Bone

B

A compound fracture A) is caused by an underlying pathology. B) results in bone projecting through the skin. C) is a type of incomplete fracture. D) is also known as a closed fracture. E) is completely internal.

E

A crest on a bone is defined as a(n) A) low ridge. B) small, rounded projection. C) narrow groove. D) elongated cleft. E) prominent ridge.

D

A distinct bone marking on the dorsal surface of the scapula is the A) infraspinous fossa. B) glenoid cavity. C) subscapular fossa. D) scapular spine. E) coracoid process.

C

A downward movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is termed A) inversion. B) abduction. C) adduction. D) flexion. E) extension.

A

A fibrous joint in which the bones are held together by a ligamentous connection is a A) syndesmosis. B) suture. C) symphysis. D) diarthrosis. E) synarthrosis.

B

A joint that binds each tooth within a bony socket is called a A) suture. B) gomphosis. C) synchondrosis. D) synostosis. E) symphysis.

E

A joint that permits no movement and is described as an interposition of cartilage plates is called a A) symphysis. B) synovial joint. C) suture. D) meniscus. E) synchondrosis.

C

A joint with flattened or slightly curved articulating surfaces is called a ________ joint. A) hinge B) saddle C) gliding D) pivot E) condylar

A

Channels within bone, involved with cell-to-cell communication, are called A) canaliculi. B) lacunae. C) lamellae. D) perforating canals. E) Haversian canals

C

The ________ of the radius assists in the stabilization of the wrist joint by preventing lateral movement of the bones of the wrist. A) olecranon process B) coronoid process C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) capitulum

D

The ankle consists of ________ tarsal bones. A) two B) five C) six D) seven E) eight

B

The anterior connection between the two pubic bones is A) diarthrotic. B) an example of a symphysis. C) a condylar joint. D) actually comprised of three separate joints. E) diarthrotic and an example of a symphysis.

B

The appendicular skeleton contains ________ bones. A) 80 B) 206 C) 126 D) 64 E) 62

C

The areas of fibrous connective tissue that exist between cranial bones at birth are called A) condyles. B) fissures. C) fontanels. D) facets. E) sulci.

D

The atlas is classified as a ________ vertebra. A) thoracic B) lumbar C) sacral D) cervical E) coccygeal

C

The bone cells that contribute to increases in calcium in blood are the A) chondrocytes. B) osteons. C) osteoclasts. D) osteocytes. E) osteoblasts.

B

The bone that articulates with the bone marked M to form the cheek is the A) zygomatic. B) temporal. C) sphenoid. D) maxilla. E) lacrimal.

A

The bone that makes up the lower jaw is the A) mandible. B) maxillary. C) zygomatic. D) temporal. E) cribriform plate.

C

The bone tissue at E is ________ bone. A) cancellous B) spongy C) compact D) articular E) fibrous bone

A

The bone tissue at J is ________ bone. A) spongy B) periosteal C) compact D) articular E) fibrous

C

The most inferior portion of the sternum is called the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) sternal angle. E) sternal groove.

B

The movement of turning your head is called A) adduction. B) rotation. C) inversion. D) supination. E) circumduction.

A

The occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra at the A) occipital condyles. B) foramen magnum. C) odontoid process. D) superior articular process. E) cervical body.

B

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) scapula articulates with the ribs. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium. C) humerus articulates with the rib cage. D) scapula articulates with the clavicle. E) The appendicular skeleton and the axial skeleton have no direct connections.

B

The organic component of the matrix, which makes up around one-third of the mass of bone, is dominated by A) calcium phosphate. B) collagen fibers. C) calcium carbonate. D) calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate. E) dendritic fibers.

