BIO 2 UNIT 3

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

70) When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of 70) ____ A) frequency-dependent selection. B) disruptive selection. C) sexual selection. D) stabilizing selection. E) balancing selection.

8) A field mouse population has a gene with two alleles, F and f. Seventy percent of the gametes produced in the population contain the F allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of the mice carry both F and f? A) 0.42 B) 0.7 C) 0.49 D) 0.21 E) 0.09

9. If Darwin had been aware of genes, and of their typical mode of transmission to subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement? A. If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones. B. If an individual's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring. C. A beneficial mutation in a gene in a gamete cell will, if perpetuated, produce a new species. D. Choices A and B both apply. E. Choices A, B and C all apply.

Each of the phenomena listed below might (or might not) result in a violation of the assumptions required to maintain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. For each one, provide the letter for the Hardy-Weinberg assumption that it violates. Phenomenon Hardy-Weinberg Assumptions A. the population is large B. there is no mutation C. there is no migration D. mating is at random E. all genotypes survive and reproduce equally well (no natural selection)

10._C_gene flow 11._A_population bottleneck 12._E_heterozygote advantage 13._D_ inbreeding

11) Races of humans are unlikely to evolve extensive differences in the future for which of the following reasons? I. The environment is unlikely to change. II. Human evolution is complete. III. The human races are incompletely isolated. 11) ____ A) III only B) I, II, and III C) II and III only D) I only E) I and II only

15. A trait in fireflies (bright or dull flashes) has two alleles in which the allele for dull flashes is recessive. A population of 112 fireflies that is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has 24 heterozygotes, 64 homozygous dominants, and the remainder exhibit dull flashes. What is the frequency of the bright-flash allele in this population? A. 0.68 B. 0.57 C. 0.66 D. 0.34 E. 0.79

16) The Galapagos islands are a great showcase of evolution because of intense _____. A) adaptive radiation and allopatric speciation. 16) ____ B) allopolyploidy and sympatric speciation. C) ecological isolation and sympatric speciation. D) hybrid vigor and allopatric speciation. E) cross-specific mating and reinforcement.

18. He had a good idea ("organisms evolve by adapting to their environment") but a faulty mechanism ("inheritance of acquired characteristics"). A. Lamarck B Aristotle C. Buffon D. Linnaeus E. Lyell

20. Darwin proposed that new species evolve from ancestral forms by ____. A. populations' gradual accumulation of heritable adaptations to varying environments B. populations independently converging on similar well-adapted phenotypes in different environments C. the accumulation of mutations in isolated populations D. the exponential growth of populations in new environments E. the use or disuse of morphological structures in separate populations

21) Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of 21) ____ A) the fossil record. B) evolution. C) natural selection. D) uniformitarianism. E) the origin of new species.

22. A midnight raid of gator poachers canoes down the Wakulla River and they kill off 84 of the 100 gators in the problem above, taking the population out of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and leaving only 12 gators that are heterozygous (Bb) for bad breath and 4 that have sweet-smelling (bb) breath (to another gator maybe!). What is the frequency of the recessive allele in the new population? A. 0.625 B. 0.16 C. 0.438 D. 0.375 E. it cannot be determined

22. Which of the following scientific names for the common blue crab is written correctly? A. Callinectes sapidus B. Callinectes Sapidus C. callinectes sapidus D. callinectes Sapidus (no choice E)

23) Which of these is the smallest unit that natural selection can change? A) a population's gene frequency B) a species' gene frequency C) an individual's genome D) an individual's phenotype E) an individual's genotype

24. A case of disruptive selection: a population of fruit-picking monkeys consists of monkeys with either long digits (making it easier to grasp large fruits) or short digits (better able to manipulate small fruits). A. True B. False

25. Which of the following represents an idea Darwin took from the writings of Thomas Malthus? A. Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply. B. The environment is responsible for natural selection. C. All species are fixed in the form in which they are created. D. Earth is more than 10,000 years old. E. Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.

27. If an allele is recessive and lethal in homozygotes for this allele, then which of the following is true? A. The allele will likely remain in the population at low frequency because it cannot be selected against when in a heterozygote. B. The relative fitness (w) of the homozygous recessive genotype is 1. C. The allele will be present in the population at frequency of 0.001. D. The allele will be removed from the population in approximately 1000 years. E. none of the above

27. Which of the following conditions are not necessary to maintain a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to the allele frequencies for a particular trait? A. mutations must be non-lethal B. all mature individuals must be equally likely to mate with one another C. there must be a large number of individuals in the population D. there can be no natural selection for one phenotype over another E. there can be no gene flow

27. Which statement best describes how the evolution of pesticide resistance occurs in a population of insects? A. A number of genetically resistant pesticide survivors reproduce. The next generation of insects contains more genes from the survivors than it does from susceptible individuals. B. Individual members of the population slowly adapt to the presence of the chemical by striving to meet the new challenge. C. Insects observe the behavior of other insects that survive pesticide application, and adjust their own behaviors to copy those of the survivors. D. All insects exposed to the insecticide begin to use a formerly silent gene to make a new enzyme that breaks down the insecticide molecules. E. B and D only

29) During drought years on one of the Galapagos Islands, small, easily eaten seeds become rare leaving only large, hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, then what should one expect to result from natural selection? 29) ____ A) More small-beaked birds dying than the larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks. B) Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts. C) Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, growing larger beaks. D) Larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive. E) Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks

32) In North America, there is a progresive decrease in ear length among populations of cottontail rabbits from the south to the north of their range. This is an example of _____. A) a cline. B) a bottleneck. C) genetic drift. D) geographic variation. E) relative fitness.

33) When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of _______. A) frequency-dependent selection. B) sexual selection. C) disruptive selection. D) balancing selection. E) stabilizing selection.

33. Which of the following is a likely result of genetic drift? A. gene fixation B. introduction of new alleles C. natural selection D. gene flow E. migration

36) If the HMS Beagle had completely bypassed the Galapagos Islands, Darwin would have had a much poorer understanding of _______. A) the ability of populations to undergo modification as they adapt to a particular environment. B) the tendency of organisms to produce a larger number of offspring than the environment can support. C) the age of Earth. D) the limited resources available to support population growth in most natural environments. E) how fossils of marine organisms could be found high in the Andes.

37. Which of the following is required for speciation to occur? A. reproductive isolation B. geographic separation C. substantial gene flow D. different selection pressures E. a population bottleneck

39) If, on average, 46% of the loci in a spopulation's gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the population should be _____. A) 54% B) 46% C) 92% D) 23% E) There is not enough information to say.

39) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would shed the most light on whether these structures are homologous or whether they are, instead, the result of convergent evolution? A) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical. B) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments. C) The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size. D) Both species reproduce sexually. E) The two species live at great distance from each other.

40) The theory of evolution is most accurately described as _______. A) a broad explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations change over time. B) an educated guess about how species originate. C) an opinion that some scientists hold about how living things change over time. D) an idea about how acquired characteristics are passed on to subsequent generations. E) one possible explanation, among several scientific alternatives, about how species have come into existence.

41) Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it? A) sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation B) sympatric speciation, allopolyploidy C) sympatric speciation, sexual selection D) allopatric speciation, ecological isolation E) allopatric speciation, behavioral isolation

41. In a small wooded area, one species of tree frog croaks ("calls") to attract mates in the morning and a second species gives the same call pattern in the early evening. This illustrates _____. A. prezygotic temporal isolating mechanism B. postzygotic temporal isolating mechanism C. prezygotic behavioral isolating mechanism D. postzygotic behavioral isolating mechanism E. gamete incompatibility isolating mechanism

46) A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. That the actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged is because _____. A) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species. B) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design. C) natural selection operates in ways that are beyond the capability of the human mind to comprehend. D) in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment as well. E) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will do so given enough time.

48) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.7. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous? 48) ____ A) 42 B) 21 C) 100 D) 49 E) 9

5) Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of homology? A) Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently. B) Dogs and wolves have very similar morphologies. C) Dogs and wolves are both members of the family Canidae. D) Convergent evolution has occurred. E) Dogs and wolves belong to the same order.

53) If one assumes that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to the population of colonists on this planet, about how many people will have attached earlobes when the planet's population reaches 10,000? 53) ____ A) 100 B) 10,000 C) 800 D) 1,000 E) 400

65) In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, both small- and large-billed birds are observed that specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change arises and eventuallyy results in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? 65) ____ A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) sexual selection D) stabilizing selection E) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

7. Kettlewell's experiment showing that light and dark-colored peppered moths had differential survival in sooty, urban environments compared to cleaner, rural environments was an important early experimental study that demonstrated _____. A. natural selection B. genetic drift C. melanism is a heritable trait D. early evidence of global warming E. frequency-dependent selection

Choose among these options to answer the following questions. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. random selection B. directional selection C. stabilizing selection D. disruptive selection E. sexual selection 41. Brightly colored peacocks mate more frequently than do drab peacocks. E 42. Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. B 43. The average birth weight for human babies is about 3 kg. C 44. A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate individuals are relatively rare. D 45. Pathogenic bacteria found in many hospitals are antibiotic resistant. B

E B C D B

A. frequency-dependent selection B. directional selection C. stabilizing selection D. sexual selection E. disruptive selection 12. A population of giant hissing cockroaches from Madagascar are pretty evenly divided among two strikingly different color patterns: very dark brown and very light golden. _____ 13. Male guppies with the flashiest longest fins mate more frequently than males with less showy fins. _____ 14. Farm-raised turkeys have been bred to now have disproportionately much more breast meat than wild turkeys. _____ 15. The pesticide malathion was once widely used but is now ineffective for mosquito control, as it fails to kill off these insects like it once used to. _____

E D B B

In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the AA, 480 have the genotype AB, and 360 have the genotype BB. 32. What is the frequency of the A allele? A. 0.001 B. 0.100 C. 0.002 D. 0.600 33. What is the frequency of the B allele? A. 0.001 B. 0.400 C. 0.002 D. 0.600 34. What percentage of the population has type O blood? A. 24 B. 48 C. 60 D. 0 E. 0.400 E. 0.100 E. 10 35. If there are 4,000 children born to this generation, how many would be expected to have AB blood under the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. 2,400 B. 100 C. 1,920 D. 2,000 E. 960

E D D C

Several closely related firefly species in the same genus are found in a wooded area in the Apalachian mountains. The species remain distinct by reproductive barriers. In each case, match the various descriptions of fireflies below with the appropriate reproductive barrier listed. 3) One species lives close to the ground; another species lives in treetops. A) temporal B) gametic C) mechanical D) habitat 4) Males of several different species choose mates based on different flash frequencies. A) behavioral B) habitat C) gametic D) mechanical 5) One species flashes at dusk, and another only flashes once darkness has completely fallen. A) habitat B) gametic C) mechanical D) temporal E) behavioral E) temporal E) behavioral 6) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's _____. A) nucleotide variability. B) average heterozygosity. C) diploidy. D) A and B E) A, B, and C

D A D D

1) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles that show complete dominance, the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.4. What percentage of the population has a homozygous genotype? A) 36 B) 4 C) 40 D) 16 E) 52

11. A population geneticist determines that 98 of the 200 crayfish in a pond at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are heterozygous for the gene controlling antennal length where the allele coding for for long antennae (L) is dominant to the recessive allele for short antennae (l). The frequency of the recessive allele for this trait in this population is ____. A. 0.70 B. 0.51 C. 0.58 D. 0.76 E. It cannot be determined from this information

18) Autopolyploidy initially arises from errors in ____. A) habitat selection. 18) ____ B) copulation. C) hybridization. D) embryonic development. E) meiosis.

19) In a hypothetical population's gene pool, an autosomal gene, which had previously been fixed, undergoes a mutation that introduces a new allele, one inherited according to incomplete dominance. Natural selection then causes stabilizing selection at this locus. Consequently, what should happen over the course of many generations? (read and think carefully!) A) The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease. B) The proportion of the population that is heterozygous at this locus should remain constant. C) The population's average heterozygosity should increase. D) Both (A)and (B) E) Both (A)and (C)

19. The inheritance of acquired characteristics was a major component of the evolutionary hypothesis proposed by whom? A. Aristotle B. Darwin C. Wallace D. Lyell E. Lamarck

21) All of the following are criteria for maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two alleles except ____. A) there should be no natural selection. B) matings must be random. C) gene flow from other populations must be zero. D) populations must be large. E) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal.

23) What percentage of the population has type AB blood? A) 0 B) 40 C) 70 D) 10 E) 20

23. During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement would you use to correct this student's misconception? A. Overproduction of offspring leads to a struggle for survival. B. Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. C. Only favorable adaptations have survival value. D. Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. E. Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.

23. Which of the following serve to introduce and/or maintain genetic variation in populations despite the trend for natural selection to increase the frequency only of the fittest individuals? A. epistasis B. mutation C. crossing over during meiosis D. A and B only E. A, B and C

26) If the frequency of a particular allele that is present in a small, isolated population of fiddler crabs decreases due to an oil spill that leaves even fewer crabs bearing this allele, then what has occurred? A) genetic drift B) a bottleneck C) microevolution D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

26. During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare leaving only large, hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, then what should one expect to result from natural selection? A. Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks. B. Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts. C. Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, growing larger beaks. D. Larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive. E. More small-beaked birds dying than the larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks.

26. The correct taxonomic hierarchy is: A. kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species B. kingdom, order, phylum, class, family, genus, species C. kingdom, order, phylum, family, class, genus, species D. species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom E. species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom

27) Mules are relatively long-lived and hardy organisms that cannot, generally speaking, successful produce gametes by meiosis. Consequently, which statement about mules is true? A) Mutations cannot occur in their genomes. B) When two mules interbreed, genetic recombination cannot occur by meiotic crossing over, but only by the act of fertilization. C) Their offspring have less genetic variation than the parents. D) If crossing-over happens in mules, then it must be limited to prophase of mitosis. E) They have a relative evolutionary fitness of zero.

3. The forelimbs of modern vertebrates such as a human, a bird, and a bat provide a nice example of _____. A. the inheritance of acquired characteristics B. the idea that ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny C. convergent evolution D. vestigial organs E. descent with modification from a common ancestor

30. Which observation from the fossil record adds to the support for evolution? A. Lower rock strata (layers) are typically older than higher rock strata. B. Many fossil organisms found in lower rock strata are extinct today. C. Species of fossils gathered from adjacent rock layers are often more similar than fossil species found in widely separated rock layers. D. Only A and B apply E. Choices A, B and C apply.

31. You sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous for a particular gene. What would be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population? A. 0.70 B. 0.30 C. 0.09 D. 0.49 E. Allele frequency cannot be estimated from this information.

