Apollon Bacteriology
63. Match the following organisms with the biochemical test that presumptively identify them. a. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. alpha-hemolytic streptococci d. group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci e. Enterococcus
Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci: Bacitracin susceptible Streptococcus pneumoniae: Optochin disk susceptible alpha-hemolytic streptococci: Optochin disk resistant group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci: hippurate hydrolysis positive, CAMP test positive Enterococcus: bile esculin positive
156.2. Holt-Harris EMB medium
Indicators: eosin Y and methylene blue Sugar: lactose and sucrose Colony appearance: black or purple, colorless
156.3. Levine's EMB agar
Indicators: eosin Y and methylene blue Sugar: lactose only Colony appearance: black or purple, colorless
163.5. Brilliant Green Agar
Inhibitor: brilliant green only (inhibitor for gram-positive organisms and coliforms) Indicator: phenol red Colony appearance: whitish "snowflake" colony surrounded by brilliant red agar
156.1. MacConkey medium
Inhibitor: crystal violet, bile salts Indicator: neutral red Sugar: lactose Colony appearance: brick red, colorless
163.2. Bismuth-sulfite
Sugar: glucose (dextrose) H2S indicator: ferrous sulfate Inhibitor: brilliant green only (inhibitor for gram positive organisms and coliforms) Colony appearance: black colonies surrounded by black zone with metallic sheen; green colonies
163.1. Salmonella-Shigella
Sugar: lactose only Inhibitor: bile salts, brilliant green, citrate to inhibit coliforms and Proteus Indicator: neutral red Colony appearance: red colonies; colorless colonies
163.4. Hektoen Enteric Agar
Sugar: lactose, sucrose, salicin Indicators: bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin H2S indicator: ferric ammonium citrate, sodium thiosulfate Colony appearance: orange salmon pink colonies; blue green colonies with black centers; green colonies
163.3. Xylose-Lysine-Deoxycholate
Sugar: xylose, lactose, sucrose Indicator: phenol red H2S indicator: ferric ammonium citrate, sodium thiosulfate Inhibitor: citrate to inhibit coliforms and Proteus Colony appearance: red colonies with black centers; red colonies
129. Which of the following is anaerobic? a. Actinomyces b. Nocardia c. Mycobacterium d. Bordetella
a. Actinomyces
53. Some citrate-positive organisms cause a false-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate a. And releases calcium b. As a source of calcium c. As a beta-lactamase d. And releases oxygen
a. And releases calcium
34. Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing? a. Antimicrobial Removal Device b. Isolator c. Septi-Check d. none of the above
a. Antimicrobial Removal Device
16. Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven? a. Bacillus subtilis b. Bacillus stearothermophilus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Salmonella typhi
a. Bacillus subtilis
196. Which of the following clostridia produce a double zone of hemolysis around colonies on blood agar? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Clostridium tetani c. Clostridium sphenoides d. Clostridium difficile
a. Clostridium perfringens
194. Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal "lollipop" spores? a. Clostridium tetani b. Eubacterium lentum c. Clostridium butytiricum d Bacteroides ureolyticus
a. Clostridium tetani
96. The terms "palisading", "picket fence", and "Chinese letters" describe the common arrangement of cells of a. Corynebacterium b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria c. Actinomyces but not Nocardia d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not other corynebacteria
a. Corynebacterium
177. An organism isolated from a blood culture has the following reactions Gram-negative rod TSIA A/A +G IMViC --++ motile; lysine decarboxylase (-); no capsule a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Serratia marcescens
a. Enterobacter cloacae
132. Identify the organism associated with the following conditions. a. meningitis b. ulcerative chancroid c. pinkeye d. normal flora in respiratory tract
a. H. influenzae: meningitis b. H. ducreyi: ulcerative chancroid c. H. aegyptius: pinkeye d. H. haemolyticus: normal flora in respiratory tract
39. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as a. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis b. Neisseria, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis c. Haemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix, Vibrio d. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria, Listeria
a. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
186. Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Moraxella osloensis b. Xanthomonas maltophilia c. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype anitratus d. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype iwoffi
a. Moraxella osloensis
153. Which of the following microorganisms form colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a "fried egg" appearance? a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Clostridium difficile d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
75. Gram-negative, coffee bean shaped diplococcic with adjacent sides flatted is descriptive of which of the following? a. Neisseria b. Staphylococcus c. Listeria d. Chlamydia
a. Neisseria
88. A fastidious, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a rectal swab might be a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Listeria d. Branhamella catarrhalis
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
30. Which of the following is NOT gram negative? a. Peptococcus b. Salmonella c. Branhamella d. Aeromonas
a. Peptococcus
52. What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test a. Rabbit b. Human c. Sheep d. Horse
a. Rabbit
