BIOL2401__Final Review

You are observing a type of connective tissue that contains a variety of cells in a watery matrix. Based on these observations, what category of connective tissue are you looking at?

fluid connective tissue

The __________ stops materials from moving between cells across an epithelium. desmosome lumen gap junction tight junction

gap junction

If EPSPs summate to a sustained value above threshold, then the initial segment will __________. generate larger than normal action potentials hyperpolarize be inhibited generate a string of action potentials

generate a string of action potentials

The articular processes of vertebrae form __________ joints. hinge gliding saddle suture

gliding

The articular processes of vertebrae form __________ joints. saddle suture gliding hinge

gliding

A typical spinal nerve has a __________ ramus communicans consisting of unmyelinated axons that innervate glands and smooth muscles. posterior gray anterior white

gray

Cardiac muscles cells have a sarcolemma that is more permeable to calcium, which causes them to __________.

have contractions that last longer than skeletal muscle fibers

The central idea for understanding the existence of a stable internal environment is the principle of __________. disease homeostasis evolution nutrition

homeostasis

Which of the following bones will you find in the arm?

humerus

The greatest range of motion occurs at the articulation between the __________.

humerus and scapula

What is this structure of the neural cell?

axon/Synaptic Terminals

Intramuscular Injections Drugs are commonly injected into muscle or adipose tissues rather than directly into the bloodstream. (Accessing blood vessels may be technically more c omplicated.) An intramuscular (IM) injection introduces a drug into the mass of a large skeletal muscle. Depending on the size of the muscle, up to 5 mL of fluid may be injected at one time. This fairly large volume of drug then enters the circulation gradually. Uptake is generally faster and accompanied by less tissue irritation than when drugs are administered intradermally (injected into the dermis) or subcutaneously (injected into the subcutaneous layer). A decision on the injection technique and the injection site is based on the type of drug and its concentration. For IM injections, the most common complications involve accidental injection into a blood vessel or a nerve. The sudden entry of massive quantities of drug into the bloodstream can have fatal consequences. Damage to a nerve can cause motor paralysis or sensory loss. For these reasons, the site of the injection must be selected with care. Bulky muscles that contain few large vessels or nerves are ideal sites. The gluteus medius or the posterior, lateral, superior part of the gluteus maximus muscle is commonly selected. The deltoid muscle of the arm, about 2.5 cm (1 in.) distal to the acromion, is another effective site. From a technical point of view, the vastus lateralis of the thigh is a good site. Injections into this thick muscle will not encounter vessels or nerves but may cause pain later when the muscle is used in walking. This is the preferred injection site in infants before they start walking, as their gluteal and deltoid muscles are relatively small. The site is also used in elderly patients or others with atrophied gluteal and deltoid muscles. During an intramuscular injection temporary paralysis of the deltoid muscle occurred. Which of the following nerves was accidentally pierced during this injection?

the axillary nerve

Anesthesia Anesthetics are often injected into the epidural space. Introduced in this way, a drug should affect only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection. The result is a regional pain reliever (analgesic) called an epidural anesthesia, which blocks pain sensations. Some sources refer to this as an epidural block. This procedure can be done either peripherally, as when skin lacerations are sewn up, or at sites around the spinal cord for more widespread anesthetic effects, as during labor and delivery. An epidural anesthetic has at least two advantages: (1) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection; and (2) it provides mainly sensory anesthesia. If a catheter is left in place, continued injection brings about sustained anesthesia. Local anesthetics can also be introduced as a single dose into the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord. This procedure is commonly called spinal anesthesia. The effects include both temporary muscle paralysis and sensory loss. These effects tend to spread as the movement of cerebrospinal fluid distributes the anesthetic along the spinal cord. Problems with overdosing are seldom serious, because controlling the patient's position during administration can limit the distribution of the drug to some degree. Respiration continues even if all thoracic and abdominal segments have been paralyzed. This is possible because the upper cervical spinal nerves control the diaphragm. Anesthetics administered into the epidural space are advantageous because __________. the effects are long lasting, even with just a single injection the effect is localized and only sensory the patient experiences both sensory loss and paralysis temporarily the effect can easily be carried throughout the spinal cord region by way of cerebrospinal fluid

the effect is localized and only sensory

Knee Injuries Athletes place tremendous stresses on their knees. Ordinarily, the medial and lateral menisci move as the position of the femur changes. The knee is most stable when it is straight. However, if a locked knee is struck from the side, the lateral meniscus can tear and the supporting ligaments can be seriously damaged. Placing a lot of weight on the knee while it is partially flexed can trap a meniscus between the tibia and femur, resulting in a break or tear in the cartilage. In the most common injury, the lateral surface of the leg is driven medially, tearing the medial meniscus. In addition to being quite painful, the torn cartilage may restrict movement at the joint. It can also lead to chronic problems and the development of a "trick knee"--a knee that feels unstable. Sometimes the meniscus can be heard and felt popping in and out of position when the knee is extended. Other knee injuries involve tearing one or more stabilizing ligaments or damaging the patella. Torn ligaments can be difficult to correct surgically, and healing is slow. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries are frequently caused by twisting an extended weight-bearing knee. Soccer, football, and basketball players are more likely than other athletes to injure their ACLs. Nonsurgical treatment with exercise and braces is possible but requires a change in activity. Reconstructive surgery using part of the patellar tendon or a graft from a cadaver tendon may allow a return to active sports. A strong hit or force to the lateral surface of the knee, as in a football tackle or flying hockey puck, may damage both the ACL and the medial collateral ligament (MCL).The patella can be injured in a number of ways. If the leg is immobilized (as it might be in a football pileup) while you try to extend the knee, the muscles are powerful enough to pull the patella apart. Impacts to the anterior surface of the knee can also shatter the patella. Knee injuries may lead to chronic painful arthritis that impairs walking. Total knee replacement surgery is rarely performed on young people, but it is becoming increasingly common among elderly patients with severe arthritis. A torn lateral collateral ligament destabilizes the connection between which of the following bones? the femur and the fibula the femur and the heads of the tibia and fibula the patella and the tibia the femur and the tibia

the femur and the fibula

If you are reading and you unexpectedly hear a loud noise, your head generally snaps up. Which portion of the midbrain is most likely to be responsible for this reflexive motion? the superior colliculus the substantia nigra the inferior colliculus the red nucleus

the inferior colliculus

What is the main structural difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?

Motor neurons of the SNS directly control effectors, whereas motor neurons of the ANS do not directly control effectors.

Neutral solutions have a pH of __________.

7

Taste buds are innervated by which of the following cranial nerves? VII IX X All of the listed cranial nerves innervate taste buds.

All of the listed cranial nerves innervate taste buds.

Receptor specificity can arise from __________. the presence of accessory cells the presence of structures that protect the receptor cell All of the listed responses are correct. the structure of the receptor cell

All of the listed responses are correct.

