Bontrager Chapter 15 & 16

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How many joints must be included for an initial study of a long bone?

2; both joints must be included on the initial study

What is the maximum height of the barium enema bag above the tabletop before the beginning of the procedure?

3 feet (for pediatric patients)

Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: 2-month-old upper GI

3 hours

Where is the CR centered for an AP semi-erect projection of the chest?

3-4" below jugular notch

What kV range is generally used for a lateral chest?

80-85 kV

Describe or Define: Neonate Graves' disease

A form of hyperthyroidism

Which lateral projection would best demonstrate the mid-to-distal humerus without rotating the limb?

A horizontal beam lateromedial projection

Situation: A patient with a possible dislocation of the proximal humerus enters the ER. Because of multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. In addition to a routine AP projection, what second projection demonstrates whether the condition is an anterior or posterior dislocation?

A horizontal beam transthoracic lateral

What is the primary difference between simple & a compound fracture?

A simple fracture does not break through the skin, but a compound fracture does

When should a chest exposure be initiated for a crying child?

As the child fully inhales and holds his or her breath

Surgical __________ is the absence of infectious organisms.

Asepsis

Primary or Assisting technologist? Initiates exposures

Assisting technologist

Primary or Assisting technologist? Processes the images

Assisting technologist

Primary or Assisting technologist? Sets exposure factors

Assisting technologist

CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP supine abdomen (older children)

At level of iliac crest

Congenital defect in which the opening to an organ is missing

Atresia

Which type of comminuted fracture produces several separate wedge-shaped fragments?

Butterfly

True/False: A grid must be used with the AP axial trauma oblique projection for the cervical spine to reduce scatter radiation reaching the IR.

False

True/False: C-arms are most generally stationary fluoroscopy units used in surgery.

False

True/False: Collimation on trauma cases can lead to cutoff of key anatomy & pathology, therefore it should be limited to the size of the IR.

False

True/False: Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest projections

False

True/False: Multiphase CT examinations are necessary for most pediatric studies

False

True/False: Parental assistance for skull radiography is preferred rather than using head clamps and a mummy wrap on a pediatric patient.

False

True/False: Scrubs worn in radiology may be also worn in surgery.

False

True/False: Soft (canvas) shoes should be worn in surgery

False

True/False: Sterile gloves must be worn when handling a contaminated IR in surgery.

False

True/False: The entire OR table is considered to be sterile.

False

True/False: The technologist may violate the sterile environment in surgery if wearing sterile gloves, mask, and surgical scrubs.

False

True/False: Wearing a protective lead apron is optional if the technologist is at least 8 feet/2.6m from both the x-ray tube and patient during a mobile radiographic procedure

False

True/False: A well-inspired, erect chest radiograph taken on a young pediatric patient visualizes only six to seven ribs above the diaphragm.

False (9 to 10)

True/False: An avulsion fracture is the same as a chip fracture

False (A chip fracture involves an isolated fracture not associated with a tendon or ligament.)

True/False: Latex enema tips should be used for barium enemas for children younger than 1 year of age.

False (Latex tips should not be used because of possible allergic response to latex)

True/False: The AP projection with the x-rays tube placed directly above the anatomy during a C-arm procedure is recommended to minimize OID.

False (PA recommended because of less exposure to operator & less OID)

True/False: A 30 degree tilt of C-arm from the vertical perspective will increase the dose by a factor of three to the head and neck region

False (by a factor of 4)

True/False: AEC exposure systems are not feasible with mobile fluoroscopy

False (can be used)

True/False: The radiographic contrast on a pediatric abdominal radiograph is high compared with that of an adult abdominal radiograph.

False (contrast is low)

True/False: Battered child syndrome (BCS) is the current term for child abuse

False (correct term is 'nonaccidental trauma' or NAT)

True/False: The exposure dose is greater on the image intensifier side than on the x-ray tube side with the C-arm in the horizontal configuration

False (greater on tube side)

True/False: For trauma patients who cannot be moved for conventional diagnostic imaging, other modalities, such as ultrasound or nuclear medicine, may be used rather than trying to move the patient into specific positions.

False (it is important to rotate the x-ray tube & IR around patients if they are unable to move.)

True/False: Parents should never be in the radiographic room with their child

False (may be permissible with proper lead shielding if not pregnant)

True/False: Bony landmarks in infants are easy to palpate and locate.

False (most bony landmarks are non-existent in infants)

True/False: A follow-up postreduction radiograph of the middle portion of long bones should be collimated closely to the fracture region.

False (must include at least one joint nearest injury)

True/False: The intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures is helpful during procedures to produce brighter images, but it results in significantly increased patient exposure.

False (reduces exposure to patient

True/False: Small retention enema tips can be used on infants during a barium enema to help barium retention.

False (retention tips should not be used on small children)

True/False: It is important to place the foot into true AP and lateral positions when performing a clubfoot study.

False (take two projections 90 degrees from each other)

True/False: The technologist is responsible for reporting potential signs of child abuse to the police

False (the technologist should report to the radiologist or supervising technologist)

True/False: Clothing, bandages, and diapers generally do not need to be removed from the regions being radiographed on pediatric patients because they do not cause artifacts on the radiographs (as long as metallic fasteners are not present).

False (these items may cause artifacts and should be removed)

True/False: The transit time of the contrast media for reaching the cecum during a small bowel series on a 3-year-old child is approximately 2 hours.

False (usually 1 hour)

What is the disadvantage of performing a PA rather than an AP projection of the thumb?

Increase OID of the thumb

Which projections are taken for a postreduction study (casted) of the wrist?

PA & Lateral

Which exam is associated with Premature closure of fontanelles?

Skull

True/False: The chest and abdomen are generally almost equal in circumference in the newborn.

True

True/False: The entire upper limb is commonly included on an infant rather than individual exposures of specific parts of the upper limb.

True

True/False: The operator must determine image orientation on the mobile fluoroscopy monitors before the patient is brought into the room

True

True/False: The parent has the right to refuse the use of immobilization devices

True

True/False: The pliable nose stripe on the surgical mask helps prevent fogging of eye glasses.

True

True/False: The technologist can wear non-sterile gloves when handling the IR & surgical cover following a procedure.

True

True/False: The technologist has a moral and ethical responsibility to report any violations of the sterile field during surgery even if it was not noticed by another member of the surgical team.

True

True/False: The technologist should always use the shortest exposure time possible during pediatric procedures

True

True/False: There should be no attempt to straighten out the abnormal alignment of the foot during a clubfoot study

True

True/False: It is possible to provide gonadal shielding for both male and female pediatric patient for AP and lateral projections of the hips.

True (if correctly placed)

Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Kohler's disease

Upper/lower limb

Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Talipes

Upper/lower limb

What is the most common clinical indication for a voiding cystourethrogram?

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

A backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters and kidneys is called ___________.

Vesicoureteral reflux

Describe or Define: Croup

Viral infection leading to labored breathing and dry cough

When is the urinary reflux most likely to occur during a VCUG?