69. Identify the organism associated with the disease. a. Scarlet fever b. major pathogen of newborn c. "strep throat" d. subacute bacterial endocarditis
a. Scarlet fever: group A streptococci b. major pathogen of newborn: group B streptococci c. "strep throat": group A streptococci d. subacute bacterial endocarditis: alpha-hemolytic streptococci
147. "Rice water" stools often contain a. a pure culture of Vibrio cholera b. toxigenic Clostridium botulinum c. toxigenic Staphylococcus aureus d. undigested aflatoxin-contaminated rice kernels
a. a pure culture of Vibrio cholera
197. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is incubated a. aerobically, in a sealed container, in carbon dioxide b. anaerobically in a GASPAK c. aerobically d. none of the above
a. aerobically, in a sealed container, in carbon dioxide
157. Nonfermenters produce what reaction in triple sugar iron agar (TSIA)? a. alkaline slant, alkaline or neutral butt b. acid slant, acid butt c. acid slant, alkaline butt d. alkaline slant, acid butt
a. alkaline slant, alkaline or neutral butt
10. Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called a. anaerobes b. aerobes c. capnophiles d. aerotolerant
a. anaerobes
191. Peptococcus and Peptostreptococcus are both a. anaerobic, gram positive cocci b. microaerophilic c. aerobic, gram negative rods d. anaerobic, gram positive rods
a. anaerobic, gram positive cocci
192. Propionibacteria are a. anaerobic, gram-positive rods b. anaerobic, gram-negative rods c. aerobic, gram-negative rods d. anaerobic, gram-positive rods
a. anaerobic, gram-positive rods
131. Nocardia will grow on any media that does not contain a. antibiotics b. blood serum c. peptone d. agar
a. antibiotics
213. Substances, produced by microorganism, that in very small amounts inhibit other microorganisms are called a. antibiotics b. antibody c. antiseptic d. a and b
a. antibiotics
15. What is the most effective method of sterilization a. autoclave b. dry heat oven c. boiling d. disinfection
a. autoclave
211. What is erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)? a. cardinal sign of Lyme disease at site of tick bite b. detects the entry of hookworm larvae c. initial stage of psittacosis d. rash in rickettsial infections
a. cardinal sign of Lyme disease at site of tick bite
45. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from a. cerebrospinal fluid sediment b. uncentrifuged cerebrospinal fluid c. heated cerebrospinal fluid d. frozen cerebrospinal fluid
a. cerebrospinal fluid sediment
48. Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal fluid? a. coagglutination tests b. latex agglutination tests c. counterimmunoelectrophoresis d. coagulase test
a. coagglutination test
22. What is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument, or environmental surface safe to handle? a. decontamination b. antisepsis c. disinfectant d. sterile
a. decontamination
18. Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by a. filtration b. chemical disinfectants c. antiseptics d. cannot be sterilized
a. filtration
37. What is the most common pathogen in throat cultures? a. group A Streptococcus b. alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Corynebacterium diphtheria
a. group A Streptococcus
72. Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate a. group A from group B streptococci b. group B streptococci from enterococci c. Listeria from streptococci d. pneumococci from other viridians streptococci
a. group A from group B streptococci
126. The Fite-Faraco acid-fast stain is different from other acid-fast stains because it uses a. hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain b. carbol gential violet rather than safranin as a counterstain c. malachite green rather than hematoxylin as a counterstain d. India ink with no counterstain
a. hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain
136. What type of blood is used in blood agar plates for better production of beta-hemolysis of Haemophilus? a. horse b. sheep c. human d. rabbit
a. horse
116. Mycobacterial cultures should be incubated a. in 5% CO2 b. in increased humidity c. at 25C d. under anaerobic conditions
a. in 5% CO2
159. IMViC is a series of which of the following tests? a. indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate b. indole, motility, Voges-Proskauer, carbohydrate c. inositol, mannitol, Voges-Proskauer, citrate d. inositol, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, carbohydrate
a. indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate
92.What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium? a. inhibits normal flora b. enhances the medium c. enhances pleomorphism d. enhances granule production
a. inhibits normal flora
43. What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine? a. many squamous epithelial cells b. few white blood cells c. 1 to 2 red blood cells per high power field d. amorphous urates
a. many squamous epithelial cells
110. Identify the purpose of the following dyes or reagents used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast staining procedure. a. heat b. carbolfuchsin c. dilute methylene blue d. acid (3% HCl) alcohol
a. mordant: heat to speed staining b. primary dye: carbolfuchsin c. counterstain: dilute methylene blue d. decolorizer: acid (3% HCl) alcohol
106. Which of the following will differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from the corynebacteria? a. nonmotile and salicin negative b. motile and salicin positive c. nitrate positive and sucrose positive d. motile and urease negative
a. nonmotile and salicin negative
149. Campylobacter is a (an) a. obligate microaerophile b. obligate aerobe c. facultative anaerobe d. obligate anaerobe
a. obligate microaerophile
161. Most Enterobacteriaceae give what type of methyl red and Voges-Proskauer reactions? a. opposite b. similar c. identical d. none of the above