33) Of the following anatomical structures, which is analogous to the wing of a bat? A) arm of a human 33) ____ B) dorsal fin of a shark C) tail of a kangaroo D) tail fin of a fish E) wing of a butterfly

35) Who was the naturalist who developed a concept of natural selection independently of Darwin? A) John Henslow B) Charles Lyell C) Thomas Malthus D) Gregor Mendel E) Alfred Wallace

37) Natural selection is based on all of the following except _____. A) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young. B) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. C) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring. D) genetic variation exists within populations. E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.

38) You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to _____. A) transfer only the largest flies. B) shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy. C) reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation. D) change the temperature at which you rear the flies. E) cross your flies with flies from another lab.

38. Snakes possess very reduced pelvic (hip bones) that no longer function; these bones are said to be _____, meaning that they were functional in one of their ancestral species. A. analogous B. transformative C. convergent D. adaptive E. vestigial

38. The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured by ________. A. how long it lives. B. its physical strength. C. the number of supergenes in the genotype. D. the number of mates it attracts. E. the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.

39) Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails just as fish do, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are 39) ____ A) homologous. B) examples of convergent evolution. C) adaptations to a common environment. D) A and C only E) B and C only

40. The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's ______. A. genetic diversity. B. heterozygosity. C. birth rate. D. A, B, and C E. A and B only

43. A study determined that for the past 10 years the frequency of the dominant allele for long dorsal fins in large-mouth bass in Lake Jackson has changed from 0.80 to 0.20. A likely explanation for this observation is that ________. A. natural selection does not act on this allele B. the gene for fin length is subject to frequent mutation C. individuals with long dorsal fins left more offspring than ones with a different phenotype D. the population is most likely in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium E. the allele for long dorsal fins reduces fitness

45) Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to Darwin having read Malthus's essay on human population growth? A) Descent with modification B) The ability of related species to be conceptualized in "tree thinking" C) Variation among individuals in a population D) That the ancestors of the Galapagos finches had come from the South American mainland E) Struggle for existence

47) All of the following are criteria for maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two alleles except 47) ____ A) there should be no natural selection. B) matings must be random. C) gene flow from other populations must be zero. D) populations must be large. E) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal.

5. Which of the following is not an essential element of evolution by natural selection? A. more offspring are produced than can survive to become parents themselves B. individuals with some traits produce more offspring than others C. variation among individuals is caused by genetic differences D. there is variation among individuals of a species E. all of these are essential elements of evolution by natural selection

50) For a large population of lizards in the Apalachicola National Forest, it has been determined that the dominant allele for eye color has decreased i n frequency from 0.9 to 0.6 over the past 20 years. From this change, one can most logically assume that, in this environment, _____. 50) ____ A) the allele mutates readily. B) offspring of lizards withthe dominant allele have a greater chance of surviving and reproduing. C) there is no sexual selection. D) the allele is neutral. E) the allele reduces fitness.

55) A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of 55) ____ A) a bottleneck. B) relative fitness. C) genetic drift. D) speciation. E) a cline.

56) In a population that is evolving via natural selection, the fitness of an individual is measured by A) its physical strength. 56) ____ B) how long it lives. C) the number of dominant alleles in its genome. D) the number of mates it attracts. E) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.

57) As terrestrial frogs metamorphose from aquatic tadpoles, they must rely on new food sources. Young frogs cannot initially distinguish between a stinging bumble bee and a non-stinging striped fly that mimics bees, but they soon learn to avoid eating any striped insect if they are more likely to first encounter a bee than a striped fly. This type of mimicry persists as a result of _____. 57) ____ A) evolutionary imbalance. B) disruptive selection. C) heterozygote advantage. D) sexual selection. E) frequency-dependent selection.

6. In a population that has just been reduced to a small size by a natural disaster (i.e., no longer in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium), you find a total of 6 survivors. Four have the genotype AA, 1 is Aa, and 1 is aa. What is the frequency of the A allele in this gene pool? A. 0.25 B. 0.40 C. 0.50 D. 0.60 E. 0.75

7. Which of the following would be most likely to cause genetic drift? A. a spontaneous change in chromosome number in a population B. movement of individuals from one population to another C. the production of more offspring by brighter colored individuals D. a tendency of individuals to prefer to mate with their relatives E. the initiation of a new population by a small number of individuals

8. Who believed that traits in a species could evolve by individuals attempting to become better adapted to their environment generation after generation? A. Linnaeus B. Darwin C. Aristotle D. Wallace E. Lamarck

In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their offspring randomly mate for generations. All ten of the original colonists had free earlobes, and two were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes. 52) Which of these is closest to the allele frequency in the founding population? A) 0.5 a, 0.5 A B) 0.2 a, 0.8 A C) 0.4 a, 0.6 A D) 0.8 a, 0.2 A E) 0.1 a, 0.9 A 52) ____

1. Which is true of vestigial traits? A. they have the same function in different species B. the are evidence of extinction C. they are caused by the environment rather than genetics D. they have no current function E. none of these is true of vestigial traits

10. All of the following would tend to maintain balanced polymorphism in a population except _____. A. disruptive selection B. frequency-dependent selection C. heterozygote advantage D. directional selection E. none of the above

12. In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the β hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool. What should be the proportion of heterozygous individuals in populations that live here? A. 0.04 B. 0.16 C. 0.20 D. 0.32 E. 0.80

13. Of the following, which would be the best measure of fitness of one individual bird in a population of sparrows compared to another individual? A. count the number of eggs each laid over their lifetime B. determine the age at which each one died C. count the number of times each one mated over the course of their lifetime D. count the number of young that left the nest each season E. determine the age at which each one

15. Laboratory studies have shown that male fruit flies that exhibit uncommon courtship behaviors father more offspring because females prefer to mate with them. When these same behaviors are common in a population, males exhibiting them are no longer preferred. This scenario describes _____. A. positive assortative mating B. negative assortative mating C. stabilizing selection D. frequency-dependent selection E. heterozygote advantage

16. A natural theologian who studied organisms and assigned them to a hierarchy of taxonomic categories, including genus and species, based on shared similarities was _____. A. Lamarck B Aristotle C. Buffon D. Linnaeus E. Lyell

17. Which is an example of a population? A. the elk and wolves living in Yellowstone and Yosemite National Parks B. wolves in a particular class size (e.g., the larger wolves) living in Yellowstone National Park C. the elk living in Yellowstone and Yosemite National Parks D. all the wolves living in Yellowstone National Park E. the wolves and elks living in Yellowstone National Park

18) You sample a population of great blue herons in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and find that 64% exhibit the dominant phenotype for feather color, a trait that is determined by a single gene. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in this population? A) 0.64 B) 0.36 C) 0.8 D) 0.4 E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.

18. After studying a population for a particular trait determined by a single pair of alleles, you find that the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What possible reasons might explain its departure from equilibrium? A. mating is random B. there are too many individuals in the population C. individuals are not freely migrating into and out of the population D. individuals with recessive phenotypes are better adapted E. the population experiences no gene flow

19. Southern farmers have produced a variety of corn that grows tall and bears large ears of corn despite the intense summer heat by which process? A. artificial selection B. directional selection C. stabilizing selection D. A & B E. A & C

19. Which of the following does not serve as evidence for evolution? A. artificial breeding programs B. homologous structures C. comparative biochemistry D. analogous morphological structures E. comparative embryology

2) The correct sequence from the most to the least comprehensive of the taxonomic levels listed here is _______. A) kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species. B) phylum, family, class, order, kingdom, genus, and species. C) phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus. D) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. E) family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus.