A

The paired ________ form(s) the lateral walls of the nasal cavity, and function(s) in slowing airflow and deflecting inhaled air toward the olfactory receptors. A) inferior nasal conchae B) middle nasal conchae C) superior nasal conchae D) vomer E) palatine bones

E

Which feature is the attachment point for the temporalis muscle, a powerful muscle that closes the jaw? A) condylar process B) mandibular ramus C) mastoid process D) pedicle E) coronoid process

A

Which feature of the ethmoid bone contributes to the nasal septum? A) perpendicular plate B) cribriform plate C) superior nasal conchae D) crista galli E) middle nasal conchae

E

Which is the anatomical term for a passageway through a bone? A) sulcus B) sinus C) fossa D) trochlea E) meatus

B

Which joint permits the greatest range of motion of any joint in the body? A) hip B) shoulder C) elbow D) knee E) ankle

B

Which joint type can perform rotation movements? A) hinge B) ball-and-socket C) saddle D) condyloid E) ellipsoidal

D

Which maxillary region feature serves as an opening for a major sensory nerve from the face? A) optic canal B) transverse foramen C) supra-orbital foramen D) infra-orbital foramen E) mental foramen

C

Which of the following accounts for almost two-thirds of the mass of bone tissue? A) cells B) protein fibers C) calcium phosphate D) osteons E) polysaccharides

D

Which of the following associations is most accurate? A) synarthroses; slightly movable B) amphiarthroses; freely movable C) diarthroses; synchondroses D) diarthroses; synovial E) amphiarthroses; gomphoses

D

Which of the following bones contain the cribriform foramina? A) zygomatic B) maxilla C) frontal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid

A

Which of the following curves develops as a child begins to stand and walk? A) lumbar B) thoracic C) sacral D) coccygeal E) spinal

E

Which of the following is a carpal bone? A) navicular B) cuneiform C) calcaneus D) talus E) scaphoid

A

Which of the following is a function of synovial fluid? A) decrease friction within joint B) increase osmotic pressure within joint C) increase friction within joint D) reduce bacterial infection E) protect bone

D

Which of the following is an example of a synchondrosis? A) distal articulation between the tibia and fibula B) articulation between bones of the skull C) shoulder joint D) articulation between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing long bone E) articulation between carpals

E

Which of the following is an example of the skeletal system's primary function of providing structural support? A) Calcium salts are found in bone. B) Bones change the magnitude and direction of the forces generated by skeletal muscles. C) Red marrow fills the internal cavities of many bones. D) The skull encloses the brain. E) Individual bones provide a framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs.

E

Which of the following is formed via intramembranous ossification? A) tibia B) humerus C) carpal bones D) femur E) mandible

D

Which of the following is found only in compact bone? A) trabeculae B) canaliculi C) osteoblasts D) osteons E) marrow

C

Which of the following is most likely to be damaged during CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation)? A) styloid process B) mastoid process C) xiphoid process D) odontoid process E) transverse process

D

Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton? A) the skull B) the manubrium C) the sternum D) the scapula E) the vertebrae

D

Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton? A) clavicle B) patella C) carpal bones D) ribs E) coxal bones

E

Which of the following is the most important normal hip movement, one that is primarily limited by the surrounding muscles? A) extension B) abduction C) adduction D) rotation E) flexion

B

Which of the following joints is located between the spinal vertebrae? A) pivot B) symphysis C) gomphosis D) hinge E) synchondrosis

C

Which of the following joints permits slight movement? A) gomphosis B) suture C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis E) synovial

C

Which of the following occurs in intramembranous ossification? A) Hyaline cartilage model forms. B) Periosteum forms a collar around the cartilage. C) Fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone. D) As the bone enlarges, osteoclasts break down some of the spongy bone and create a marrow cavity. E) Ossification centers are formed as blood vessels and osteoblasts enter the centers of the epiphyses.

D

Which of the following primary functions of the skeletal system applies to the role of red bone marrow? A) support B) storage C) protection D) blood cell production E) movement

E

Which structural feature of the humerus is a common fracture site? A) intertubercular groove B) lateral epicondyle C) anatomical neck D) lesser tubercle E) surgical neck

E

Which structural feature of the scapula articulates with the humerus? A) supraspinous fossa B) subscapular fossa C) acromion D) coracoid process E) glenoid cavity

D

Which structural feature of the upper limb marks the attachment site of the biceps brachii muscle, a flexor of the forearm? A) trochlear notch B) deltoid tuberosity C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) coronoid process

A

Which structural feature(s) of the knee function(s) in limiting the anterior and posterior movement of the femur? A) cruciate ligaments B) menisci C) bursae D) patellar ligament E) collateral ligaments

A

Which suture connects the occipital bone to the parietal bones? A) lambdoid B) squamous C) coronal D) sagittal E) occipitomastoid