The cerebellum __________. coordinates learned movements adjusts posture has peduncles connecting to the cerebrum All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of these muscles is innervated by cranial nerve VII? orbicularis oculi risorius orbicularis oris All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of these statements about the medulla oblongata is true? It connects the brain and spinal cord. The medulla oblongata relays all communication between the brain and spinal cord. It coordinates complex autonomic functions. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

__________ are the smallest stable units of matter.

Atoms

Abnormal Bone Development A variety of endocrine or metabolic problems can result in characteristic skeletal changes. In pituitary growth failure, inadequate production of growth hormone leads to reduced epiphyseal cartilage activity and abnormally short bones. This condition is becoming increasingly rare in the United States, because children can be treated with synthetic human growth hormone. Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty (Photo a). (The world record for height is 272 cm, or 8 ft, 11 in. It was reached by Robert Wadlow, of Alton, Illinois, who died at age 22 in 1940. Wadlow weighed 216 kg, or 475 lb.) If the growth hormone level rises abnormally after epiphyseal cartilages close, the skeleton does not grow longer. Instead, bones get thicker, especially in the face, jaw, and hands. Cartilage growth and alterations in soft-tissue structure lead to changes in physical features, such as the contours of the face. These physical changes take place in the disorder called acromegaly (ak-roh-MEG-ah-lē). Several inherited metabolic conditions that affect many systems influence the growth and development of the skeletal system. These conditions produce characteristic variations in body proportions. For example, many individuals with Marfan's syndrome are very tall and have long, slender limbs (Photo b). The cause is excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages. The underlying mutation affects the structure of connective tissue throughout the body, and commonly causes cardiovascular events such as the sudden death of athletes during strenuous athletic contests. How is giantism similar to acromegaly? Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth. Both disorders result in continued growth of cartilage within the diaphysis. Both disorders result from a decrease in growth hormone availability. Both disorders stem from aberrations in the mesenchymal membranes of the embryonic skeleton.

Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth.

Where may bursae be found? in tendon sheaths beneath the skin covering a bone within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure Bursae may be found in all of these locations.

Bursae may be found in all of these locations.

elimination of calcium ions into the urine

Calcitonin causes what response in the kidneys? increased rate of calcium uptake by the kidney elimination of calcium ions into the urine increased release of calcitriol by the kidney inhibited osteoclast activity

What is the difference between rods and cones with respect to color vision?

Cones contain the pigment retinal attached to different forms of opsin.

__________ provide information about __________, giving us the perception of color.

Cones, the wavelength of arriving photons

__________ provide strength in many directions. Tendons Ligaments Reticular tissues Dense irregular connective tissues

Dense irregular connective tissues

The neurotransmitter glutamate opens channels that are permeable to sodium ions. What effect does glutamate produce on a postsynaptic neuron?

EPSPs

lower

Enzymes __________ the activation energy required for a reaction to proceed to completion.

Free Radicals Throughout a typical day or after exposure to pollution, cells generate free radicals. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms or molecules that contain an unpaired electron "seeking" the electrochemical stability of another electron. Common free radicals containing oxygen are known as reactive oxygen species (ROS). Free radicals such as ROS can damage proteins, DNA, and lipids. They prevent proteins from assuming their functional quaternary structure, DNA becomes cross-linked and unable to replicate, and the phospholipid bilayer of membranous organelles and the plasma membrane itself is pierced. Oxidative damage by free radicals underlies aging and numerous diseases such as Alzheimer's. What constitutes a free radical?

Free radicals are highly reactive atoms with an unpaired electron.

trapezoid

Identify the carpal bone at the end of the arrow. pisiform triquetrum lunate trapezoid

Potassium ion

Identify the chemical or molecule at the end of the arrow. Sodium ion Potassium ion Protein Chloride

fatty acids

Identify the component of a triglyceride within the bracket __________. nucleotides amino acids fatty acids glycerol

Which of the following is the most correct statement with regards to higher order function? Memory formation is a result of long term memory storage in the nucleus basalis near the diencephalon. During REM sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited, resulting in lowered heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration. A single memory engram is an amalgamation of many circuits that converge on one specific point in the cerebral cortex. If someone starts to fall asleep out of boredom, most likely the reticular activating system is not sending enough stimuli to keep the cerebral cortex activated.

If someone starts to fall asleep out of boredom, most likely the reticular activating system is not sending enough stimuli to keep the cerebral cortex activated.

are formed by the association of ions with opposite charges

Ionic bonds, such as in sodium chloride, __________. are formed by the association of ions with opposite charges share electrons are bonds created by the gaining of electrons are formed by the association of ions with the same charge

Which of these statements regarding the cornea is FALSE? It is part of the vascular layer. It refracts light strongly. It is transparent. It is covered by conjunctiva.

It is part of the vascular layer.

Which of these statements about the hip joint is FALSE? It permits adduction. It permits circumduction. It permits flexion. It permits plantar flexion.

It permits plantar flexion.

What is the trade off for joints with greater movement?

Joints with greater movement have less stability.

Lucy is a 24-year-old who describes having severe pain emanating from her right upper chest and shoulder. She has no family history of heart disease. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis for what she is experiencing? The spinocerebellar pathway is innervated due to excessive exercising. As a result, she feels pain in her right deltoid muscle. Lucy may be experiencing pain from a pulled muscle. This sensation is due to decussation of the gracilis and cutaneous spinal tracts. Lucy is having referred pain from her gallbladder. The visceral sensory pathway that follows along the same spinal segments is most likely innervating the lateral spinothalamic tracts. Lucy recently changed purses to one that is heavier, with a longer strap. She is experiencing pain through her anterior spinothalamic tracts as a result of this switch. Eventually, the muscles will adapt to the difference.

Lucy is having referred pain from her gallbladder. The visceral sensory pathway that follows along the same spinal segments is most likely innervating the lateral spinothalamic tracts.

store melanin in melanosomes

Melanocytes __________. are located in the stratum corneum store melanin in melanosomes manufacture melanin from the amino acid alanine are not found in albino individuals

medullary cavity

Name the bone structure indicated by the arrow.

Spinous Process of Lumbar Vertebrae

Name the vertebral process indicated by the arrow.

Which of these statements about the medulla oblongata is FALSE? It contains centers that regulate cardiovascular and respiratory functions. It lies between the cervical spinal cord and the pons. It relays sensory and motor information. None of the listed responses is correct.

None of the listed responses is correct.

You decide it is time to remove a stump from your front garden. So you dig out around it with a shovel, pry it out using a 2" x 4" stud balanced on a brick, and haul it away in a wheelbarrow. Of those different motions, which would be considered the third-class lever? The motion using the 2" x 4" stud to pry it out. The removal of the stump using the wheelbarrow. The shovel motion of digging around the stump is considered a third-class lever. None of these motions is considered a third-class lever.

None of these motions is considered a third-class lever.

__________ molecules store and process genetic information. Protein Lipid Nucleic acid amino acids

Nucleic acid

Which of the following explanations best describes why olfaction can elicit powerful emotional responses? Olfactory stimulation is processed through the motor cortex of the cerebrum. Olfactory stimulation is relayed from the processing center in the thalamus for widespread distribution in the cerebral cortex. Olfactory information is relayed directly to the hypothalamus and limbic system. These emotional responses are associated with memory engrams formed from the hippocampus.

