Bontrager Chapter 15 & 16
How many joints must be included for an initial study of a long bone?
2; both joints must be included on the initial study
What is the maximum height of the barium enema bag above the tabletop before the beginning of the procedure?
3 feet (for pediatric patients)
Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: 2-month-old upper GI
3 hours
Where is the CR centered for an AP semi-erect projection of the chest?
3-4" below jugular notch
What kV range is generally used for a lateral chest?
80-85 kV
Describe or Define: Neonate Graves' disease
A form of hyperthyroidism
Which lateral projection would best demonstrate the mid-to-distal humerus without rotating the limb?
A horizontal beam lateromedial projection
Situation: A patient with a possible dislocation of the proximal humerus enters the ER. Because of multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. In addition to a routine AP projection, what second projection demonstrates whether the condition is an anterior or posterior dislocation?
A horizontal beam transthoracic lateral
What is the primary difference between simple & a compound fracture?
A simple fracture does not break through the skin, but a compound fracture does
When should a chest exposure be initiated for a crying child?
As the child fully inhales and holds his or her breath
Surgical __________ is the absence of infectious organisms.
Asepsis
Primary or Assisting technologist? Initiates exposures
Assisting technologist
Primary or Assisting technologist? Processes the images
Assisting technologist
Primary or Assisting technologist? Sets exposure factors
Assisting technologist
CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP supine abdomen (older children)
At level of iliac crest
Congenital defect in which the opening to an organ is missing
Atresia
Which type of comminuted fracture produces several separate wedge-shaped fragments?
Butterfly
True/False: A grid must be used with the AP axial trauma oblique projection for the cervical spine to reduce scatter radiation reaching the IR.
False
True/False: C-arms are most generally stationary fluoroscopy units used in surgery.
False
True/False: Collimation on trauma cases can lead to cutoff of key anatomy & pathology, therefore it should be limited to the size of the IR.
False
True/False: Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest projections
False
True/False: Multiphase CT examinations are necessary for most pediatric studies
False
True/False: Parental assistance for skull radiography is preferred rather than using head clamps and a mummy wrap on a pediatric patient.
False
True/False: Scrubs worn in radiology may be also worn in surgery.
False
True/False: Soft (canvas) shoes should be worn in surgery
False
True/False: Sterile gloves must be worn when handling a contaminated IR in surgery.
False
True/False: The entire OR table is considered to be sterile.
False
True/False: The technologist may violate the sterile environment in surgery if wearing sterile gloves, mask, and surgical scrubs.
False
True/False: Wearing a protective lead apron is optional if the technologist is at least 8 feet/2.6m from both the x-ray tube and patient during a mobile radiographic procedure
False
True/False: A well-inspired, erect chest radiograph taken on a young pediatric patient visualizes only six to seven ribs above the diaphragm.
False (9 to 10)
True/False: An avulsion fracture is the same as a chip fracture
False (A chip fracture involves an isolated fracture not associated with a tendon or ligament.)
True/False: Latex enema tips should be used for barium enemas for children younger than 1 year of age.
False (Latex tips should not be used because of possible allergic response to latex)
True/False: The AP projection with the x-rays tube placed directly above the anatomy during a C-arm procedure is recommended to minimize OID.
False (PA recommended because of less exposure to operator & less OID)
True/False: A 30 degree tilt of C-arm from the vertical perspective will increase the dose by a factor of three to the head and neck region
False (by a factor of 4)
True/False: AEC exposure systems are not feasible with mobile fluoroscopy
False (can be used)
True/False: The radiographic contrast on a pediatric abdominal radiograph is high compared with that of an adult abdominal radiograph.
False (contrast is low)
True/False: Battered child syndrome (BCS) is the current term for child abuse
False (correct term is 'nonaccidental trauma' or NAT)
True/False: The exposure dose is greater on the image intensifier side than on the x-ray tube side with the C-arm in the horizontal configuration
False (greater on tube side)
True/False: For trauma patients who cannot be moved for conventional diagnostic imaging, other modalities, such as ultrasound or nuclear medicine, may be used rather than trying to move the patient into specific positions.
False (it is important to rotate the x-ray tube & IR around patients if they are unable to move.)
True/False: Parents should never be in the radiographic room with their child
False (may be permissible with proper lead shielding if not pregnant)
True/False: Bony landmarks in infants are easy to palpate and locate.
False (most bony landmarks are non-existent in infants)
True/False: A follow-up postreduction radiograph of the middle portion of long bones should be collimated closely to the fracture region.
False (must include at least one joint nearest injury)
True/False: The intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures is helpful during procedures to produce brighter images, but it results in significantly increased patient exposure.
False (reduces exposure to patient
True/False: Small retention enema tips can be used on infants during a barium enema to help barium retention.
False (retention tips should not be used on small children)
True/False: It is important to place the foot into true AP and lateral positions when performing a clubfoot study.
False (take two projections 90 degrees from each other)
True/False: The technologist is responsible for reporting potential signs of child abuse to the police
False (the technologist should report to the radiologist or supervising technologist)
True/False: Clothing, bandages, and diapers generally do not need to be removed from the regions being radiographed on pediatric patients because they do not cause artifacts on the radiographs (as long as metallic fasteners are not present).
False (these items may cause artifacts and should be removed)
True/False: The transit time of the contrast media for reaching the cecum during a small bowel series on a 3-year-old child is approximately 2 hours.
False (usually 1 hour)
What is the disadvantage of performing a PA rather than an AP projection of the thumb?
Increase OID of the thumb
Which projections are taken for a postreduction study (casted) of the wrist?
PA & Lateral
Which exam is associated with Premature closure of fontanelles?
Skull
True/False: The chest and abdomen are generally almost equal in circumference in the newborn.
True
True/False: The entire upper limb is commonly included on an infant rather than individual exposures of specific parts of the upper limb.
True
True/False: The operator must determine image orientation on the mobile fluoroscopy monitors before the patient is brought into the room
True
True/False: The parent has the right to refuse the use of immobilization devices
True
True/False: The pliable nose stripe on the surgical mask helps prevent fogging of eye glasses.
True
True/False: The technologist can wear non-sterile gloves when handling the IR & surgical cover following a procedure.
True
True/False: The technologist has a moral and ethical responsibility to report any violations of the sterile field during surgery even if it was not noticed by another member of the surgical team.
True
True/False: The technologist should always use the shortest exposure time possible during pediatric procedures
True
True/False: There should be no attempt to straighten out the abnormal alignment of the foot during a clubfoot study
True
True/False: It is possible to provide gonadal shielding for both male and female pediatric patient for AP and lateral projections of the hips.
True (if correctly placed)
Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Kohler's disease
Upper/lower limb
Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Talipes
Upper/lower limb
What is the most common clinical indication for a voiding cystourethrogram?
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
A backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters and kidneys is called ___________.
Vesicoureteral reflux
Describe or Define: Croup
Viral infection leading to labored breathing and dry cough
When is the urinary reflux most likely to occur during a VCUG?