E

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula, transmitting the body's weight from the tibia toward the toes? A) calcaneus B) cuboid C) navicular D) medial cuneiform E) talus

C

Which two features make up the hinge joint at the elbow? A) trochlea of humerus and head of the radius B) head of radius and ulnar notch C) trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna D) coronoid fossa and trochlea of humerus E) medial condyle and medial epicondyle

C

Which type of synovial joint is described as an oval articular face nestling within a depression on the opposing surface? A) saddle B) pivot C) condylar D) ball-and-socket E) gliding

D

Why is the elbow joint considered to be extremely stable? A) Its relatively loose joint capsule permits an extensive range of motion. B) It has especially large and numerous bursae. C) Powerful muscles originating on the trunk, shoulder girdle, and humerus cover the joint capsule. D) The bony surfaces of the humerus and ulna interlock. E) A rotator cuff is associated with the joint.

B

You and your twin sister, both 18 years of age, were in a car accident. She had a clean break across the humerus and the upper arm bone-no bleeding, no break in the skin. However, you have a very messy break of the distal tibia in the lower leg, requiring pins to be inserted. Which statement is true regarding the differences in your break and your sister's break? A) Your damage is called a fracture, whereas hers is called a break. B) You will be given antibiotics to reduce bacterial infection, whereas your sister will not. C) Your break will not heal whereas her fracture will heal fine. D) Since her fracture did not penetrate through skin, it will not show up on an X-ray, whereas yours will. E) You are given calcium to take but your sister is not.

B

You look directly at your hand, then turn the palm away from you to look at the dorsal side. This movement is the radius rotating around the ulna and is occurring at the A) ulnar notch. B) radial notch. C) radial tuberosity. D) ulnar head. E) coronoid process.

A

A primary function of the skeletal system is A) maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids. B) absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements. C) facilitating transmission of nerve impulses. D) cushioning abdominal organs such as the kidneys. E) contracting muscles.

A

A structure often associated with synovial joints, but not found in all, is A) a fibrocartilage pad. B) a suture. C) a gomphosis. D) short dense connective tissue fibers. E) synovial membrane.

E

A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole inward is termed A) eversion. B) protraction. C) dorsiflexion. D) plantar flexion. E) inversion.

C

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is termed A) kyphosis. B) lordosis. C) scoliosis. D) gomphosis. E) cyanosis.

C

An arch on the underside of the foot is important because it A) provides cushioning against the ground. B) provides more room between the phalanges. C) provides room for blood vessels and nerves on the inferior aspect of the foot. D) gives better traction of the feet against the ground when walking or running. E) is necessary.

D

An increase in the diameter of growing bone is termed ________ growth. A) epiphyseal B) endochondral C) intramembranous D) appositional E) ossification

A

An upward movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is A) abduction. B) flexion. C) extension. D) rotation. E) adduction.

E

Bone-forming cells are called A) osteoclasts. B) osteocytes. C) osteons. D) ossification centers. E) osteoblasts.

D

Bones encased within the temporal bone that are involved in sound detection are called A) optic bones. B) external acoustic meatus. C) internal acoustic meatus. D) auditory ossicles. E) crista galli.

E

Bones of the skull that articulate with the nasal bones include (the) A) temporal bone. B) ethmoid bone. C) zygomatic bone. D) sphenoid. E) maxillary bone.

D

Choose the distinctive feature of lumbar vertebrae. A) large, slender spinous process that projects inferiorly B) relatively large vertebral foramen C) massive, heart-shaped body D) relatively massive, stumpy spinous process that projects posteriorly E) round transverse foramina within the transverse processes

A

Compared with the male pelvis, the female pelvis has a A) larger pelvic outlet. B) relatively broad, high pelvis. C) relatively narrow, high pelvis. D) narrower pubic angle. E) smaller pelvic outlet

B

Compared with the pectoral girdle, the pelvic girdle is A) not as firmly anchored to the axial skeleton. B) comprised of more massive bones, which are adapted for weight bearing. C) composed of more separate bones. D) more flexible and freely movable. E) structurally identical.

