Black Board Blood Bank Question

What would be the result of group A blood given to a group O patient? A) immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction B) delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction C) febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction D) nonimmune transfusion reaction

A) immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

A units of RBCs is split using the open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit? A) must be issued within 24 hours B) must be issued within 48 hours C) must be discarded D) retains the original expiration date

A) must be issued within 24 hours

If a patient has a positive DAT, should you perform a weak D test? A) no, the cells are already coated with antibody B) no the cells are Rh null C) yes, the immunoglobulin will not interfere with the test D) yes, Rh reagents are enhanced in protein media

A) no, the cells are already coated with antibody

Cord cells are washed six times and the DAT and negative control are still positive. What should be done next? A) obtain a heel stick sample B) record the DAT as positive C) obtain another cord sample D) nothing, these are normal cord blood results

A) obtain a heel stick sample

What ABO type(s) may donate to any other ABO type? A) A negative, B negative, AB negative, or O negative B) O negative C) AB negative D) AB negative, A negative, B negative

B) O negative

What type(s) of RBC is (are) acceptable to transfuse to an O negative patient? A) A negative, B negative, AB negative, or O negative B) O negative C) AB negative D) AB negative, A negative, B negative

B) O negative

Which of the following would be a candidate for RHIG? A) B positive mom; B negative baby; 1st pregnancy; no Anti-D in mom B) O negative mom; A positive baby; 2nd pregnancy; no Anti-D in mom C) A negative mom; O negative baby; 4th pregnancy; Anti-D in mom D) AB negative mom; B positive baby, 2nd pregnancy; Anti-D in mom

B) O negative mom; A positive baby; 2nd pregnancy; no Anti-D in mom

What should be done if al forward and reverse ABO results are negative? A) perform additional testing such as typing with Anti-A1 lectin B) incubate at 22 or 4 degrees C to enhance weak expression C) repeat the tests with new reagents D) run an antibody identification panel

B) incubate at 22 or 4 degrees C to enhance weak expression

A fetal screen yielded negative results on a mother who is O negative and infant who is O positive. What course of action should be taken? A) perform an antibody panel identification B) issue one vial of RHIG C) perform a DAT on the infant D) perform an antibody screen on the mother

B) issue one vial of RHIG

Which condition would likely be responsible for the following typing results: Anti-A = negative, Anti-B = negative, A1 cells = negative, B cells = 4+. A) immunodeficiency B) masking of antigens by the presence of excessive A substance C) weak or excessive antigen(s) D) impossible to determine

B) masking of antigens by the presence of excessive A substance

What is the crossmatch protocol for platelets and or frozen plasma? A) perform a reverse grouping on donor plasma B) no testing required C) perform a reverse grouping on recipient plasma D) platelets and plasma must be HLA compatible

B) no testing required

What type of testing is performed when determining the blood group of a patient? A) genotyping B) phenotyping C) both genotyping and phenotyping D) DAT

B) phenotyping

What components cannot be prepared if whole blood is spun at 1-6 degrees C? A) packed RBCs B) platelets C) leukocyte reduced RBCs D) frozen plasma

B) platelets

Which typing results most likely occur when a patient has an "Acquired B" antigen? A) Anti-A = 4+, Anti-B = 3+, A1 cells = neg, B cells = neg B) Anti-A = 3+, Anti-B = neg, A1 cells = neg, B cells = neg C) Anti-A = 4+, Anti-B = 1+, A1 cells = neg, B cells = 4+ D) Anti-A = 4+, Anti-B = 4+, A1 cells = 2+, B cells = neg

C) Anti-A = 4+, Anti-B = 1+, A1 cells = neg, B cells = 4+

Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen? A) A1B B) A2 C) B D) A1

A) A1B

Patients are described as Rh positive or Rh negative based on the presence of which antigen on the RBCs? A) C B) D C) E D) all of the above

B) D

A patient types as AB positive. 2 units of RBCs have been ordered and currently there are no AB units, 10 A positive units, and 1 A negative unit, 5 B positive units, and 20 O negative units. Which units should you crossmatch? A) A positive units B) O positive units C) B positive units D) call blood supplier for type specific blood