Olfactory information is relayed directly to the hypothalamus and limbic system.

Which of the following best explains why the body "remembers" painful injuries long after they have been healed?

Pain receptors are slow-adapting receptors, so they adapt very slowly to changes in the PNS, such as the healing of an injury.

When you take a pain reliever, which of the following best describes, in general terms, how this affects the threshold of neurons? Taking a pain reliever does not affect the threshold of neurons. Taking a pain reliever decreases the threshold. Taking a pain reliever affects the all-or-none principle of neurons. So, neurons reaching threshold send an action potential at 50%. Taking a pain reliever increases the threshold.

Taking a pain reliever increases the threshold.

Terry has recently been diagnosed with an inherited form of depression. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the depression? Terry is experiencing the destruction of GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei. Terry has an overabundance of serotonin secretion. Terry's depression is a result of excessive production of dopamine. Terry has a mutation in the enzyme involved in NE synthesis.

Terry has a mutation in the enzyme involved in NE synthesis.

the structure responsible for the production of CSF

What is indicated by the arrow? an extension of the dura mater that supports and stabilizes the brain absorption of cerebrospinal fluid into the venous circulation the structure responsible for the production of CSF the area of the skull into which the fingerlike extensions, arachnoid villi, extend for reabsorption of CSF

osteoblast

The cell designated by the arrow is a(n) __________. osteoblast osteoclast osteocyte mesenchymal cell

Sheila is an American Indian, Jordan is an African American, and Melissa is Asian American. List these individuals in the order of who has the most melanocytes to who has the least. Sheila, Jordan, Melissa Jordan, Sheila, Melissa The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes. Jordan, Melissa, Sheila

The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes.

When calf-roping from horseback, the upper body of cowboys is very active, while the lower body is very stable and "quiet." Which of the following is the best explanation for this observed difference?

The pectoral girdle connections act as shock absorbers, whereas the pelvic girdle transfers weight from the axial to appendicular skeleton.

Hip Fracture A hip fracture, or a "broken hip," actually involves the femur, not a hip bone. The two types of hip fractures are femoral neck fractures and intertrochanteric fractures. In a femoral neck fracture, the femoral head is separated from the femur (and its blood supply). There is no disconnection to the blood supply in an intertrochanteric fracture. As a result, such fractures may be repaired with a metal plate and screws. Which of the following is a NOT a likely explanation for the increased occurrence of hip fractures in the elderly? There is a reduced ability to balance that often accompanies old age. The proximal epiphysis of the femur has a preponderance of spongy bone, which is weaker than compact bone. Osteoporosis reduces the ability of bone to be effectively remodeled. Bone density decreases with age.

The proximal epiphysis of the femur has a preponderance of spongy bone, which is weaker than compact bone.

thoracic cavity

The trunk is subdivided into the abdominopelvic and __________. thoracic cavity peritoneal cavity pelvic cavity pericardial cavity

Which of these functions does the vascular layer serve? It controls the shape of the lens. It regulates the amount of light that enters the eye. It supports blood vessels and lymphatics. The vascular layer performs all of these functions.

The vascular layer performs all of these functions.

Two women are comparable in age, body conformation, and are pregnant at the same time, but one experiences stretch marks, while the other does not. What would be a possible hypothesis for why there was an observed difference?

The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio.

Which of these is NOT a property of chemoreceptors? They trigger visceral reflexes. They are interoceptors. They are found in carotid bodies. They are classed as nociceptors.

They are classed as nociceptors.

Which of these is NOT a property of thermoreceptors? They are found within the dermis. They are free nerve endings. The "cold" and "warm" receptors are structurally indistinguishable. They are slow-adapting.

They are slow-adapting

synthesizing, modifying, and packaging proteins

This area of the endoplasmic reticulum indicated by the red arrow is involved in __________. intracellular storage, like calcium in muscle cells the synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates synthesis of steroid hormones synthesizing, modifying, and packaging proteins

rib

This facet on the transverse process of thoracic vertebrae provides an articulation site for a __________. clavicle xiphoid process rib sternum

protraction

This movement, indicated by the arrow, is known as __________. retraction protraction lateral flexion depression

Which of the following statements in reference to true body cavities is FALSE? True body cavities are fluid-filled. True body cavities are lined by a thin layer of tissue called a mucosa. The vital organs of the trunk are suspended within true body cavities. True body cavities are closed such that they separate their contents from the external environment.

True body cavities are lined by a thin layer of tissue called a mucosa.

Too Sweet on Sugar? A baby's first and favorite taste is sweet: mother's milk is rich in lactose (milk sugar), a disaccharide of glucose and galactose. This preference for sweet persists throughout life. It is easier to tempt the poor appetite of a frail, elderly person with a bowl of pudding than with a bowl of steamed kale. Manufacturers of processed foods know this. When heart disease became endemic in the United States, holding first place as the killer of Americans, the medical community advocated a low-fat diet for heart health. Artery-clogging fats were removed from manufactured foods--such as cookies, soups, and other boxed, bagged, and frozen products--and replaced with sugar for flavor and mouth appeal. The sweetening of the American diet has wreaked a new kind of havoc on American health. Dental hygienists see more dental caries (cavities). Obesity is climbing at an alarming rate. Grade-school children are developing more type 2 diabetes, formerly called "adult-onset diabetes." These serious and potentially fatal diseases generally did not appear until a person had lived several decades with a poor lifestyle. Glucose is a necessary nutrient. Our body's cells depend on it for fuel; our neurons (brain cells) require it. However, we should meet our glucose needs through complex carbohydrates, or polysaccharides (such as glycogen). In contrast to simple sugars, complex carbohydrates are digested slowly by decomposition reactions in the digestive tract. The component monosaccharides of glucose are released and absorbed gradually, maintaining a steady blood glucose level. In turn, the pancreas is signaled only as needed to make the protein hormone insulin, which transports the glucose into the body's cells. Complex carbohydrates promote satiety (fullness) and support healthy sugar metabolism. The dietary practices of the Inuit in the Arctic regions prove the point that diets rich in fat are not automatically unhealthy. Which of the following statements provides one possible explanation? Arctic fish naturally contain a healthy amount of trans fatty acids. Unsaturated fats containing Omega 3s reportedly have a positive effect on cardiovascular health. Arctic temperatures convert saturated fats to monounsaturated fats. Healthy oleic acids are unusually abundant in arctic fish.