E

Considering the bony structure of the palate, a cleft palate is a malformation of which bone? A) vomer B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) mandible E) maxillary

B

Costal facets are distinctive features of ________ vertebrae. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

A

Dorsiflexion involves ________ at the ankle joint and ________ of the foot. A) flexion; elevation of the sole B) extension; elevation of the heel C) flexion; elevation of the heel D) extension; flexion of the sole E) adduction; flexion of the heel

D

During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced with bone. A) blood cell production B) calcification C) resorption D) ossification E) osteolysis

A

Fibrous cartilage discs that act as shock absorbers in joints are called A) menisci. B) bursae. C) tendons. D) intervertebral discs. E) synovial capsules.

D

Found outside or inside a joint capsule, structures that join bone to bone are called A) tendons. B) bursae. C) menisci. D) ligaments. E) alveoli.

B

The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with A) periosteum. B) endosteum. C) lacunae. D) lamellae. E) osteon.

A

Functions of the curves of the vertebral column include which of the following? A) aligns the body's weight in line with the body axis B) aligns the weight of the trunk over the arms only C) shifts the weight of the trunk forward D) increases the ability to extend the limbs E) keeps the vertebral column straight and rigid

D

Humans have ________ pairs of ribs. A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 24

C

Immature, active bone cells that produce new bone matrix are termed A) osteocytes. B) stem cells. C) osteoblasts. D) osteoclasts. E) chondrocytes.

D

In anatomical position, when the palm is moved to face posteriorly, the movement of the wrist and hand is called A) extension. B) protraction. C) reposition. D) pronation. E) supination.

A

In the skeletal system, compact bone is usually located A) where stresses come from a limited range of directions. B) where stresses arrive from many directions. C) only in a narrow ring around the diaphysis of long bones. D) in direct contact with articular cartilages. E) where bones are not heavily stressed.

A

Jason fractured his pisiform bone in an accident. What part of his body is injured? A) wrist B) ankle C) leg D) skull E) shoulder

E

Label B is pointing to A) dense connective tissue. B) fat. C) hyaline cartilage. D) compact bone. E) spongy bone.

B

Most skull bones are joined by tight connections called A) symphyses. B) sutures. C) syndesmoses. D) gomphoses. E) synchondroses.

A

Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that decreases the angle between articulating bones is which movement? A) flexion B) hyperextension C) elevation D) retraction E) protraction

E

Moving a part of the body anteriorly in the horizontal plane is called A) retraction. B) elevation. C) flexion. D) dorsiflexion. E) protraction.

D

Moving the arm in a loop is an example of which angular movement? A) flexion B) adduction C) extension D) circumduction E) gliding

C

Narrow sheets of calcified matrix are referred to as A) osteons. B) canaliculi. C) lamellae. D) osteoclasts. E) central canals.

B

Near the external auditory meatus, the long, sharp process called the ________ process is an attachment site for ligaments that support the hyoid bone. A) mastoid B) styloid C) occipital D) condyloid E) temporal

B

Older individuals suffer from a much higher proportion of hip fractures than the young. Why? A) Children fall less than people in their middle ages and on. B) Older people have less bone density than the young. C) The hip is not a stable joint. D) The elderly have a greater incidence of arthritis. E) Hip fractures take longer to heal in older individuals.

A

On the posterior aspect of the femur, the ________ marks the attachment of powerful muscles that adduct the femur. A) linea aspera B) lateral condyle C) lesser trochanter D) tibial tuberosity E) medial condyle

A

One role of the fontanels is to A) allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth. B) serve as ossification centers for the facial bones. C) serve as the final bony plates of the skull. D) lighten the weight of the skull bones. E) enclose the vertebral column.

C

Osseous tissue is classified as which of the following? A) neural tissue B) nonstriated muscle tissue C) connective tissue D) epithelial tissue E) striated muscle tissue

E

Osteocytes A) are giant cells with 50 or more nuclei. B) are immature bone cells. C) are the cells responsible for the production of new bone. D) secrete acids and enzymes. E) maintain normal bone structure by recycling the calcium salts in the bony matrix around themselves.

E

Pads of ________ are often found around the edges of diarthrotic joints to provide protection for the articular cartilages. A) connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) synovial fluid D) fibrocartilage E) adipose tissue

B

Paranasal sinuses are located within which of the following bones? 1. frontal bone 2. sphenoid 3. ethmoid 4. maxilla 5. nasal bone A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 5 D) 1, 2, 3 E) 3, 4, 5

C

Perforating canals A) are arranged parallel to the long axis of the central canal. B) are always associated with osteons in cancellous bone. C) provide passageways for linking the blood vessels of the central canals with those of the periosteum and the marrow cavity. D) occur in growing juvenile bone, but are obliterated in adult bone. E) are arranged in concentric layers around a central canal.