A) A positive units

Which blood type may be transfused to an AB positive baby who has HDN caused by Anti-D? A) AB negative or O negative B) AB positive or O positive C) AB negative only D) O negative only

A) AB negative or O negative

What are the pretransfusion requirements for an autologous transfusion? A) ABO and Rh typing B) Type and screen C) major crossmatch D) all of the above

A) ABO and Rh typing

Why is testing for Rh antigen and antibodies different from ABO testing? A) ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM antibodies and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG and agglutination usually requires a 37 degrees C incubation and enhancement media B) ABO antigens are attached to receptor on the outside of RBC and do not require enhancement media; Rh antigen are loosely attached to the RBC membrane and require enhancement for detection C) Both ABO and Rh antigen and antibodies have the same structure but Rh antibodies need special techniques for binding to Rh antigens D) No differences in ABO and Rh testing; both are conducted at room temperature with no enhancement media

A) ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM antibodies and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG and agglutination usually requires a 37 degrees C incubation and enhancement media

Which genotype is heterozygous for C? A) DCe/dce B) DCE/DCE C) Dce/dce D) dCE/dCe

A) DCe/dce

Which of the following is not possible from a mother who is R1R2 and a Father who is R1r? A) DcE/DcE B) DCe/DCe C) DcE/DCe D) DCe/dce

A) DcE/DcE

Why do IgM antibodies have the ability to directly agglutinate RBC and cause visible agglutination? A) IgM antibodies are larger molecules and the ability to bind more antigens B) IgM antibodies tend to clump together more readily to bind more antigens C) IgM antibodies are found in greater concentrations than IgG molecules D) IgM antibodies are not limited by subclass specificity

A) IgM antibodies are larger molecules and the ability to bind more antigens

Which of the women below is not a candidate for RHIG, assuming all of the women have delivered Rh positive infants? A) O negative, weak D positive, negative antibody screen B) A negative, weak D negative, negative antibody screen C) AB negative, weak D negative, negative antibody screen D) O negative, weak D negative, negative antibody screen

A) O negative, weak D positive, negative antibody screen

After testing for a weak D, the result is 1+; this is classified as: A) Rh positive B) Rh negative, Du positive C) Rh negative D) Rh positive, Du positive

A) Rh positive

An individual with negative antigen typing results for C, D, and E is designated Rh negative. A) True B) False

A) True

Which of the following procedures would be most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup? A) adsorption and elution B) neutralization C) elution and diffusion D) immunodiffusion/precipitation

A) adsorption and elution

Screening cells and major crossmatch are positive on immediate spin (IS) only and the autocontrol is negative. A) cold alloantibody B) cold autoantibody C) abnormal protein D) antibody mixture

A) cold alloantibody

Medical records indicate that a patient has a history of Anti-Jkb. The current antibody screen is negative therefore you should A) crossmatch using JkB negative units B) crossmatch random units since the current antibody screen is negative C) request a new sample since the sample may be from another patient D) all of the above are incorrect

A) crossmatch using JkB negative units

What should be done with a donor unit with a positive DAT? A) discard the unit B) antigen type the unit C) wash the donor cells and use the washed cells for testing D) perform a panel on the incompatible unit

A) discard the unit

If anti-K reacts 3+ with a donor cell with a genotype KK and 2+ with a Kk cell, the antibody is demonstrating: A) Dosage B) linkage disequilibrium C) homozygosity D) heterozygosity

A) dosage

What type of transfusion reaction can be fatal, the patient dies? A) immediate hemolytic B) delayed hemolytic C) immediate nonhemolytic D) delayed nonhemolytic

A) immediate hemolytic

A individual with genotype Dce/dce is classified as Rh negative. A) True B) False

B) False

Which of the following is acceptable according to the AABB Standards? A) rejuvenated RBCs may be made within 3 days of outdate and transfused within 24 hours of rejuvenation B) frozen RBCs must be prepared within 30 minutes of collection and may be used within 10 years C) irradiated RBCs must be treated within 8 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours D) leukocyte reduced RBCs must be prepared within 6 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours of preparation

