CCENT Study Guide

Classify each item as either physical interface or subinterface. one physical interface for many VLANs bandwidth contention access mode switch port connection complex cable configuration trunk mode switch port connection one physical interface per VLAN

subinterface subinterface physical interface physical interface subinterface physical interface Explanation: Physical interface solutions involve more complex cabling, access port switch configurations, and one physical router interface per VLAN.

In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final command entries permit icmp any any nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns? A. To allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution B. To allow forwarding of IPv6 multicast packets C. To allow automatic address configuration D. To allow forwarding of ICMPv6 packets

A

What range of IP addresses is represented by the network and wildcard mask 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255? A. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255 B. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.34.255 C. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.63.255 D. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.240.255

A

What range of IP addresses is represented by the network and wildcard mask 192.168.70.0 0.0.0.127? A. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.127 B. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.255 C. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.63 D. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.71.255

A

What range of IP addresses is represented by the network and wildcard mask 192.168.70.0 0.0.1.255? A. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.71.255 B. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.255 C. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.73.255 D. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.76.255

A

What are two characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols? (Choose two.) A. They require a lot of hardware resources. B. They know of the network topology from the perspective of their neighbors. C. They compute their own knowledge of the network topology. D. They use hop counts to compute the network topology. E. They flood the routing table periodically.

A and C

Which two tasks does autonegotiation in an Ethernet network accomplish? (Choose two.) A. Sets the link speed B. Sets the IP address C. Sets the link duplex mode D. Sets MAC address assignments on switch port E. Sets the ring speed

A and C. Explanation: Autonegotiation sets duplex and speed. Autonegotiation is the default mode for a Cisco switch port.

What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. To maintain routing tables B. To assure low router overhead C. To avoid exposing network information D. To discover the network E. To choose the path that is specified by the administrator

A and D. Dynamic routing protocols exist to discover the network, maintain routing tables, and calculate the best path. Having low levels of routing over- head, using the path specified by the administrator, and avoiding the exposure of network information are functions of static routing.

Which two terms are correctly defined? (Choose two.) A. Internal switching rate - processing capability of a switch that quantifies how much data it can process per second B. Port density - capability to use multiple switch ports concurrently for higher throughput data communication C. Rack unit - number of ports that can fit in a specific switch D. Cut-through switching - the transmission of a frame after the destination MAC address has been examined and processed E. Modular configuration switch - only support features or options that ship with the device

A and D. Explanation: Port density is the number of ports available on a single switch. Rack unit is used to describe the switch height and is used in network rack space planning. A modular configuration switch allows great flexibility in configuration through the use of line cards in the various available chassis sizes.

A 24-port switch has been configured to support three VLANs named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. Each VLAN spans four ports on the switch. The network administrator has deleted the Marketing VLAN from the switch. What two statements describe the status of the ports associated with this VLAN? (Choose two.) A. The ports are inactive. B. The ports are administratively disabled. C. The ports will become trunks to carry data from all remaining VLANs. D. The ports will remain part of the Marketing VLAN until reassigned to another VLAN. E. The ports were released from the Marketing VLAN and automatically reassigned to VLAN 1.

A and D. Explanation: Ports are administratively disabled only with the no shutdown command. Access ports never default to trunk ports. Ports do not automatically get reassigned to another VLAN upon deletion of their respective VLAN.

Which two conditions must exist in order to summarize IPv6 routes into a single static IPv6 route? (Choose two.) A. The destination networks are contiguous and can be summarized into a single network address. B. The multiple static routes all use different exit-interface or next-hop IPv6 address. C. The destination networks are not contiguous. D. The multiple static routes all use the same exit-interface or next-hop IPv6 address. E. The administrative distance is greater than the administrative distance of another static route or dynamic routes.

A and D. Explanation: Static IPv6 routes can be summarized into a single static IPv6 route if the destination networks are contiguous and can be summarized into a single network address. Moreover, all static routes have to use the same exit-interface or nexthop IPv6 address. Floating static routes are static routes that have an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance of another static or dynamic route.

A router-on-a-stick configuration will not allow PC1 on VLAN 10 to communicate with PC2 on VLAN 11. Which two of the following could be the problem? (Choose two.) A. The physical port on the router is shut down. B. The switch SVI is not "up and up." C. The port between the switch and the router is not a routed port. D. The port between the switch and the router has been placed in access mode. E. One or both of the router subinterfaces have been configured with an IP address in a different network.

A and E. Explanation: Common problems in a router on-a-stick configuration include the physical port on the router being shut down, native VLAN mismatch between the router and the switch, and improper IP addressing to match the VLAN. Remember that each VLAN must have a different network number. On the switch side, ensure VLANs 10 and 11 are in the VLAN database, ensure the port connecting to the router is a trunk, and ensure the native VLAN matches the configured native VLAN on the router (or is the default of 1).