D

Posteriorly, the coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joints. A) sacroischial B) symphyseal C) intervertebral D) sacroiliac E) sacrohiatal

C

Red bone marrow functions in the formation of A) adipose tissue. B) new bone. C) blood cells. D) osteoblasts. E) osteocytes.

B

Ribs that are connected to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions are called ________ ribs. A) false B) true C) floating D) vertebrochondral E) sternal

B

Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called A) false ribs. B) floating ribs. C) vertebrosternal ribs. D) true ribs. E) vertebrochondral ribs.

B

Rickets is a condition marked by a softening and bending of bones that occurs in growing children, as a result of ________ deficiency. A) vitamin A B) vitamin D3 C) growth hormone D) vitamin C E) thyroid hormone

B

The ________ of the humerus establishes the lateral contour of the shoulder. A) deltoid tuberosity B) greater tubercle C) lateral epicondyle D) capitulum E) trochlea

A

Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony rods or plates called A) trabeculae. B) osteons. C) lamellae. D) canaliculi. E) perforating canals.

E

Structure A is a A) foramen. B) process. C) facet. D) fontanel. E) suture.

A

Structure A is the A) epiphysis. B) diaphysis. C) endosteum. D) periosteum. E) metaphysis.

A

Structure A is the A) synovial cavity. B) joint capsule. C) hyaline cartilage. D) compact bone. E) marrow cavity.

A

Structure A is the A) vertebral arch. B) dens. C) spinous process. D) pedicle. E) lamina.

B

Structure B is the A) epiphysis. B) diaphysis. C) endosteum. D) periosteum. E) metaphysis.

A

Structure B is the A) vertebral foramen. B) intervertebral foramen. C) transverse foramen. D) dens. E) lamina.

B

Structure B is the joint between the ________ and ________ bones. A) occipital; temporal B) occipital; parietal C) parietal; frontal D) frontal; occipital E) temporal; parietal

D

Structure C is the A) sella turcica. B) styloid process. C) mastoid process. D) external auditory meatus. E) coronoid process.

E

Structure C is the A) synovial membrane. B) joint capsule. C) hyaline cartilage. D) compact bone. E) periosteum.

D

Structure D is the A) epiphysis. B) diaphysis. C) endosteum. D) periosteum. E) metaphysis.

C

Structure D is the A) sella turcica. B) styloid process. C) mastoid process. D) external auditory meatus. E) coronoid process.

B

Structure D is the A) synovial membrane. B) joint capsule. C) hyaline cartilage. D) compact bone. E) periosteum.

A

Structure E is the A) synovial membrane. B) joint capsule. C) hyaline cartilage. D) compact bone. E) periosteum.

C

Structure E is the A) vertebral arch. B) dens. C) spinous process. D) pedicle. E) lamina.

C

Structure E is the joint between the ________ and ________ bones. A) occipital; temporal B) occipital; parietal C) parietal; frontal D) frontal; occipital E) temporal; parietal

C

Structure F is A) synovial membrane. B) joint capsule. C) articular cartilage. D) compact bone. E) periosteum.

E

Structure F is the A) blood cavity. B) epiphysis. C) periosteum. D) hyaline cartilage. E) endosteum.

A

Structure F is the A) sphenoid bone. B) zygomatic process. C) temporal bone. D) zygomatic bone. E) middle concha.

E

Structure F is the A) vertebral arch. B) dens. C) spinous process. D) pedicle. E) lamina.

D

Structure H is the A) marrow cavity. B) osteon. C) lamellae. D) epiphyseal line. E) lacuna.

A

Structure H is the A) nasal. B) lacrimal. C) maxilla. D) ethmoid. E) palatine.

B

Structure I is the A) nasal. B) lacrimal. C) maxilla. D) ethmoid. E) sphenoid.

D

Structure J is the A) nasal. B) lacrimal. C) maxilla. D) ethmoid. E) palatine.

E

Structure K is where A) bone marrow is produced. B) joint fluid is produced. C) red blood cells are produced. D) bone is produced. E) the long bone joins with another bone.