a. opposite
138. Which of the following species of Bordetella are urease and oxidase-positive a. parapertussis b. bronchiseptica c. pertussis d. none of the above
a. parapertussis
91. Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media? a. plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing b. may react with chemicals in the medium c. because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium d. none of the above
a. plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
173. If the negative nitrate reduction test does not change color after the powdered zinc is added, how is it reported? a. positive b. doubtful c. negative d. do not report
a. positive
74. Pneumococci that are resistant to penicillin should be tested for a. production of beta-lactamase b. bile solubility c. growth in NaCl d. resistance to bacitracin
a. production of beta-lactamase
23. What color do gram positive bacteria stain? a. purple b. green c. red d. maroon
a. purple
26. Acid-fast bacteria appear what color microscopically? a. red b. blue c. green d. purple
a. red
38. Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when beta-hemolytic streptococci are suspected? a. some may not produce beta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions b. streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions c. streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions d. neither a nor b
a. some may not produce beta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions
59. Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose? a. staphylococci b. micrococci c. a and b d. neither a nor b
a. staphylococci
8. In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the a. stationary phase b. logarithmic phase c. lag phase d. a and b
a. stationary phase
127. What specimen is usually used for the diagnosis of Hansen's disease? a. tissue juice b. blood c. sputum d. urine
a. tissue juice
189. Why should thioglycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used? a. to drive off oxygen b. to drive off hydrogen c. to activate the thioglycollate d. to deactivate the thioglycollate
a. to drive off oxygen
122. One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil and one tube is incubated uncovered. When is the covered tube observed? a. when growth appears on the uncovered tube b. after 1 week of incubation c. after 2 weeks of incubation d. at any time
a. when growth appears on the uncovered tube
185. How many tubes of Oxidation-Fermentation media is (are) inoculated and what precautions should be taken? a. 1 tube, under aerobic conditions b. 2 tubes, one covered with oil so air is excluded c. 3 tubes, under anaerobic conditions d. 2 tubes, under aerobic conditions
b. 2 tubes, one covered with oil so air is excluded
19. Which of the following is not a disinfectant? a. phenol b. 70% alcohol c. quaternary ammonium (“quatsâ€) d. 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde
b. 70% alcohol
104. Which of the following is a virulence test for Listeria monocytogenes? a. Elek test b. Anton test c. ELISA test d. Feeley-Gorman test
b. Anton test
108. Which aerobic, gram-positive, sporulating rods can cause food poisoning? a. Bacillus subtilis b. Bacillus cereus c. Mycobacterium phlei d. Clostridium ramosum
b. Bacillus cereus
195. Which of the following anaerobes causes an antimicrobial-associated diarrhea? a. Clostridium ramosum b. Clostridium difficile c. Clostridium butyricum d. Eubacterium alactolyticum
b. Clostridium difficile
55. The preferred method of differentiating S. aureus from S. epidermidis is a. Catalase test b. Coagulase test c. DNase or mannitol fermentation d. Phage typing
b. Coagulase test
100. The Elek test is for the detection of a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vivo b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro c. Bacillus anthracis toxin, in vitro d. Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vitro
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
99. Which of the following diphtheroids is found in the normal throat? a. Propionibacterium acnes b. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum c. Corynebacterium xerosis d. Rhodococcus equi
b. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum
181. An organism isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions: Gram-negative rod; urease and PD negative TSIA K/A +G +H2S; motile; LDC positive; indole-positive a. Salmonella spp. b. Edwardsiella tarda c. Citrobacter freundii d. Salmonella subgroup 3 (Arizona)
b. Edwardsiella tarda
151. "Clue cells" may be found in infections with a. Campylobacter coli b. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Legionella pneumophila d. Brucella canis
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
27. Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by which of the following methods? a. Hiss b. Kinyoun c. Ziehl-Neelsen d. negative staining
b. Kinyoun
143. A relatively slow growing and fastidious, gram-negative rod, that produces a characteristic brown pigment on Feeley-Gorman Agar is a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Legionella pneumophila c. Bordetella pertussis d. Brucella melitensis
b. Legionella pneumophila
105. Refrigeration of the specimen for several months may enhance isolation of a. psychrophilic blood bank contaminants b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Actinomyces
b. Listeria monocytogenes
206. Chlamydia are cultured in a. yolk sac of chick embryo b. McCoy cells c. blood agar d. tissue culture
b. McCoy cells
17. Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility? a. Seitz b. Millipore (0.22 um) c. Millipore (0.5 um) d. a and b
b. Millipore (0.22 um)
117. A slow-growing, unbranched, acid-fast rod that is nitrate reduction negative and niacin-negative is most likely to be a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium bovis c. Mycobacterium kansasii d. Actinomyces israelii