A. gametic B. temporal C. behavioral D. habitat E. mechanical 4) one species of carnation blooms in April and a second species of carnation blooms in June 4) _________ 5) male fairy shrimp of one species have long antennules to clasp a female when mating and a second species of fairy shrimp has short antennules to clasp females. 5) _________ 6) one species of crickets rapidly "chirp" to attract mates and a seconf species of cricket slowly "chirps" to attract mates 6) _________ 7) males of one species of finch bring nuptial ("wedding") presents of nuts to females prior to mating, whereas males of another finch species bring gifts of over-ripe fruit 7) _________ 8) a loblolly pine grows in rich, organic soils, but a sand pine grows best in well-drained sandy soils along the coast 8) _________ 9) females of one species of blackbird choose mates based on song quality; females of another species of balckbird choose mates on the basis of size 9) _________

B E C C D C

2. In nature, if snow geese with the "blue" morph only mated with other "blue" morphs, and never with any "white" morph, this would be an example of _____. A. inbreeding B. random mating C. natural selection D. assortative mating E. frequency-dependent mating

20) Two different but co-existing species of guppies (A and B) are known to be descended from a recent common ancestral species that colonized a stream in Panama. Males of species A have long blue dorsal fins that they use in courtship displays, and male guppies of species B have short red dorsal fins. The events that led to these speciation events are most likely to have been driven by which process? 20) ____ A) gamete compatibilty B) autopolyploidy C) allopolyploidy D) sexual selection E) habitat isolation

20. In Australia, sugar gliders are small marsupial mammals that glide from tree to tree. In North America, flying squirrels are placental mammals that also glide from tree to tree. The similarities in morphology and lifestyle exhibited by these two types of animals are most likely the result of ________. A. descent with modification from a common ancestor B. genetic drift C. assortative mating D. convergent evolution E. a founder event

21. Batesian mimicry is when _______. A. two or more inedible species mimic each other B. two or more palatable species mimic each other C. an inedible species mimics a palatable species D. a palatable species mimics an inedible species

21. In a population of 100 alligators at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium on the Wakulla River, 49 are homozygous dominant for bad breath (BB; not that you would get that close to notice!). The genotype frequency of alligators that are heterozygous for this trait in this population is ___. A. .49 B. 0.09 C. 0.51 D. 0.42 E. it cannot be determined

21. In a population of kangaroos that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of the kangaroos exhibit the dominant phenotype for pouch size, where the allele for large pouches is dominant to the allele for small pouches. What is the frequency of heterozygotes? A. 0.07 B. 0.16 C. 0.080 D. 0.15 E. 0.064

22) A city's parks were intensively treated with "Weed-B-Gone" in the 1950's in an effort to eradicate dandelions. The number of dandelions in the parks was immediately greatly reduced. Each year thereafter, the city's parks were again treated with Weed-B-Gone, but the dandelions gradually increased in number until 15 years later they were almost as abundant as they were when the weed-control program was begun. Which statement below best explains these observations? A) Dandelions from the surrounding countryside moved in and replaced those killed by Weed-B-Gone. B) The few dandelion plants that survived the initial treatment developed antibodies in response to the chemical and passed this ability on to their offspring. C) Weed-B-Gone caused new mutations in to occur in the surviving dandelions and this allowed them and thier offspring to survive. D) Weed-B-Gone killed susceptible dandelions but a few resistant survivors reproduced and their offspring gradually repopulated the parks. E) All of the above

25) If there are 6,000 children born to this generation, how many would be expected to have type BB blood under the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) 40 B) 2,400 C) 960 D) 240 E) 100

27) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of natural selection? 1. Differential reproduction occurs between the poorly and better adapted individuals. 2. A new selective pressure arises in the environment. 3. Allele frequencies within the population change. 4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship. 27) ____ A) 4, 2, 1, 3 B) 4, 2, 3, 1 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 2, 4, 1, 3 E) 2, 4, 3, 1

28) Through time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing _______. A) nonrandom reproduction B) genetic drift C) geographic isolation D) gene flow E) mutations.

28. If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that __________. A. they must live in very different habitats. B. they should be members of the same genus. C. they shared a common ancestor relatively recently. D. they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms. E. their chromosomes should be very similar.

28. In lobsters, the allele for long antennae is dominant to the allele for short antennae. If a population of 1500 lobsters is in H/W equilibrium and 678 lobsters have long antennae, then how many lobsters are expected to be homozygous dominant for antennal length? (round off each calculation to the nearest hundredth) A. 132 B. 330 C. 300 D. 105 E. 80

28. Sexual selection will ____. A. increase the size of individuals B. result in individuals better adapted to a particular environment C. result in a relative fitness (w) more than 1 D. select for traits that enhance an individual's chance of mating E. all of the above

29) When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean that the organism _______. A) lives longer than others of its species. B) competes for resources more successfully than others of its species. C) mates more frequently than others of its species. D) leaves more viable offspring than others of its species. E) utilizes resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches.

30) Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today? A) It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics. B) It is synonymous with the process of gene flow. C) It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes. D) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most fit phenotypes. E) It is goal-directed.

31) Cattle breeders have improved the quality of meat over the years by which process? A) directional selection B) artificial selection C) stabilizing selection D) A and B E) A and C

31) In three-lined skinks, a gene controls stripe width such that B = broad stripes and b = narrow stripes. In an isolated patch of woods, there are 36 skinks with braod stripes and 64 skinks with narrow stripes. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of the recessive allele for this population? A) 0.36 B) 0.60 C) 0.75 D) 0.80 E) 0.64

31) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population? 31) ____ A) heritable phenotypic variation among individuals B) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium C) sexual reproduction D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

31. What is the frequency of individuals with Type A blood in a human population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in which all possible blood genotypes are present if the 9% of the population has Type O blood and 25% of the population is homozygous for Type B blood? A. 0.04 B. 0.12 C. 0.24 D. 0.16 E. it cannot be determined from the information given

32. The existence of two or more distinct phenotypic forms in a species is known as ____. A. a population bottleneck B. stabilizing selection C. heterozygote advantage D. polymorphism E. directional selection

34. A student notices that a species of cactus growing in shaded areas has fewer spines than plants that grow in sunnier areas. The student collects seeds from many cacti in a shaded population and also from a sunny population and grows them in an environmental chamber that receives an intermediate level of light. It turns out that all of the cacti grown from these seeds have an intermediate number of spines. What do these results suggest? A. That spine number is not a trait that promotes fitness. B. That the difference in spine number between cacti in shaded versus sunny areas is due to genetic differences in the cacti. C. That the difference in spine number between cacti in shaded versus sunny areas is due to disruptive selection. D. That the difference in spine number between cacti in shaded versus sunny areas is due to environmental influence. E. That the difference in spine number between cacti in shaded versus sunny areas is due to stabilizing selection.

34. In a population of 10 rats in which fur color is controlled by a gene locus with two alleles, B and b, three of the rats are homozygous dominant at the locus, five are heterozygous, and the other two are homozygous recessive. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool for this population with respect to the fur-color gene? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20 E. It cannot be determined.

35) Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from the same embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities? 35) ____ A) by identifying the bones as being homologous B) by the principle of convergent evolution C) by proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

36) In a population of 800 Eskimos in Hardy-Weinberg equilibriumin and in which all possible blood types are present, 200 individuals have Type O blood and 32 are homozygous for Type A blood. What percentage of this population are expected to have Type AB blood? 36) ____ A) 30 B) 6 C) 0 D) 12 E) 71

36) Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of _____. A) artificial selection. B) pansexual selection. C) intrasexual selection. D) intersexual selection. E) stabilizing selection.