When the bladder is full and when voiding
Tumor that usually occurs in children younger than 5
Wilms' tumor
What is the common name for the special tray device that holds the IR & grid during an operative cholangiogram?
"Pizza Pan"
Change in manual exposure factor? Idiopathic juvenile osteoporosis
(-)
Change in manual exposure factor? Osteogenesis imperfecta
(-)
Change in manual exposure factor? Osteomalacia
(-)
For a young pediatric small bowel study, the barium normally reaches the ileocecal region in _____ hour.
1
CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP abdomen (infants and small children)
1 inch above umbilicus
Where is the CR centered for a KUB on a 3 month old infant?
1 inch above umbilicus
Where is the CR centered for an erect abdomen on a small child?
1" above the umbilicus
What is the minimum number of projections required for a post-reduction study of the wrist?
2
Situation: A patient with a crushing injury to the thorax enters the ER. The patient is on a backboard & cannot be moved. Which projections can be performed to determine whether the sternum is fractured?
1. 15 to 20 degree mediolateral angle 2. horizontal beam lateral projections
List the 2 primary types of mobile x-ray units
1. Battery-powered, Battery-driven type 2. Standard AC power source, non-motor drive
What are five of the six specific classifications of child abuse?
1. Neglect 2. Physical Abuse 3. Sexual Abuse 4. Psychological Maltreatment 5. Medical Neglect
Briefly describe the four steps for "mummifying" a child
1. Place the sheet on the table folded in half or thirds portrait. 2. Place patient in the middle of sheet with the right arm down to the side. Fold sheet across the patient's body and pull sheet across the body, keeping the arm against the body. 3. Place the patient's left arm along the side of the body and on top of the sheet. Bring the free sheet over the left arm to the right side of the body. Wrap the sheet around the body as needed. 4. Pull the sheet tightly so that the patient cannot free arms.
List three factors that reduce the number of repeat exposures with pediatric patients:
1. Proper immobilization 2. Short exposure times 3. Accurate manual technique charts
To ensure the CR is aligned properly for an AP trauma projection of the foot, the CR is angled:
10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface of the foot
Which position can be used to replace the RAO of the sternum for the patient who cannot lie prone on the table but can be rotated into a semisupine position?
15-20 degrees LPO
What is the minimum number of projections generally required for any trauma study?
2 projections taken 90-degrees to each other
The Pigg-O-Stat can be used effectively for an erect PA and lateral chest from infancy to approximately _________ years of age.
2 to 4
How much rotation of the body, from a supine position, is generally required for a lateromedial scapula projection with a trauma patient who can be turned partially on her side?
25 to 30 degrees, or until the CR can be projected parallel to the scapular blade (wing)
What type of CR angulation is required for the trauma version of an axiolateral projection of the mandible?
25 to 30-degrees cephalad & possibly 5 to 10-degrees posterior to clear the shoulder
How is the CR centered and aligned in relationship to the sternum for an AP portable projection of the chest?
3-4" below jugular notch, angled caudad so as to be perpendicular to sternum
Other than the straight AP, what other projection of the ribs can be taken for the supine immobile patient who cannot be rotated into an oblique position?
30- 40-degree cross-angled mediolateral projection
A 30-degree C-arm tilt from the vertical perspective increases exposure to the head & neck regions of the operator by a factor of_______
4
Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: 1-year-old upper GI
4 hours
Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: Pediatric IVU
4 hours (solid food)
Situation: A technologist receives 30mR/hr during a C-arm fluoroscopic procedure. What is the total exposure dose if the procedure takes 8 minutes of fluoroscopy time?
4 mR (30/60 x 8=4)
Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the proximal tibia & fibula enters the ER. The routine AP & lateral projections are inconclusive. Because of severe pain, the patient is unable to rotate the leg from the AP position. What position or projection could be performed that would provide an unobstructed view of the fibular head & neck?
45-degree lateromedial cross-angle AP projection of the knee & proximal tibia/fibula
Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: SID, AP supine chest:
50 to 60" (127 to 153 cm)
What is the kV range for a pediatric study of the upper limb?
50-60 kV
On average, how much contrast media is injected during an operative cholangiogram?
6 to 8 mL
What is the recommended amount of barium administered to an infant who is having an upper GI?
6-12 ounces
A technologist standing 1 foot from a mobile fluoroscopy unit is receiving approximately 400 mR/hour. What is the total exposure to the technologist if the procedure takes 10 minutes of fluoroscopy time to complete?
67 mR (400/60 x 10=67)
Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: SID, PA erect chest:
72" (183 cm)
Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: kV range?
75 to 85 kV
With battery-powered types, how long does recharging take if the batteries are fully discharged?
8 hours
Which of the following CR angulations places the petrous ridges in the lower one-third of the orbits with an AP reverse Caldwell projection of the skull? A. 15 degrees cephalad to OML B. 15 degrees caudad to OML C. CR perpendicular to OML D. 30 degrees cephalad to OML
A. 15 degrees cephalad to OML
A scapular Y projection taken AP supine for a trauma patient usually requires a ________-degree rotation of the body away from the IR. A. 25 to 30 B. 45 C. 50 to 60 D. 70
A. 25 to 30
How much barium should be administered to each of the following patients for an upper GI series? A. Infants B. Adolescents
A. 30-75 mL B. 480 mL
Which of the following projections demonstrates the C1-C2 vertebra if the patient cannot open his mouth? A. 35 to 40 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection B. Swimmer's lateral C. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection D. Articular pillar projection
A. 35 to 40 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection
The NPO fasting period for a 6-month old infant before an upper GI is: A. 4 hours B. 3 hours C. 1 hour D. 6 hours
A. 4 hours
Identify the 2 CR angles for the AP axial trauma oblique projections of the cervical spine: A. _________ lateromedial B. _________ cephalad
A. 45-degrees lateromedial B. 15-degrees cephalad
Approximately how much exposure at waist level would the operator receive with 5 minutes of fluoroscopy exposure standing 3 feet from the patient? (Hint: First convert mR/hour to mR/minute by dividing by 60; then multiply by minutes of fluoroscopy time.) A. 5 mR B. 60 mR C. 25 mR D. 2 mR
A. 5 mR (60 mR/60 min = 1 mR x 5 min = 5)
A battery-powered, battery-operated mobile x-ray unit can climb a maximum incline of: A. 7 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 12 degrees D. 15 degrees
A. 7 degrees
A. What is the minimum kV for an AP abdomen projection of a newborn with a grid? B. A grid is required for a pediatric AP abdomen if the abdomen measures more than ___________ cm.