Unsaturated fats containing Omega 3s reportedly have a positive effect on cardiovascular health.

coordination of complex motor patterns

What is the function of the brain structure indicated by the arrow? processes visual data relays sensory information to the thalamus and cerebellum conscious thought coordination of complex motor patterns

storage of calcium

What is the function of the structure indicated by the arrow? = *Sacroplasmic Reticulum

distribute action potentials throughout the interior of the skeletal muscle cell

What is the function of the structure indicated by the arrows? making of energy (ATP); "power house" of the cell distribute action potentials throughout the interior of the skeletal muscle cell storage of calcium houses the genetic material (DNA) of the cell

synarthrosis

What is the functional classification of the joint at the end of the arrow? *Sagital Suture *Fibrous *No movement (See Functional and Structural Classifications of Joints)

serial

What type of neural circuit is indicated by the arrow? serial parallel reverberation divergent

jugular foramen

Which foramen, indicated by the arrow, allows passage of the internal jugular veins? carotid canals foramen magnum hypoglossal canals jugular foramen

Gap junctions (communicating junctions)

Which junction is required for cell-to-cell communication?

masseter

Which muscle is indicated by the arrow? masseter temporalis sternocleidomastoid orbicularis oculi

axillary

Which nerve, branching from the posterior cord, is indicated by the arrow?

sebaceous

Which of the following glands secretes oil into the hair follicle? ceruminous apocrine merocrine sebaceous

hematoma

Which of the following is formed immediately after a fracture?

the boundary between adjacent sarcomeres *The H band is a lighter region of the sarcomere where only thick filaments are found.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the structure (band or line) of the sarcomere indicated by the arrow?

cervical

Which spinal curve develops as the infant learns to support the head?

compound tubuloalveolar

Which type of compound gland, shown at the end of the arrow, is found in salivary glands? compound tubuloalveolar compound alveolar simple branched alveolar compound tubular

An example of a sensor in a negative feedback loop that controls body temperature is __________. a sweat gland the hypothalamus a thermoreceptor skeletal muscle contraction

a thermoreceptor

An example of a sensor in a negative feedback loop that controls body temperature is __________. the hypothalamus a sweat gland skeletal muscle contraction a thermoreceptor

a thermoreceptor

Calcitriol is required for __________. collagen synthesis epiphyseal closure absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate activating osteoclasts

absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate

Calcitriol is required for __________. epiphyseal closure collagen synthesis absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate activating osteoclasts

absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate

FaintingA stressful or emotional event may trigger a sudden and overwhelming loss of consciousness, commonly known as fainting. The technical term for fainting is the vasovagal response (vaso, "vascular"; vagal, "vagus nerve"). This response is the result of a momentary malfunction of the sympathetic division, causing the parasympathetic division (sometimes called the "faint and freeze" division) to go into overdrive. In this process, parasympathetic stimulation of the vagus nerve causes it to release ACh at the cardiac plexus. However, without any counteracting stimulation from the sympathetic nervous system, the heart rate slows, the force of contractions decreases, and blood pressure drops. As a result, blood flow to the brain decreases, causing the fainting episode. Rapid recovery begins as soon as the sympathetic division takes over, releasing norepinephrine at the cardiac plexus and throughout the body. Heart rate and blood pressure increase, as does level of consciousness. To prevent a vasovagal response, a person beginning to feel faint should lie down before he or she falls down. This action will deliver more blood flow to the brain and help prevent an injury. Increased vagal tone slows down the heart rate and subsequent reduction of blood flow to the brain. Which neurotransmitter is responsible for lowering the heart rate?

acetylcholine (ACh)

The parasympathetic nervous system releases __________ at ganglionic synapses and __________ at its neuroeffector junctions.

acetylcholine, acetylcholine

Which of the following situations could contribute to prolonged muscle contraction? limited availability of calcium ions cross-bridge formation being reduced acetylcholinesterase not being produced infrequent neural stimulus

acetylcholinesterase not being produced

Intramuscular Injections Drugs are commonly injected into muscle or adipose tissues rather than directly into the bloodstream. (Accessing blood vessels may be technically more c omplicated.) An intramuscular (IM) injection introduces a drug into the mass of a large skeletal muscle. Depending on the size of the muscle, up to 5 mL of fluid may be injected at one time. This fairly large volume of drug then enters the circulation gradually. Uptake is generally faster and accompanied by less tissue irritation than when drugs are administered intradermally (injected into the dermis) or subcutaneously (injected into the subcutaneous layer). A decision on the injection technique and the injection site is based on the type of drug and its concentration. For IM injections, the most common complications involve accidental injection into a blood vessel or a nerve. The sudden entry of massive quantities of drug into the bloodstream can have fatal consequences. Damage to a nerve can cause motor paralysis or sensory loss. For these reasons, the site of the injection must be selected with care. Bulky muscles that contain few large vessels or nerves are ideal sites. The gluteus medius or the posterior, lateral, superior part of the gluteus maximus muscle is commonly selected. The deltoid muscle of the arm, about 2.5 cm (1 in.) distal to the acromion, is another effective site. From a technical point of view, the vastus lateralis of the thigh is a good site. Injections into this thick muscle will not encounter vessels or nerves but may cause pain later when the muscle is used in walking. This is the preferred injection site in infants before they start walking, as their gluteal and deltoid muscles are relatively small. The site is also used in elderly patients or others with atrophied gluteal and deltoid muscles. Considering that the likelihood of nerve damage due to intramuscular injections into bulky muscles with fewer nerves is greatly reduced, into which of the following muscles would you NOT want to receive an intramuscular injection? gluteus medius adductor longus deltoid vastus lateralis

adductor longus

Identify the structure at the end of the arrow.

an arachnoid granulation

The first step in the process of olfaction is __________. an odorant molecule binding to a specific protein mucus production sneezing sniffing the air

an odorant molecule binding to a specific protein

In mitosis, daughter chromosomes separate from chromatids during __________. metaphase telophase prophase anaphase

anaphase

Muscles are attached to bones by tendons or __________. aponeuroses perimysium ligaments superficial fascia

aponeuroses

The nasal conchae __________.

assist in respiration and olfaction

When a person has a stroke, blood leaks into the brain tissue. Which type of neuroglia cells would make structural repairs to the damage? satellite cells oligodendrocytes ependymal cells astrocytes

astrocytes

Burns and Grafts Burns are common injuries that result from skin exposure to heat, friction, radiation, electrical shock, or strong chemical agents. In evaluating burns in a clinical setting, two key factors must be determined: the depth of the burn and the percentage of skin surface area that has been burned. In a first-degree burn or partial-thickness burn, only the surface of the epidermis is damaged. In this type of burn, which includes most sunburns, the skin reddens and can be painful. The redness, a sign called erythema (er-i-THE-muh), results from inflammation of the sun-damaged tissues. In a second-degree burn or partial-thickness burn, the entire epidermis and perhaps some of the dermis are damaged. Hair follicles and glands are usually not affected, but blistering, pain, and swelling occur. If the blisters rupture, infection can easily develop. Healing typically takes one to two weeks, and some scar tissue may form. Third-degree burns, or full-thickness burns, destroy the epidermis and dermis, extending into the subcutaneous layer. Despite swelling, these burns are less painful than second-degree burns, because sensory nerves are destroyed. These burns cannot repair themselves, because granulation tissue cannot form and epithelial cells cannot cover the injury site. Skin grafting is usually necessary. Estimation of Surface Burn Area: A simple method for estimating burn area is the rule of nines. The surface area in adults is divided into multiples of 9 and then the damaged regions are totaled. This rule is modified for children because their body proportions are different. The depth of the burn can be assessed quickly with a pin. Because loss of sensation indicates a full-thickness burn, no reaction to a pin prick indicates a third-degree burn. Burns and Skin Function: Burns that cover more than 20 percent of the skin surface threaten life, because they affect the following functions: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance: Fluid and electrolytes are lost because the skin is no longer an effective barrier. In second-degree burns, fluid loss may reach five times the normal level. Protection from Infection: Widespread infection (sepsis) can result. Increased fluid loss causes increased cooling by evaporation. As a result, more energy must be used to maintain normal body temperature. Protection from Infection: Widespread infection (sepsis) can result. Some burn victims benefit from skin grafts cultured from their own skin cells. Which skin cells are the most likely candidates for such a culture?