A) rejuvenated RBCs may be made within 3 days of outdate and transfused within 24 hours of rejuvenation

In the Hardy Weinberg formulas, p2 represents: A) the heterozygous population of one allele B) the homozygous population of one allele C) the recessive allele C) the dominant allele

A) the homozygous population of one allele

ABO and Rh typing of donor and recipient is part of compatibility testing. A) True B) False

A) true

Crossmatching of the donor's RBC with the patient serum/plasma is part of usual compatibility testing. A) True B) False

A) true

Frozen plasma must be ABO compatible with the recipient. A) True B) False

A) true

The DAT is performed on RBC suspected of being coated with antibody. A) true B) false

A) true

The IAT is performed on serum/plasma suspected of containing antibodies. A) true B) false

A) true

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive? A) wash the cells with warm saline; autoabsorb the serum at 4 degree C B) retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents C) use polyclonal typing reagents D) report the samples as Group AB

A) wash the cells with warm saline; autoabsorb the serum at 4 degree C

Should an A-negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg? A) yes, but only if she had not already formed Anti-D from previous pregnancy B) No, the type of the baby is unknown C) yes, but only a mini dose regardless of trimester D) no, RHIG is given for full term pregnancies only

A) yes, but only if she had not already formed Anti-D from previous pregnancy

What testing is done and what samples are needed for transfusion of a newborn? A) no tests are needed B) ABO, Rh, DAT on heel stick from newborn; antibody screen on mom's serum/plasma C) ABO, Rh, DAT, and antibody screen on heel stick from newborn D) ABO and Rh only from cord blood

B) ABO, Rh, DAT on heel stick from newborn; antibody screen on mom's serum/plasma

Which of the following distinguishes between the blod group A1 and A2? A) A2 antigen will not react with Anti-A; A1 antigen wll react strongly B) An A2 person may form Anti-A1; an A1 person will not form Anti-A1 C) An A1 person may form Anti-A2; an A2 person will not form Anti-A1 D) A2 antigen will not react with Anti-A from a non-immunized donor; A1 will react with any Anti-A

B) An A2 person may form Anti-A1; an A1 person will not form Anti-A1

What antibody is suspected when all screen and panel cells are positive but when tested with cord blood, the reaction is negative? A) Anti-i B) Anti-I C) Anti-H D) Anti-P

B) Anti-I

A standard dose of 300ug of RHIG will cover a bleed of _______ ml whole blood fetal bleed or __________ ml of red cells. A) 15; 30 B) 30; 15 C) 300; 300 D) 30; 300

B) 30; 15

What is the definition of a newborn for transfusion testing purposes? A) 6 months and under B) 4 months and under C) 2 months and under D) 4 weeks and under

B) 4 months and under

What percentage of RBC must be retained in deglycerolized RBC? A) 60% B) 80% C) 100% D) 20%

B) 80 %

What is the number of WBC permitted in a leukoreduced RBC unit? A) <5.0 x 10^10 B) <5.0 x 10^6 C) <8.3 x 10^5 D) <8.3 x 10^10

B) <5.0 x 10^6

Which of the following statements is true? A) an individual with the BO genotype is homozygous for B B) an individual with the BB genotype is homozygous for B C) an individual with the OO genotype is heterozygous for B D) an individual with the AB genotype is homozygous for A and B

B) an individual with the BB genotype is homozygous for B

All of the following tests are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except: A) forward ABO B) antibody screen C) Rh typing D) DAT

B) antibody screen

A panel study has revealed the presence of patient alloantibodies. What is the first step in a major crossmatch? A) perform a DAT on patient cells and donor units B) antigen type patient cells and donor units C) adsorb any antibodies from the patient's serum/plasma D) use of different enhancement medium for testing

B) antigen type patient cells and donor units

A patient had a transfusion reaction. The technologist began the investigation of the transfusion reaction by gathering all the paperwork, computer printouts, and pre and post transfusion specimens. The technologist checked the patient's records and spoke to the nurse in charge of the patient. What should be done first? A) perform a DAT on the post transfusion sample B) check for clerical errors C) repeat ABO and Rh typing of patient and donor unit D) perform an antibody screen on the post transfusion sample