A. 70 kV B. 10 cm
Situation: A technologist using a C-arm fluoroscope receives 125 mR/hour exposure standing 2 feet (0.6 meters) from the patient. What is the exposure rate if the technologist moves to a distance of 6 feet (1.8 meters)? A. <10 mR/hour B. 15-30 mR/hour C. 30-50 mR/hour D. 50-75 mR/hour
A. <10 mR/hour
Situation: A patient with a possible Pott's fracture enters the ER. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed for this patient? A. AP & horizontal beam lateral lower leg B. PA & horizontal beam lateral wrist C. AP & lateral thumb D. Three projections of the hand
A. AP & horizontal beam lateral lower leg
Situation: A child come to the radiology department with possible croup. Which of the following procedures best demonstrates this condition? A. AP and lateral upper airway B. Erect abdomen C. PA and lateral chest D. Sinus series
A. AP and lateral upper airway
Situation: A patient with a possible Barton fracture comes to the radiology department. Which of the following positioning routines would best demonstrate this? A. AP or PA & lateral wrist B. AP, mortise, & lateral ankle C. AP & lateral foot D. AP & lateral lower leg
A. AP or PA & lateral wrist
List the 3 advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy over traditional cholecystectomy:
A. Can be performed as an outpatient procedure B. Less invasive procedure C. Reduced hospital time & cost
Which of the following orthopedic devices is often used during a hip pinning? A. Cannulated screw assembly B. Ilizarov device C. Kirschner wire D. Semitubular plate
A. Cannulated screw assembly
Other than gonadal shielding, what three safeguards can be used to reduce the patient dose during pediatric procedures?
A. Close collimation B. Low-dosage techniques C. Minimum number of exposures
Which type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty? A. Compression fracture of the vertebral body B. Herniated intervertebral disk C. Scoliosis D. Spondylolysis
A. Compression fracture of the vertebral body
Which single term best describes the primary difference between trauma positions & standard positioning?
Adaptation
List the 4 essential attributes of the successful surgical technologist:
A. Confidence B. Mastery C. Problem-solving skills D. Communication
To provide a lateral view of the proximal femur, which of the following projections would be performed on a trauma patient? A. Danelius-Miller method B. Fuchs method C. Waters method D. Ottonello method
A. Danelius-Miller method
List the 2 terms for describing displacement of a bone from a joint
A. Dislocation B. Luxation
List the 3 measures that can be taken to maintain the sterile field when operating a mobile fluoroscopy unit in a surgical suite:
A. Drape the image intensifier, x-ray tube, & C-arm using a sterile cloth &/or bags B. Drape the patient or surgery site with an additional sterile cloth before the undraped C-arm is positioned over the anatomy C. Maintain the sterile area by using a "shower curtain"
Situation: A child comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Kohler's bone disease. Which of the following radiographic routines demonstrates this condition? A. Foot B. Shoulder C. Lumbar spine D. Cervical spine
A. Foot
List the 2 internal fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery:
A. Harrington rods B. Luque rods
List five conditions that contraindicate the use of laxatives or enemas in preparation for a lower GI study
A. Hirschsprung disease B. Extensive diarrhea C. Appendicitis D. Obstruction E. Dehydration (patients who cannot withstand fluid loss)
Which of the following devices is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, & humeral shaft fractures? A. Intramedullary nail B. Cerclage wire C. Ilizarov device D. Compression screw
A. Intramedullary nail
A. On a horizontal beam lateral trauma skull projection, should the IR be placed portrait or landscape to the patient? B. Where should the CR be centered for this lateral skull projection?
A. Landscape B. 2" superior to EAM
Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air for the patient who cannot stand or sit erect? A. Left lateral decubitus B. AP KUB C. Right Lateral decubitus D. Dorsal decubitus
A. Left lateral decubitus
Which of the following modalities is most effective in detecting signs of autism? A. MRI B. Ultrasound C. Spiral CT D. Nuclear medicine
A. MRI
Which of the following conditions is caused by inflammation of the inner lining of the larger or small bowel, resulting in tissue death? A. NEC B. Intussusception C. CHD D. Meconium ileus
A. NEC
What portion of the OR table is considered sterile: A. Only the level of the table top B. Entire table C. Tabletop & half of the base D. None of the table
A. Only the level of the table top
Situation: A patient with a possible greenstick fracture enters the ER. What age group does this type of fracture usually affect? A. Pediatric B. Young adult C. Middle age D. Elderly
A. Pediatric
A device with an adjustable type of bicycle seat and two clear plastic body clamps is called (A) ___________ and is is most commonly used for (B) ___________.
A. Pigg-O-Stat B. Erect chest & abdomen studies
List three safeguards to help reduce repeat exposures during pediatric procedures
A. Proper immobilization B. Short exposure times C. Accurate manual technique charts
Situation: A patient with a possible pleural effusion in the right lung enters the ER. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. What position would best demonstrate this condition? A. Right lateral decubitus B. AP supine C. Dorsal decubitus D. Semi-erect AP
A. Right lateral decubitus
What spinal procedure may require the use of Harrington or Luque rods? A. Scoliosis corrective surgery B. Microdiscectomy C. Spinal fusion D. All of the above
A. Scoliosis corrective surgery
List the three possible roles for the parent during a pediatric procedure
A. Serve as an observer in the room to lend support and comfort to the child. B. Serve as a participator to assist with immobilization. C. Remain in the waiting room, and do not accompany the child into the room.
Situation: An image taken during an operative cholangiogram shows that the biliary ducts are superimposed over the spine. The surgeon wants the ducts projected away from the spine. Which of the following positions may eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure? A. Shallow RPO B. Shallow LPO C. AP D. Horizontal beam lateral
A. Shallow RPO
List the 4 regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma.
A. Shoulder B. Fingers or thumb C. Patella D. Hip
Which of the following devices helps maintain the sterile environment in surgery during a C-arm-guided hip pinning? A. Shower curtain B. Mylar shield C. Cassette cover D. Good cleaning of equipment before procedure
A. Shower curtain
Beyond radiography, what other imaging modality is used to diagnose congenital hip dislocations in the newborn? A. Sonography B. CT C. Nuclear medicine D. MRI
A. Sonography
Which of the following imaging modalities is most effective in diagnosing pyloric stenosis in children? A. Sonography B. Spiral/helical CT C. Functional MRI D. Nuclear medicine
A. Sonography
What type of equipment cleaner should not be used in surgery?
Aerosol
List the two important general factors that produce a successful pediatric radiographic procedure
A. Technologist's attitude and approach to a child. B. Technical preparation of the room.
List the 3 terms describing the cardinal rules of radiation protection:
A. Time B. Distance C. Shielding
List 2 types of incomplete fractures
A. Torus B. Greenstick
When adhesive tape is used to immobilize a child (if not placed directly over the parts to be radiographed), what two methods are used to prevent the adhesive tape from injuring the skin?
A. Twisting the tape so that the adhesive surface is not against the skin. B. Placing a gauze pad between the tape and the skin.
Which of the following fracture terms describes an angulation of a distal fracture end away from the midline? A. Valgus deformity B. Varus deformity C. Apex angulation D. Bayonet apposition
A. Valgus angulation
A. Which term describes the angulation of a distal fracture fragment toward the midline? B. Would this fracture angulation be described as a medial or a lateral apex?
A. Varus (deformity) angulation B. A lateral apex
A VCUG on a child is most commonly performed to evaluate for (A) ___________ & is generally scheduled to be completed (B) _________ (before or after) an IVU or ultrasound study of the kidneys.