Which three options accurately associate the Catalyst switch command with the result? (Choose three.) A. show vlan id vian-id: displays information about a specific VLAN. B. show vlan: displays detailed information about all VLANs on the switch. C. show vlan brief: displays detailed information about all VLANs on the switch. D. show interfaces fa0/1 switchport: displays information about a specific port. E. show interfaces fa0/1: displays VLAN information about a specific port.

A, B, and D.

What are three advantages of having a single trunk link on a switch and subinterfaces on the router instead of individual VLAN links between a switch that has three VLANs and a router to route between the VLANs? (Choose three.) A. It would free two switch and router ports. B. It would reduce the complexity of the cabling runs. C. It would increase the amount of bandwidth available for inter-VLAN routing. D. It would allow for less complex troubleshooting of inter-VLAN routing issues. E. It would allow adding more VLANs without requiring more cabling or switch ports. F. It would allow for less-complex configuration of inter-VLAN routing.

A, B, and E. Explanation: Keep in mind that the solution decreases available bandwidth and increases troubleshooting and configuration complexity.

Which three statements describe features of Cisco devices that perform routing? (Choose three.) A. The IP address of a LAN interface on a Layer 3 device provides the default gateway for hosts connected to that LAN. B. A routing protocol must be enabled in order for a Layer 3 device to build a routing table. C. Routing tables are volatile. When power is removed from a Layer 3 device, the routing table ceases to exist. D. A routing table is automatically created for directly connected, active LAN and WAN interfaces. E. A directly connected Layer 3 interface must be manually added to the routing table in order for routing to be enabled on that interface.

A, C, and D. Explanation: A routing table entry for a directly connected IPv4 or IPv6 network is automatically added to the routing table when the corresponding interface is up. The interface vlan and ip address commands are used on a switch to assign an IP address to the device. As seen in the chapter content and lab activities, addressing and activating LAN and WAN interfaces automatically trigger the building of a routing table in a Layer 3 device. 3

Which three statements are true about hosts that are configured in the same VLAN? (Choose three.) A. Hosts in the same VLAN must be on the same IP subnet. B. Hosts in different VLANs can communicate with the aid of only the Layer 2 switch. C. Hosts in the same VLAN share the same broadcast domain. D. Hosts in the same VLAN share the same collision domain. E. Hosts in the same VLAN comply with the same security policy. F. Hosts in the same VLAN must be on the same physical segment.

A, C, and E. Explanation: A router is needed for inter-VLAN communication. Each port on a switch is associated with a separate collision domain. Hosts on the same VLAN can all be on distinct physical segments.

Which three options are valid inter-VLAN routing methods? (Choose three.) A. Traditional routing B. Spanning-tree routing C. Router-on-a-stick D. 802.1Q routing E. Multilayer switch-based routing

A, C, and E. Explanation: Traditional or legacy routing means one physical router interface per VLAN. There is no such thing as spanning-tree routing or 802.1Q routing.

What are three benefits of a converged network? (Choose three.) A. Voice and data support staff are combined. B. Network design is simplified. C. Network configuration is simplified. D. Voice, video, and data traffic use one physical network. E. Maintenance is simpler than hierarchical networks. F. Network moves, adds, and changes are simplified.

A, D, and F. Explanation: A converged network requires more complex configuration, maintenance, and hierarchical design than a traditional data network.

What mechanism is used to achieve the separation between different VLANs as they cross a trunk link? A. VLAN tagging using 802.1Q protocol B. VLAN tagging using 802.1p protocol C. VLAN multiplexing D. VLAN set as a native VLAN

A. Explanation: 802.1p is used for prioritization, multiplexing is a telecommunications term, and the native VLAN is not used to differentiate between VLANs on a trunk. (It is associated with untagged traffic on a trunk link.)

What function is most likely to be provided by a Cisco access layer switch? A. PoE B. Routing C. Link aggregation D. Fault isolation

A. Explanation: Access layer switches commonly provide Power over Ethernet (PoE) to end devices such as access points and IP phones.

Which Layer 2 security issue sends a frame destined for one VLAN to a different VLAN by adding more than one VLAN ID to the header? A. Double-tagging B. Switch spoofing C. PVLAN edge D. Plaintext vty access

A. Explanation: An attacker using a double-tagging attack attaches two VLAN IDs to the header. The second VLAN ID is examined by a second switch that forwards frames to a destination VLAN that has a host controlled by the attacker.

Use the abbreviated MAC addresses in the MAC address table to determine the correct answer. A PC connected to port Gi0/4 sends data to a PC connected to port Gi0/3. When the switch receives the data, what will the switch do first to process the frame? Port MAC address Gi0/3 AA Gi0/7 AB A. Add the source MAC address to the switch MAC address table. B. Forward the data out all ports except for port 4. C. Forward the data to port 5. D. Forward the data out all ports. E. Add both the source and destination MAC addresses to the switch MAC address table. F. Add the destination MAC address to the switch MAC address table.

