ATPL - Air Traffic Control

12. In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view? A. "Vectors" provided for navigational guidance or "Pilot NAV" with courses the pilot is responsible to follow. B. "Vectors" and "Pilot NAV" for pilots to use at their discretion. C. Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes and instructions.

A. "Vectors" provided for navigational guidance or "Pilot NAV" with courses the pilot is responsible to follow.

18. What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance? A. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. B. When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. C. Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.

A. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions.

5. How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? A. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. B. A route via airways or jet routes with VOR's and fixes used. C. A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

A. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.

62. When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach? A. Anytime at the pilot's discretion. B. Only at the MAP. C. Only when advised by the controller.

A. Anytime at the pilot's discretion.

49. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.

19. What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect? A. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing. B. Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance. C. Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request clearance prior to leaving the parking area.

A. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.

7. How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on the IFR flight plan? A. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude. B. List the initial and final fix with at least one waypoint each 200 NM. C. Begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

A. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude.

22. Aircraft are expected to A. Depart no earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. B. Depart no earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT. C. Depart no earlier than 15 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

A. Depart no earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT.

27. What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction read back? A. Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. B. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. C. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

A. Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors.

4. What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan? A. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. B. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. C. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

A. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi.

57. Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact? A. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. B. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. C. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

A. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.

63. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take? A. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. B. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. C. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

A. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.

41. What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain "VFR-on-Top"? A. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. B. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. C. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

A. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers.

17. Under what condition does a pilot receive a "void time" specified in the clearance? A. On an uncontrolled airport. B. When "gate hold" procedures are in effect. C. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

A. On an uncontrolled airport.

59. When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport? A. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. B. When aligned on the final approach course. C. When cleared for the approach.

A. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.

14. When does ATC issue a STAR? A. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. B. Only to high priority flights. C. Only upon request of the pilot.

A. Only when ATC deems it appropriate.

35. Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes? A. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. B. Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. C. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

A. Over all designated compulsory reporting points.

32. What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

A. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.

29. As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB), you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you Figure 242. - Airport Diagram. Figure 241. - Hot Spots. A. exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. B. exited onto Taxiway G. C. exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.

A. exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.

21. Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff A. from a runway intersection. B. from a runway intersection, only at night. C. from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.

A. from a runway intersection.

28. You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L." Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route Figure 242. - Airport Diagram. A. requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima. B. involves transiting HS 4. C. requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.

A. requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima.

53. TCAS II provides A. traffic and resolution advisories. B. proximity warning. C. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

A. traffic and resolution advisories.

37. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet? A. 200 knots. B. 210 knots. C. 250 knots.

B. 210 knots.

50. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

B. 500 feet or less to another aircraft.

48. What is the hijack code? A. 7200 B. 7500 C. 7777

B. 7500

64. What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach? A. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. B. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. C. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

B. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.

6. How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? A. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. B. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. C. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

B. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.

60. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency? A. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. B. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. C. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

B. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.

58. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? A. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. B. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. C. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

B. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

16. What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include? A. Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate. B. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate. C. Clearance limit and en route altitude.

B. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

66. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. C. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

B. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise.

51. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.

40. Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain "VFR-on-Top"? A. Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. B. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. C. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

B. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

30. What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. Read the clearance back in its entirety. B. Request a clarification from ATC. C. Do not accept the clearance.

B. Request a clarification from ATC.

13. What is the primary purpose of a STAR? A. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. B. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. C. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

B. Simplify clearance delivery procedures.

8. What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan? A. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. B. The entire route must be within radar environment. C. The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

B. The entire route must be within radar environment.

2. When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition? A. The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions. B. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion. C. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activate the VFR portion.

B. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion.

20. What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect? A. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. B. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block. C. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.

B. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block.

9. Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP? A. Upon approval of ATC. B. Upon approval of the owner. C. Upon signing a waiver of responsibility.

B. Upon approval of the owner.

25. Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as A. squares or rectangles around "HS and a number." B. circles or polygons around "HS and a number." C. triangles or blocks filled with "HS" and a number.

B. circles or polygons around "HS and a number."

33. As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are A. cleared to runway. B. hold short of or "cross." C. taxi to and "expedite."

B. hold short of or "cross."

26. An ATC "instruction" A. is the same as an ATC "clearance." B. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. C. must be "read back" in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

B. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.

56. With no traffic identified by TCAS, you A. can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area. B. must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. C. must scan only for hot air balloons.

B. must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions.

24. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should A. operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi. B. operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. C. be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxiing.

B. operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing.

52. TCAS I provides A. traffic and resolution advisories. B. proximity warning. C. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

B. proximity warning.

38. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport? A. 188 knots. B. 210 knots. C. 230 knots.

C. 230 knots.

47. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. 0000 through 1000. B. 7200 and 7500 series. C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

39. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take? A. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. B. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. C. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

C. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

45. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

23. When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing? A. Only when ATC specifically requests your transponder to be activated. B. Any time when the airport is operating under IFR. C. All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.

C. All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.

42. In what airspace will ATC not authorize "VFR-on-Top"? A. Class C airspace. B. Class B airspace. C. Class A airspace.

C. Class A airspace.

44. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

46. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

65. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach. B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

C. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

67. How should a pilot describe braking action? A. 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. B. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. C. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

C. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

10. Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight? A. Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs. B. Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC. C. Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

C. Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

61. While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes? A. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. B. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. C. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

C. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

15. What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs? A. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance. B. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup. C. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

C. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

11. To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word "LIFEGUARD" should be entered in which section of the flight plan? A. Aircraft type/special equipment block. B. Pilot's name and address block. C. Remarks block.

C. Remarks block.

34. What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000? A. Immediately climb to 9,000. B. Report climbing to 9,000. C. Report maintaining 8,000.

C. Report maintaining 8,000.

31. What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received? A. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. B. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. C. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

C. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

3. Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan? A. All compulsory reporting points en route. B. The VOR's that define the IFR portion of the flight. C. The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.

C. The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.

1. When a composite flight plan indicates VFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition? A. The VFR portion is automatically canceled and the IFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports IFR conditions. B. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel VFR and activate the IFR portion of the flight. C. The pilot should close the VFR portion with the nearest FSS and request the IFR clearance at least 5 minutes prior to IFR.

C. The pilot should close the VFR portion with the nearest FSS and request the IFR clearance at least 5 minutes prior to IFR.

43. What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized "VFR-on-Top"? A. The same afforded all IFR flights. B. 3 miles horizontally instead of 5. C. Traffic advisories only.

C. Traffic advisories only.

36. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

54. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B. request a new ATC clearance. C. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

C. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

55. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B. request ATC clearance for the deviation. C. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

C. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.