A. Vesicoureteral reflux B. before
A malignant tumor of the kidney common in children under the age of 5 years is: A. Wilms' tumor B. Adenocarcinoma C. Ewing's sarcoma D. Teratoma
A. Wilms' tumor
What are the two primary components of a mobile fluoroscopy unit (located on each end of the structure from which it derives its name)?
A. X-ray tube B. Image Intensifier
Describe or Define: Hyaline membrane disease
AKA Respiratory distress syndrome
Situation: A patient with a possible dislocation of the patella enters the emergency room. What type of positioning routine should be performed on this patient that would safely demonstrate the patella?
AP & horizontal beam lateral with no flexion of the knee
Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the proximal humerus enters the ER. Because of multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. What positioning routine should be performed to diagnose the extend of the injury?
AP & transthoracic lateral or scapular Y projection
Which radiographic projections (and methods) are performed for the infant with congenital clubfeet?
AP and lateral feet, Kite method
Which projections are frequently performed during a VCUG on a pediatric patient?
AP and oblique positions (LPO and RPO)
What type of contrast media is recommended for reducing an intussusception?
Air for the pneumatic reduction of intussusception
Which projection will best demonstrate (with only minimal distortion) the pedicles of the cervical spine on a severely injured patient?
AP axial trauma oblique projections
Which exam is associated with Intussusception?
Abdomen
Which exam is associated with Meconium ileus?
Abdomen
Which exam is associated with NEC?
Abdomen
Describe or Define: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Abnormally soft bones
What is the term that describes the associative relationship between the long axes of fracture fragments?
Alignment
Situation: An orthopedic surgeon orders a mortise projection of the ankle, but the patient has a severely fractured ankle & cannot rotate the ankle medially for the mortise projection. What can the technologist do to provide this projection without rotating the ankle?
Angle the CR 15 to 20 degrees lateromedially to the long axis of the foot
Surgical term or device defined: Creation of an artificial joint to correct ankyloses
Arthroplasty
How much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on a hypersthenic patient? A. 10 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 20 degrees D. 25 degrees
B. 15 degrees
If a technologist receives 50 mR/hour standing 3 feet from the mobile fluoroscopy unit, what would be the exposure rate be if he or she moved back to a distance of 4 feet? A. 10 mR/hour B. 25 mR/hour C. 100 mR/hour D. No significant difference
B. 25 mR/hour
Which radiographic procedure is commonly performed for epiglottitis? A. Sinus series B. AP & lateral upper airway C. CT of the chest D. Functional MRI
B. AP & lateral upper airway
Which of the following procedures can be performed to evaluate children for attention deficient hyperactivity? A. Spiral/helical CT B. Functional MRI C. 3-D ultrasound D. Nuclear medicine
B. Functional MRI
Situation: A 2-year old child comes to the radiology department for a routine chest examination. While removing the child's shirt, you notice a human bite mark on the upper arm. What should you do next? A. Call hospital security B. Inform the supervisor or physician C. Interview the parent about the injury D. Interview the child about the injury
B. Inform the supervisor or physician
Which of the following orthopedic devised is used to stabilize a mid-femoral shaft fracture? A. Austin-Moore prosthesis B. Intramedullary rod C. Interbody fusion cages D. Cannulated screw
B. Intramedullary rod
Which one of the following fracture terms describes a situation in which the ends of fragments are aligned but are pulled apart & not making contact with each other? A. Dislocation B. Lack of apposition C. Apex angulation D. Anatomic apposition
B. Lack of apposition
Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the pediatric skull? A. At the EAM B. Midway between the glabella & inion C. 1" above the EAM D. 3/4" anterior & superior to the EAM
B. Midway between glabella and inion
In what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography? A. Sims position B. Modified lithotomy position C. Trendelenburg D. Fowler position
B. Modified lithotomy position
Which skull positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for an AP Towne 30-degree caudal projection of the skull? A. IOML B. OML C. MML D. AML
B. OML
Situation: A 3-year-old child comes to the radiology department for and erect abdomen examination. He is unable to remain still for the exposures. Which immobilization device should be used for this patient? A. Tam-Em board B. Pigg-O-Stat C. Plexiglas hold-down paddle D. Have another technologist hold child
B. Pigg-O-Stat
Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible radial head dislocation. The arm is immobilized with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees. Which of the following projections best demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition of the ulna without having to extend the elbow? A. AP partial flexion B. Trauma axiolateral projection C. Jones method D. Lateromedial projection
B. Trauma axiolateral projection
Which of the following facial bone projections will best demonstrate air-fluid levels in the maxillary sinuses for a patient unable to stand or sit erect? A. AP acanthioparietal B. Trauma, horizontal beam lateral C. AP modified acanthioparietal D. AP axial
B. Trauma, horizontal beam lateral
What is the name of the device on the x-ray tube mount that permits compound angles of the x-ray tube? A. C-arm B. Trunnion C. Angle brace D. Tube angle stop
B. Trunnion
What is the primary advantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure?
Brighter image
Describe or Define: Epiglottitis
Bacterial infection can lead to closure of the upper airway
What size should the IR be for a skull routine on a 6-year-old patient?
Base selection on the size of the anatomy (10 x 12 if the skull in near adult size)
Fracture defined: Fracture of distal phalanx with finger extended
Baseball
Which type of mobile radiography x-ray unit is self-propelled?
Battery-operated, Battery-driven
Which term describes a type of fracture in which the fracture fragment ends are overlapped & not in contact?
Bayonet apposition
Fracture defined: Fracture along base of first metacarpal
Bennett's
Where is the gonadal shielding placed for a bilateral hip study on a female pediatric patient?
Between the umbilicus and just above the pubis
Which single radiographic position provides a lateral projection of bilateral lower limbs for the non-traumatic pediatric patient?
Bilateral frog-leg
What anatomy is examined during an operative (immediate) cholangiogram?
Biliary Duct system
What is the common term for a mobile fluoroscopy unit?