b. Mycobacterium bovis
56. Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females? a. S. epidermidis b. S. saprophyticus c. S. aureus d. S. hominis
b. S. saprophyticus
58. The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the United States a. Clostridium botulinum b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium perfringens d. Shigella dysenteriae type 1
b. Staphylococcus aureus
54. A non-hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram positive coccus is most likely to be: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci d. Streptoccus faecalis
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
193. A gram-negative, anaerobic coccus that produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light is a. Peptococcus b. Veilonella c. Neisseria d. Fusobacterium
b. Veilonella
20. Iodophores are composed of iodine and a. a phenolic compound b. a detergent c. 70% alcohol d. 90 to 95% alcohol
b. a detergent
36. What is the most abundant flora in throat cultures? a. Micrococcus b. alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus c. Escherichia coli d. Legionella pneumophila
b. alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
115. What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolysis of Tween 80 test? a. red b. amber c. green d. blue
b. amber
170. Gelatinase breaks down gelatin to a. sodium malonate b. amino acids c. hydrogen sulfide d. acetoin
b. amino acids
61. Cultures for beta-hemolytic streptococci must include a. incubation at 25°C to ensure growth of all strains b. anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains c. incubation with CO₂ d. media with glucose to show typical hemolysis
b. anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
64. Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serological test it is reported a. by genus and species name b. as "presumptive" with the name of the biochemical test used c. by its common name d. none of the above
b. as "presumptive" with the name of the biochemical test used
111. Non-acid fast bacilli retain which dye? a. green b. blue c. red d. orange
b. blue
162. What is the indicator in Simmons citrate agar? a. phenol red b. bromthymol blue c. bromcresol purple d. neutral red
b. bromthymol blue
184. Any organism that is indole-positive and nitrate reduction positive is also a. ONPG-positive b. cholera red-positive c. ornithine decarboxylase-negative d. phenylalanine deaminase-positive
b. cholera red-positive
86. Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method? a. production of acid b. color change c. reduction of nitrates d. decolorization of a starch-iodine mixture
b. color change
73. A bacitracin-resistant, hippurate hydrolysis positive, bile esculin positive, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus that grows in 6.5% NaCl is probably a (an) a. pneumococcus b. enterococcus c. group D streptococci d. diphtheroid
b. enterococcus
70. What do the optochin and bacitracin tests have in common? a. autolysis is a negative results b. growth inhibition is a positive result c. they should not be done on blood agar d. either one will differentiate enterococci from viridians streptococci
b. growth inhibition is a positive result
41. Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to a. inhibit gram-positive bacteria b. inhibit gram-negative bacteria c. stimulate gram-positive bacteria d. stimulate gram-negative bacteria
b. inhibit gram-negative bacteria
214. Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following? a. cause death of microorganisms b. inhibit the growth of the organism c. a and b d. neither a nor b
b. inhibit the growth of the organism
33. From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically or anaerobically. This is most likely due to a. anaerobes b. inhibition by antibiotic therapy c. uncultivable bacteria, e.g., rickettsiae, mycoplasma, M. leprae d. the specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated
b. inhibition by antibiotic therapy
154. What is the best method for the identification of Mycoplasma species? a. nitrate reduction test b. inhibition of growth by specific antisera c. radial immunodiffusion test d. production of acetoin
b. inhibition of growth by specific antisera
144. At the present time, which of the following is most sensitive for the diagnosis of infections with Legionella pneumophila? a. demonstration of a significant rise in antibody titer b. isolation of organism by culture c. direct visualization of organism in tissue d. detection of soluble microbial products in body fluids
b. isolation of organism by culture
47. Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster? a. coagglutination tests b. latex agglutination tests c. counterimmunoelectrophoresis d. coagulase test
b. latex agglutination tests
224. When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides, there are two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be measured? a. measure the diameter of the inner zone b. measure the diameter of the outer zone c. measure both zones and take an average size d. zone cannot be measured
b. measure the diameter of the outer zone
220. What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used? a. maximum inhibitory concentration b. minimum inhibitory concentration c. minimum lethal concentration d. minimum bactericidal concentration
b. minimum inhibitory concentration
78. What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci? a. Lowenstein-Jensen b. modified Thayer-Martin c. sheep blood agar d. potassium tellurite
b. modified Thayer-Martin
118. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by a. growth rate b. niacin and nitrate reduction tests c. hydrolysis of Tween 80 d. catalase test at 68C
b. niacin and nitrate reduction tests
