Blood
10) Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipientsʹ serum is called: 10) ______ A) cross matching B) blood typing C) hemodialysis D) transfusion reaction E) hemolysis
A
24) A clot that breaks away from a vessel wall and circulates freely within the bloodstream is called a(n): 24) ______ A) embolus B) thromboplastin C) thrombus D) fibrin
A
26) Which one of the following does NOT describe blood plasma: 26) ______ A) it is the color of red wine B) it contains plasma proteins C) it contains metal ions (salts) D) it contains hormones E) its pH is 7.35 to 7.45
A
59) Blood type A carries the __________ antige
A
11) Treatment of hemophilia often involves: 11) ______ A) vitamin K supplements and B12 injections B) transfusion of plasma or injections of missing clotting factor C) injections of missing clotting factors and B12 injections D) vitamin K supplements only E) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements
B
15) Blood normally clots in approximately: 15) ______ A) 15 minutes B) 3 to 6 minutes C) 5 to 10 minutes D) 1 minute E) 30 minutes
B
23) Which of the following is not a type of red blood cell disorder? 23) ______ A) pernicious anemia B) leukemia C) aplastic anemia D) sickle cell anemia E) polycythemia
B
32) Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called: 32) ______ A) eosinophils B) megakaryocytes C) macrophages D) basophils E) erythrocytes
B
38) A __________ clot is formed during the process of hemostasis. 38) ______ A) fibrinogen B) fibrin C) prothrombin D) thromboplastin E) thrombin
B
40) The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is: 40) ______ A) interleukin B) RhoGAM C) agglutinin D) serotonin E) HepBIg
B
41) Blood cell formation in adults occurs in all of the following EXCEPT the: 41) ______ A) flat bones of the pelvis B) shaft of the femur C) proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur D) flat bones of the skull E) the epiphyseal plates
B
42) Which one of the following is NOT true of WBCs: 42) ______ A) they use diapedesis to move in and out of blood vessels B) they initiate the clotting process C) they locate areas of tissue damage through chemotaxis D) they move by ameboid motion E) they account for less than 1 percent of total blood volume
B
44) Prothrombin activator coverts prothrombin to: 44) ______ A) prothrombin activator B) thrombin C) fibrin activator D) serotonin E) fibrinogen
B
45) The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called: 45) ______ A) homeostasis B) hemostasis C) coagulation D) agglutination E) erythropoiesis
B
5) Which one of the following is NOT a physical characteristic of blood: 5) _______ A) sticky B) sweet tasting C) alkaline D) heavier than water E) opaque
B
8) The type of leukocytes that become macrophages in the tissues are: 8) _______ A) neutrophils B) monocytes C) eosinophils D) lymphocytes E) basophils
B
18) The universal recipient has blood type: 18) ______ A) A B) B C) AB D) ABO E) O
C
3) Which of the following is a blood clotting disorder: 3) _______ A) polycythemia B) leukopenia C) hemophilia D) leukocytosis E) anemia
C
33) Blood cell formation is called __________ and occurs in red bone marrow. 33) ______ A) hemolysis B) agglutination C) hematopoiesis D) coagulation E) hemostasis
C
34) The average functional lifespan of an RBC is: 34) ______ A) the bodyʹs lifetime B) 50-75 days C) 100-120 days D) one year E) 20-30 days
C
35) Which of these blood types carries no antigens: 35) ______ A) blood types A, B, and AB B) blood type A C) blood type O D) blood type B E) blood type AB
C
37) Anemias appearing in old age result from all of the following EXCEPT: 37) ______ A) drug therapy B) leukemia C) erythrocyte mutations D) nutritional deficiencies E) vitamin deficiencies
C
39) The hormone that regulates the rate of erythrocyte production is called: 39) ______ A) renin B) vasopressin C) erythropoietin D) thrombopoietin E) leukopoietin
C
43) An immature RBC is called a: 43) ______ A) granulocyte B) hemocytoblast C) reticulocyte D) agranulocyte E) megakaryocyte
C
47) Which one of the following formed elements is the most abundant: 47) ______ A) platelets B) basophils C) erythrocytes D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes
C
13) Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant: 13) ______ A) lymphocyte B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte
D
19) Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O receive: 19) ______ A) blood type A B) blood types A, B, AB, or O C) blood type B D) blood type O E) blood type AB