36. In a large, sexually reproducing population, the frequency of an allele changes from 0.6 to 0.2. From this change, one can most logically assume that, in this environment, ________. A. random processes have changed allelic frequencies. B. the allele mutates readily. C. the allele is neutral. D. the allele reduces fitness. E. there is no sexual selection.

36. Which is true of two analogous structures? A. They have the same developmental origin. B. They have no current function. C. They can be traced to a common ancestor. D. They serve similar functions. E. None of these is true.

37) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. What would need to be true for pest eradication efforts to have been successful in the long run? A) DDT application should have been continual. B) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time. C) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied. D) All individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them susceptible to DDT. E) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.

38) Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from the same embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities? A) by proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor B) by the principle of convergent evolution C) by identifying the bones as being homologous D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

38. Several mice from Alabama with dark fur color float down the Apalachicola River on a tree branch and join a large population of mice in Florida in which nearly all the mice are light- colored. What mechanism of evolution does this scenario illustrate? A. a founder event B. a population bottleneck C. epistasis D. gene flow E. directional selection

39. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and where all possible blood types are present, the frequencies the IA allele is 0.20 and the frequency of the IB allele is 0.10. What fraction of this population would you expect to have type A blood (think!)? A. 0.20 B. 0.28 C. 0.04 D. 0.32 E. 0.08

40) In a human population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the IA allele is 0.4 and the frequency of the IB allele is 0.5. All possible ABO blood genotypes are present in the population. What is the frequency of individuals with Type A blood? A) 0.08 B) 0.16 C) 0.20 D) 0.24 E) 0.50

40) It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that 40) ____ A) island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools. B) common environments are inhabited by the same organisms. C) the islands were originally part of the continent. D) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors. E) the island forms and mainland forms are converging.

40. What mechanism explains why a harmful allele may persist in a population over long periods of time? A. genetic drift B. directional election C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium D. heterozygote advantage E. sexual selection

42) Which of the following statements about speciation is correct? A) When reunited, two allopatric populations will not interbreed. 42) ____ B) The goal of natural selection is speciation. C) Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations. D) Speciation is included within the concept of macroevolution. E) Prezygotic reproductive barriers usually evolve before postzygotic barriers.

42. Populations of a species of trout that live in two different rivers will _____. A. each undergo microevolution B. experience no gene flow C. evolve similarly because they are the same species D. choices A and B apply E. choices A, B and C apply

47) Two species of guinea hens belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two species separate? A) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown B) adaptation C) gametic isolation D) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability E) the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility

5. Which of the following scenarios would most likely cause a population to evolve via genetic drift? A. a spontaneous change in the chromosome number in a population B. movement of individuals back and forth between neighboring populations C. negative assortative mating D. the initiation of a new population by a small number of individuals E. when the rarest phenotype in a population has the highest fitness

58) The type of mimicry descibed in the previous question is called _______ mimicry. A) selective B) Darwinian C) Mullerian D) Batesian E) allopatric 58) ____

59) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's A) genetic variation. 59) ____ B) average heterozygosity. C) DNA variability. D) A, B, and C E) A and B only

66) In equatorial Africa, which of the following factors contribute to keeping the sickle-cell allele at a high frequency in the population? 66) ____ A) heterozygote advantage. B) diploidy. C) frequency-dependent selection. D) A and B only E) A, B and C

68) If the unimodal distribution shown above becomes a bimodal distribution over time, then A) sexual selection is likely to have altered the overall frequncy of phenotypes in the population. 68) ____ B) there must be some advantage to being heterozygous at all of the contributing gene loci. C) the trait must be neutral. D) disruptive selecton has produced a balanced polymorphism. E) directional selection on this trait is reversed.

7. What type of selection results when female stickleback fish preferentially choose males with bright red coloring over males with dull coloring? A. frequency-dependent B. disruptive C. directional D. intersexual E. intrasexual

8. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 25% of the individuals express the recessive phenotype. What is the expected frequency of heterozygotes? A. 0.05 B. 0.10 C. 0.25 D. 0.50 E. 0.75

You are studying three populations of birds. Population A has ten birds, of which one is brown (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population B has 100 birds, of which ten are brown. Population C has 30 birds, and three of them are brown. 29) In which population is the frequency of the allele for brown feathers highest? A) Population A. B) Population B. C) Population C. D) They are all the same. E) It is impossible to tell from the information given. 30) Which population is most likely to be subject to genetic drift? A) Population A. B) Population B. C) Population C. D) They are all the same. E) It is impossible to tell from the information given.

24. Who was the naturalist who developed an hypothesis of evolution by natural selection independently of Darwin? A. Gregor Mendel B. Thomas Malthus C. Alfred Wallace D. Charles Lyell E. John Henslow

24) Darwin had initially expected the living plants of temperate South America to resemble those of temperate Europe, but he was surprised to find that they more closely resembled the plants of tropical South America. The biological explanation for this observation is most properly associated with the field of 24) ____ A) meteorology. B) biogeography. C) embryology. D) vertebrate anatomy. E) bioengineering.

24) What percentage of the population has type O blood? A) 0 B) 9 C) 10 D) 24 E) 48

25) Both Darwin's and Lamarck's ideas regarding evolution suggest which of the following? A) The giraffe's long neck is the result of artificial selection. 25) ____ B) The interaction of organisms with their environment is important in the evolutionary process. C) The main mechanism of evolution is natural selection. D) Acquired physical characteristics can be inherited. E) All species were fixed at the time of creation.

25. A case of directional selection: in a population of butterflies composed of many red morphs and few yellow morphs, birds preferentially feed on the red morph and then switch once the number of yellow morphs begins to increase in the population. A. True B. False

26) In peas, a gene shows incomplete dominance for flower color such that RR = purple, Rr = pink, and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, a killing frost takes the population out of H/W equilibrium and leaves only 36 plants with white flowers, 7 with pink flowers, and 14 with purple flowers. What is the frequency of the recessive allele in the surviving population population? A) 0.31 B) 0.69 C) 0.63 D) 0.60 E) 0.37

26) Which of the following represents an idea Darwin took from the writings of Thomas Malthus? A) The environment is responsible for natural selection. 26) ____ B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply. C) All species are fixed in the form in which they are created. D) Earth is more than 10,000 years old. E) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.

26. When we say that one organism has a greater fitness than another individual of the same species, we specifically mean that the organism _____. A. competes for resources better B. leaves more living offspring C. lives longer D. mates more frequently E. none of the above

28) Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology? A) The hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla B) The wings of a bird and those of an insect C) The wings of a bat and the arms of a human D) The brain of a cat and that of a dog E) All of the above represent homology.

29. A recent trend seen in many plant species that are most susceptible to global warming is an increase in the number of tiny white hairs on leaves to increase leaf reflectivity and help cool leaves. This trend is an example of _____. A. a cline B. directional selection C. disruptive selection D. inheritance of acquired characteristics E. Bergman's rule

29. Given the equations p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and p + q = 1, which term below represents an allele frequency in a population? A. p2 B. q C. 2pq D. q2 (no choice "E")

29. In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, T and t, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele "t" is 0.7. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele? A. 30 B. 49 C. 9 D. 3 E. 42

30. In a population of blue jays that is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for two alleles for crest height, 16% of the population shows the recessive trait. What percent of the population show the dominant phenotype? A. 96% B. 84% C. 60% D. 48% E. 36%

32) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. What would need to be true for pest eradication efforts to have been successful in the long run? 32) ____ A) DDT application should have been continual. B) All individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them susceptible to DDT. C) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time. D) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied. E) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.