12. A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following characteristics may be present? a. blood agar is too old b. organism has a capsule c. plate was incubated too long d. plate was incubated at too high a temperature
b. organism has a capsule
84. What do "PPNG" gonococci produce? a. penicillin-producing gonococci b. penicillinase-producing gonococci c. a and b d. neither a nor b
b. penicillinase-producing gonococci
188. What does PRAS mean? a. prereduced, aerobically sterilized b. prereduced, anaerobically sterilized c. phosphate, rifampin, aerobically sterilized d. penicillin, rifampin, anaerobically sterilized
b. prereduced, anaerobically sterilized
221. If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when performing a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, what will happen to the growth? a. larger zone b. smaller zone c. confluent zone d. b and c
b. smaller zone (Moist plates increase diffusion of antibiotics)
158. What is the hydrogen sulphide indicator in triple sugar iron agar? a. tryptophan b. sodium thiosulfate c. ferric ammonium citrate d. alpha-naphthol
b. sodium thiosulfate
62. Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen? a. botulism toxin b. streptolysin O c. catalase d. coagulase
b. streptolysin O
60. Which hemolysin, produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci, is oxygen stable and non antigenic? a. streptolysin A b. streptolysin S c. streptolysin G d. streptolysin O
b. streptolysin S
68. When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units? a. 10.00 Units b. 5.00 Units c. 0.02 to 0.04 Units d. 1.0 to 2.00 Units
c. 0.02 to 0.04 Units
165. Testing 3 amino acids would require 4 tubes. Why? a. 2 tubes are needed for testing lysine b. 2 tubes are needed for testing arginine c. 1 tube is needed for a control d. only 3 tubes are needed
c. 1 tube is needed for a control
101. The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form takes a. 5 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours
c. 24 hours
187.Which of the following is part of the normal flora of the skin? a. Alcaligenes faecalis b. Xanthomonas maltophilia c. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype iwoffi d. Moraxella osloensis
c. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype iwoffi
128. "Lumpy jaw" is caused by a. Nocardia brasiliensis b. Trichophyton rubrum c. Actinomyces israelii d. Microsporum canis
c. Actinomyces israelii
109. Very large gram-negative rods with spores are seen in nonturbid thioglycollate broth culture of spinal fluid, but there is no growth anaerobically or aerobically. This is most likely due to a. too small an amount of inoculum that caused the organisms to die b. exchange of genetic material between Bacillus spp. and E. coli c. Bacillus spp. in the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram-negative by autoclaving the medium d. a very high spinal fluid glucose allows the E. coli to multiply in broth but not on solid medium
c. Bacillus spp. in the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram-negative by autoclaving the medium
137. Which of the following organisms cause whooping cough? a. Haemophilus haemolyticus b. Legionella pneumophila c. Bordetella pertussis d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Bordetella pertussis
150. A gram-negative, slender, curved rod with a single polar flagellum is the cause of enteritis and best isolated on a. sheep blood agar b. human blood Tween agar c. Campy blood agar d. XLD agar
c. Campy blood agar
148. A curved, gram-negative rod that is nonfermentive, nitrate-positive, and microaerophilic is a. Flavobacterium b. Spirillum minus c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Leptospira
c. Campylobacter jejuni
190. Nagler agar is as selective medium for a. Bacteroides b. Propionibacterium c. Clostridium d. Arachnia
c. Clostridium
29. An example of a negative stain is a. auramine-rhodamine stain b. Gram stain c. India ink stain d. methylene blue stain
c. India ink stain
113. An acid-fast stain that does not use heat as the mordant is which of the following? a. Truant fluorochrom stain b. Ponder stain c. Kinyoun stain d. Gomori stain
c. Kinyoun stain
102. Which of the following is a gram-positive to gram-variable coccobacillus? a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Listeria monocytogenes
210. What is the most common tick-borne disease in the U.S.? a. botulism b. cholera c. Lyme disease d. Legionnaires disease
c. Lyme disease
124. What are "lepra" cells? a. Neutrophils containing gram-negative-cocci b. Basophils containing gram-positive diplococcic c. Macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli d. Red blood cells containing acid-fast bacilli
c. Macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli
178. An organism isolated from a blood culture has the following reactions: Gram-negative rod, urease and PD positive TSIA K/A +G -H2S; LDC negative and ODC positive; motility positive or negative a. Proteus mirabilis b. Providencia alcalifaciens c. Morganella morganii d. Proteus vulgaris
c. Morganella morganii
130. Which of the following is urease-positive? a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Nocardia d. Chlamydia
c. Nocardia
205. Which of the following is a small, nonmotile, coccobacillus that is cultured in the yolk sac of a chick embryo? a. Chlamydia b. Mycoplasma c. Rickettsia d. Bifidobacterium
c. Rickettsia
204. Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wall? a. viruses and Chlamydia b. Mycoplasmas and Chlamydia c. Rickettsias and Chlamydia d. Rickettsias and viruses
c. Rickettsias and Chlamydia
179. An organism isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions: Gram-negative rod, urease and PD negative; TSIA K/A -G -H2S; LDC negative; nonmotile a. Salmonella subgroup 3 (Arizona) b. Proteus mirabilis c. Shigella spp. d. Citrobacter freundii
c. Shigella spp.