When the bladder is full and when voiding

Tumor that usually occurs in children younger than 5

Wilms' tumor

What is the common name for the special tray device that holds the IR & grid during an operative cholangiogram?

"Pizza Pan"

Change in manual exposure factor? Idiopathic juvenile osteoporosis

(-)

Change in manual exposure factor? Osteogenesis imperfecta

(-)

Change in manual exposure factor? Osteomalacia

(-)

For a young pediatric small bowel study, the barium normally reaches the ileocecal region in _____ hour.

1

CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP abdomen (infants and small children)

1 inch above umbilicus

Where is the CR centered for a KUB on a 3 month old infant?

1 inch above umbilicus

Where is the CR centered for an erect abdomen on a small child?

1" above the umbilicus

What is the minimum number of projections required for a post-reduction study of the wrist?

2

Situation: A patient with a crushing injury to the thorax enters the ER. The patient is on a backboard & cannot be moved. Which projections can be performed to determine whether the sternum is fractured?

1. 15 to 20 degree mediolateral angle 2. horizontal beam lateral projections

List the 2 primary types of mobile x-ray units

1. Battery-powered, Battery-driven type 2. Standard AC power source, non-motor drive

What are five of the six specific classifications of child abuse?

1. Neglect 2. Physical Abuse 3. Sexual Abuse 4. Psychological Maltreatment 5. Medical Neglect

Briefly describe the four steps for "mummifying" a child

1. Place the sheet on the table folded in half or thirds portrait. 2. Place patient in the middle of sheet with the right arm down to the side. Fold sheet across the patient's body and pull sheet across the body, keeping the arm against the body. 3. Place the patient's left arm along the side of the body and on top of the sheet. Bring the free sheet over the left arm to the right side of the body. Wrap the sheet around the body as needed. 4. Pull the sheet tightly so that the patient cannot free arms.

List three factors that reduce the number of repeat exposures with pediatric patients:

1. Proper immobilization 2. Short exposure times 3. Accurate manual technique charts

To ensure the CR is aligned properly for an AP trauma projection of the foot, the CR is angled:

10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface of the foot

Which position can be used to replace the RAO of the sternum for the patient who cannot lie prone on the table but can be rotated into a semisupine position?

15-20 degrees LPO

What is the minimum number of projections generally required for any trauma study?

2 projections taken 90-degrees to each other

The Pigg-O-Stat can be used effectively for an erect PA and lateral chest from infancy to approximately _________ years of age.

2 to 4

How much rotation of the body, from a supine position, is generally required for a lateromedial scapula projection with a trauma patient who can be turned partially on her side?

25 to 30 degrees, or until the CR can be projected parallel to the scapular blade (wing)

What type of CR angulation is required for the trauma version of an axiolateral projection of the mandible?

25 to 30-degrees cephalad & possibly 5 to 10-degrees posterior to clear the shoulder

How is the CR centered and aligned in relationship to the sternum for an AP portable projection of the chest?

3-4" below jugular notch, angled caudad so as to be perpendicular to sternum

Other than the straight AP, what other projection of the ribs can be taken for the supine immobile patient who cannot be rotated into an oblique position?

30- 40-degree cross-angled mediolateral projection

A 30-degree C-arm tilt from the vertical perspective increases exposure to the head & neck regions of the operator by a factor of_______

4

Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: 1-year-old upper GI

4 hours

Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: Pediatric IVU

4 hours (solid food)

Situation: A technologist receives 30mR/hr during a C-arm fluoroscopic procedure. What is the total exposure dose if the procedure takes 8 minutes of fluoroscopy time?

4 mR (30/60 x 8=4)

Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the proximal tibia & fibula enters the ER. The routine AP & lateral projections are inconclusive. Because of severe pain, the patient is unable to rotate the leg from the AP position. What position or projection could be performed that would provide an unobstructed view of the fibular head & neck?

45-degree lateromedial cross-angle AP projection of the knee & proximal tibia/fibula

Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: SID, AP supine chest:

50 to 60" (127 to 153 cm)

What is the kV range for a pediatric study of the upper limb?

50-60 kV

On average, how much contrast media is injected during an operative cholangiogram?

6 to 8 mL

What is the recommended amount of barium administered to an infant who is having an upper GI?

6-12 ounces

A technologist standing 1 foot from a mobile fluoroscopy unit is receiving approximately 400 mR/hour. What is the total exposure to the technologist if the procedure takes 10 minutes of fluoroscopy time to complete?

67 mR (400/60 x 10=67)

Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: SID, PA erect chest:

72" (183 cm)

Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: kV range?

75 to 85 kV

With battery-powered types, how long does recharging take if the batteries are fully discharged?

8 hours

Which of the following CR angulations places the petrous ridges in the lower one-third of the orbits with an AP reverse Caldwell projection of the skull? A. 15 degrees cephalad to OML B. 15 degrees caudad to OML C. CR perpendicular to OML D. 30 degrees cephalad to OML

A. 15 degrees cephalad to OML

A scapular Y projection taken AP supine for a trauma patient usually requires a ________-degree rotation of the body away from the IR. A. 25 to 30 B. 45 C. 50 to 60 D. 70

A. 25 to 30

How much barium should be administered to each of the following patients for an upper GI series? A. Infants B. Adolescents

A. 30-75 mL B. 480 mL

Which of the following projections demonstrates the C1-C2 vertebra if the patient cannot open his mouth? A. 35 to 40 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection B. Swimmer's lateral C. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection D. Articular pillar projection

A. 35 to 40 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection

The NPO fasting period for a 6-month old infant before an upper GI is: A. 4 hours B. 3 hours C. 1 hour D. 6 hours

A. 4 hours

Identify the 2 CR angles for the AP axial trauma oblique projections of the cervical spine: A. _________ lateromedial B. _________ cephalad

A. 45-degrees lateromedial B. 15-degrees cephalad

Approximately how much exposure at waist level would the operator receive with 5 minutes of fluoroscopy exposure standing 3 feet from the patient? (Hint: First convert mR/hour to mR/minute by dividing by 60; then multiply by minutes of fluoroscopy time.) A. 5 mR B. 60 mR C. 25 mR D. 2 mR

A. 5 mR (60 mR/60 min = 1 mR x 5 min = 5)

A battery-powered, battery-operated mobile x-ray unit can climb a maximum incline of: A. 7 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 12 degrees D. 15 degrees

A. 7 degrees

A. What is the minimum kV for an AP abdomen projection of a newborn with a grid? B. A grid is required for a pediatric AP abdomen if the abdomen measures more than ___________ cm.