C-arm
To ensure that the joints are opened up for an AP projection of the foot, how is the CR aligned? A. Perpendicular to the long axis of the tibia B. Perpendicular to the plantar surface C. 10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface D. 10 degrees posterior from perpendicular to the dorsal surface
C. 10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface
Situation: An operator receives 25 mR/hour to the facial & neck region with the C-arm in position for a PA projection (intensifier on top). Approximately how much would the operator receive at the same distance if the C-arm were reversed to an AP projection position (tube on top)? A. 25 to 50 mR/hour B. 50 to 100 mR/hour C. 100 to 300 mR/hour D. 300 to 500 mR/hour
C. 100 to 300 mR/hour
At approximately what age does the skeleton reach full ossification? A. 12 years old B. 18 years old C. 25 years old D. 40 years old
C. 25 years old
At what age can most children be talked through a radiographic examination without purposeful immobilization? A. 1 year B. 18 months C. 3 years D. 5 years
C. 3 years
Situation: The C-arm is in position for a PA projection. What exposure field range would the operator receive at waist level standing 3 feet from the patient? A. 20 to 25 mR/hour B. 25 to 50 mR/hour C. 50 to 100 mR/hour D. 100 to 300 mR/hour
C. 50 to 100 mR/hour
The technologist must be at least ________ from the x-ray tube during a mobile radiographic procedure. A. 2 feet (0.6 m) B. 4 feet (1.3 m) C. 6 feet (1.8 m) D. 8 feet (2.4 m)
C. 6 feet (1.8 m)
Situation: A child comes to radiology with a clinical history of talipes equinovarus. Which of the following positioning routines and/or methods is often performed for this condition? A. Coyle method B. Erect AP knee projections C. AP and lateral foot - Kite method D. AP and lateral hip
C. AP and lateral foot - Kite method
Situation: A child comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Which of the following projections best demonstrates this condition? A. PA and lateral chest B. Supine and erect abdomen C. AP and lateral hip D. AP and lateral bilateral lower limbs
C. AP and lateral hip
Which of the following projections of the skull would project the petrous ridges in the lower one-third of the orbits on a supine trauma patient? A. AP skull, CR 0 degrees to OML B. AP skull, CR 15 degrees caudad to OML C. AP skull, CR 15 degrees cephalad to OML D. AP skull, CR 30 degrees caudad to OML
C. AP skull, CR 15 degrees cephalad to OML
Which of the following conditions contraindicates the use of laxatives before a contrast media procedure? A. Gastritis B. Blood in stool C. Appendicitis D. Diverticulosis
C. Appendicitis
The absence of infectious organisms is the definition for: A. Surgical cleanliness B. Sepsis C. Asepsis D. Surgical sterility
C. Asepsis
Which of the following orthopedic procedures is considered nonsurgical? A. Open reduction B. External fixation C. Closed reduction D. Internal fixation
C. Closed reduction
Which of the following clinical indicators applies to a pediatric skull series? A. Osteomyelitis B. CHD C. Craniostenosis D. Hyaline membrane disease
C. Craniostenosis
What is meconium? A. Pancreatic enzymes B. Blood & lymph C. Dark green secretion of the liver & intestinal glands mixed with amniotic fluid D. Pus and dead blood cells
C. Dark green secretion of the liver & intestinal glands mixed with amniotic fluid
Which of the following projections of the abdomen best demonstrates the prevertebral region? A. AP supine KUB B. PA prone KUB C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen D. AP erect abdomen
C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
Which one of the following techniques helps to remove the scapulae from the lung fields during pediatric chest radiography? A. Make exposure on the second inspiration B. Extend the chin C. Extend the arms upward D. Place arms behind the patient's back
C. Extend arms upward
Situation: A young child is sent to the radiology department for a skull series. The guardian states that she is willing to hold her child during the exposures; however, the guardian is 8 months pregnant. What should the technologist do next? A. Place a 0.5-mm lead apron on the guardian and allow her to hold her child. B. The technologist should hold the child during each exposure and have the guardian wait outside. C. Have another (non-radiology) health professional hold the child and have guardian wait outside the room. D. Have a radiography student hold the child and have the guardian wait outside the room.
C. Have another (non-radiology) health professional hold the child and have guardian wait outside the room.
Situation: A patient with a possible basilar skull fracture enters the ER. The ER physician wants a projection that best demonstrates a sphenoid effusion. The patient cannot stand or sit erect. Which of the following projections would achieve this goal? A. AP skull B. Lateral recumbent skull C. Horizontal beam lateral skull D. Modified Waters projection
C. Horizontal beam lateral skull
Functional MRI has been used to detect disorders in all the following conditions except: A. Autism B. Tourette's syndrome C. Hydrocephalus D. Attention deficient hyperactivity disorder
C. Hydrocephalus
Situation: A patient with a possible compression fracture of the lumbar spine enters the ER. Which specific projection of the lumbar spine series would best demonstrate this fracture? A. AP B. LPO & RPO C. Lateral D. AP L5-S1 projection
C. Lateral
Situation: A patient with possible ascites enters the ER. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate this condition? A. AP supine KUB B. Dorsal decubitus C. Left lateral decubitus D. Prone KUB
C. Left lateral decubitus
The most suitable immobilization device for erect chests and/or the abdomen is the: A. Posi-Tot B. Tam-Em Board C. Pigg-O-Stat D. Hold-em Tiger
C. Pigg-O-Stat
Which immobilization device or method should be used for an erect 1-year-old chest procedure? A. Tam-Em board B. Hold-down paddle C. Pigg-O-Stat D. Parent holding child
C. Pigg-O-Stat
Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed prenatally with sonography? A. Tourette's syndrome B. Vesicoureteral reflux C. Spina bifida D. Autism
C. Spina bifida
Situation: A patient is struck directly on the patella with a heavy object, & the patella is shattered. The resultant fracture most likely would be described as a: A. Burst fracture B. Compression fracture C. Stellate fracture D. Smith's fracture
C. Stellate fracture
Suctioning, tying, and clamping blood vessels, as well as assisting in cutting and suturing tissues, are the general duties of the: A. CST B. Circulator C. Surgical assistant D. Scrub
C. Surgical assistant
Which parts of a sterile gown are considered sterile? A. From the top of the shoulders to the knee B. The sleeves & the waist region C. The shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow D. The entire surgical gown
C. The shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow
Which of the following techniques best reduces the dose to the surgical team during a C-arm procedure? A. Use boost function whenever possible B. Place tube in vertical position above patient C. Use intermittent fluoroscopy D. Lower kV as low as possible
C. Use intermittent fluoroscopy
Which of the following measures is most effective (& practical) in limiting exposure with mobile fluoroscopy? A. Limit C-arm procedures to surgery cases only B. Prevent non-radiologists from C. Use intermittent or "foot-tapping" fluoroscopy
C. Use intermittent or "foot-tapping" fluoroscopy
What is the primary disadvantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure?
Can add to patient dose & to the surrounding surgical team
Surgical term or device defined: Orthopedic screw designed to enter & fix porous & spongy bone
Cancellous screw
Describe or Define: Wilms' tumor
Cancer of the kidney of embryonic origin
Surgical term or device defined: Large screw used in internal fixation of nondisplaced fractures of proximal femur
Cannulated screw
Surgical term or device defined: Orthopedic wire that tightens around the fracture site to reduce shortening of limb
Cerclage wire
Situation: A patient with injuries suffered in a motor vehicle accident enters the ER. The ER physician orders a lateral C-spine projection to rule out a fracture or dislocation. Because of the thickness of the shoulders, C6-C7 is not visualized. What additional projection can be taken safely to demonstrate this region of the spine?
Cervicothoracic projection (Swimmer's lateral) using a horizontal beam CR
Describe or Define: Hirschsprung disease
Characterized by the absence of rhythmic contractions of the large intestine
List the secondary name for: Hutchinson's fracture
Chauffeur's
Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Atelectasis
Chest
Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: Cystic fibrosis
Chest
Chest or Upper/lower limb radiographic procedure: RDS
Chest
Which exam is associated with Atelectasis?
Chest
Which exam is associated with Bronchiectasis?