33. Bergman's Rule describes a particular type of _____. A. genetic equilibrium B. geographic variation in phenotype C. geographic variation in genotype D. adaptive radiation E. founder effect

34) If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that A) they shared a common ancestor relatively recently. 34) ____ B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms. C) they should be members of the same genus. D) they live in very different habitats. E) their chromosomes should be very similar.

34) In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko exposed winter wheat plants to ever-colder temperatures, collected their seeds, and then exposed the seedlings to ever-colder temperatures. He repeated his attempts over the course of decades in an attempt to evolve cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most in agreement with the ideas of _______. A) Hutton B) Lamarck C) Cuvier D) Plato E) Darwin

25. In a study of a population of koala bears that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, you find that 49% of the koalas have the recessive ear-tuft phenotype. The presence or absence of ear tufts is determined by an autosomal gene for which there are two possible alleles. What is the percentage of heterozygotes in the population? A. 59% B. 21% C. 42% D. 9% E. it cannot be determined from the information given

28) If the HMS Beagle had completely bypassed the Galapagos Islands, Darwin would have had a much poorer understanding of 28) ____ A) the tendency of organisms to produce a larger number of offspring than the environment can support. B) the limited resources available to support population growth in most natural environments C) the ability of populations to undergo modification as they adapt to a particular environment. D) how fossils of marine organisms could be found high in the Andes. E) the age of Earth.

3) Which of the following is considered a post-zygotic barrier that serves to maintain reproductive isolation for a species? 3) _____ A) gametic incompatibility B) ecological isolation C) sterile offspring D) timing of courtship display E) geographic isolation

3. In a human population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the IA allele is 0.5 and the frequency of the i allele is 0.3. All possible ABO blood groups are present in the population. What is the frequency of individuals with Type B blood? A. 0.55 B. 0.25 C. 0.16 D. 0.09 E. 0.05

30) Which of the following statements is not an inference of natural selection? A) Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment should leave more offspring. 30) ____ B) Often only a fraction of offspring survive, because there is a struggle for limited resources. C) An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime. D) Subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals that possess favorable traits. E) Unequal reproductive success among its members leads a population to adapt over time.

30. In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, T and t, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele "t" is 0.7. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele? A. 9 B. 30 C. 42 D. 3 E. 21

31. Frogs are able to migrate freely among four ponds that are found close together in a section of the Apalachicola National Forest south of Tallahassee. Over time you would expect to see: A. frogs in some ponds better adapted overall than frogs in other ponds B. the pond-populations evolving into two or more separate species of frogs C. similar allele frequencies among pond-populations D. at least one pond-population going extinct E. none of the above

32) Which of the following is most likely to have been produced by sexual selection? A) bright colors of female flowers B) camouflage coloration in animals C) a male lion's mane D) different sizes of male and female pinecones E) the ability of desert animals to concentrate their urine

32. Given the equations p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and p + q = 1, which term below represents the frequency of a heterozygote genotype in a population? A. p2 B. q C. 2pq D. q2 (no choice "E")

36. What best explains why marine mammals like dolphins and marine fish have a similar body design that is efficient for swimming even though their common ancestor lacked that particular body design? A. that body design is a homologous feature that evolved independently multiple times B. that body design is a homologous feature that arose once by convergent evolution C. that body design is an analogous feature that evolved multiple times by convergent evolution D. that body design is an analogous feature that evolved once by convergent evolution E. that body design is a vestigial feature that remained after convergent evolution.

37) As adults, certain species of whales possess baleen instead of teeth. Baleen is used to filter the whales' diet of planktonic animals from seawater. As embryos, baleen whales possess teeth, which are later replaced by baleen. The teeth of embryonic baleen whales are evidence that 37) ____ A) baleen whale embryos pass through a stage when they resemble adult toothed whales. B) among ancient whales, baleen evolved before teeth. C) baleen whales are descendants of toothed whales. D) ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. E) all whales are the descendants of terrestrial mammals.

39. If a phenotypic polymorphism lacks a genetic component, then A. it must exhibit quantitative variation. B. the environment cannot affect its abundance. C. natural selection cannot act upon it to make a population better adapted over the course of generations. D. it cannot affect an individual's ability to survive. E all of the above.

39. What term explains why animals in two groups that do not share a recent common ancestor such as cave crayfish (a crustacean) and cave salamanders (an amphibian) are both albino? A. adaptive radiation B. disruptive selection C. convergent evolution D. stabilizing selection E. directional selection

4. In a population of fish, the smallest fish are eaten by crayfish and the largest fish are eaten by wading birds. Medium fish are too big for to be eaten by crayfish and too small for the birds to detect and grab as prey. What kind of selection is operating in this fish population? A. positive directional selection B. negative directional selection C. stabilizing selection D. disruptive selection E. frequency-dependent selection

40. In the population mentioned in the problem above, what is the least common blood type? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type AB D. Type 0 E. it cannot be determined

41) Which example below is the best guarantee that two closely related species will remain distinct biological species? 41) ____ A) hybridization B) convergent evolution C) reproductive isolation from one another D) geographic isolation from one another E) all of the above

42) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is _____. A) asexually reproducing populations. B) large populations. C) geographic isolation. D) artificial selection. E) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.

43) Which of the following scenarios would be an example of macroevolution? A) evolution of dark and light morphs in the peppered moth, Biston betularia 43) ____ B) evolution of pesticide resistance in a species of cockroach after years of pesticide exposure C) evolution of dogs, Canis familiaris, from wolves, Canis lupus D) replacement of thick-coated Arctic hares (rabbits) by a thin-coated morph over many generations under conditions of increased global warming E) evolution of resistance to a weed-killing herbicide in populations of a dandelion species treated for years with the herbicide

44) Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between _____. A) males and females. B) species. C) populations. D) individuals. E) generations.

49) In butterflies, a gene controls antennal length such that L = long and l =shorte. In one population, there are 72 butterflies with long antennae and 128 with short antennae. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of the recessive allele in this popualtion's gene pool? 49) ____ A) 0.64 B) 0.60 C) 0.80 D) 0.75 E) 0.36

54) If four of the original colonists died before they produced offspring, the ratios of genotypes could be quite different in the subsequent generations. This is an example of 54) ____ A) diploidy. B) gene flow. C) genetic drift. D) stabilizing selection. E) disruptive selection.

6. The allele frequency for fur color in a population of beach mice on Dauphin Island changed dramatically after Hurricane Katrina roared through that part of the Gulf coast and killed many of the beach mice. This is an example of ____. A. gene flow B. catastrophism C. a bottleneck event D. a founder effect E. frequency-dependent selection

7) Which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation? A) The isolated population is exposed to different selection pressures than the ancestral population. B) A population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population. C) Gene flow between the two populations is extensive. D) The separated population is small, and genetic drift occurs. E) Different mutations begin to distinguish the gene pools of the separated populations.

9) There are 25 individuals in population 1, all of which have genotype RR, and there are 15 individuals in population 2, all of genotype rr. Assume that these populations are located far from one another and that their environmental conditions are very similar. Based on the information given here, the observed genetic variation is mostly likely an example of _____. (read & think carefully!) A) directional selection. B) gene flow. C) genetic drift. D) discrete variation. E) disruptive selection.