A. 70 kV B. 10 cm

Situation: A technologist using a C-arm fluoroscope receives 125 mR/hour exposure standing 2 feet (0.6 meters) from the patient. What is the exposure rate if the technologist moves to a distance of 6 feet (1.8 meters)? A. <10 mR/hour B. 15-30 mR/hour C. 30-50 mR/hour D. 50-75 mR/hour

A. <10 mR/hour

Situation: A patient with a possible Pott's fracture enters the ER. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed for this patient? A. AP & horizontal beam lateral lower leg B. PA & horizontal beam lateral wrist C. AP & lateral thumb D. Three projections of the hand

A. AP & horizontal beam lateral lower leg

Situation: A child come to the radiology department with possible croup. Which of the following procedures best demonstrates this condition? A. AP and lateral upper airway B. Erect abdomen C. PA and lateral chest D. Sinus series

A. AP and lateral upper airway

Situation: A patient with a possible Barton fracture comes to the radiology department. Which of the following positioning routines would best demonstrate this? A. AP or PA & lateral wrist B. AP, mortise, & lateral ankle C. AP & lateral foot D. AP & lateral lower leg

A. AP or PA & lateral wrist

List the 3 advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy over traditional cholecystectomy:

A. Can be performed as an outpatient procedure B. Less invasive procedure C. Reduced hospital time & cost

Which of the following orthopedic devices is often used during a hip pinning? A. Cannulated screw assembly B. Ilizarov device C. Kirschner wire D. Semitubular plate

A. Cannulated screw assembly

Other than gonadal shielding, what three safeguards can be used to reduce the patient dose during pediatric procedures?

A. Close collimation B. Low-dosage techniques C. Minimum number of exposures

Which type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty? A. Compression fracture of the vertebral body B. Herniated intervertebral disk C. Scoliosis D. Spondylolysis

A. Compression fracture of the vertebral body

Which single term best describes the primary difference between trauma positions & standard positioning?

Adaptation

List the 4 essential attributes of the successful surgical technologist:

A. Confidence B. Mastery C. Problem-solving skills D. Communication

To provide a lateral view of the proximal femur, which of the following projections would be performed on a trauma patient? A. Danelius-Miller method B. Fuchs method C. Waters method D. Ottonello method

A. Danelius-Miller method

List the 2 terms for describing displacement of a bone from a joint

A. Dislocation B. Luxation

List the 3 measures that can be taken to maintain the sterile field when operating a mobile fluoroscopy unit in a surgical suite:

A. Drape the image intensifier, x-ray tube, & C-arm using a sterile cloth &/or bags B. Drape the patient or surgery site with an additional sterile cloth before the undraped C-arm is positioned over the anatomy C. Maintain the sterile area by using a "shower curtain"

Situation: A child comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Kohler's bone disease. Which of the following radiographic routines demonstrates this condition? A. Foot B. Shoulder C. Lumbar spine D. Cervical spine

A. Foot

List the 2 internal fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery:

A. Harrington rods B. Luque rods

List five conditions that contraindicate the use of laxatives or enemas in preparation for a lower GI study

A. Hirschsprung disease B. Extensive diarrhea C. Appendicitis D. Obstruction E. Dehydration (patients who cannot withstand fluid loss)

Which of the following devices is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, & humeral shaft fractures? A. Intramedullary nail B. Cerclage wire C. Ilizarov device D. Compression screw

A. Intramedullary nail

A. On a horizontal beam lateral trauma skull projection, should the IR be placed portrait or landscape to the patient? B. Where should the CR be centered for this lateral skull projection?

A. Landscape B. 2" superior to EAM

Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air for the patient who cannot stand or sit erect? A. Left lateral decubitus B. AP KUB C. Right Lateral decubitus D. Dorsal decubitus

A. Left lateral decubitus

Which of the following modalities is most effective in detecting signs of autism? A. MRI B. Ultrasound C. Spiral CT D. Nuclear medicine

A. MRI

Which of the following conditions is caused by inflammation of the inner lining of the larger or small bowel, resulting in tissue death? A. NEC B. Intussusception C. CHD D. Meconium ileus

A. NEC

What portion of the OR table is considered sterile: A. Only the level of the table top B. Entire table C. Tabletop & half of the base D. None of the table

A. Only the level of the table top

Situation: A patient with a possible greenstick fracture enters the ER. What age group does this type of fracture usually affect? A. Pediatric B. Young adult C. Middle age D. Elderly

A. Pediatric

A device with an adjustable type of bicycle seat and two clear plastic body clamps is called (A) ___________ and is is most commonly used for (B) ___________.

A. Pigg-O-Stat B. Erect chest & abdomen studies

List three safeguards to help reduce repeat exposures during pediatric procedures

A. Proper immobilization B. Short exposure times C. Accurate manual technique charts

Situation: A patient with a possible pleural effusion in the right lung enters the ER. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. What position would best demonstrate this condition? A. Right lateral decubitus B. AP supine C. Dorsal decubitus D. Semi-erect AP

A. Right lateral decubitus

What spinal procedure may require the use of Harrington or Luque rods? A. Scoliosis corrective surgery B. Microdiscectomy C. Spinal fusion D. All of the above

A. Scoliosis corrective surgery

List the three possible roles for the parent during a pediatric procedure

A. Serve as an observer in the room to lend support and comfort to the child. B. Serve as a participator to assist with immobilization. C. Remain in the waiting room, and do not accompany the child into the room.

Situation: An image taken during an operative cholangiogram shows that the biliary ducts are superimposed over the spine. The surgeon wants the ducts projected away from the spine. Which of the following positions may eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure? A. Shallow RPO B. Shallow LPO C. AP D. Horizontal beam lateral

A. Shallow RPO

List the 4 regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma.

A. Shoulder B. Fingers or thumb C. Patella D. Hip

Which of the following devices helps maintain the sterile environment in surgery during a C-arm-guided hip pinning? A. Shower curtain B. Mylar shield C. Cassette cover D. Good cleaning of equipment before procedure

A. Shower curtain

Beyond radiography, what other imaging modality is used to diagnose congenital hip dislocations in the newborn? A. Sonography B. CT C. Nuclear medicine D. MRI

A. Sonography

Which of the following imaging modalities is most effective in diagnosing pyloric stenosis in children? A. Sonography B. Spiral/helical CT C. Functional MRI D. Nuclear medicine

A. Sonography

What type of equipment cleaner should not be used in surgery?

Aerosol

List the two important general factors that produce a successful pediatric radiographic procedure

A. Technologist's attitude and approach to a child. B. Technical preparation of the room.

List the 3 terms describing the cardinal rules of radiation protection:

A. Time B. Distance C. Shielding

List 2 types of incomplete fractures

A. Torus B. Greenstick

When adhesive tape is used to immobilize a child (if not placed directly over the parts to be radiographed), what two methods are used to prevent the adhesive tape from injuring the skin?

A. Twisting the tape so that the adhesive surface is not against the skin. B. Placing a gauze pad between the tape and the skin.

Which of the following fracture terms describes an angulation of a distal fracture end away from the midline? A. Valgus deformity B. Varus deformity C. Apex angulation D. Bayonet apposition

A. Valgus angulation

A. Which term describes the angulation of a distal fracture fragment toward the midline? B. Would this fracture angulation be described as a medial or a lateral apex?

A. Varus (deformity) angulation B. A lateral apex

A VCUG on a child is most commonly performed to evaluate for (A) ___________ & is generally scheduled to be completed (B) _________ (before or after) an IVU or ultrasound study of the kidneys.