Chest
Which exam is associated with Cystic fibrosis?
Chest
Which exam is associated with Hemoptysis?
Chest
Which exam is associated with Hyaline membrane disease?
Chest
Fracture defined: Fracture resulting in an isolated bone fragment
Chip
List the secondary name for: Simple fracture
Closed
What type of reduction fracture does not require surgery?
Closed reduction
Define the fracture: Pott's
Complete fracture of distal fibula, frequently with fracture of medial malleolus
Describe or Define: Atresias
Condition characterized by the absence of an opening in an organ
Describe or Define: Hypospadias
Congenital defect in the male urethra
Describe or Define: Talipes equinus
Congenital deformity of the foot
Enlarged thyroid at birth
Congenital goiter
An injury in which there is no fracture or breaking of the skin is called a ____________
Contusion
Two common terms for the classic metaphyseal lesion (CML), which may indicate child abuse, are:
Corner fracture and Bucket-Handle fracture
Surgical term or device defined: Narrow, orthopedic screw designed to enter & fix cortical bone
Cortical screw
Describe or Define: Hemoptysis
Coughing up blood
Premature closure of the skull sutures
Craniostenosis
A common condition in children between the ages of 1 to 3, caused by a viral infection
Croup
At approximately what age does the epiphysis of the fibular apex first become clearly visible? A. 1 or 2 years old B. 3 or 4 years old C. 5 or 6 years old D. 12 years old
D. 12 years old
Which of the following procedures can be performed to diagnose possible genetic fetal abnormalities? A. Nuclear medicine fetal scan B. Spiral/helical CT C. Functional MRI D. 3-D ultrasound
D. 3-D ultrasound
How much is the CR angled to the OML for an AP axial (town) projection of a pediatric skull? A. 15 degrees B. None C. 25 degrees D. 30 degrees
D. 30 degrees
Which of the following orthopedic devices is classified as an external fixator? A. Intramedullary B. Cerclage wire C. Semitubular plate D. Ilizarov device
D. Ilizarov device
Situation: A patient with a possible C2 fracture enters the ER on a backboard. The AP projection does not demonstrate C2. In addition, the patient cannot open his mouth because of a mandible fracture. Which projection can be performed safely to demonstrate this region of the spine? A. Swimmer's method B. Judd method C. Vertebral arch projection D. 35- to 40-degree cephalad axial projection
D. 35- to 40-degree cephalad axial projection CR parallel to MML)
Which of the following radiographic routines and/or procedures best demonstrates Osgood-Schlatter disease? A. Barium enema B. AP & lateral hip C. Upper GI D. AP & lateral knee
D. AP and lateral knee
Which of the following procedures or projections should be performed for a possible meconium ileus? A. IVU procedure B. AP supine abdomen C. Upper GI series D. Acute abdomen series
D. Acute abdomen series
Which of the following procedures does not require the use of mobile fluoroscopy? A. Hip pinning B. Intramedullary rod insertion C. Open reduction of tibia D. All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance
D. All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance
For successful surgical radiographic exposures, clear communication must be established among the surgeon, technologist, &: A. Scrub B. CST C. Circulator D. Anesthesiologist
D. Anesthesiologist
Situation: Which radiographic procedure is often performed for Hirschsprung disease? A. Upper GI B. MRI C. Cystourethrography D. Barium enema
D. Barium enema
Situation: a newborn is diagnosed with RDS. Which one of the following procedures is commonly performed for this condition? A. Abdomen B. Functional MRI C. CT of head D. Chest
D. Chest
At the first meeting between the technologist and the patient (accompanied by an adult), which of the following generally should NOT be discussed? A. Introduce yourself B. Take the necessary time to explain what you will be doing. C. Discuss the possible forceful immobilization that will be needed in the child will not cooperate. D. Describe the total amount of radiation the patient will receive with the specific exam if it has to be repeated because of a lack of cooperation. E. All of these steps must be taken.
D. Describe the total amount of radiation the patient will receive with that specific exam if it has to be repeated because of lack of cooperation
If the technologist suspects child abuse, he or she should: A. Ask the parent when the abuse occurred B. Report the abuse immediately to the necessary state officials as required by the state C. Refuse to do the examination or touch the child until a physician has examined the patient D. Do none of the above
D. Do none of the above
Which of the following projections of the abdomen most effectively demonstrates a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. Left lateral decubitus B. AP KUB C. Right lateral decubitus D. Dorsal decubitus
D. Dorsal decubitus
What should be the final step that the technologist takes before returning a trauma patient to the ER following a radiographic procedure? A. Review patient history B. Review examination requisition C. Check patient armband/identification D. Ensure side rails are up on the patient cart
D. Ensure side rails are up on the patient cart
Radiologists often use the Salter-Harris system to classify _________ fractures. A. Pathologic B. Trimalleolar C. Stellate D. Epiphyseal
D. Epiphyseal
Which of the following projections demonstrates the odontoid process for the trauma patient who is unable to open the mouth yet can extend the skull & neck? (Subluxation & fracture have been ruled out.) A. Vertebral arch projection B. AP axial C. Judd method D. Fuchs method
D. Fuchs method
Which of the following imaging modalities is effective in detecting signs of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A. CT B. Sonography C. Nuclear medicine D. Functional MRI
D. Functional MRI
Which of the following is NOT the name of a known commercially available immobilization device? A. Posi-Tot B. Tam-Em Board C. Pigg-O-Stat D. Hold-em Tiger
D. Hold-em Tiger
Which of the following orthopedics devices is used to stabilize a mid-femoral shaft fracture? A. Interbody fusion cage B. Thompson prosthesis C. Modular bipolar prosthesis D. Ilizarov device
D. Ilizarov device
Which of the following devices can be used for spinal fusion surgery rather than the use of a pedicle screw? A. Austin-Moore prosthesis B. Cannulated screw C. Dynamic compression plate D. Interbody fusion cage
D. Interbody fusion cage
Situation: A patient with a Monteggia fracture enters the ER. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed on this patient? A. AP & lateral thumb B. PA & horizontal beam lateral wrist C. AP & horizontal beam lateral lower leg D. PA or AP & horizontal beam lateral forearm
D. PA or AP & horizontal beam lateral forearm
Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the cervical spine pedicles enters the ER. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate this region of the spine without moving the patient? A. Perform a Swimmer's lateral B. Perform an articular pillar projection C. Perform a Fuchs method D. Perform AP axial trauma oblique projections
D. Perform AP axial trauma oblique projections
By increasing kV and __________, the dose can be reduced to the pediatric patient during a helical CT scan. A. mA B. Region of body scammed C. Scan resolution D. Pitch ratio
D. Pitch ratio
A radiographic examination of the pelvicaliceal system only during surgery is termed: A. Retrograde ureterogram B. Antegrade pyelogram C. Nephrostomy D. Retrograde pyelogram
D. Retrograde pyelogram
_____________ consists of the practice & procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present in the surgical environment. A. Asepsis B. OSHA Standards C. Sterile practice D. Surgical Asepsis
D. Surgical Asepsis
Situation: Which radiographic procedure is often performed for pyloric stenosis? A. Barium enema B. Evacuative proctography C. Enteroclysis D. Upper GI
D. Upper GI
Imaging equipment permanently stored in surgery must be cleaned at least: A. Daily B. Bimonthly C. Monthly D. Weekly
D. Weekly
Describe or Define: Achondroplasia
Decreased bone formation at growth plates
Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Occurs before birth
Diaphysis
Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Primary centers
Diaphysis
Primary centers of bone formation (ossification) involving the midshafts of long bones are called _________.