A

Structure L is the A) maxilla. B) mandible. C) palatine. D) zygomatic. E) concha.

D

Structure M is the A) maxilla. B) mandible. C) palatine. D) zygomatic. E) concha.

B

Superior and inferior to the vertebral body lie the A) articular processes. B) intervertebral discs. C) blood vessels. D) articular facets. E) spinous processes.

C

Tarsal bones are classified as ________ bones. A) long B) flat C) short D) irregular E) sesamoid

C

The C1 vertebra forms a pivot joint with the C2 vertebra through a projection called the A) transverse process. B) pedicle. C) dens. D) spinous process. E) superior articular process.

D

The ________ joint is the most frequently dislocated joint of the body as it provides an excellent demonstration of the principle that stability must be sacrificed to obtain mobility. A) knee B) hip C) elbow D) shoulder E) intervertebral

C

The ________ ligament of the knee continues its attachment on the anterior surface of the tibia and provides support to the front of the knee. A) popliteal B) collateral C) patellar D) cruciate E) tibial

D

The ________ ligaments of the knee cross each other as they attach the tibia to the femur. A) patellar B) collateral C) femoral D) cruciate E) posterior

C

The bones of the pelvis A) are bones of the axial skeleton only. B) are bones of the appendicular skeleton only. C) include portions of both axial and appendicular elements. D) include two prominent sesamoid bones. E) are connected anteriorly at the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by an interosseous membrane

B

The bones of the upper arms and thighs are classified as A) short bones. B) long bones. C) flat bones. D) sesamoid bones. E) irregular bones.

E

The bones of the wrist form the A) tarsus. B) brachium. C) manus. D) os coxae. E) carpus.

C

The bones that form the palms of the hands are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges.

E

The bony compartment that supports the brain is called the A) septum. B) fontanel. C) lacrimae. D) cribrum. E) cranium.

E

The bony portion of the nasal septum includes which of the following? A) vomer B) ethmoid and sphenoid C) nasal bones D) inferior nasal conchae E) vomer and ethmoid

A

The clavicle articulates with the A) manubrium. B) ribs. C) humerus. D) body of the sternum. E) cervical vertebrae.

B

The coccyx is typically composed of ________ fused vertebrae. A) 1-2 B) 3-5 C) 6-7 D) 7-8 E) 9-11

C

The connective tissue covering the outer surface of a bone is (the) A) matrix. B) osteon. C) periosteum. D) endosteum. E) articular cartilage.

B

The coxal bone forms by the fusion of which components? A) the obturator, ilium, and acromion B) the ilium, ischium, and pubis C) the ala, ilium, and capitulum D) the acetabulum, femoral head, and pubis E) the sacrum, coccyx, and acetabulum

B

The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) intercondylar fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) trochlear notch.

D

The depression that receives the head of the femur is the A) glenoid cavity. B) popliteal fossa. C) cubital fossa. D) acetabulum. E) sciatic notch.

D

The fibula A) forms an important part of the knee joint. B) articulates with the femur. C) helps to bear the weight of the body. D) provides lateral stability to the ankle. E) is the medial bone of the leg.

D

The fibular collateral ligament is part of which joint? A) elbow B) hip C) shoulder D) knee E) ankle

A

The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification: 1. Bone forms at the diaphysis surface. 2. Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify. 4. Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity. 5. Blood vessels invade the inner cartilage and new osteoblasts form spongy bone at a primary ossification center. The correct order for these events is A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2. B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2. C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2. D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4. E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2.

D

The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture. A) squamous B) lambdoid C) frontal D) coronal E) sagittal

C

The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) stimulate the absorption of calcium and phosphate ions in the digestive tract. C) depress calcium levels in body fluids. D) depress osteoblast activity. E) elevate calcium levels in body fluids.

A

The hyoid bone A) serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx. B) provides a site for the attachment of muscles that rotate or extend the head. C) marks the point of articulation with the lower jaw. D) contributes to the nasal septum. E) is the attachment point for the temporalis muscle.