B) check for clerical errors

A type and screen were performed on a 32 year old woman and the patient was typed as AB negative. There are no AB negative units. What do you do? A) order AB negative unit from a blood supplier B) check inventory of A negative, B negative, and O negative units C) ask the patient to make a preoperative autologous donation D) nothing, the blood will probably not be used

B) check inventory of A negative, B negative, and O negative units

A female patient at 28 weeks gestation yields the following results: Anti-A = 3+, Anti-B = 4+, A1 cells = negative; B cells = 1+, O cells = 1+. What could be causing the ABO discrepancy? A) hypogammaglobulinemia B) cold alloantibody in the serum/plasma C) acquired B D) weak subgroup

B) cold alloantibody in the serum/plasma

An ER trauma patient requires 6 units of blood STAT. There is no time to draw a patient sample. O negative blood is released. When will compatibility testing be performed? A) compatibility testing must be performed before blood is issued B) compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is received C) compatibility testing may be performed immediately using donor serum/plasma D) compatibility testing is not necessary when blood is released in emergency situations

B) compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is received

A hemolytic reaction to blood transfused 8 days ago is most likely a (an): A) immediate, nonimmunological, caused by volume overload B) delayed, immunological, due to an antibody such as Anti-Jka C) delayed, nonimmunological, caused by iron overload D) immediate, immunological, caused by a clerical error

B) delayed, immunological, due to an antibody such as Anti-Jka

Correct identification of donor and recipient is part of compatibility testing. A) True B) False

B) false

Crossmatching of the patient's RBC with the donor serum is part of usual compatibility testing. A) True B) False

B) false

Testing of the patient's serum/plasma with panel cells for unexpected antibodies and identifying the antibody(ies) is routinely performed for compatibility testing. A) True B) False

B) false

The DAT is performed on serum/plasma suspected on containing antibodies. A) true B) false

B) false

The IAT is performed on RBC suspected of being coating with antibody. A) true B) false

B) false

Transfusion of an irradiated product is not required for bone marrow transplant or an immunosuppressive disorder. A) True B) False

B) false

All of the following statements are true except: A) centrifugation is an acceptable method for preparing leukoreduced RBCs B) graft verus host disease may be prevented by visual inspection of units before transfusion C) circulatory overload may be prevented by giving packed RBCs D) leukodepletion filters may prevent febrile transfusion reactions

B) graft verus host disease may be prevented by visual inspection of units before transfusion

What is the component of choice for a patient with chronic granulomatous disease? A) frozen plasma B) granulocytes C) cryoprecipitate D) RBCs

B) granulocytes

What is the purpose of adding check cells to all negative anti-human globulin (AHG) tube result? A) to ensure proper tube reading B) to ensure AHG was added, AHG is working, and proper cell washing C) to check for hemolysis D) to check for complement fixation

B) to ensure AHG was added, AHG is working, and proper cell washing

When may an immediate spin (IS) crossmatch be performed? A) what a patient is being massively transfused B) when there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative C) when a single unit of RBC is ordered D) when a patient has not been transfused within the past 3 months

B) when there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative

Which group of antibodies are found as cold agglutinins? A) Anti-K, Anti-k, Anti-D B) Anti-D, Anti-e, Anti-C C) Anti-M, Anti-N D) Anti-Fya, Ant-Fyb

C) Anti-M, Anti-N

What does the solution of Rh immune globulin (RHIG) contain? A) IgG Anti-IgG B) IgM Anti-IgG C) IgG Anti-D D) IgM Anti-D

C) IgG Anti-D

Which test can be used to determine the dosage of RHIG? A) D antigen typing by microplate B) Donath-Landsteiner test C) Kleihauer-Betke test D) Weiner Test

C) Kleihauer-Betke test

Screening cells, major crossmatch, and patient autocontrol are positive in all phases. Identify the problem.' A) specific cold alloantibody B) specific cold autoantibody C) abnormal protein or nonspecific autoantibody D) cold and warm alloantibody mixture