A. Vesicoureteral reflux B. before

A malignant tumor of the kidney common in children under the age of 5 years is: A. Wilms' tumor B. Adenocarcinoma C. Ewing's sarcoma D. Teratoma

A. Wilms' tumor

What are the two primary components of a mobile fluoroscopy unit (located on each end of the structure from which it derives its name)?

A. X-ray tube B. Image Intensifier

Describe or Define: Hyaline membrane disease

AKA Respiratory distress syndrome

Situation: A patient with a possible dislocation of the patella enters the emergency room. What type of positioning routine should be performed on this patient that would safely demonstrate the patella?

AP & horizontal beam lateral with no flexion of the knee

Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the proximal humerus enters the ER. Because of multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. What positioning routine should be performed to diagnose the extend of the injury?

AP & transthoracic lateral or scapular Y projection

Which radiographic projections (and methods) are performed for the infant with congenital clubfeet?

AP and lateral feet, Kite method

Which projections are frequently performed during a VCUG on a pediatric patient?

AP and oblique positions (LPO and RPO)

What type of contrast media is recommended for reducing an intussusception?

Air for the pneumatic reduction of intussusception

Which projection will best demonstrate (with only minimal distortion) the pedicles of the cervical spine on a severely injured patient?

AP axial trauma oblique projections

Which exam is associated with Intussusception?

Abdomen

Which exam is associated with Meconium ileus?

Abdomen

Which exam is associated with NEC?

Abdomen

Describe or Define: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Abnormally soft bones

What is the term that describes the associative relationship between the long axes of fracture fragments?

Alignment

Situation: An orthopedic surgeon orders a mortise projection of the ankle, but the patient has a severely fractured ankle & cannot rotate the ankle medially for the mortise projection. What can the technologist do to provide this projection without rotating the ankle?

Angle the CR 15 to 20 degrees lateromedially to the long axis of the foot

Surgical term or device defined: Creation of an artificial joint to correct ankyloses

Arthroplasty

How much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on a hypersthenic patient? A. 10 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 20 degrees D. 25 degrees

B. 15 degrees

If a technologist receives 50 mR/hour standing 3 feet from the mobile fluoroscopy unit, what would be the exposure rate be if he or she moved back to a distance of 4 feet? A. 10 mR/hour B. 25 mR/hour C. 100 mR/hour D. No significant difference

B. 25 mR/hour

Which radiographic procedure is commonly performed for epiglottitis? A. Sinus series B. AP & lateral upper airway C. CT of the chest D. Functional MRI

B. AP & lateral upper airway

Which of the following procedures can be performed to evaluate children for attention deficient hyperactivity? A. Spiral/helical CT B. Functional MRI C. 3-D ultrasound D. Nuclear medicine

B. Functional MRI

Situation: A 2-year old child comes to the radiology department for a routine chest examination. While removing the child's shirt, you notice a human bite mark on the upper arm. What should you do next? A. Call hospital security B. Inform the supervisor or physician C. Interview the parent about the injury D. Interview the child about the injury

B. Inform the supervisor or physician

Which of the following orthopedic devised is used to stabilize a mid-femoral shaft fracture? A. Austin-Moore prosthesis B. Intramedullary rod C. Interbody fusion cages D. Cannulated screw

B. Intramedullary rod

Which one of the following fracture terms describes a situation in which the ends of fragments are aligned but are pulled apart & not making contact with each other? A. Dislocation B. Lack of apposition C. Apex angulation D. Anatomic apposition

B. Lack of apposition

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the pediatric skull? A. At the EAM B. Midway between the glabella & inion C. 1" above the EAM D. 3/4" anterior & superior to the EAM

B. Midway between glabella and inion

In what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography? A. Sims position B. Modified lithotomy position C. Trendelenburg D. Fowler position

B. Modified lithotomy position

Which skull positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for an AP Towne 30-degree caudal projection of the skull? A. IOML B. OML C. MML D. AML

B. OML

Situation: A 3-year-old child comes to the radiology department for and erect abdomen examination. He is unable to remain still for the exposures. Which immobilization device should be used for this patient? A. Tam-Em board B. Pigg-O-Stat C. Plexiglas hold-down paddle D. Have another technologist hold child

B. Pigg-O-Stat

Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible radial head dislocation. The arm is immobilized with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees. Which of the following projections best demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition of the ulna without having to extend the elbow? A. AP partial flexion B. Trauma axiolateral projection C. Jones method D. Lateromedial projection

B. Trauma axiolateral projection

Which of the following facial bone projections will best demonstrate air-fluid levels in the maxillary sinuses for a patient unable to stand or sit erect? A. AP acanthioparietal B. Trauma, horizontal beam lateral C. AP modified acanthioparietal D. AP axial

B. Trauma, horizontal beam lateral

What is the name of the device on the x-ray tube mount that permits compound angles of the x-ray tube? A. C-arm B. Trunnion C. Angle brace D. Tube angle stop

B. Trunnion

What is the primary advantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure?

Brighter image

Describe or Define: Epiglottitis

Bacterial infection can lead to closure of the upper airway

What size should the IR be for a skull routine on a 6-year-old patient?

Base selection on the size of the anatomy (10 x 12 if the skull in near adult size)

Fracture defined: Fracture of distal phalanx with finger extended

Baseball

Which type of mobile radiography x-ray unit is self-propelled?

Battery-operated, Battery-driven

Which term describes a type of fracture in which the fracture fragment ends are overlapped & not in contact?

Bayonet apposition

Fracture defined: Fracture along base of first metacarpal

Bennett's

Where is the gonadal shielding placed for a bilateral hip study on a female pediatric patient?

Between the umbilicus and just above the pubis

Which single radiographic position provides a lateral projection of bilateral lower limbs for the non-traumatic pediatric patient?

Bilateral frog-leg

What anatomy is examined during an operative (immediate) cholangiogram?

Biliary Duct system

What is the common term for a mobile fluoroscopy unit?