Diaphysis
Other than preventing artifacts in the bowel, what is the other reason that solid food is withheld for 4 hours before a pediatric IVU?
Diminish the risk for aspiration from vomiting
How must the IR & grid be positioned for the inferosuperior (axiolateral) projection of the hip?
Direct horizontal CR perpendicular to the femoral neck & to the plane of the IR
Describe or Define: Osteochondrosis
Disease of epiphyseal and growth plate
What is the correct term for displacement of a bone from a joint?
Dislocation or luxation
Which bones are commonly fractured with the Pott's fracture?
Distal fibula & occasionally the distal tibia or medial malleolus
Which bone is most commonly fractured in a Colles' fracture, & which displacement commonly occurs? Describe the type of injury or fall commonly results in this type of fracture?
Distal radius, posterior displacement of distal fragment; fall on outstretched arm
Which cardinal rule is most effective in reducing occupational exposure?
Distance
DHS is an abbreviation for _______.
Dynamic hip screw
Surgical term or device defined: Electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system
ESWL - electro shock wave lithotripsy
Bacterial infection of the upper airway that may be fatal if untreated
Epiglottitis
Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Space between primary & secondary centers
Epiphyseal plate
Secondary centers of ossification of the long bones are called __________.
Epiphyses
Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Secondary centers
Epiphysis
Epiphysis, Diaphysis, or Epiphyseal plate? Continues to change from birth to maturity
Epiphysis & Epiphyseal plate
True/False: Gonadal shielding should only be used in supine positions because of the difficulty in keeping the shield in place.
False; shielding should be used in all positions, using tape when necessary
True/False: The CR should not exceed a 30-degree caudad angle for the AP axial projection of the cranium to avoid excessive distortion of the cranial bones
False; should not exceed 45-degrees
True/False: The surgeon is responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all personnel in the OR
False; the technologist is responsible to ensure radiation safety in the OR
Define the fracture: Boxer's
Fracture of distal fifth metacarpal
Define the fracture: Smith's
Fracture of distal radius with anterior displacement
Define the fracture: Colles'
Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement
Define the fracture: Trimalleolar
Fracture of lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, & distal posterior tip of tibia
Define the fracture: Monteggia
Fracture of proximal half of ulna with dislocation of radial head
Define the fracture: Bennett's
Fracture of the base of the first metacarpal
Define the fracture: Hangman's
Fracture of the pedicles of C2
A special OR table used for hip pinnings & other orthopedic procedures to provide traction to the involved limb is termed:
Fracture or orthopedic table
Define the fracture: Compression
Fracture producing a reduced height of the anterior vertebral body
Define the fracture: Avulsion
Fracture resulting from a severe stress to a tendon
Define the fracture: Comminuted
Fracture resulting in multiple (2 or more) fragments
Define the fracture: Stellate
Fracture with fracture lines radiating from a center point
CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP skull
Glabella
Fracture defined: Fracture through the pedicles of C2
Hangman's
Roles of: Certified Surgical Technologist
Health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies & instruments
AKA congenital megacolon
Hirschsprung disease
How is the x-ray tube aligned for a lateral projection of the chest if the patient is on a Tam-Em board?
Horizontally
Fracture defined: Also called a Chauffer's fracture
Hutchinson's
What is the name of the fracture in which one fragment is driven into the other?
Impacted
Define the fracture: Greenstick
Incomplete fracture with broken cortex on one side of bone only
Define the fracture: Depressed
Indented fracture of the skull
Roles of: Circulator
Individual who assists in the OR with the needs of the scrubbed members within the sterile field before, during, & after the surgical procedure
Roles of: Surgical Assistant
Individual who assists the surgeon
Roles of: Surgeon
Individual who has primary responsibility for the surgical procedure & the well-being of the patient before, during & immediately after surgery
Anesthesiologist
Individual who has the responsibility of ensuring the safety of the patient & monitoring physiologic functions & fluid levels of the patient during surgery
Roles of: Scrub
Individual who prepares the sterile field, scrubs, & gowns for the members of the surgical team, & prepares & sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure
Describe or Define: Kohler's bone disease
Inflammation of navicular in the foot
Describe or Define: NEC
Inflammation of the inner lining of the intestine
Describe or Define: Cystic fibrosis
Inherited disease leading to clogging of bronchi
What might the only recourse be if a pediatric patient refuses to drink barium for an upper GI series?
Insert a nasogastric tube into the stomach
With the tube & intensifier in a horizontal position, at which side of the patient should the surgeon stand if he or she must remain near the patient - the x-ray tube side or the intensifier side? Why?
Intensifier side; the radiation field pattern extends out farther on the x-ray tube side
What is the name of the device used to stabilize the vertebral body in lieu of traditional spinal fusion?
Interbody fusion cages
Define the fracture: Hutchinson's
Intra-articular fracture of radial styloid process
Why is tape not recommended, for immobilization purposes, to be place directly on children?
It can damage the skin
Why should the mobile fluoroscopy unit not be placed in the AP projection ("tube on top" position)?
It results in a significant increase in exposure to the head, eyes, & neck region of the operator
Surgical term or device defined: Unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of wrist (carpals) and individual bones of the hands and feet
Kirschner wire
An unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire, used to reduce fractures of the wrist (carpals), is called ___________
Kirschner wires
Which radiographic technique or method is performed to radiographically study congenital clubfoot?
Kite method
A surgical procedure, performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement involving the spine, is termed ____________.
Laminectomy
How must the grid be aligned to prevent grid cutoff when angling the CR mediolaterally for an oblique projection of the sternum when the patient cannot be rotated or moved at all from the supine position?
Landscape
Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: IR - portrait or landscape?
Landscape
How must the IR and grid be aligned if the OR table is tilted during an operative cholangiogram?
Landscape orientation to prevent grid cutoff
A 14- x 17-inch IR should be placed _________ (landscape or portrait) for an AP portable chest on an average or large patient, and why?
Landscape; to prevent side cutoff of the right or left lateral margins of the chest
Of the two monitors found on most mobile fluoroscopy units, which is generally considered the "active" monitor - the right or the left?
Left monitor
Where is the CR centered for a KUB on an 8 year old child?
Level of iliac crest
List the secondary name for: Baseball fracture
Mallet
Where is the CR centered for a PA and lateral pediatric chest projection
Mammillary (nipple) level
CR at the level of which structure/landmark: AP, PA, or lateral chest
Mammillary (nipple) line
How is barium instilled into the large bowel for a barium enema study of an infant?