49. Which of following is not the cause of a venereal disease? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Treponema pallidum c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Staphylococcus aureus
32. If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials? a. tryptic soy broth b. antihistamine c. Thiol broth d. brain-heart infusion broth
c. Thiol broth
199. Which of the following organisms produces no haze in a broth culture? a. Mycoplasma hominis b Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Ureaplasma urealyticum d. Chlamydia psittaci
c. Ureaplasma urealyticum
94. When culturing Corynebacterium dipththeriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production? a. Loeffler serum agar b. Pai coagulated egg medium c. a and b d. neither a nor b
c. a and b
217. In the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the 0.5 McFarland nephelometer standard is used to a. measure the thickness of the media in the petri plate b. determine how close the antibiotic disks should be placed c. adjust turbidity of the inoculum d. all of the above
c. adjust turbidity of the inoculum
120. Which differential test for identifying the species of Mycobacterium splits phenolphthalein from tripotassium phenolphthalein-sulfate within 2 to 3 days? a. catalase test b. Tween 80 hydrolysis test c. arylsulfatase test d. nitrate reduction test
c. arylsulfatase test
198. A positive urease test for ureaplasmas is indicated by a a. clear zone surrounding the colonies b. green zone surrounding the colonies c. brown halo surrounding the colonies d. red halo surrounding the colonies
c. brown halo surrounding the colonies
103. Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive in which of the following biochemical tests? a. coagulase test b. lactose fermentation test c. catalase test d. a and c
c. catalase test
139. The preferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is a. Bordet-Gengou medium b. chocolate agar c. charcoal-cephalexin agar d. clotted rabbit blood
c. charcoal-cephalexin agar (aka Regan Lowe)
107. Spore-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of Bacillus anthracis can be found in a. specimen from patient b. guinea pigs c. cultures d. none of the above
c. cultures
172. The DNase test is based on a. color b. turbidity indicating growth in a medium containing DNA c. destruction of sugars in the culture medium d. product detection of DNA degradation by DNase
c. destruction of sugars in the culture medium (Apollon) d. product detection of DNA degradation by DNase (Delost, p.144)
209. Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears? a. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. direct FA using monoclonal antibodies d. indirect FA using Chlamydia antigens
c. direct FA using monoclonal antibodies
80. Thayer-Martin medium is basically a (an) a. blood agar b. enriched MacConkey agar c. enriched chocolate agar d. potassium tellurite agar
c. enriched chocolate agar
95. What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? a. gram-negative, motile cocci b. gram-positive, motile cocci c. gram-positive, nonmotile rods d. gram-negative, nonmotile rods
c. gram-positive, nonmotile rods
71. The bile esculin test is used to differentiate a. enterococci from other group D streptococci b. Streptococcus faecalis from Listeria c. group D streptococci from other streptococci d. pnemococci from other viridians streptococci
c. group D streptococci from other streptococci
215. The time it takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood is called the a. full-life b. absorption time c. half-life d. real-life
c. half-life
24. The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain is a. Gram's iodine b. auramine c. heat d. acid-alcohol
c. heat
167. Organisms that produce urease do what to the medium? a. produce phenylpyruvic acid b. liquefy the medium c. hydrolyze urea to NH4OH d. produce hydrogen sulphide
c. hydrolyze urea to NH4OH
223. In Mueller-Hinton agar, what can cause increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides? a. decreased peptone b. decreased sodium chloride c. increased Ca++ and Mg++ d. decreased Ca++ and Mg++
c. increased Ca++ and Mg++
164. Which of the following amino acids are used in the test for decarboxylase? a. cadaverine, putrescine, ornithine b. ornithine, arginine, cadaverine c. lysine, arginine, ornithine d. arginine, putrescine, cadaverine
c. lysine, arginine, ornithine
57. Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from stool cultures by the use of a. potassium tellurite medium b. McConkey agar c. medium with 7.5% salt concentration d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
c. medium with 7.5% salt concentration
229. Check the face velocity of safety cabinets each a. day b. week c. month d. year
c. month
230. Settings of rpms marked on the face of the rheostat control on the centrifuge should be checked once a. weekly b. daily c. monthly d. every other week
c. monthly
11. The temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as a. thermophilic b. psychrophilic c. optimum d. mesophilic
c. optimum
21. Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by a. heat b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. organic material d. tap water
c. organic material
222. Which of the following are the best indicators of poor storage a. chloramphenicol and cephalosporins b. lincomycin and penicillin c. penicillin and methicillin d. methicillin and lincomycin
c. penicillin and methicillin
180. Which of the following allows visibility of acid production by oxidizer in Oxidation-Fermentation (O-F) Medium? a. carbohydrate content is high b. sodium chloride content is low c. peptone content is low d. peptone content is high
c. peptone content is low
3. Capsules can be used for a. complement fixation test b. hemagglutination test c. serotyping by swelling d. precipitation test
c. serotyping by swelling
42. Why is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine cultures? a. specimen is diluted b. bacterial are all motile c. specimen is more concentrated d. a and b
c. specimen is more concentrated
203. Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia? a. typhus b. Q fever c. typhoid fever d. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
c. typhoid fever
183. Which of the following is the reagent used for the String test? a. methyl red b. bromthymol blue c. carbohydrate d. 0.5% sodium deoxycholate
d. 0.5% sodium deoxycholate