C-arm

To ensure that the joints are opened up for an AP projection of the foot, how is the CR aligned? A. Perpendicular to the long axis of the tibia B. Perpendicular to the plantar surface C. 10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface D. 10 degrees posterior from perpendicular to the dorsal surface

C. 10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface

Situation: An operator receives 25 mR/hour to the facial & neck region with the C-arm in position for a PA projection (intensifier on top). Approximately how much would the operator receive at the same distance if the C-arm were reversed to an AP projection position (tube on top)? A. 25 to 50 mR/hour B. 50 to 100 mR/hour C. 100 to 300 mR/hour D. 300 to 500 mR/hour

C. 100 to 300 mR/hour

At approximately what age does the skeleton reach full ossification? A. 12 years old B. 18 years old C. 25 years old D. 40 years old

C. 25 years old

At what age can most children be talked through a radiographic examination without purposeful immobilization? A. 1 year B. 18 months C. 3 years D. 5 years

C. 3 years

Situation: The C-arm is in position for a PA projection. What exposure field range would the operator receive at waist level standing 3 feet from the patient? A. 20 to 25 mR/hour B. 25 to 50 mR/hour C. 50 to 100 mR/hour D. 100 to 300 mR/hour

C. 50 to 100 mR/hour

The technologist must be at least ________ from the x-ray tube during a mobile radiographic procedure. A. 2 feet (0.6 m) B. 4 feet (1.3 m) C. 6 feet (1.8 m) D. 8 feet (2.4 m)

C. 6 feet (1.8 m)

Situation: A child comes to radiology with a clinical history of talipes equinovarus. Which of the following positioning routines and/or methods is often performed for this condition? A. Coyle method B. Erect AP knee projections C. AP and lateral foot - Kite method D. AP and lateral hip

C. AP and lateral foot - Kite method

Situation: A child comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Which of the following projections best demonstrates this condition? A. PA and lateral chest B. Supine and erect abdomen C. AP and lateral hip D. AP and lateral bilateral lower limbs

C. AP and lateral hip

Which of the following projections of the skull would project the petrous ridges in the lower one-third of the orbits on a supine trauma patient? A. AP skull, CR 0 degrees to OML B. AP skull, CR 15 degrees caudad to OML C. AP skull, CR 15 degrees cephalad to OML D. AP skull, CR 30 degrees caudad to OML

C. AP skull, CR 15 degrees cephalad to OML

Which of the following conditions contraindicates the use of laxatives before a contrast media procedure? A. Gastritis B. Blood in stool C. Appendicitis D. Diverticulosis

C. Appendicitis

The absence of infectious organisms is the definition for: A. Surgical cleanliness B. Sepsis C. Asepsis D. Surgical sterility

C. Asepsis

Which of the following orthopedic procedures is considered nonsurgical? A. Open reduction B. External fixation C. Closed reduction D. Internal fixation

C. Closed reduction

Which of the following clinical indicators applies to a pediatric skull series? A. Osteomyelitis B. CHD C. Craniostenosis D. Hyaline membrane disease

C. Craniostenosis

What is meconium? A. Pancreatic enzymes B. Blood & lymph C. Dark green secretion of the liver & intestinal glands mixed with amniotic fluid D. Pus and dead blood cells

C. Dark green secretion of the liver & intestinal glands mixed with amniotic fluid

Which of the following projections of the abdomen best demonstrates the prevertebral region? A. AP supine KUB B. PA prone KUB C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen D. AP erect abdomen

C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen

Which one of the following techniques helps to remove the scapulae from the lung fields during pediatric chest radiography? A. Make exposure on the second inspiration B. Extend the chin C. Extend the arms upward D. Place arms behind the patient's back

C. Extend arms upward

Situation: A young child is sent to the radiology department for a skull series. The guardian states that she is willing to hold her child during the exposures; however, the guardian is 8 months pregnant. What should the technologist do next? A. Place a 0.5-mm lead apron on the guardian and allow her to hold her child. B. The technologist should hold the child during each exposure and have the guardian wait outside. C. Have another (non-radiology) health professional hold the child and have guardian wait outside the room. D. Have a radiography student hold the child and have the guardian wait outside the room.

C. Have another (non-radiology) health professional hold the child and have guardian wait outside the room.

Situation: A patient with a possible basilar skull fracture enters the ER. The ER physician wants a projection that best demonstrates a sphenoid effusion. The patient cannot stand or sit erect. Which of the following projections would achieve this goal? A. AP skull B. Lateral recumbent skull C. Horizontal beam lateral skull D. Modified Waters projection

C. Horizontal beam lateral skull

Functional MRI has been used to detect disorders in all the following conditions except: A. Autism B. Tourette's syndrome C. Hydrocephalus D. Attention deficient hyperactivity disorder

C. Hydrocephalus

Situation: A patient with a possible compression fracture of the lumbar spine enters the ER. Which specific projection of the lumbar spine series would best demonstrate this fracture? A. AP B. LPO & RPO C. Lateral D. AP L5-S1 projection

C. Lateral

Situation: A patient with possible ascites enters the ER. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate this condition? A. AP supine KUB B. Dorsal decubitus C. Left lateral decubitus D. Prone KUB

C. Left lateral decubitus

The most suitable immobilization device for erect chests and/or the abdomen is the: A. Posi-Tot B. Tam-Em Board C. Pigg-O-Stat D. Hold-em Tiger

C. Pigg-O-Stat

Which immobilization device or method should be used for an erect 1-year-old chest procedure? A. Tam-Em board B. Hold-down paddle C. Pigg-O-Stat D. Parent holding child

C. Pigg-O-Stat

Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed prenatally with sonography? A. Tourette's syndrome B. Vesicoureteral reflux C. Spina bifida D. Autism

C. Spina bifida

Situation: A patient is struck directly on the patella with a heavy object, & the patella is shattered. The resultant fracture most likely would be described as a: A. Burst fracture B. Compression fracture C. Stellate fracture D. Smith's fracture

C. Stellate fracture

Suctioning, tying, and clamping blood vessels, as well as assisting in cutting and suturing tissues, are the general duties of the: A. CST B. Circulator C. Surgical assistant D. Scrub

C. Surgical assistant

Which parts of a sterile gown are considered sterile? A. From the top of the shoulders to the knee B. The sleeves & the waist region C. The shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow D. The entire surgical gown

C. The shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow

Which of the following techniques best reduces the dose to the surgical team during a C-arm procedure? A. Use boost function whenever possible B. Place tube in vertical position above patient C. Use intermittent fluoroscopy D. Lower kV as low as possible

C. Use intermittent fluoroscopy

Which of the following measures is most effective (& practical) in limiting exposure with mobile fluoroscopy? A. Limit C-arm procedures to surgery cases only B. Prevent non-radiologists from C. Use intermittent or "foot-tapping" fluoroscopy

C. Use intermittent or "foot-tapping" fluoroscopy

What is the primary disadvantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure?

Can add to patient dose & to the surrounding surgical team

Surgical term or device defined: Orthopedic screw designed to enter & fix porous & spongy bone

Cancellous screw

Describe or Define: Wilms' tumor

Cancer of the kidney of embryonic origin

Surgical term or device defined: Large screw used in internal fixation of nondisplaced fractures of proximal femur

Cannulated screw

Surgical term or device defined: Orthopedic wire that tightens around the fracture site to reduce shortening of limb

Cerclage wire

Situation: A patient with injuries suffered in a motor vehicle accident enters the ER. The ER physician orders a lateral C-spine projection to rule out a fracture or dislocation. Because of the thickness of the shoulders, C6-C7 is not visualized. What additional projection can be taken safely to demonstrate this region of the spine?

Cervicothoracic projection (Swimmer's lateral) using a horizontal beam CR

Describe or Define: Hirschsprung disease

Characterized by the absence of rhythmic contractions of the large intestine

List the secondary name for: Hutchinson's fracture

Chauffeur's

Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Atelectasis

Chest

Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Cystic fibrosis

Chest

Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: RDS

Chest

Which exam is associated with Atelectasis?