D
2) The matrix of blood is called: 2) _______ A) buffy coat B) lymphocytes C) formed elements D) plasma E) erythrocytes
D
22) The ion essential for blood clotting is: 22) ______ A) potassium B) iodine C) sodium D) calcium E) hydrogen
D
25) The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors is the: 25) ______ A) pancreas B) kidneys C) spleen D) liver E) thyroid
D
27) Which one of the following groups consist of granulocytes: 27) ______ A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils E) eosinophils and monocytes
D
28) Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of which one of the following vitamins: 28) ______ A) vitamin B12 B) vitamin A C) vitamin C D) vitamin K E) vitamin D
D
29) Which chemical is released to bring about vasoconstriction during the vascular spasm phase of hemostasis: 29) ______ A) thrombopoietin B) interleukin C) erythropoietin D) serotonin E) renin
D
36) Which antigen(s) does type AB blood contain: 36) ______ A) sometimes A antigens, other times B antigens B) B antigen C) A antigen D) A and B antigens E) no antigens
D
4) The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is: 4) _______ A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) AO
D
46) Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis: 46) ______ A) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation B) platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm C) coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation E) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
D
6) Erythrocytes: 6) _______ A) clot blood B) number 4000 to 11,000 per cubic millimeter of blood C) can travel by diapedesis D) are anucleate E) have lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules
D
7) Excessive erythrocytes result in: 7) _______ A) leukopenia B) pernicious anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) polycythemia E) leukocytosis
D
9) In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains: 9) _______ A) leukocytes only B) leukocytes and erythrocytes C) platelets and erythrocytes D) leukocytes and platelets E) eythrocytes only
D
57) The plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is __________.
albumin
60) A decrease in the bloodʹs ability to transport oxygen is called __________
anemia
63) A thrombus that has broken away from a vessel wall and is freely floating in the bloodstream is called an __________.
embolus
48) The volume of erythrocytes within a given volume of whole blood, expressed as a percentage, is __________.
hematocrit
49) The iron-containing protein found in RBCs that transports the majority of oxygen carried in the blood is __________.
hemoglobin
65) Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of clotting factors are referred to as __________.
hemophilia
58) The process by which bleeding is stopped is called __________.
hemostasis
56) White blood cells are also called __________.
leokocytes
50) The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid the body of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called __________.
physiologic jaundice
62) If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as Rh __________
positive
52) The movement of WBCs to areas of inflammation in response to chemical mediators is called __________
positive chemotaxis
53) The rarest blood type in the United States is type __________.
AB
14) A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies: 14) ______ A) prothrombin activator B) fibrinogen C) antibody D) interleukin E) antigen
E
16) ABO blood groups are based on the presence of: 16) ______ A) A antigens B) B antigens C) O antigens D) A, B, and O antigens E) A and B antigens
E
20) Megakaryocytes pinch off anucleate fragments called: 20) ______ A) neutrophils B) erythrocytes C) granulocytes D) agranulocytes E) platelets
E
21) The most numerous white blood cells are the: 21) ______ A) eosinophils B) basophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils
E
30) The type of leukocytes that would increase rapidly during allergy attacks and infections of parasitic worms are: 30) ______ A) neutrophils B) lymphocytes C) monocytes D) basophils E) eosinophils
E
31) The process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called: 31) ______ A) hemostasis B) clotting cascade C) hemolysis D) coagulation E) agglutination
E
61) The process by which WBCs are able to easily slip in and out of blood vessels is called __________.
diapedesis