basal cells

Which of these is NOT a member of the quadriceps group? vastus intermedius vastus medialis vastus lateralis biceps femoris

biceps femoris

Upper motor neurons of the corticobulbar tract synapse with lower motor neurons in the __________. posterior horns of the spinal cord anterior horns of the spinal cord basal nuclei brainstem

brainstem

The recirculation of fluids in the body is essential to homeostasis, eliminating local variations in the fluids, maintaining blood volume, and alerting the immune system to infection. Which of the following correctly describes the recirculation of fluids in the body? lymph, interstitial fluid, cardiovascular system, lymph cardiovascular system, interstitial fluid, cardiovascular system, lymph cardiovascular system, interstitial fluid, lymph, cardiovascular system interstitial fluid, cardiovascular system, lymph, interstitial fluid

cardiovascular system, interstitial fluid, lymph, cardiovascular system

Making rapid postural adjustments is a major function of the __________. cerebellum medulla oblongata diencephalon cerebrum

cerebellum

Parasympathetic outflow is ABSENT in which of these? pelvic nerves cervical ganglia cranial nerve III cranial nerve X

cervical ganglia

Too Sweet on Sugar? A baby's first and favorite taste is sweet: mother's milk is rich in lactose (milk sugar), a disaccharide of glucose and galactose. This preference for sweet persists throughout life. It is easier to tempt the poor appetite of a frail, elderly person with a bowl of pudding than with a bowl of steamed kale. Manufacturers of processed foods know this. When heart disease became endemic in the United States, holding first place as the killer of Americans, the medical community advocated a low-fat diet for heart health. Artery-clogging fats were removed from manufactured foods--such as cookies, soups, and other boxed, bagged, and frozen products--and replaced with sugar for flavor and mouth appeal. The sweetening of the American diet has wreaked a new kind of havoc on American health. Dental hygienists see more dental caries (cavities). Obesity is climbing at an alarming rate. Grade-school children are developing more type 2 diabetes, formerly called "adult-onset diabetes." These serious and potentially fatal diseases generally did not appear until a person had lived several decades with a poor lifestyle. Glucose is a necessary nutrient. Our body's cells depend on it for fuel; our neurons (brain cells) require it. However, we should meet our glucose needs through complex carbohydrates, or polysaccharides (such as glycogen). In contrast to simple sugars, complex carbohydrates are digested slowly by decomposition reactions in the digestive tract. The component monosaccharides of glucose are released and absorbed gradually, maintaining a steady blood glucose level. In turn, the pancreas is signaled only as needed to make the protein hormone insulin, which transports the glucose into the body's cells. Complex carbohydrates promote satiety (fullness) and support healthy sugar metabolism. What type of carbohydrate is best to consume in order to reduce the risk of diabetes? complex carbohydrates triglycerides corn syrup proteins

complex carbohydrates

What is the function of the brain structure indicated by the arrow? coordination of complex motor patterns relays sensory information to the thalamus and cerebellum. processes visual data conscious thought

conscious thought

The pons is involved in all of the following EXCEPT __________. connections to cerebellum respiration control of food intake automatically processes incoming sensations

control of food intake

The __________ reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that involves activating muscles contralateral to the receptor. crossed extensor flexor tendon stretch

crossed extensor

Which of these sciences began with the invention of the microscope? surface anatomy systemic anatomy cytology physiology

cytology

Fatigued muscles signify __________. lowered body temperature decreased pH oxygen recovery accumulation of pyruvic acid

decreased pH

During endochondral bone formation, the primary ossification center is located in the __________. distal epiphysis metaphysis proximal epiphysis diaphysis

diaphysis

The shaft of a long bone is also called the __________. epiphysis medullary cavity metaphysis diaphysis

diaphysis

Chemical reactions that absorb energy are said to be __________.

endergonic *Exothermic (exo- = "outside"; therm = "heat") refers to the release of heat from the reaction. Heat can be a synonym for energy, but the question is asking about a reaction in which energy is absorbed, not released.

Relative movement of the __________ in the semicircular ducts signals rotation of the head.

endolymph

Fibroblast cells can migrate between tissues, whereas epithelial cells adhere strongly to each other and resist stretching. Based on this description, you could surmise that __________ would have more intermediate filaments than __________. skeletal muscle cells; epithelial cells epithelial cells; fibroblast cells fibroblasts; epithelial cells fibroblast cells; red blood cells

epithelial cells; fibroblast cells

One of the reasons that men can grow taller than women is because __________. androgens stimulate increased osteoclast activity estrogens stimulate the synthesis of bone matrix estrogens stimulate epiphyseal closure earlier than androgens androgens stimulate osteoblast activity

estrogens stimulate epiphyseal closure earlier than androgens

Excessive turning of the sole of the foot outward is called __________. protraction dorsiflexion inversion eversion

eversion

Burns and Grafts Burns are common injuries that result from skin exposure to heat, friction, radiation, electrical shock, or strong chemical agents. In evaluating burns in a clinical setting, two key factors must be determined: the depth of the burn and the percentage of skin surface area that has been burned. In a first-degree burn or partial-thickness burn, only the surface of the epidermis is damaged. In this type of burn, which includes most sunburns, the skin reddens and can be painful. The redness, a sign called erythema (er-i-THE-muh), results from inflammation of the sun-damaged tissues. In a second-degree burn or partial-thickness burn, the entire epidermis and perhaps some of the dermis are damaged. Hair follicles and glands are usually not affected, but blistering, pain, and swelling occur. If the blisters rupture, infection can easily develop. Healing typically takes one to two weeks, and some scar tissue may form. Third-degree burns, or full-thickness burns, destroy the epidermis and dermis, extending into the subcutaneous layer. Despite swelling, these burns are less painful than second-degree burns, because sensory nerves are destroyed. These burns cannot repair themselves, because granulation tissue cannot form and epithelial cells cannot cover the injury site. Skin grafting is usually necessary. Estimation of Surface Burn Area: A simple method for estimating burn area is the rule of nines. The surface area in adults is divided into multiples of 9 and then the damaged regions are totaled. This rule is modified for children because their body proportions are different. The depth of the burn can be assessed quickly with a pin. Because loss of sensation indicates a full-thickness burn, no reaction to a pin prick indicates a third-degree burn. Burns and Skin Function: Burns that cover more than 20 percent of the skin surface threaten life, because they affect the following functions: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance: Fluid and electrolytes are lost because the skin is no longer an effective barrier. In second-degree burns, fluid loss may reach five times the normal level. Protection from Infection: Widespread infection (sepsis) can result. Increased fluid loss causes increased cooling by evaporation. As a result, more energy must be used to maintain normal body temperature. Protection from Infection: Widespread infection (sepsis) can result. In a second-degree burn, the entire epidermis and perhaps some of the dermis are damaged. Which of the following functions of the skin is NOT typically affected by a second-degree burn?

excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands

Which of these muscles elevates the mandible?

temporalis

Epidural and Subdural Hemorrhages A severe head injury may damage meningeal blood vessels and cause bleeding into the cranial cavity. The most serious cases involve an arterial break because arterial blood pressure is relatively high. If blood is forced between the dura mater and the skull, the condition is known as an epidural hemorrhage (HEM-o-raj). The elevated fluid pr essure then distorts the underlying tissues of the brain. The individual loses consciousness for a period lasting from minutes to hours after the injury, and death follows in untreated cases. The individua l may not have neurological problems for hours, days, or even weeks after the original injury. As a result, the problem may not be noticed until the nervous tissue has been severely damaged. Epidural hemor rhages are rare, occurring in less than 1 percent of head injuries. However, the mortality rate is 100 percent in untreated cases as well as in more than 50 percent even after the blood pool has been remov ed and the damaged vessels have been closed. A subdural hemorrhage is bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. Subdural hemorrhages are twice as common as epidural hemorrhages. Small veins that cross the subdural space or one of the dural venous sinuses cause the bleeding. Because the venous blood pressure in a subdural hemorrhage is lower than that in an arterial epidural hemorrhage, the distortion produced is gradual. The effects on brain function can be quite variable and difficult to diagnose. The accumulation of blood during an epidural or subdural hemorrhage creates debilitating pressure on the brain and, without help, death is imminent. Where exactly is blood accumulating in a subdural hemorrhage? in the ventricles of the brain in the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater in the space between the dura mater and the skull in the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

in the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

The process of skin repair after injury begins with __________.

inflammation

Abnormal Bone Development A variety of endocrine or metabolic problems can result in characteristic skeletal changes. In pituitary growth failure, inadequate production of growth hormone leads to reduced epiphyseal cartilage activity and abnormally short bones. This condition is becoming increasingly rare in the United States, because children can be treated with synthetic human growth hormone. Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty (Photo a). (The world record for height is 272 cm, or 8 ft, 11 in. It was reached by Robert Wadlow, of Alton, Illinois, who died at age 22 in 1940. Wadlow weighed 216 kg, or 475 lb.) If the growth hormone level rises abnormally after epiphyseal cartilages close, the skeleton does not grow longer. Instead, bones get thicker, especially in the face, jaw, and hands. Cartilage growth and alterations in soft-tissue structure lead to changes in physical features, such as the contours of the face. These physical changes take place in the disorder called acromegaly (ak-roh-MEG-ah-lē). Several inherited metabolic conditions that affect many systems influence the growth and development of the skeletal system. These conditions produce characteristic variations in body proportions. For example, many individuals with Marfan's syndrome are very tall and have long, slender limbs (Photo b). The cause is excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages. The underlying mutation affects the structure of connective tissue throughout the body, and commonly causes cardiovascular events such as the sudden death of athletes during strenuous athletic contests. Marfan's syndrome is a disorder associated with excessive growth in length of limbs and digits, giving the afflicted individual a tall and lanky appearance. What is the clinical term for bone growth in length? intramembranous ossification interstitial growth heterotopic ossification appositional growth

interstitial growth

Which of these organs does the sacrum NOT protect? kidney uterus ovaries urinary bladder

kidney

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the __________ horn of the __________ cord. ventral gray, sacral spinal lateral gray, sacral spinal lateral gray, thoracic and lumbar spinal ventral gray, thoracic and lumbar spinal

lateral gray, thoracic and lumbar spinal

The tract carrying sensations of pressure and pain is the __________. cuneate fasciculus anterior spinocerebellar tract lateral spinothalamic tract medial lemniscus

lateral spinothalamic tract

Which type of ion channel is always open? chemically-gated voltage-gated leak mechanically-gated

leak

The spleen is located in the __________ quadrant. right upper right lower left lower left upper

left upper

Enzymes are considered catalysts because they __________. increase the activation energy of a reaction do not need an active site for binding to the substrates lower the activation energy of a reaction become a component of the newly formed product

lower the activation energy of a reaction

Which of these forms by intramembranous bone formation? long bones carpal bones humerus mandible

mandible

A developmental disorder called cleft palate occurs when what two facial bones fail to fuse? vomer maxillae palatine bones ethmoid

maxillae

Sinusitis When an irritant or allergen, such as pepper, pollen, or dust, is introduced into the nasal passages, our bodies work to remove it, often by sneezing. The sneeze expel s the irritant out with the air. Small particles or milder irritants may trigger mucus production by the epithelium of the paranasal sinuses. The mucus stream flushes the nasal surfaces clean, often removing irritants. In allergic rhinitis (ri-NI-tus), an overactive immune response to an allergen causes excessive mucosal swelling, mucus production, and sneezing. A sinus infection is another matter entirely. A viral, bacterial, or fungal infection produces an inflammation of the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity. As the membrane swells, the small passageways called ostia within the paranasal sinuses n arrow. Mucus drains more slowly, the sinuses fill, and the person experiences headaches and pressure within the facial bones. This condition is called sinusitis. The maxillary sinuses are commonly i nvolved. Sinusitis pain relief is the basis of a large over-the-counter drug market in the United States. The active ingredients in these drugs dry the epithelial linings, reduce pain, and restrict further swelling. A nondrug remedy is the neti (NEH-te) pot. To use this small teapot-shaped vessel, fill it with warm saltwater and gently pour into your nostrils while your head is tilted over the sink. The saltwater fl ows through your nasal cavity, irrigating the nasal passages, and out the other nostril. The process is repeated on the other side. Chronic (long-term) sinusitis may accompany chronic allergies. It may also occur as the result of a deviated nasal septum, in which the cartilaginous structure dividing the nasal is bent. Septal deviation often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses, producing chronic cycles of infection and inflammation. Sinusitis, an inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, is brought on by a viral, bacterial, or fungal infection. The most commonly affected paranasal sinuses are the most inferior ones, which are called __________. ethmoid air cells frontal sinuses sphenoidal sinuses maxillary sinuses

maxillary sinuses

Skin exposed to ultraviolet light increases production of __________. keratin melanin collagen carotene

melanin

Epidural and Subdural Hemorrhages A severe head injury may damage meningeal blood vessels and cause bleeding into the cranial cavity. The most serious cases involve an arterial break because arterial blood pressure is relatively high. If blood is forced between the dura mater and the skull, the condition is known as an epidural hemorrhage (HEM-o-raj). The elevated fluid pr essure then distorts the underlying tissues of the brain. The individual loses consciousness for a period lasting from minutes to hours after the injury, and death follows in untreated cases. The individua l may not have neurological problems for hours, days, or even weeks after the original injury. As a result, the problem may not be noticed until the nervous tissue has been severely damaged. Epidural hemor rhages are rare, occurring in less than 1 percent of head injuries. However, the mortality rate is 100 percent in untreated cases as well as in more than 50 percent even after the blood pool has been remov ed and the damaged vessels have been closed. A subdural hemorrhage is bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. Subdural hemorrhages are twice as common as epidural hemorrhages. Small veins that cross the subdural space or one of the dural venous sinuses cause the bleeding. Because the venous blood pressure in a subdural hemorrhage is lower than that in an arterial epidural hemorrhage, the distortion produced is gradual. The effects on brain function can be quite variable and difficult to diagnose. The collection of blood vessels supplying the protective connective tissue layers surrounding the brain may hemorrhage during severe head trauma. This is the case in epidural and subdural hemorrhages. Which of the following names sounds most appropriate for this collection of blood vessels? meningeal blood vessels capillaries of the choroid plexus arachnoid trabeculae None of the listed responses is correct.

