Biology 101 Exam 4, Chapter 9,10,12

Haploid

(1) copy of each chromosomes in a cell (reproductive cells sperm/eggs)

Diploid

2 sets of chromosomes (samatic body cells)

Triplet code

3 bases of DNA that code for a single amino acid

binary fission

A form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms by which one cell divides into two cells of the same size

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short, if a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100%

A. 0%

Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury. A. PDGF B. MPF C. P53 D. RB protein

A. PDGF

A man with widow's peak (dominant) who can curl his tongue (dominant) has a child who has a straight hairline and cannot curl the tongue. What is the father's genotype? The allele that produces Widow's peak is (W), and the allele for curling the tongue is (T) A. WwTt B. Wwtt C. wwtt D. WWTT

A. WwTt

Two pink flowers produce red, white and pink flower offspring. What is this pattern of inheritance called? A. autosomal recessive B. autosomal dominant C. incomplete dominance D. polygenic inheritance

A. autosomal recessive

Which of the following events occurs during Prophase I of meiosis but does not occur during prophase of mitosis? A. crossing over B. nuclear envelope dissolves C. chromatin condenses into chromosomes. D. the mitotic spindle begins to form

A. crossing over

The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to_____. A. normal growth and cell function B. the phase in which DNA is being replicated C. the beginning of mitosis D. the phase between DNA replication and the M phase

A. normal growth and cell function

if a pea plant shows a dominant phenotype. A. the genotype may be TT or Tt. B. The genotype may be Tt or tt C. the genotype may be TT. D. the genotype can only be tt.

A. the genotype may be TT or Tt.

A fragment of a chromosome has moved to a non homologous chromosome. This is called_____. A. translocation B. inversion C. deletion D. duplication

A. translocation

Which of the following is an example of monosomy? A. turners syndrome B. klinefelter's syndrome C. down syndrome D. trisomy X

A. turners syndrome

Which bases are purines?

Adenine and Guanine

4 bases in DNA

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine

Telophase

After the chromosome seperates, the cell seals off, Final Phase of Mitosis.

who worked with bacteriophage to discover that DNA was the genetic material of the viruses (2 people)

Alfred Hershay/Martha Chase

universal genetic code

All living things use the same genetic code.

If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs? A. 24 chromosomes B. 48 chromosomes C. 12 chromosomes D. 96 chromosomes

B. 48 chromosomes

Which of the following is a protein maintained at steady levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become active?

B. Cdk

In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples. A. DD B. Dd C. dd D. DI

B. Dd

What are alleles? A. genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color B. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait such as blue eyes or brown eyes C. the locations of genes on a chromosome D. non-coding regions of a gene

B. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait as blue eyes or brown eyes

Prokaryotes primarily reproduce_____. A. sexually B. by binary fission C. by meiosis D. by pollination

B. by binary fission

Homologous chromosomes_____. A. are identical B. carry information for the same traits C. carry identical alleles. D. align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II

B. carry information for the same traits

An organisms actual gene makeup, often designated by letters like Aa or BB, is the______. A. karyotype B. genotype C. phenotype D. linotype

B. genotype

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A. chromosome replication B. homologous chromosomes pair up C. alignment of chromosomes at the equator D. condensation of chromosomes

B. homologous chromosomes pair up

Which of the following provides an example of epistasis? A. recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake B. in rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing. C. In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes. D. In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines.

B. in rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing.

Which of the following lists includes the phases of mitosis in the correct sequence? A. prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C. telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase D. anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase

B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Nondisjunction during meiosis I A. does not produce an abnormal number of chromosomes in the gametes B. results in all 4 daughter cells having an abnormal number of chromosomes. C. results in half of the 4 daughter cells having an abnormal number of chromosomes. D. results when sister chromatids fail to separate during anaphase II

B. results in all 4 daughter cells having an abnormal number of chromosomes

Down syndrome is an example of_____. A. abnormality in embryonic development B. trisomy C. monosomy D. polyploidism

B. trisomy

DNA replicates during the______stage of interphase A. mitotic B. G2 C. S D. G1

C. S

Women who have an X linked disorder can pass the gens for the disorder to_____, while men with X linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorders too____. A. only their daughters; only their daughters B. both their daughters and sons; only their sons C. both their daughters and sons; only their daughters. D. both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons

C. both their daughters and sons; only their daughters.

Cells from advanced malignant tumors often have very abnormal chromosomes and an abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain the association between malignant tumors and chromosomal abnormalities. A. cancer cells are no longer density dependent B. cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent. C. cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities. D. transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.

C. cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities

A testcross involves an individual exhibiting the dominant phenotype but an unknown genotype being crossed with an individual that has a(n)______genotype A. homozygous dominant B. heterozygous dominant C. homozygous recessive D. any of these choices

C. homozygous recessive

Alignment of the duplicated chromosomes at the equator of the cell is characteristic of_______. A. telophase B. prophase C. metaphase D. anaphase

C. metaphase

Signal protein______stops the cell cycle at G1, when DNA is damaged. A. PDGF B. MPF C. p53 D. RB protein

C. p53

The diploid stage of a plant is called a______. A. gametophyte B. haplotype C. sporophyte D. zygote

C. sporophyte

A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away? A. the cells are unable to form spindle microtubules B. they do not have a nucleus C. The cells show characteristics of cancer cells D. they were originally derived from an elderly organism.