E

The inferior margin of the vomer articulates with which bone(s)? A) maxillae B) zygomatic bones C) hyoid bone D) inferior nasal conchae E) palatine bones

D

The intervertebral articulations are classified as ________ joints. A) syndesmosis and pivot B) hinge C) synchondrosis D) gliding and symphysis E) synovial and syndesmosis

C

The joints between the phalanges are classified as A) sutures. B) condyloid. C) hinges. D) gomphosis. E) saddle.

C

The jugular notch is a structural feature of the A) clavicle. B) rib. C) sternum. D) cervical vertebra. E) thoracic vertebra.

B

The lower jawbone seen in the picture is the A) maxilla. B) mandible. C) palatine. D) temporal. E) concha.

E

The maxillary bones articulate with all other facial bones except the A) zygomatic bones. B) palatine bones. C) vomer. D) ethmoid bone. E) mandible.

E

The paranasal sinuses function in A) contributing to the floor of the cranium. B) deflecting inhaled air toward the olfactory receptors located near the upper portions of the nasal cavity. C) supporting and stabilizing the position of the larynx. D) forming the floor and medial portion of the rim of the orbit. E) lightening the skull and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium.

A

The patella A) glides over the smooth anterior surface, between the lateral and medial condyles. B) is normally on the lateral aspect of the knee joint. C) is made of cartilage in the tendon of the biceps femoris. D) forms part of a ball-and-socket joint. E) articulates with the tibia and fibula.

E

The patellar ligament connects the patella to the ________ just below the knee joint. A) head of fibula B) anterior margin C) linea aspera D) medial tibial condyle E) tibial tuberosity

C

The pectoral girdle consists of the A) clavicle and humerus. B) clavicle, scapula, and humerus. C) clavicle and scapula. D) clavicle, scapula, and sternum. E) scapula and humerus.

B

The pituitary gland is located in the A) cribriform plate. B) sella turcica. C) sphenoidal sinus. D) glenoid fossa. E) hypophysis.

B

The point of attachment for muscles that extend and rotate the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) posterior clinoid process. D) articular tubercle. E) odontoid process.

A

The posterior surface of the bony roof of the mouth is formed by the A) palatine bones. B) vomer. C) maxillae. D) sphenoid bone. E) zygomatic bones.

A

The presence of ________ strongly indicates that the long bone is still growing. A) an epiphyseal plate B) an articular cartilage C) an epiphyseal line D) an epiphysis E) trabeculae

A

The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates A) epiphyseal growth has ended. B) epiphyseal growth is just beginning. C) growth in bone diameter is just beginning. D) the bone is fractured at that location. E) The presence of an epiphyseal line does not indicate any particular event.

D

The primary curves of the vertebral column that develop before birth are the A) cervical and lumbar. B) cervical and thoracic. C) cervical and sacral. D) thoracic and sacral. E) thoracic and lumbar.

C

The primary function of ________ is exemplified when bones function as to change the magnitude and direction of the forces generated by skeletal muscle. A) support B) protection C) leverage D) storage E) blood cell production

E

The process of depositing calcium salts into a tissue is called A) ossification. B) remodeling. C) resorption. D) osteolysis. E) calcification.

B

The ribs articulate with the A) spinous processes of the vertebrae. B) transverse processes of the vertebrae. C) laminae of the vertebrae. D) pedicles of the vertebrae. E) vertebral foramen.

C

The ridges that can be felt along the backbone, on the dorsal aspect of the body, are produced by the A) vertebral arches. B) dens. C) spinous processes. D) transverse processes. E) styloid processes.

D

The shaft of a long bone is called the A) epiphysis. B) trabecula. C) canaliculus. D) diaphysis. E) lamella.

D

The smooth, rounded, or oval articular process of a bone is termed a A) crest. B) ridge. C) head. D) condyle. E) trochlea.

B

The sole of the foot is supported by the A) metacarpal bones. B) metatarsal bones. C) carpal bones. D) tarsal bones. E) calcaneus and talus.

B

The special movement of the thumb that allows it to grasp an object and hold onto it is called A) rotation. B) opposition. C) circumduction. D) eversion. E) retraction.

C

The spinal cord lies within the A) superior articular foramen. B) intervertebral foramen. C) vertebral foramen. D) transverse foramen. E) body.

B

The structure that surrounds a diarthrotic joint is called a(n) A) meniscus. B) joint capsule. C) synovial membrane. D) bursa. E) alveolus.