C) abnormal protein or nonspecific autoantibody

What may be found in the serum/plasma of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI? A) RBC alloantibody B) IgA antibody C) antileukocyte antibody D) allergen

C) antileukocyte antibody

How should units of platelet concentrates be stored? A) at room temperature lying horizontally B) at room temperature stored upright in separate holders C) at room temperature with constant agitation D) frozen until issued

C) at room temperature with constant agitation

A transplant patient may receive only type A and AB platelets. Only type O plateletpheresis are available. What may be used to deplete the incompatible plasma and replace with sterile saline? A) cytospin/irradiator B) waterbath/centrifuge C) centrifuge/sterile connecting device D) cell washer/densitometer

C) centrifuge/sterile connecting device

Given a situation where screening cells, major crossmarch, autocontrol, and DAT (Anti-IgG) are all positive, what procedure should be performed next? A) adsorption using rabbit stroma (RESt) B) antigen typing of the patient's cells C) elution followed by a cell panel on the eluate D) selected cell panel

C) elution followed by a cell panel on the eluate

This type of transfusion reaction occurs in about 1% of all transfusion and results in a 1 degree C temperature rise or higher. It is associated with blood component transfusion and not related to the patient's medical condition. A) immediate hemolytic B) delayed hemolytic C) febrile nonhemolytic reaction D) transfusion related acute lung injury

C) febrile nonhemolytic reaction

Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all the following except: A) von willebrand's disease B) hypofibrinogenemia C) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura D) factor XIII deficiency

C) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

A transplant patient was retyped when she was transferred from another hospital. What is the most likely cause of the following results? Anti-A = negative; Anti-B = 4+, A1 cells = negative, B cells = negative. A) viral infection B) alloantibodies C) immunodeficiency D) autoimmune hemolytic anemia

C) immunodeficiency

Which of the following results is causing a discrepant type? Anti-A = negative, Anti-B = 4+, A1 cells = negative, B cells = negative. A) negative B cells B) positive reaction with Anti-B C) negative A1 cells D) no problem with this typing

C) negative A1 cells

A full term, A positive infant appears to be mildly jaundiced. The baby was the first child of an O negative mother with a normal pregnancy and no history of prior blood transfusion. The mother's antibody screen is negative and the baby's DAT is negative. What is the treatment of choice for the jaundice? A) exchange transfusion B) multiple doses of Rh immune globulin C) phototherapy D) rehydration with electrolytes

C) phototherapy

What is true regarding plateletpheresis products? A) the minimum platelet count must be 3.0 x 10^11 and pH must be > 5.0 B) the minimum platelet count must be 3.0 x 10^10 and pH must be > 6.2 C) the minimum platelet count must be 3.0 x 10^11 and pH must be > 6.2 D) the minimum platelet count must be 5.5 x 10^10 and pH must be > 6.0

C) the minimum platelet count must be 3.0 x 10^11 and pH must be > 6.2

What may be done to RBCs before transfusion to a patient with cold agglutinin disease in order to reduce the possibility of a transfusion reaction? A) irradiate to prevent graft versus host disease B) wash with 0.9% saline C) warm to 37 degrees C with a blood warmer D) transport so that temperature is maintained at 20-24 degrees C

C) warm to 37 degrees C with a blood warmer

What component(s) is/are indicated for patients who have Anti-IgA antibodies? A) whole blood B) packed RBCs C) washed or deglycerolized RBCs D) granulocyte concentrates

C) washed or deglycerolized RBCs

Should an O negative mother receive RHIG if a positive DAT on her first newborn is caused by Anti-A? A) no, the mother should not receive RHIG because of the positive DAT B) yes, but only if the baby's type is Rh negative C) yes, but only if the baby's type is Rh positive D) no, the baby's problem is unrelated to blood group antibodies

C) yes, but only if the baby's type is Rh positive

What techniques are necessary for weak D testing? A) 22 degree C incubation + DAT B) 37 degree C incubation + DAT C) 22 degree C incubation + IAT D) 37 degree C incubation + IAT