meningeal blood vessels

The pons exchanges information with the cerebellum over the __________. middle cerebellar peduncle The pons exchanges information with the cerebellum over all of these structures. inferior cerebellar peduncle superior cerebellar peduncle

middle cerebellar peduncle

Olfactory sensory neurons are short-lived and, therefore, replaced frequently. How does this turnover happen? mitotic division of olfactory sensory neurons mitotic division and differentiation of odorants mitotic division and differentiation of supporting cells mitotic division and differentiation of basal epithelial cells

mitotic division and differentiation of basal epithelial cells

Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the simplest to the most complex? molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, organ system tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, organ system, organism cellular, tissue, molecular, organ system, organ, organism

molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

Which of these is NOT a primary function of the skeletal system? storage of minerals and lipids blood cell production movement protection

movement THE 4TH PROTECTION IS LEVERAGE*

Most CNS neurons fall into which structural category?

multipolar

What area of the thick filament binds to actin once actin's binding sites are exposed?

myosin cross-bridge (head)

Maintenance of a constant body temperature is an example of __________. hormonal signaling positive feedback negative feedback static equilibrium

negative feedback

Maintenance of a constant body temperature is an example of __________. positive feedback negative feedback static equilibrium hormonal signaling

negative feedback

Which of these is NOT a type of mechanoreceptor? nociceptor root hair plexus baroreceptor tactile

nociceptor

Which of these muscles elevates the mandible? digastric temporalis mporalisoccipitofrontalis (frontal belly) zygomatic

temporalis

Heterotopic Bone Formation Heterotopic (hetero-, different + topos, place) ossification (HO) is the abnormal development of bone in non-skeletal tissues. This new bone grows at a rate that is three times faster than normal bone formation and is classified by three main types: myositis ossificans, traumatic myositis ossi-ficans, and neurogenic heterotopic ossification. Myositis ossificans is a rare genetic form that causes ossification of the muscles. Traumatic myositis ossificans occurs in an area that has experienced repeated trauma or a single hard hit to soft tissue, or as a result of hip surgery. Neurogenic heterotopic ossification occurs frequently as a complication of spinal cord injury, but the pathophysiology is not as yet understood. All forms are characterized by pain and decreased range of motion; treatment is problematic because any surgical intervention may trigger more ossification. Heterotopic bone formation is a term used to describe bones that develop in unusual places. Such unusual bone development relies on the presence of bone-building cells called __________. osteoclasts osteocytes osteoprogenitor cells osteoblasts

osteoblasts

What structural feature of compact bone prevents it from bending when forces are applied to either end? central canal osteons perforating canals trabeculae

osteons

Which of the following is NOT part of the axial division of the skeletal system?

pelvic girdle

Sinusitis When an irritant or allergen, such as pepper, pollen, or dust, is introduced into the nasal passages, our bodies work to remove it, often by sneezing. The sneeze expel s the irritant out with the air. Small particles or milder irritants may trigger mucus production by the epithelium of the paranasal sinuses. The mucus stream flushes the nasal surfaces clean, often removi ng irritants. In allergic rhinitis (ri-NI-tus), an overactive immune response to an allergen causes excessive mucosal swelling, mucus production, and sneezing. A sinus infection is another matter entirely. A viral, bacterial, or fungal infection produces an inflammation of the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity. As the membrane swells, the small passageways called ostia within the paranasal sinuses n arrow. Mucus drains more slowly, the sinuses fill, and the person experiences headaches and pressure within the facial bones. This condition is called sinusitis. The maxillary sinuses are commonly i nvolved. Sinusitis pain relief is the basis of a large over-the-counter drug market in the United States. The active ingredients in these drugs dry the epithelial linings, reduce pain, and restrict further swelling. A nondrug remedy is the neti (NEH-te) pot. To use this small teapot-shaped vessel, fill it with warm saltwater and gently pour into your nostrils while your head is tilted over the sink. The saltwater fl ows through your nasal cavity, irrigating the nasal passages, and out the other nostril. The process is repeated on the other side. Chronic (long-term) sinusitis may accompany chronic allergies. It may also occur as the result of a deviated nasal septum, in which the cartilaginous structure dividing the nasal is bent. Septal deviation often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses, producing chronic cycles of infection and inflammation. While skateboarding, a young person suffered a fracture of the nose that resulted in a deviated septum. Which of the following bones or bone markings is most likely attended to during corrective surgery following this accident? lacrimal bone greater wings of the sphenoid perpendicular plate of the ethmoid palatine process of the maxilla

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid

What structure is located in the hypophyseal fossa of the sphenoid bone? lacrimal gland sphenoid sinus pituitary gland parotid gland

pituitary gland

Which of the following is an example of a skill memory? the smell of cut grass the color of your hair playing the piano the name of your first pet

playing the piano

Another name for the thumb is __________. calcaneus hallux phalanx pollex

pollex

The most abundant intracellular cation is __________, while the most abundant extracellular anion is __________. potassium, protein anions potassium, chloride sodium, chloride sodium, protein anions

potassium, chloride

The most abundant intracellular cation is __________, while the most abundant extracellular anion is __________. sodium, protein anions potassium, chloride potassium, protein anions sodium, chloride

potassium, chloride

What neuron runs from the CNS to the autonomic ganglion? somatic motor neuron lower motor neuron preganglionic neuron postganglionic neuron

preganglionic neuron

The neurotransmitter GABA blocks presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. Consequently, GABA produces __________. EPSPs presynaptic inhibition presynaptic facilitation IPSPs

presynaptic inhibition

Identify the site in the center of the cartilage bone model where bone development first occurs.