Manually & slowly, 60 mL syringe & #10 French flexibly silicone catheter
Describe or Define: Meconium aspiration
May develop during stressful births
Describe or Define: Pyloric stenosis
May result in repeated, forceful vomiting
The area in which bone growth in length occurs is termed the _________.
Metaphysis
What is the name of the newer type of prosthetic device to replace a defective hip joint?
Modular bipolar hip prostheses
Fracture defined: Fracture of proximal half of ulna with dislocation of radial head
Monteggia
What should be done to achieve specific projections if the patient cannot move because of trauma?
Move the CR & IR around the patient to produce similar projections rather than moving the patient.
How can rib fractures be a radiographic indication of child abuse?
Multiple and posterior fractures are an indication of a child being held up under the axillae and shaken
Clinical indicators that apply for an AP abdomen (KUB)
NEC, Intussusception, Foreign body localization, Hepatomegaly, Appendicitis
Second most common form of cancer in children younger than 5 years of age
Neuroblastoma
Should a grid be used for a 2-year-old lateral chest?
No
What is the bowel prep for a pediatric voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)?
No bowel prep is required
Recommended NPO fasting before the pediatric contrast media procedure: Infant lower GI
No prep required
Retrograde urography is a ___________ (non-functional or functional) examination of the urinary system
Non-functional
Technical factors for an AP/PA pediatric chest: Grid/non-grid?
Non-grid
Fracture defined: Subluxation of the radial head on a child
Nursemaid's elbow
Describe or Define: Ileus
Obstruction caused by lack of contractile movement of the intestinal wall
List the secondary name for: Compound fracture
Open
ORIF is the abbreviation for _______.
Open reduction with internal fixation
Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal plate
Osteochondrosis
Inherited condition that produces very fragile bones
Osteogenesis imperfecta
AKA Rickets
Osteomalacia
How is the CR angled and where is it centered for the AP acanthioparietal (reverse Waters) projection of the facial bones?
Parallel to the MML, centered to acanthion
How is the CR angled for a trauma lateral projection of the elbow?
Parallel to the interepicondylar plane
Fracture defined: Fracture resulting from a disease process
Pathologic
A retrograde pyelogram is a specific radiographic examination of the ____________ system.
Pelvicalyceal
Which exam is associated with CHD?
Pelvis & Hips
Which exam is associated with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
Pelvis & Hips
Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the ankle enters the ER. The patient cannot rotate the lower limb. What can be done to provide the orthopedic surgeon with a mortise projection of the ankle?
Perform a cross-angle CR projection of the ankle, with CR 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial from the long axis of the foot
List the secondary name for: Depressed fracture
Ping-pong
Describe or Define: Craniostenosis
Prematurely closed cranial sutures
Primary or Assisting technologist? Instructs the parents
Primary technologist
Primary or Assisting technologist? Positions the patient
Primary technologist
Primary or Assisting technologist? Positions the tube and collimates
Primary technologist
Surgical term or device defined: Fabricated (artificial) substitute for a diseased or missing anatomic part
Prosthesis
Describe or Define: Meningocele
Protrusion of meninges through opening
Bacterial infection of the kidney
Pyelonephritis
What is the primary benefit of the "pulse mode" on a digital C-arm unit?
Reducing patient dose
Name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy imaging
Roadmapping
What is the term for the process of holding one image on the C-arm monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy?
Roadmapping
Fracture involving the epiphyseal plate
Salter-Harris fracture
Surgical term or device defined: Isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the non-sterile environment
Shower curtain
Describe or Define: Myelocele
Spinal cord protrudes through an opening
A forced wrenching or twisting of a joint that results in a tearing of supporting ligaments is a __________
Sprain
Which type of mobile x-ray unit is lighter weight?
Standard power source
Which type of mobile unit is lighter in weight?
Standard power source, non-motor drive
Fracture defined: Also called a March fracture
Stress or fatigue
Surgical term or device defined: Soaking of moisture through a sterile or non-sterile drape, cover, or protective barrier
Strike through
What is the correct term for a partial dislocation?
Subluxation
What is the correct term for a partial displacement?
Subluxation
In what position is the patient placed during most cervical laminectomies?
Supine
T/F A technologist's attitude is one of the more important factors in making a pediatric procedure a success.
True
True/False: The C-arm fluoroscopy unit can be rotated a minimum of 180 degrees.
True
Which radiographic structures are evaluated to determine rotation on a PA projection of the chest?
The sternoclavicular joints and lateral rib margins should be equidistant from the vertebral column
True/False: A PA horizontal beam projection of the elbow can be taken for a patient with multiple injuries.
True
True/False: A fully charged battery-powered mobile unit has driving range of up to 10 miles on level ground
True
True/False: A hand routine for a 7 year old would be the same as for an adult patient
True
True/False: A piece of lead vinyl can be placed beneath the child's lower pelvis during conventional fluoroscopy to reduce the gonadal/mean bone marrow dose.
True
True/False: A radionuclide study for vescourethral reflux provides a smaller patient dose compared with a fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram.
True
True/False: AP projections of the skull & facial bones will increase exposure to the thyroid gland as compared with PA projections.
True
True/False: All mobile digital fluoroscopy units include the ability to magnify the image on the monitor during fluoroscopy
True
True/False: Angiography of the aortic arch for the trauma patient has declined due to the increased us of CT angiography
True
True/False: Any trauma study requires at least two projections as close as possible to 90 degrees opposite from each other.
True
True/False: Children older than 5 years of age can usually hold their breath after a practice session.
True
True/False: Digital C-arm units can store images on video tape or computer hard disk memory,
True
True/False: Digital radiography is well suited for ED & mobile procedures.
True
True/False: During most surgical procedures, the technologist is not required to wear protective eyewear
True
True/False: Except for survey exams, individual projections of the elbow, wrist, and shoulder should generally be taken on older children rather than including these regions on a single projection.
True
True/False: For a bone survey of a young child, both limbs are commonly radiographed for comparison
True
True/False: For a trauma lateral projection of the elbow, the CR must be kept parallel to the interepicondylar plane.
True
True/False: If available, the Pigg-O-Stat should be used rather than relying on prenatal assistance during a pediatric chest examination
True
True/False: It is difficult to distinguish the small bowel from the large bowel on a plain abdomen on an infant.
True
True/False: Laparascopic cholecystectomy is not suited for every patient and condition.
True
True/False: Malignant bone tumors are rare in young children.
True
True/False: Nuclear medicine is effective in diagnosing certain emergency conditions such as pulmonary emboli.
True
True/False: On an initial study of a long bone, both joints should be included for each projection.
True
True/False: Renal CT scans have largely replaced intravenous urography studies for children.
True
True/False: Scrub covers must be removed before entering the surgical suite
True
CST is the acronym for:
certified surgical technologist
Any change in manual exposure factors? Idiopathic juvenile osteoporosis
decrease (-)
Any change in manual exposure factors? Osteogenesis imperfecta
decrease (-)
Any change in manual exposure factors? Osteomalacia
decrease (-)