D) 37 degree C incubation + IAT

An acid elution test that quantities fetal-maternal hemorrhage identifies 40 fetal cells in 2000 maternal red cells. How many doses of RHIG are indicated? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

D) 4

A full term, A positive infant appears to be mildly jaundiced. The baby was the first child of an O negative mother with a normal pregnancy and no history of prior blood transfusion. The mother's antibody screen is negative and the baby's DAT is negative. What is the most probable cause of the jaundice? A) prematurity B) dehydration C) HDN cause by Anti-D D) ABO incompatibility between mother and baby

D) ABO incompatibility between mother and baby

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? A) Anti-A and Anti-B B) Anti-H C) Anti-A,B D) Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-H

D) Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-H

An O negative mother gives birth to a B positive infant. The mother has no history of antibodies or transfusion and this is her first child. The baby was mildly jaundiced and the DAT weakly positive with polyspecific AHG and the saline control negative. What is most likely causing the positive DAT? A) Anti-D from the mother is coating infant cells B) an alloantibody like Anti-K is coating infant cells C) a technical error D) Anti-B is coating infant cells

D) Anti-B is coating infant cells

All of the following may be reasons for a positive DAT on cord cells of a newborn infant except: A) large volume of Wharton's jelly on cord cells B) Anti-A from a O mom on the cells of an A baby C) Anti-D from an Rh negative mom on the cells of an Rh positive baby D) Anti-K from a K negative mom on the cells of a K negative baby

D) Anti-K from a K negative mom on the cells of a K negative baby

What is the pathophysiological cause for anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reaction? A) antibody in patient serum/plasma reaction with donor RBC is detected 3-7 days after transfusion B) donor plasma has regains (IgE or IgA) that combine with allergens in patient plasma C) a patient deficient in IgE develops IgE antibodies via sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy D) a patient deficient in IgA develops IgA antibodies via sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy

D) a patient deficient in IgA develops IgA antibodies via sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy

A shipment of RBCs, platelets, and leukocyte-reduced RBCs arrived in the same container at 1-6 degrees C. What should be done? A) place everything in the 1-6C degree C Blood Bank refrigerator B) reject the shipment C) prepare the RBC units for freezing D) accept the red cell products, return or discard the platelets

D) accept the red cell products, return or discard the platelets

What blood type is not possible for an offspring of AO and BO mating? A) AB B) A or B C) O D) all are possible

D) all are possible

Compatibility testing is used to help detect: A) ABO incompatibilities B) errors in labeling, recording, or identification C) unexpected antibodies in the patient's serum/plasma D) all of the above

D) all of the above

A group O mother has given birth to an infant who appears to be group AB. What should be done next? A) nothing, report the result B) retype both using different lot numbers of Anti-A and Anti-B C) question the phlebotomist about the identify of the samples D) check all clerical work, repeat the tests, and obtain new samples if the results are the same

D) check all clerical work, repeat the tests, and obtain new samples if the results are the same

What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit? A) issue the unit; the blood will be filtered B) issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on the release form C) filter the unit in blood bank lab before issue D) do not issue the unit

D) do not issue the unit

An A negative mother delivers an O negative infant with a positive DAT. The mother's antibody screen is positive and antibody ID demonstrates Anti-D. What procedures should be performed next? A) acid elution of maternal cells and antibody ID on eluate B) autoabsorption of Anti-D from maternal serum/plasma using maternal cells C) autoabsorption using infant cells and antibody ID on the absorbed serum/plasma D) heat elution of the infant cells and repeat of Rh typing on the eluted cells

D) heat elution of the infant cells and repeat of Rh typing on the eluted cells

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except: A) separation of mixtures of antibodies B) removal of interfering antibodies C) confirmation of weak antigens on red cells D) identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

D) identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

All of the following are part of the preliminary evaluation of a transfusion reaction except: A) check pre and post transfusion samples for color or serum/plasma B) repeat ABO and Rh typing on pre and post sample C) DAT on post transfusion sample D) panel on pre and post transfusion sample

D) panel on pre and post transfusion sample

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c? A) r'r B) R0R1 C) R2r' D) r'ry

D) r'ry