C. the cells show characteristics of cancer cells.

Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during mitosis? A. it is completely degraded B. it is exported from the cell C. the cyclin component of MPF is degraded D. the cdk component of mpf is degraded and exported from the cell

C. the cyclin component of MPF is degraded

What was the most significant conclusion that Mendel drew from his experiments with pee plants? A. Genes are composed of DNA B. there is considerable genetic variation in garden peas. C. traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the results of "blending" D. Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation that do dominant ones.

C. traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the results of "blending"

Transfer RNA

Carries amino acids to the ribosome and adds them to the growing protein.

G1

Cell growth

g2

Cell prepares to divide

Metaphase

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

homologus chromosomes

Chromosomes that have the same sequence of genes and the same structure

Which bases are pyrimidines?

Cytosine and Thymine

If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal that has______chromosomes in its somatic cells. A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16

D. 16

Is it possible for a person with both an X and Y chromosome to be female? A. no. having a Y chromosome always renders a person male B. Yes. as long as a person has at least one X chromosome, they can be considered females. C. No. all females have two X chromosomes D. Yes. a deletion of the SRY gene on the short arm of the Y chromosome prevents the development of male genitals and gonads.

D. Yes. a deletion of the SRY gene on the short arm of the Y chromosome prevents the development of male genitals and gonads.

How is genetic variability accomplished during sexual reproduction? A. crossing over B. independent assortment C. random fertilization of male and female gametes D. all of the above

D. all of the above

In meiosis, homologous chromosomes are seperated during____. A. anaphase II B. prophase I C. mitosis D. anaphase I

D. anaphase I

cancer cells require many nutrients, which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels to cancerous tissue is called: A. apoptosis B. metastasis C. carcinogenesis D. angiogenesis

D. angiogenesis

Sister chromatids separate from each other during______. A. meiosis I only B. meiosis II only C. mitosis and meiosis I D. mitosis and meiosis II

D. mitosis and meiosis II

The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in_______. A. forming a cell plate between two daughter cells B. triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes. C. dissolving the nuclear membrane D. seperation of sister chromatids

D. seperation of sister chromatids

which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? A. pink flowers in snapdragons B. the ABO blood group in humans C. white and purple flower color in peas D. skin pigmentation in humans

D. skin pigmentation in humans

Which of the following crosses would ALWAYS result in offspring that only display the dominant phenotype? A. TT x tt B. Tt x Tt C. TT x TT D. B and C E A and C

E. A and C

who found that DNA in the amounts of A&T are equal and C&G are equal?

Erwin Chargoff

who did experiments that first demonstrated transformation of R cells to S cells?

Fredrick Griffith

C pairs with

G

4 enzymes involved in DNA replication

Helicase - unwinds the parental DNA helix DNA polymerse - adds new nucleotides to open strands of parental DNA DNA ligase - joins the newly added nucelotides together to create continous daughter strands Primiase - provides starting point for DNA polymerse to begin with synthesis of new strand

Ribosomes

Makes proteins

Who continued to the work of transformation to discover that DNA was the transforming substance?

Oswald Avery

Anaphase

Phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes separate and move to opposite ends of the cell

what strain of bacteria did fredrick griffith work with?

R-strain/S-strain

Who used X-Ray diffraction to study DNA structure?

Rosalland Franklin

A pairs with

T

Stop codon

The codon that marks the stop of translation.

Prometaphase

The second stage of mitosis, in which the nuclear envelope fragments and the spindle microtubules attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes.

Who proposed the double helix model?

Watson and Crick

genetic mutation

a change of the sequence of a DNA molecule

Codon

a sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule.

malignant

cancerous

interphase

cell performs normal function

S

chromosomes double to produce sister chromatias attached to centromere

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

copy of a gene

transcription

copying of the code of a gene (DNA) into mRNA

Cytokinesis

division of the cytoplasm

Cytokinesis

division of the cytoplasm (entire cell)

Cytokinesis

division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells

semi-conservative

each daughter molecule has 1/2of the parent molecule

Semi conservative replication of DNA

each resulting daughter molecule consist of parental strand & newly synthesized daughter strand

Prophase

first and longest phase of mitosis in which the genetic material inside the nucleus condenses and the chromosomes become visible

Carcinogenesis

formation of cancer

Angiogenesis

formation of new blood vessels

Chromatin

granular material visible within the nucleus; consists of DNA tightly coiled around proteins

P site

holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain

3 steps involved in translation

initiation - start codons (AUG) elongation - amino acids linked termination - stop codon (UAG/UAA/UGA)

benign

mild, not cancerous

degenerate code

multiple codons encode a single amino acid

Mitosis

part of eukaryotic cell division during which the cell nucleus divides

site on DNA is called?

promoter

g0

resting phase

template strand

side of DNA copied to mRNA

noncoding strand

side of DNA that is not copied

start codon

signals the start of translation and the amino acid methionine

E site

the exit site, where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome

metastasize

the process by which cancer spreads from one place to another

Chromosomes

threadlike structures made of DNA molecules that contain the genes

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

type of RNA that makes up the major part of ribosomes (site of protein synthesis)

translation

using the code from mRNA to make a protein

A site

where tRNA enters