9. All of the following are required for a population to reach Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium except ______. A. no natural selection B. a large population C. assortative mating D. no mutation E. no gene flow

9. The allele frequency at a flower color locus in a population of alpine plants changes when a landslide kills most of the individuals in the population. This is an example of _______. A. gene flow B. catastrophism C. a bottleneck effect D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium E. a founder effect

35) Two pirates and three Polynesian beauties are shipwrecked on a previously uninhabited island. All five had brown eyes, but only one person carried the recessive allele for blue eyes (let's assume eye color is a case of one gene and complete dominance). What are the frequencies of the dominant (B) and recessive (b) allele in this island popualtion? A) B = 0.8; b = 0.2 B) B = 0.9; b = 0.1 C) B = 0.1; b = 0.9 D) B = 0.2; b= 0.8 E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

35. Hurricane Katrina dramatically reduced the population of fiddler crabs in Mobile Bay, Alabama, resulting in a change in allele frequency. This is an example of _____. A. gene flow B. a population bottleneck C. a founder effect D) natural selection E. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

35. In a population of flying spaghetti monsters, a single gene locus controls spaghetti-strand thickness. The allele T codes for thick spaghetti and is co-dominant with t, which codes for thin spaghetti (similar to a vermicelli, or perhaps angel-hair pasta? But I digress...). Heterozygotes have medium-thick spaghetti. The frequency of T in the population, which is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, is 0.4. What should be the most common phenotype among flying spaghetti monsters? A. Thick flying spaghetti monsters B. Medium flying spaghetti monsters C. Thin flying spaghetti monsters D. It cannot be determined.

37. A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of ________. A. relative fitness. B. a cline. C. genetic drift. D. speciation. E. a bottleneck.

37. By itself (i.e., not necessarily Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium) the equation p + q = 1 tells us ____. A. the frequencies of alleles in a population are not changed by random mating B. the sum of the frequencies of two alternate alleles at a gene locus must total 1.0 C. genotype frequencies can be calculated if allele frequencies are known D. there are only two possible genotypes in a population E. a population that does not conform to this equation is evolving

The allele for red flower color (R) in garden peas shows complete dominance over the allele for white flower color(r) at the same locus. In a population of peas you count 32 white flowered individuals and 168 red flowered plants. 16. Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the most common genotype at the flower color locus? A. RR B. Rr C. rr 17. What fraction of the red flowered plants is heterozygous? A. 1 B. 0.48 C. 0.16 D. 0.98 E. 0.82

B .57

38) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses? (Think carefully!) 38) ____ A) It can account for these losses by the principle of use and disuse. B) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs to fitness than benefits. C) Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations. D) These organisms had the misfortune to experience harmful mutations, which caused the loss of these structures. E) B and D only

41. In the population referred to in the two previous questions, what is the probability that a type O person and their type AB partner have a type A child (think!)? A. 0.0098 B. 0.0196 C. 0.0049 D. 0.0027 E. it cannot be determined

42. In Batesian mimicry, the fitness of the ______. A. palatable mimic is highest when the model species exists in low frequency B. palatable mimic is highest when the mimic exists in low frequency C. distasteful mimic is highest when the model species exists in low frequency D. distasteful mimic is highest when the mimic exists in low frequency E. none of the above

44) Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime? A) the gradual change of a population's heritable traits over generations 44) ____ B) change in gene frequency in gene pools C) the appearance of new varieties and new species with the passage of time D) descent with modification E) populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of generations

44. For a trait that has two alleles, which of the following mechanisms of evolution can lead to one allele for a trait becoming "fixed" in the gene pool? A. disruptive selection B. genetic drift C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium D. stabilizing selection E. balancing selection

51) Verbena floridensis is a flowering plant that grows on sand dunes on St. George Island. If the frequency of a particular allele that is present in this population should change due to strong tidal surge that inundates the dunes and leaves a small number of plants that escaped the surge, then what has occurred? 51) ____ A) a founder event B) a bottleneck C) gene flow D) natural selection E) A, B, and C

69) Male satin bowerbirds adorn structures that they build, called "bowers," with parrot feathers, flowers, and other bizarre ornaments in order to attract females. Females inspect the bowers and, if suitably impressed, allow males to mate with them, after which they go off to nest by themselves. The evolution of this behavior is best described as due to 69) ____ A) artificial selection. B) sexual selection. C) survival of the fittest. D) natural selection. E) disruptive selection.

B A

15) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is A) asexually reproducing populations. 15) ____ B) large populations. C) geographic isolation. D) artificial selection. E) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.

16) Which of these naturalists synthesized a concept of natural selection independently of Darwin? A) Charles Lyell B) John Henslow C) Alfred Wallace D) Thomas Malthus E) Gregor Mendel

17) Plants with smooth leaves and plants with extremely hirsute (hairy) leaves are observed in roughly equal numbers within a population of begonias in a Costa Rican rainforest, with other leaf phenotypes being rare. Which of the following terms best explains this? A) sexual selection B) artificial selection C) disruptive selection D) directional selection E) stabilizing selection

17) Which of the following would be an example of macroevolution? A) evolution of polymorphism in Papilio dardanus, with each morph mimicking a different protected butterfly B) evolution of antibiotic resistance in a strain of E. coli C) evolution of modern humans, Homo sapiens, from australopithecine ancestors D) replacement of a melanin-poor morph by a melanin-rich morph over many generations under conditions of increased UV exposure E) evolution of insecticide resistance in populations of insect pests treated through the years with DDT

18. Who developed the binomial system of naming organisms as part of his quest to discover order in the diversity of life? A. Aristotle B. Plato C. Linnaeus D. Darwin E. Cuvier

2) Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on whether genes are exchanged between their gene pools? A) phylogenetic B) morphological C) biological D) ecological

22) What is the frequency of the A allele? A) 0.632 B) 0.200 C) 0.500 D) 0.250 E) 0.400

23) In evolutionary terms, the more closely related two different organisms are, the A) more similar their habitats are. 23) ____ B) more similar they are in size. C) more recently they shared a common ancestor. D) less likely they are to be related to fossil forms. E) less similar their DNA sequences are.

The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA in attacking bacteriophages. 33) The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from _____. A) frequency-dependent selection. B) heterozygote advantage. C) stabilizing selection. D) genetic variation being preserved by diploidy. E) neutral variation. 6 34) Over the course of evolutionary time, what should occur? A) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial species. B) Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria and bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time. C) Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages. D) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages. E) Both A and B are correct.

A B

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 36% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants. 18) What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the fact that the frequency of the recessive trait (aa) has not changed over time? A) The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory conditions. B) The genotype AA is lethal. C) There has been sexual selection favoring allele a. D) The population is undergoing genetic drift. E) There has been a high rate of mutation of allele A to allele a. 19) What is the estimated frequency of allele a in the gene pool? A) 0.40 B) 0.60 C) 0.70 D) 0.18 E) 0.80 20) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? A) 0.48 B) 0.72 C) 0.60 D) 0.36 E) 0.18

A B A

24) Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification? A) Species diversity declines farther from the equator. B) Earthquakes reshape life by causing mass extinctions. C) South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe. D) Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents. E) Birds can be found on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds' maximum nonstop flight distance.