primary ossification center

The yellow colored tract at the end of the arrow carries __________ information to the cerebellum. proprioceptive crude touch, pain, pressure, and temperature fine touch, vibration, and pressure somatic motor

proprioceptive

The process of bone recycling and renewal is known as __________. remodeling fracture repair metabolic turnover the cartilage model

remodeling

Detached Retina Photoreceptors depend entirely on the diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from blood vessels in the choroid. In a detached retina, the neural part of the retina becomes separated from the pigmented layer. This condition can result from a variety of factors, including a sudden hard impact to the eye. This is a medical emergency. Unless the two parts of the retina are reattached, the photoreceptors will degenerate and vision will be lost. Reattachment involves "welding" the two parts together using laser beams focused through the cornea. These beams heat the two parts, fusing them together at several points around the retina. However, the procedure destroys the photoreceptors at the "welds," producing permanent blind spots. In a condition called detached retina, the neural layer of the retina separates from the pigmented part. Blindness may result if blood supply to the photoreceptors cannot be restored. What are these photoreceptors called? bipolar cells rods and cones amacrine and horizontal cells ganglion cells

rods and cones

What muscle name refers to "tailor"? tensor sartorius levator pronator

sartorius

If brain damage occurred at the point indicated by the arrow, what brain function would be lost? speech sensory awareness of the face motor control of the face control of breathing

sensory awareness of the face

The patella is an example of a __________ bone. sesamoid short long flat

sesamoid

The vertebral column contains __________ cervical vertebrae.

seven

Myosatellite cells are found within __________ muscle. smooth cardiac skeletal skeletal and smooth

skeletal

Which type of muscle tissue has the greatest effect on the body's heat production? smooth skeletal cardiac All of these muscle types have about the same effect on the body's heat production.

skeletal

The __________ is part of the central nervous system (CNS) and the __________ is part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

spinal cord; spinal nerve

Phantom Limb Syndrome A soldier in the Afghan War unwittingly steps on a landmine. Although he survives, he loses his leg. During his extended rehabilitation, he is at risk for a curious phenomenon called phantom limb syndrome. His leg--the one he lost--keeps him up at night with pain. Sometimes the leg burns; other times it feels like pins and needles. He says this leg feels touch, pressure, and vibration. It even itches! Despite the amputation, the sensory pathway for this leg persists and continues to convey messages to the thalamus. If the veteran is fit for a prosthesis (an artificial limb replacement) and wears it early and regularly, the device will ease his phantom limb pain by applying a real physical stimulus to the limb stump. In phantom limb syndrome, which sensory pathway is responsible for conveying the sensory neuron activities? spinothalamic visceral sensory posterior column spinocerebellar

spinothalamic

The external ear does NOT include the __________. auricle stapes tympanic membrane external acoustic meatus

stapes

Which of these substances is NOT considered a neuromodulator? enkephalins opioids substance P endorphins

substance P

FaintingA stressful or emotional event may trigger a sudden and overwhelming loss of consciousness, commonly known as fainting. The technical term for fainting is the vasovagal response (vaso, "vascular"; vagal, "vagus nerve"). This response is the result of a momentary malfunction of the sympathetic division, causing the parasympathetic division (sometimes called the "faint and freeze" division) to go into overdrive. In this process, parasympathetic stimulation of the vagus nerve causes it to release ACh at the cardiac plexus. However, without any counteracting stimulation from the sympathetic nervous system, the heart rate slows, the force of contractions decreases, and blood pressure drops. As a result, blood flow to the brain decreases, causing the fainting episode. Rapid recovery begins as soon as the sympathetic division takes over, releasing norepinephrine at the cardiac plexus and throughout the body. Heart rate and blood pressure increase, as does level of consciousness. To prevent a vasovagal response, a person beginning to feel faint should lie down before he or she falls down. This action will deliver more blood flow to the brain and help prevent an injury. What is the medical term for fainting?

syncope

Articular cartilage is found within a __________.

synovial joint

The cerebrum develops from the embryonic __________.

telencephalon

The cerebrum develops from the embryonic __________. mesencephalon metencephalon telencephalon diencephalon

telencephalon

The chromosomal structure that limits the number of cell divisions of a cell is the __________

telomere

Knee Injuries Athletes place tremendous stresses on their knees. Ordinarily, the medial and lateral menisci move as the position of the femur changes. The knee is most stable when it is straight. However, if a locked knee is struck from the side, the lateral meniscus can tear and the supporting ligaments can be seriously damaged. Placing a lot of weight on the knee while it is partially flexed can trap a meniscus between the tibia and femur, resulting in a break or tear in the cartilage. In the most common injury, the lateral surface of the leg is driven medially, tearing the medial meniscus. In addition to being quite painful, the torn cartilage may restrict movement at the joint. It can also lead to chronic problems and the development of a "trick knee"--a knee that feels unstable. Sometimes the meniscus can be heard and felt popping in and out of position when the knee is extended. Other knee injuries involve tearing one or more stabilizing ligaments or damaging the patella. Torn ligaments can be difficult to correct surgically, and healing is slow. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries are frequently caused by twisting an extended weight-bearing knee. Soccer, football, and basketball players are more likely than other athletes to injure their ACLs. Nonsurgical treatment with exercise and braces is possible but requires a change in activity. Reconstructive surgery using part of the patellar tendon or a graft from a cadaver tendon may allow a return to active sports. A strong hit or force to the lateral surface of the knee, as in a football tackle or flying hockey puck, may damage both the ACL and the medial collateral ligament (MCL).The patella can be injured in a number of ways. If the leg is immobilized (as it might be in a football pileup) while you try to extend the knee, the muscles are powerful enough to pull the patella apart. Impacts to the anterior surface of the knee can also shatter the patella. Knee injuries may lead to chronic painful arthritis that impairs walking. Total knee replacement surgery is rarely performed on young people, but it is becoming increasingly common among elderly patients with severe arthritis. During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged? the lateral collateral ligament the fibular collateral ligament the lateral meniscus the medial meniscus

the lateral meniscus

How many nucleotides are needed to code for an amino acid? one two three four

three

Heterotopic Bone Formation Heterotopic (hetero-, different + topos, place) ossification (HO) is the abnormal development of bone in non-skeletal tissues. This new bone grows at a rate that is three times faster than normal bone formation and is classified by three main types: myositis ossificans, traumatic myositis ossi-ficans, and neurogenic heterotopic ossification. Myositis ossificans is a rare genetic form that causes ossification of the muscles. Traumatic myositis ossificans occurs in an area that has experienced repeated trauma or a single hard hit to soft tissue, or as a result of hip surgery. Neurogenic heterotopic ossification occurs frequently as a complication of spinal cord injury, but the pathophysiology is not as yet understood. All forms are characterized by pain and decreased range of motion; treatment is problematic because any surgical intervention may trigger more ossification. Wearing inappropriately tight shoes can put undue pressure on feet. Such pressure may then lead to painful heterotopic bone formation in the soft tissues of the foot. What medical term describes this condition? endochondral ossification myositis ossificans traumatic myositis ossificans neurogenic heterotopic ossification

traumatic myositis ossificans

Which of these is NOT a division of the bony labyrinth? vestibule semicircular canals cochlea utricle

utricle

Which of these are NOT part of the afferent division of the nervous system? ascending tracts of white matter cranial nerves I, II, and V dorsal roots ventral roots

ventral roots

The axons that carry the sense of balance synapse first in the __________. vestibular nucleus lateral geniculate body vestibular ganglion cerebellum

vestibular nucleus

The first step in the olfactory process is __________. detection in the olfactory bulbs when an action potential is generated on the axon of the cranial nerve, carrying the sensation to the CNS when an odorant dissolves in the olfactory mucus fluid when ion channels open

when an odorant dissolves in the olfactory mucus fluid