D

The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bone with the temporal bone is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) rostral C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal

C

The trochlea is a structural feature of which bone? A) scapula B) ulna C) humerus D) radius E) clavicle

B

The typical vertebra's ________, projecting laterally or dorsolaterally from the pedicles, serves as a site for muscle attachment. A) spinous process B) transverse process C) odontoid process D) articular facet E) lamina

D

The vertebral arches contribute structurally to surround and protect the A) spinal nerves. B) cranial nerves. C) vertebrae. D) spinal cord. E) ribs.

C

The vertebral column contains ________ cervical vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31

B

The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31

D

This diagram shows a cervical vertebra. What feature would identify it as such? A) the presence of the spinous process B) the presence of the body C) the presence of articulating facets D) the presence of the transverse foramen E) the large size of the vertebra

B

True ribs are directly connected to the sternum by A) articular cartilages. B) costal cartilages. C) costal facets. D) sternal ligaments. E) costal ligaments.

A

Two hormones that work together to elevate calcium levels in the body are ________ and ________. A) parathyroid hormone; calcitriol B) vitamin A; vitamin C C) parathyroid hormone; calcitonin D) growth hormone; calcitonin E) vitamin D3; growth hormone

E

Typical movements at a hinge joint include A) extension and gliding. B) rotation and inversion. C) gliding and pronation. D) flexion and rotation. E) extension and flexion.

E

What is defined as a small packet of connective tissue containing synovial fluid, which reduces friction in a joint and acts as a shock absorber? A) meniscus B) fat pad C) articular cartilage D) articular capsule E) bursa

C

What is found within the space at G? A) blood B) water C) synovial fluid D) fluid from bone E) saline

A

What is located at structure G? A) marrow B) canaliculi C) cartilage D) adipose tissue E) fibrous connective tissue

E

What is the function of the sphenoid bone? A) It forms the anterior roof of the mouth or bony palate. B) It forms the roof of the orbits. C) It supports a prominent partition that forms part of the nasal septum. D) It helps slow airflow in the nasal cavity. E) It acts like a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones.

A

What is the function of the tibial and fibular collateral ligaments? A) stabilize the joint at full extension B) provide support to the front of the knee joint C) conform to the shape of the articulating surfaces D) reinforce the back of the knee joint E) reduce friction between the patella and other tissues

A

What type of vertebra is this? A) cervical B) thoracic C) sacral D) lumbar E) coccygeal

B

When one closes the mouth, the movement is called A) depression. B) elevation. C) retraction. D) protraction. E) flexion.

A

When one crosses his/her arms, which movement is performed by the clavicles? A) protraction B) retraction C) depression D) abduction E) adduction

E

Where would the osteoclasts be located? A) K B) I C) H D) J E) F

A

Which cells are very sensitive to calcium levels in the blood? A) muscle cells B) red blood cells C) cartilage cells D) fibroblasts E) epithelial cells

A

Which coxal bone feature supports the body's weight when one is sitting? A) ischial tuberosity B) iliac crest C) pubic symphysis D) obturator foramen E) pubic tubercle

E

Which facial bone articulates with the frontal bone and the maxilla to complete the lateral wall of the orbit? A) vomer bone B) nasal bone C) lacrimal bone D) inferior nasal concha E) zygomatic bone

E

Which feature is an important landmark in females during pelvic examinations, and during labor and delivery? A) sacral canal B) sacral hiatus C) sacral foramina D) median sacral crest E) sacral promontory

D

Your doctor suggests that you increase your calcium intake to maintain your healthy bones. You do not understand why the doctor suggested this since you are a healthy 32-year-old. What was the doctor's reasoning? A) The doctor is afraid that you will fall and break a bone. B) The increased calcium intake will then increase your vitamin D blood level. C) Calcium intake will increase the activity of osteoblasts, causing more bone to be formed. D) You are at an age where calcium levels in the bone may start to subside, producing weaker bones later in life. E) As you get older you are more prone to arthritis, and calcium reduces that problem.

E

________ are giant bone cells with 50 or more nuclei. A) Osteocytes B) Osteons C) Osteoblasts D) Canaliculi E) Osteoclasts

E

________ is a movement that occurs in the anterior-posterior plane and increases the angle between the articulating bones. A) Eversion B) Flexion C) Elevation D) Reposition E) Extension