Chest

Which exam is associated with Bronchiectasis?

Chest

Which exam is associated with Cystic fibrosis?

Chest

Which exam is associated with Hemoptysis?

Chest

Which exam is associated with Hyaline membrane disease?

Chest

Fracture defined: Fracture resulting in an isolated bone fragment

Chip

List the secondary name for: Simple fracture

Closed

What type of reduction fracture does not require surgery?

Closed reduction

Define the fracture: Pott's

Complete fracture of distal fibula, frequently with fracture of medial malleolus

Describe or Define: Atresias

Condition characterized by the absence of an opening in an organ

Describe or Define: Hypospadias

Congenital defect in the male urethra

Describe or Define: Talipes equinus

Congenital deformity of the foot

Enlarged thyroid at birth

Congenital goiter

An injury in which there is no fracture or breaking of the skin is called a ____________

Contusion

Two common terms for the classic metaphyseal lesion (CML), which may indicate child abuse, are:

Corner fracture and Bucket-Handle fracture

Surgical term or device defined: Narrow, orthopedic screw designed to enter & fix cortical bone

Cortical screw

Describe or Define: Hemoptysis

Coughing up blood

Premature closure of the skull sutures

Craniostenosis

A common condition in children between the ages of 1 to 3, caused by a viral infection

Croup

At approximately what age does the epiphysis of the fibular apex first become clearly visible? A. 1 or 2 years old B. 3 or 4 years old C. 5 or 6 years old D. 12 years old

D. 12 years old

Which of the following procedures can be performed to diagnose possible genetic fetal abnormalities? A. Nuclear medicine fetal scan B. Spiral/helical CT C. Functional MRI D. 3-D ultrasound

D. 3-D ultrasound

How much is the CR angled to the OML for an AP axial (town) projection of a pediatric skull? A. 15 degrees B. None C. 25 degrees D. 30 degrees

D. 30 degrees

Which of the following orthopedic devices is classified as an external fixator? A. Intramedullary B. Cerclage wire C. Semitubular plate D. Ilizarov device

D. Ilizarov device

Situation: A patient with a possible C2 fracture enters the ER on a backboard. The AP projection does not demonstrate C2. In addition, the patient cannot open his mouth because of a mandible fracture. Which projection can be performed safely to demonstrate this region of the spine? A. Swimmer's method B. Judd method C. Vertebral arch projection D. 35- to 40-degree cephalad axial projection

D. 35- to 40-degree cephalad axial projection CR parallel to MML)

Which of the following radiographic routines and/or procedures best demonstrates Osgood-Schlatter disease? A. Barium enema B. AP & lateral hip C. Upper GI D. AP & lateral knee

D. AP and lateral knee

Which of the following procedures or projections should be performed for a possible meconium ileus? A. IVU procedure B. AP supine abdomen C. Upper GI series D. Acute abdomen series

D. Acute abdomen series

Which of the following procedures does not require the use of mobile fluoroscopy? A. Hip pinning B. Intramedullary rod insertion C. Open reduction of tibia D. All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance

D. All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance

For successful surgical radiographic exposures, clear communication must be established among the surgeon, technologist, &: A. Scrub B. CST C. Circulator D. Anesthesiologist

D. Anesthesiologist

Situation: Which radiographic procedure is often performed for Hirschsprung disease? A. Upper GI B. MRI C. Cystourethrography D. Barium enema

D. Barium enema

Situation: a newborn is diagnosed with RDS. Which one of the following procedures is commonly performed for this condition? A. Abdomen B. Functional MRI C. CT of head D. Chest

D. Chest

At the first meeting between the technologist and the patient (accompanied by an adult), which of the following generally should NOT be discussed? A. Introduce yourself B. Take the necessary time to explain what you will be doing. C. Discuss the possible forceful immobilization that will be needed in the child will not cooperate. D. Describe the total amount of radiation the patient will receive with the specific exam if it has to be repeated because of a lack of cooperation. E. All of these steps must be taken.

D. Describe the total amount of radiation the patient will receive with that specific exam if it has to be repeated because of lack of cooperation

If the technologist suspects child abuse, he or she should: A. Ask the parent when the abuse occurred B. Report the abuse immediately to the necessary state officials as required by the state C. Refuse to do the examination or touch the child until a physician has examined the patient D. Do none of the above

D. Do none of the above

Which of the following projections of the abdomen most effectively demonstrates a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. Left lateral decubitus B. AP KUB C. Right lateral decubitus D. Dorsal decubitus

D. Dorsal decubitus

What should be the final step that the technologist takes before returning a trauma patient to the ER following a radiographic procedure? A. Review patient history B. Review examination requisition C. Check patient armband/identification D. Ensure side rails are up on the patient cart

D. Ensure side rails are up on the patient cart

Radiologists often use the Salter-Harris system to classify _________ fractures. A. Pathologic B. Trimalleolar C. Stellate D. Epiphyseal

D. Epiphyseal

Which of the following projections demonstrates the odontoid process for the trauma patient who is unable to open the mouth yet can extend the skull & neck? (Subluxation & fracture have been ruled out.) A. Vertebral arch projection B. AP axial C. Judd method D. Fuchs method

D. Fuchs method

Which of the following imaging modalities is effective in detecting signs of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A. CT B. Sonography C. Nuclear medicine D. Functional MRI

D. Functional MRI

Which of the following is NOT the name of a known commercially available immobilization device? A. Posi-Tot B. Tam-Em Board C. Pigg-O-Stat D. Hold-em Tiger

D. Hold-em Tiger

Which of the following orthopedics devices is used to stabilize a mid-femoral shaft fracture? A. Interbody fusion cage B. Thompson prosthesis C. Modular bipolar prosthesis D. Ilizarov device

D. Ilizarov device

Which of the following devices can be used for spinal fusion surgery rather than the use of a pedicle screw? A. Austin-Moore prosthesis B. Cannulated screw C. Dynamic compression plate D. Interbody fusion cage

D. Interbody fusion cage

Situation: A patient with a Monteggia fracture enters the ER. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed on this patient? A. AP & lateral thumb B. PA & horizontal beam lateral wrist C. AP & horizontal beam lateral lower leg D. PA or AP & horizontal beam lateral forearm

D. PA or AP & horizontal beam lateral forearm

Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the cervical spine pedicles enters the ER. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate this region of the spine without moving the patient? A. Perform a Swimmer's lateral B. Perform an articular pillar projection C. Perform a Fuchs method D. Perform AP axial trauma oblique projections

D. Perform AP axial trauma oblique projections

By increasing kV and __________, the dose can be reduced to the pediatric patient during a helical CT scan. A. mA B. Region of body scammed C. Scan resolution D. Pitch ratio

D. Pitch ratio

A radiographic examination of the pelvicaliceal system only during surgery is termed: A. Retrograde ureterogram B. Antegrade pyelogram C. Nephrostomy D. Retrograde pyelogram

D. Retrograde pyelogram

_____________ consists of the practice & procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present in the surgical environment. A. Asepsis B. OSHA Standards C. Sterile practice D. Surgical Asepsis

D. Surgical Asepsis

Situation: Which radiographic procedure is often performed for pyloric stenosis? A. Barium enema B. Evacuative proctography C. Enteroclysis D. Upper GI

D. Upper GI

Imaging equipment permanently stored in surgery must be cleaned at least: A. Daily B. Bimonthly C. Monthly D. Weekly

D. Weekly

Describe or Define: Achondroplasia

Decreased bone formation at growth plates

Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Occurs before birth

Diaphysis

Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Primary centers

Diaphysis

Primary centers of bone formation (ossification) involving the midshafts of long bones are called _________.

