that is not directly involved in a transaction.

48. Which of the following interview questions would most likely be appropriate and would not violate equal employment opportunity regulations? a) What is your marital status? b) How many children do you have? c) Are there any health issues that run in your family? d) Are you willing to relocate if necessary?

The correct answer is D. This is an appropriate interview question so long as it is related to the job that the applicant is interviewing for and it is asked of all applicants for that position.