8. Body size in a species of gray mice shows clinal variation from north to south with northern mice having a larger phenotype than southern mice. If the clinal variation is due to genetic rather than environmental causes, then if I move a pregnant female from Boston to Tallahassee and allow her to give birth and raise her offspring here, how would I expect her offspring to compare to native mice born and bred here in Tallahassee? A. The Boston offspring will have a similar body size to Tallahassee mice. B. The Boston offspring will have a larger body size to Tallahassee mice. C. The Boston offspring will have a smaller body size to Tallahassee mice. D. The transplant study cannot work because the northern and southern populations cannot interbreed. E. The Boston mice will thoroughly embarrass the Yankees and go on to clobber to Colorado Rockies.

10) Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring do not complete development. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate? 10) ____ A) gametic isolation B) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability C) the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility D) adaptation E) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown

12) Races reasons? of humans are unlikely to evolve extensive differences in the future for which of the following I. The environment is unlikely to change. II. Human evolution is complete. III. The human races are incompletely isolated. A) II and III only B) III only C) I, II, and III D) I only E) I and II only

14. An Australian study conducted on a population of seahorses of the species Hippocampus abdominalis along one stretch of the Great Barrier Reef showed that small males preferred to mate with small females, while larger males preferred to mate with larger females. This might ultimately lead to a population of mostly large and small seahorses with few intermediates. This is a case of _____. A. stabilizing selection B. disruptive selection C. frequency-dependent selection D. negative assortative mating E. directional selection

14. The classic study of industrial melanism in the peppered moth A. illustrated the effects of gene flow between the color morphs on gene frequencies B. showed that natural selection could change gene frequencies C. provided the first evidence of sexual selection D. provided the first evidence for genetic drift E. provided the first illustration of the Hardy-Weinberg Rule

16. The introduction of a species into a "new" area containing unfilled niches may result in the evolution of several new species from the original stock species. This process is known as _____. A. ecological succession B. adaptive radiation C. hybridization D. clinal variation E. convergent evolution

17) A rapid method of speciation that has been important in the history of flowering plants, more so than animals, is _____. 17) ____ A) paedomorphosis. B) polyploidy. C) a mutation in the gene controlling flower color. D) genetic drift. E) behavioral isolation.

17. He placed different kinds of organisms on a continuum, or "scala naturae", of simple to complex, with humans at the pinnacle. A. Lamarck B Aristotle C. Buffon D. Linnaeus E. Lyell

19) The origin of a new plant species in nature arising by hybridization between two species is an example of _____. 19) ____ A) habitat selection. B) sympatric speciation. C) allopatric speciation. D) autopolyploidy. E) heterochrony.

20) Sparrows with average-sized wings survive severe storms better than those with longer or shorter wings, illustrating _____. A) the bottleneck effect. B) stabilizing selection. C) disruptive selection. D) frequency-dependent selection. E) neutral variation.

20. What might result over many generations after two populations of snapping shrimp are isolated from each other across the Isthmus of Panama? A. sympatric speciation B. allopatric speciation C. convergent speciation D. disruptive speciation E. disruptive speciation

22) What was the prevailing notion much prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin? A) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change. 22) ____ B) Earth is 6,000 years old, and populations are unchanging. C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change. D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging. E) Earth is 6,000 years old, and populations gradually change.

23. In Batesian mimicry, the existence of a mimic species is maintained because of _____ selection. A. directional B. frequency-dependent C. group D. disruptive E. stabilizing

1) The ostrich and the emu look very similar and live in similar habitats, however they are not very closely related. This is an example of _______. A) sympatric speciation. B) divergent evolution. C) convergent evolution. D) exaptation. E) adaptive radiation.

1. The allele that causes sickle-cell anemia is maintained in some populations because of _____. A. frequency-dependent selection B. stabilizing selection C. heterozygote advantage D. gene flow E. genetic drift

10) About which of these did Darwin have a poor understanding? A) that much of the variation between individuals in a population is inherited B) the factors that cause individuals in populations to struggle for survival C) the sources of genetic variations among individuals D) that individuals in a population exhibit a good deal of variation E) how a beneficial trait becomes more common in a population over the course of generations

10. In Batesian mimicry, a _____ evolves to resemble a _______. A. toxic mimic; non-toxic model B. toxic model; non-toxic mimic C. nontoxic mimic; toxic model D. nontoxic model; toxic mimic (no choice E)

11) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help you determine whether the similarity reflected homology as opposed to convergent evolution? A) Both species reproduce sexually. B) The two species live at great distance from each other. C) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical. D) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments. E) The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.

11. Which of the following contributes to maintaining a balanced polymorphism for a given trait in a population? A. founder effect B. genetic drift C. disruptive selection D. allopatric speciation D. a population bottleneck

13) Which statement about variation among individuals of a species is true? A) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation. B) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation. C) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide differences. D) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines. E) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.

14) Which example below will most likely guarantee that two closely related species will remain distinct biological species? (THINK CAREFULLY!) 14) ____ A) geographic isolation from one another B) convergent evolution C) reproductive isolation from one another D) colonization of new habitats E) hybridization

In the wild, male house finches (Carpodus mexicanus) vary considerably in the amount of red pigmentation in their head and throat feathers, with colors ranging from pale yellow to bright red. These colors come from carotenoid pigments that are found in the birds' diets; no vertebrates are known to synthesize carotenoid pigments. Thus, the brighter red the male's feathers are, the more successful he has been at acquiring the red carotenoid pigment by his food-gathering efforts (all other factors being equal). 14) During breeding season, female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following is true of this situation? A) Alleles that promote more effective deposition of carotenoid pigments in the feathers of males should increase over the course of generations. B) Alleles that promote more efficient acquisition of carotenoid-containing foods by males should increase over the course of generations. C) There should be directional selection for bright red feathers in males. D) All three of these. E) Only B and C. 15) Which of the following terms are appropriately applied to the situation described in the previous question? A) Mate choice B) Sexual selection C) Intersexual selection D) All three of these E) Only B and C

D D

24. Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant arises with red flowers and a particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. If brought into the lab, interbreeding is possible between these two beetle variants. Based on this information, the two variants of beetles can be assigned to different species based on which species concept? A. ecological B. morphological C. biological D. paleontological E. phylogenetic

OMIT

A. random selection B. directional selection C. stabilizing selection D. disruptive selection E. sexual selection 60) Within a population of tropical tree frogs, both solid and densely spotted skin patterns observed, whereas frogs displaying sparsely spotted skin are relatively rare. 60) _________ 61) Marsupials, such a s the kangaroo, give birth to young that must crawl to the mother's pouch to complete the remainder of their embryonic development externally . With rare exceptions, "roos" consistently give birth to three of these embryos during each pregnancy. 61) _________ 62) Today's varieties of corn plants yield more kernals per ear than the early maize plants grown by Native Americans and from which modern varieties of corn are derived. 62) _________ 63) Mediterranean fruit flies infect citrus crops in the U.S and these insect pests today are much more resistant to malathion, a strong pesticide, compared to the same species of fly when they were first inadvertently introduced to the U.S. over a century ago. 63) _________ 64) Female fiddler crabs are attracted more to males that have oversized large claws than males with smaller claws. 64) _________

BIO 2 UNIT 3

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

arh quiz 2

Special Senses

ACC 213 Chapter 1

COMM 400 Final Exam Part One ( 8-12)

Lifespan Final Exam

Seven Major Functions of Proteins

Stats midterm chapter 1 study guide

Exam 1

ch 65: Critical Care

The Neonate

FIN 310 Chapter 8

Air pollution Final

Science Cells

Strategic Management Study Guide 1

CHEMISTRY TEST: PRATICE TEST

AP Statistics Chapter 9: Testing a Claim

health insurance license

exam 1

Clinical methods week 5, methods Week 4 language

Exam 1