Diaphysis

Other than preventing artifacts in the bowel, what is the other reason that solid food is withheld for 4 hours before a pediatric IVU?

Diminish the risk for aspiration from vomiting

How must the IR & grid be positioned for the inferosuperior (axiolateral) projection of the hip?

Direct horizontal CR perpendicular to the femoral neck & to the plane of the IR

Describe or Define: Osteochondrosis

Disease of epiphyseal and growth plate

What is the correct term for displacement of a bone from a joint?

Dislocation or luxation

Which bones are commonly fractured with the Pott's fracture?

Distal fibula & occasionally the distal tibia or medial malleolus

Which bone is most commonly fractured in a Colles' fracture, & which displacement commonly occurs? Describe the type of injury or fall commonly results in this type of fracture?

Distal radius, posterior displacement of distal fragment; fall on outstretched arm

Which cardinal rule is most effective in reducing occupational exposure?

Distance

DHS is an abbreviation for _______.

Dynamic hip screw

Surgical term or device defined: Electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system

ESWL - electro shock wave lithotripsy

Bacterial infection of the upper airway that may be fatal if untreated

Epiglottitis

Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Space between primary & secondary centers

Epiphyseal plate

Secondary centers of ossification of the long bones are called __________.

Epiphyses

Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Secondary centers

Epiphysis

Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Continues to change from birth to maturity

Epiphysis & Epiphyseal plate

True/False: Gonadal shielding should only be used in supine positions because of the difficulty in keeping the shield in place.

False; shielding should be used in all positions, using tape when necessary

True/False: The CR should not exceed a 30-degree caudad angle for the AP axial projection of the cranium to avoid excessive distortion of the cranial bones

False; should not exceed 45-degrees

True/False: The surgeon is responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all personnel in the OR

False; the technologist is responsible to ensure radiation safety in the OR

Define the fracture: Boxer's

Fracture of distal fifth metacarpal

Define the fracture: Smith's

Fracture of distal radius with anterior displacement

Define the fracture: Colles'

Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement

Define the fracture: Trimalleolar

Fracture of lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, & distal posterior tip of tibia

Define the fracture: Monteggia

Fracture of proximal half of ulna with dislocation of radial head

Define the fracture: Bennett's

Fracture of the base of the first metacarpal

Define the fracture: Hangman's

Fracture of the pedicles of C2

A special OR table used for hip pinnings & other orthopedic procedures to provide traction to the involved limb is termed:

Fracture or orthopedic table

Define the fracture: Compression

Fracture producing a reduced height of the anterior vertebral body

Define the fracture: Avulsion

Fracture resulting from a severe stress to a tendon

Define the fracture: Comminuted

Fracture resulting in multiple (2 or more) fragments

Define the fracture: Stellate

Fracture with fracture lines radiating from a center point

CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP skull

Glabella

Fracture defined: Fracture through the pedicles of C2

Hangman's

Roles of: Certified Surgical Technologist

Health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies & instruments

AKA congenital megacolon

Hirschsprung disease

How is the x-ray tube aligned for a lateral projection of the chest if the patient is on a Tam-Em board?

Horizontally

Fracture defined: Also called a Chauffer's fracture

Hutchinson's

What is the name of the fracture in which one fragment is driven into the other?

Impacted

Define the fracture: Greenstick

Incomplete fracture with broken cortex on one side of bone only

Define the fracture: Depressed

Indented fracture of the skull

Roles of: Circulator

Individual who assists in the OR with the needs of the scrubbed members within the sterile field before, during, & after the surgical procedure

Roles of: Surgical Assistant

Individual who assists the surgeon

Roles of: Surgeon

Individual who has primary responsibility for the surgical procedure & the well-being of the patient before, during & immediately after surgery

Anesthesiologist

Individual who has the responsibility of ensuring the safety of the patient & monitoring physiologic functions & fluid levels of the patient during surgery

Roles of: Scrub

Individual who prepares the sterile field, scrubs, & gowns for the members of the surgical team, & prepares & sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure

Describe or Define: Kohler's bone disease

Inflammation of navicular in the foot

Describe or Define: NEC

Inflammation of the inner lining of the intestine

Describe or Define: Cystic fibrosis

Inherited disease leading to clogging of bronchi

What might the only recourse be if a pediatric patient refuses to drink barium for an upper GI series?

Insert a nasogastric tube into the stomach

With the tube & intensifier in a horizontal position, at which side of the patient should the surgeon stand if he or she must remain near the patient - the x-ray tube side or the intensifier side? Why?

Intensifier side; the radiation field pattern extends out farther on the x-ray tube side

What is the name of the device used to stabilize the vertebral body in lieu of traditional spinal fusion?

Interbody fusion cages

Define the fracture: Hutchinson's

Intra-articular fracture of radial styloid process

Why is tape not recommended, for immobilization purposes, to be place directly on children?

It can damage the skin

Why should the mobile fluoroscopy unit not be placed in the AP projection ("tube on top" position)?

It results in a significant increase in exposure to the head, eyes, & neck region of the operator

Surgical term or device defined: Unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of wrist (carpals) and individual bones of the hands and feet

Kirschner wire

An unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire, used to reduce fractures of the wrist (carpals), is called ___________

Kirschner wires

Which radiographic technique or method is performed to radiographically study congenital clubfoot?

Kite method

A surgical procedure, performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement involving the spine, is termed ____________.

Laminectomy

How must the grid be aligned to prevent grid cutoff when angling the CR mediolaterally for an oblique projection of the sternum when the patient cannot be rotated or moved at all from the supine position?

Landscape

Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: IR - portrait or landscape?

Landscape

How must the IR and grid be aligned if the OR table is tilted during an operative cholangiogram?

Landscape orientation to prevent grid cutoff

A 14- x 17-inch IR should be placed _________ (landscape or portrait) for an AP portable chest on an average or large patient, and why?

Landscape; to prevent side cutoff of the right or left lateral margins of the chest

Of the two monitors found on most mobile fluoroscopy units, which is generally considered the "active" monitor - the right or the left?

Left monitor

Where is the CR centered for a KUB on an 8 year old child?

Level of iliac crest

List the secondary name for: Baseball fracture

Mallet

Where is the CR centered for a PA and lateral pediatric chest projection

Mammillary (nipple) level

CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP, PA, or lateral chest

Mammillary (nipple) line

How is barium instilled into the large bowel for a barium enema study of an infant?