140. A Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thioinin or basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella? a. Brucella canis b. Brucella abortus, biotype 1 c. Brucella suis, biotype 1 d. Brucella melitensis, biotype 1
d. Brucella melitensis, biotype 1
31. Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe? a. Veilonella b. Fusobacterium c. Actinomyces d. Campylobacter
d. Campylobacter (microaerophilic)
207. Genital cultures for sexually transmitted diseases include all of the following EXCEPT a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Herpes Simplex Virus c. Treponema pallidum d. Campylobacter jejuni
d. Campylobacter jejuni
51. A positive tube coagulase test is observed for: a. Bubbling b. Agglutination c. Liquefaction d. Clotting of plasma
d. Clotting of plasma
97. Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of a. Bacillus anthracis b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
176. An organism isolated from a urine culture has the following reactions: Gram-negative rod TSIA A/A +G IMViC ++-- motile urease-negative a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Serratia marcescens c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Escherichia coli
d. Escherichia coli
50. Using a sheep blood agar plate eliminates beta-hemolytic: a. Staphylocccus b. Neisseria c. Streptococcus d. Haemophilus
d. Haemophilus
134. A fastidious, small to filamentous, gram-negative rod from nasopharyngeal swab is most likely to be a. Actinomyces israelii b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Branhamella catarrhalis d. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Haemophilus influenzae
141. A gram-negative, fastidious bacillus that has been isolated from air-conditioning towers is a. Proteus vulgaris b. Brucella abortus c. Edwardsiella tarda d. Legionella pneumophila
d. Legionella pneumophila
142. A gram-negative, fastidious bacillus that is difficult to stain by the Gram stain is a. Proteus vulgaris b. Brucella abortus c. Edwardsiella tarda d. Legionella pneumophila
d. Legionella pneumophila
114. Which of the following media is clear so that colonies of mycobacteria can be examined microscopically? a. Mueller-Hinton Agar b. Lowenstein-Jensen c. Blood agar d. Middlebrook 7H11
d. Middlebrook 7H11
200. What is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia? a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
87. An oxidase-positive, gram negative coccus from a throat culture may be a. Staphylococcus b. an "EEC" c. Fusobacterium d. Neisseria
d. Neisseria
135. Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for cultures of Haemophilus? a. factor I b. factor III c. X factor d. V factor
d. V factor
155. What is the purpose of enrichment fluid media when culturing Enterobacteriaceae? a. extends lag phase of normal flora b. decreased lag phase of pathogens c. extends lag phase of pathogens d. a and b
d. a and b
168. Hydrogen sulfide production, other than in triple sugar iron agar, requires a. an organic source of sulfur b. a source of metal c. a buffer d. a and b
d. a and b
169. What color indicates a negative result in the malonate utilization test? a. green b. yellow c. blue d. a and b
d. a and b
201. Which of the following has both ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? a. Rickettsia b. Chlamydia c. viruses d. a and b
d. a and b
208. "TRIC" conjunctivitis includes which of the following? a. inclusion conjunctivitis b. trachoma c. trench fever d. a and b
d. a and b
218. After inoculating the Mueller-Hintonb plates for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before adding the disk a. 3 to 5 minutes b. not more than 15 minutes c. 30 minutes d. a and b
d. a and b
225. The lowest concentration of drug that will kill all but the minimum defined proportion of viable organisms after incubation for a fixed time under a given set of conditions is the definition of the a. minimum lethal concentration b. minimum bactericidal concentration c. maximum lethal concentration d. a and b
d. a and b
226. For quality control when monitoring reagents, how often should reagent disks be checked? a. when container is first opened b. once each week of use c. once each month d. a and b
d. a and b
89. Neisseria meningitides degrades which of the following sugars? a. glucose b. maltose c. lactose d. a and b
d. a and b
227. How often should catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents be tested? a. once each day of use b. once each week of use c. when vial is first opened d. a and c
d. a and c
98. Which of the following are considered diphtheroids? a. Corynebacterium xerosis b. Corynebacterium diphtheria c. Corynebacterium JK d. a and c
d. a and c
171. What indicates a positive DNase result after 0.1 N HCl is added to the plate? a. gels on refrigeration b. green slant c. agar becomes cloudy d. agar clears around the colony
d. agar clears around the colony
28. In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is a. heated saline b. acetone c. acetone-alcohol d. alcohol + HCl
d. alcohol + HCl
119. Which of the following are slow growers? a. Mycobacterium kansasii b. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. all of the above
d. all of the above
121. Which of the following is used for the identification of mycobacteria? a. biochemical reactions b. pigment production c. growth rate d. all of the above
d. all of the above
14. When using fractional sterilization the sequence is a. heating (kills vegetative bacteria) b. incubation (spores germinate) c. heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria) d. all of the above
d. all of the above
212. What are broad spectrum antibiotics? a. act against gram-negative bacteria b. act agains gram-positive bacteria c. act against bacterial and non bacterial organisms d. all of the above
d. all of the above
219. How does one measure the zone of growth inhibition for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test? a. on the underside of the plate b. with the unaided eye c. using a ruler, caliper, or template d. all of the above
d. all of the above
228. Record temperatures of incubators, water baths, heating blocks, refrigerators, freezers, and thermometers a. at each time of use b. at the beginning of each day. c. at the end of each day d. all of the above
d. all of the above
67. Which of the following serological test is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci? a. Phadebact test b. fluorescent antibody test c. Lancefield precipitin test d. all of the above