Manually & slowly, 60 mL syringe & #10 French flexibly silicone catheter

Describe or Define: Meconium aspiration

May develop during stressful births

Describe or Define: Pyloric stenosis

May result in repeated, forceful vomiting

The area in which bone growth in length occurs is termed the _________.

Metaphysis

What is the name of the newer type of prosthetic device to replace a defective hip joint?

Modular bipolar hip prostheses

Fracture defined: Fracture of proximal half of ulna with dislocation of radial head

Monteggia

What should be done to achieve specific projections if the patient cannot move because of trauma?

Move the CR & IR around the patient to produce similar projections rather than moving the patient.

How can rib fractures be a radiographic indication of child abuse?

Multiple and posterior fractures are an indication of a child being held up under the axillae and shaken

Clinical indicators that apply for an AP abdomen (KUB)

NEC, Intussusception, Foreign body localization, Hepatomegaly, Appendicitis

Second most common form of cancer in children younger than 5 years of age

Neuroblastoma

Should a grid be used for a 2-year-old lateral chest?

No

What is the bowel prep for a pediatric voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)?

No bowel prep is required

Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: Infant lower GI

No prep required

Retrograde urography is a ___________ (non-functional or functional) examination of the urinary system

Non-functional

Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: Grid/non-grid?

Non-grid

Fracture defined: Subluxation of the radial head on a child

Nursemaid's elbow

Describe or Define: Ileus

Obstruction caused by lack of contractile movement of the intestinal wall

List the secondary name for: Compound fracture

Open

ORIF is the abbreviation for _______.

Open reduction with internal fixation

Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal plate

Osteochondrosis

Inherited condition that produces very fragile bones

Osteogenesis imperfecta

AKA Rickets

Osteomalacia

How is the CR angled and where is it centered for the AP acanthioparietal (reverse Waters) projection of the facial bones?

Parallel to the MML, centered to acanthion

How is the CR angled for a trauma lateral projection of the elbow?

Parallel to the interepicondylar plane

Fracture defined: Fracture resulting from a disease process

Pathologic

A retrograde pyelogram is a specific radiographic examination of the ____________ system.

Pelvicalyceal

Which exam is associated with CHD?

Pelvis & Hips

Which exam is associated with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

Pelvis & Hips

Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the ankle enters the ER. The patient cannot rotate the lower limb. What can be done to provide the orthopedic surgeon with a mortise projection of the ankle?

Perform a cross-angle CR projection of the ankle, with CR 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial from the long axis of the foot

List the secondary name for: Depressed fracture

Ping-pong

Describe or Define: Craniostenosis

Prematurely closed cranial sutures

Primary or Assisting technologist? Instructs the parents

Primary technologist

Primary or Assisting technologist? Positions the patient

Primary technologist

Primary or Assisting technologist? Positions the tube and collimates

Primary technologist

Surgical term or device defined: Fabricated (artificial) substitute for a diseased or missing anatomic part

Prosthesis

Describe or Define: Meningocele

Protrusion of meninges through opening

Bacterial infection of the kidney

Pyelonephritis

What is the primary benefit of the "pulse mode" on a digital C-arm unit?

Reducing patient dose

Name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy imaging

Roadmapping

What is the term for the process of holding one image on the C-arm monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy?

Roadmapping

Fracture involving the epiphyseal plate

Salter-Harris fracture

Surgical term or device defined: Isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the non-sterile environment

Shower curtain

Describe or Define: Myelocele

Spinal cord protrudes through an opening

A forced wrenching or twisting of a joint that results in a tearing of supporting ligaments is a __________

Sprain

Which type of mobile x-ray unit is lighter weight?

Standard power source

Which type of mobile unit is lighter in weight?

Standard power source, non-motor drive

Fracture defined: Also called a March fracture

Stress or fatigue

Surgical term or device defined: Soaking of moisture through a sterile or non-sterile drape, cover, or protective barrier

Strike through

What is the correct term for a partial dislocation?

Subluxation

What is the correct term for a partial displacement?

Subluxation

In what position is the patient placed during most cervical laminectomies?

Supine

T/F A technologist's attitude is one of the more important factors in making a pediatric procedure a success.

True

True/False: The C-arm fluoroscopy unit can be rotated a minimum of 180 degrees.

True

Which radiographic structures are evaluated to determine rotation on a PA projection of the chest?

The sternoclavicular joints and lateral rib margins should be equidistant from the vertebral column

True/False: A PA horizontal beam projection of the elbow can be taken for a patient with multiple injuries.

True

True/False: A fully charged battery-powered mobile unit has driving range of up to 10 miles on level ground

True

True/False: A hand routine for a 7 year old would be the same as for an adult patient

True

True/False: A piece of lead vinyl can be placed beneath the child's lower pelvis during conventional fluoroscopy to reduce the gonadal/mean bone marrow dose.

True

True/False: A radionuclide study for vescourethral reflux provides a smaller patient dose compared with a fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram.

True

True/False: AP projections of the skull & facial bones will increase exposure to the thyroid gland as compared with PA projections.

True

True/False: All mobile digital fluoroscopy units include the ability to magnify the image on the monitor during fluoroscopy

True

True/False: Angiography of the aortic arch for the trauma patient has declined due to the increased us of CT angiography

True

True/False: Any trauma study requires at least two projections as close as possible to 90 degrees opposite from each other.

True

True/False: Children older than 5 years of age can usually hold their breath after a practice session.

True

True/False: Digital C-arm units can store images on video tape or computer hard disk memory,

True

True/False: Digital radiography is well suited for ED & mobile procedures.

True

True/False: During most surgical procedures, the technologist is not required to wear protective eyewear

True

True/False: Except for survey exams, individual projections of the elbow, wrist, and shoulder should generally be taken on older children rather than including these regions on a single projection.

True

True/False: For a bone survey of a young child, both limbs are commonly radiographed for comparison

True

True/False: For a trauma lateral projection of the elbow, the CR must be kept parallel to the interepicondylar plane.

True

True/False: If available, the Pigg-O-Stat should be used rather than relying on prenatal assistance during a pediatric chest examination

True

True/False: It is difficult to distinguish the small bowel from the large bowel on a plain abdomen on an infant.

True

True/False: Laparascopic cholecystectomy is not suited for every patient and condition.

True

True/False: Malignant bone tumors are rare in young children.

True

True/False: Nuclear medicine is effective in diagnosing certain emergency conditions such as pulmonary emboli.

True

True/False: On an initial study of a long bone, both joints should be included for each projection.

True

True/False: Renal CT scans have largely replaced intravenous urography studies for children.

True

True/False: Scrub covers must be removed before entering the surgical suite

True

CST is the acronym for:

certified surgical technologist

Any change in manual exposure factors? Idiopathic juvenile osteoporosis

decrease (-)

Any change in manual exposure factors? Osteogenesis imperfecta

decrease (-)

Any change in manual exposure factors? Osteomalacia

decrease (-)


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