d. all of the above
76. The diagnosis of gonorrhoea in males can be made from a. positive urethral smear b. symptoms c. history d. all of the above
d. all of the above
82. Which of the following genera are oxidase positive? a. Moraxella b. Aeromonas c. Neisseria d. all of the above
d. all of the above
83. When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques can be used? a. put a drop of reagent on the colony b. rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of the reagent c. rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent d. all of the above
d. all of the above
85. Which of the following are methods for testing for the production of beta-lactamase? a. chromogenic cephalosporin method b. acidometric method c. iodometric method d. all of the above
d. all of the above
146. What does campy gas mixture consist of? a.10% CO2 b. 5% O2 c. 85% Nitrogen d. all of the above
d. all of the above (microaerophilic)
13. On blood agar plates a small zone of alpha-hemolysis surrounded by a zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known a. gamma-hemolysis b. beta-hemolysis c. alpha-hemolysis d. alpha-prime hemolysis
d. alpha-prime hemolysis
125. Acid-fast rods in a specimen from nasal mucosa a. are diagnostic for leprosy b. must be cultured on Hansen's agar for definitive identification c. are called "lepra cells" d. are not a diagnostic point
d. are not a diagnostic point
202. Rickettsias are transmitted by a. mosquitoes b. aerosol c. contamination d. arthropod vectors
d. arthropod vectors
182. Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Yersinia enterocolitica b. Aeromonas hydrophila c. Vibrio cholerae d. b and c
d. b and c
35. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because it a. removes some antimicrobials b. prevents phagocytosis c. neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum d. b and c
d. b and c
4. To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing a. antibiotics b. milk c. serum d. b and c
d. b and c
46. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usually stained with a. acid-fast stain b. Gram stain c. India ink stain d. b and c
d. b and c
9. Which genera of bacteria form spores? a. Corynebacterium b. Bacillus c. Clostridium d. b and c
d. b and c
123. Which of the following belong to Group IV (rapid growers)? a. Mycobacterium gordonae b. Mycobacterium smegmatis c. Mycobacterium phlei d. b and c
d. b and c (M. gordonae: Group II Scotochromogen)
90. Which of the following tests can give a presumptive identification of Branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from a middle-ear fluid? a. nitrate test b. urease test c. indole test d. beta-lactamase test
d. beta-lactamase test
145. The best medium for the isolation of Legionella is a. iron cystine agar b. Campy-thio afar c. V agar d. buffered charcoal yeast extract
d. buffered charcoal yeast extract
5. The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the a. nucleus b. cell wall c. flagella d. capsule
d. capsule
112. Acid-fast bacilli retain which dye? a. methylene blue b. malachite green c. gentian violet d. carbolfuchsin
d. carbolfuchsin
40. Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for a. determination of mycobacterial growth rate b. primary culture of anaerobes c. stool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shigella d. culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
d. culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
81. What color is a positive oxidase test? a. blue b. green c. yellow d. dark purple
d. dark purple
166. Which of the following is an enzyme that removes the amino group (NH2) from an amino acid? a. decarboxylase b. urease c. gelatinase d. deaminase
d. deaminase
175. What is the purpose of the ONPG test? a. determines the amount of glucose b. detects the fermentation of sucrose c. determines the amount of sucrose d. detects slow lactose fermenters
d. detects slow lactose fermenters
44. In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution? a. dilution is increased b. dilution is decreased c. dilution is increased 20% d. dilution is not affected
d. dilution is not affected
65. CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that a. reduces the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci b. hydrolyzes the B factor c. causes a change in color d. enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
d. enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
133. Which medium is preferred for the culture of most Haemophilus? a. nutrient agar b. tryptic soy agar c. Bordet-Gengou agar d. enriched chocolate agar
d. enriched chocolate agar
216. Resistance to an antibiotic can be transferred from a resistant to a susceptible organism by a. selective pressure b. mutation c. innate passage d. extrachromosomal plasmid
d. extrachromosomal plasmid
66. A positive Quellung test is a. oxidation but not fermentation b. virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen c. visible only by fluorescent light d. from capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction
d. from capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction
93. Potassium tellurite medium produces what color colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? a. green b. blue c. red d. gray-black
d. gray-black
152. Mycoplasmas are not true bacteria because they a. have 4 nuclei b. grow rapidly c. are anaerobic d. have no cell wall
d. have no cell wall
174. Salmonella, Shigella, Escherichia coli, and Serratia are all a. dextrose-negative b. lactose-negative c. common hospital-acquire urinary tract infectious agents d. members of Enterobacteriaceae
d. members of Enterobacteriaceae
6. Dark staining granules are called a. spores b. capsules c. cysts d. metachromatic
d. metachromatic
160. What is the indicator in the methyl red test? a. bromthymol blue b. phenol red c. bromcresol purple d. methyl red
d. methyl red
7. Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as a. psychrophilic b. thermophilic c. palisades d. pleomorphic
d. pleomorphic
25. How is a smear for an acid-fast stain fixed? a. methyl alcohol b. acid-alcohol c. Tergitol no. 7 d. slide warmer at 65 degrees Celsius for 2 hours
d. slide warmer at 65 degrees Celsius for 2 hours
79. Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer-Martin medium? a. nystatin b. vancomycin c. colistin d. trimethoprim lactate
d. trimethoprim lactate