A. Explanation: Because the source MAC address is not known, the switch adds the source MAC address to the MAC address. Remember, the switch "learns" from the source MAC address. The switch "forwards" based on the destination MAC address.

What is an advantage of having the correct date and time on a network device? A. Network administrators are provided with correct timestamps on log messages. B. When working at the console prompt, the network administrator has a good idea how long the configuration or troubleshooting process is taking. C. Other devices can use CDP to discover neighbor device information if the time and date are synchronized between the two devices. D. Secure remote connectivity can be accomplished if the date and time are accurate.

A. Explanation: By using NTP or manually configuring the date and time on a network device, log messages are time stamped accurately. This is especially important when troubleshooting problems.

What is a Gateway of Last Resort? A. The IP address of another router B. The IP address of the Internet provider C. A term to describe a default gateway on a host device D. Where dropped packets are sent

A. Explanation: Even though a gateway of last resort could be an IP address of an ISP router, this does not have to be the case. A gateway of last resort, as seen in a Cisco routing table, is simply the IP address that is used to route packets addressed to networks not explicitly listed in the routing table. A Windows- based computer uses the term default gateway, not gateway of last resort.

What is a Cisco best practice for deploying switches? A. When a server connects to a switch, the switch port should have the port speed manually configured, but the autonegotiation feature used for duplex. B. A compound word should be used as a password on an infrastructure network device such as a switch. C. Telnet should be used whenever possible on the switch vty lines. D. The enable secret password should be used when configuring a switch to use SSH on the vty lines.

A. Explanation: Gigabit Ethernet and 10Gb Ethernet NICs can only run in full duplex. Speed should be manually configured on a port that has an important device such as a server. A network engineer would not want to chance the autonegotiation configuring a slower speed. No normal word (whether compound or not) should be used as a password. Passwords should include uppercase and lowercase letters as well as special symbols. SSH is the preferred method of remote connectivity for a switch.

What is an advantage of using SSH over Telnet when remotely connecting to a switch? A. Encryption B. More connection lines C. Connection-oriented services D. Username and password authentication

A. Explanation: SSH is a more secure method of accessing a device from a remote network.

What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching? A. The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled. B. All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers. C. All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN. D. Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

A. Explanation: Some Layer 3 switches do not have an image loaded that supports Layer 3 switching; if it does, IP routing needs to be enabled by typing ip routing from global configuration mode. Layer 3 switches preclude the need for router-on-a-stick.

What address and prefix length is used when configuring an IPv6 default static route? A. ::/0 B. ::1/128 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. FF02::1/8

A. Explanation: The IPv6 address and prefix for a default static route is ::/0. This represents all zeros in the address and a prefix length of zero. 4

What will an OSPF router prefer to use first as a router ID? A. Any IP address that is configured using the router-id command B. A loopback interface that is configured with the highest IP address on the router C. The highest active interface IP that is configured on the router D. The highest active interface that participates in the routing process because of a specifically configured network statement

A. Explanation: The first preference for an OSPF router ID is an explicitly con- figured 32-bit address. This address is not included in the routing table and is not defined by the network command. If a router ID that is configured through the router-id command is not available, OSPF routers next use the highest IP address available on a loopback interface because loopbacks used as router IDs are also not routable addresses. Lacking either of these alternatives, an OSPF router will use the highest IP address from its active physical interfaces.

Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route? A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 B. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0 C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0 D. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0

A. Explanation: The static route ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is considered a default static route and will match all destination networks.

What command, or set of commands, would be used to determine if the following configuration on router HQ works as designed? ip route 0 . 0 . 0 . 0 0 . 0 . 0 . 0 serial 0 / 0 / 0 10 ip route 0 . 0 . 0 . 0 0 . 0 . 0 . 0 serial 0 / 1 / 0 A. HQ(config)# interface serial 0 / 1 / 0 H Q ( c o n f i g - i f ) # shutdown H Q ( c o n f i g - i f ) # end HQ# show ip route B. HQ# traceroute 1 2 8 . 1 0 7 . 0 . 9 9 C. HQ# show ip interface brief D. HQ# ping 1 2 8 . 1 0 7 . 0 . 9 9 HQ# ping 6 4 . 1 0 0 . 0 . 5 E. HQ# show ip route

A. Explanation: To test a floating static route, take down the main route/link in order to see whether the backup link appears in the routing table. The show ip route command simply shows the routing table. Only one of the static routes would be shown at any one time.

When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, which factor is considered by a router to choose the best path to forward a packet? A. The lowest metric B. The order of paths on the routing table C. The fastest bandwidth of exiting interfaces D. The reliability value of the neighboring routers

A. Explanation: When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, the route with the lowest metric is put into the routing table to forward packets toward that network.

What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP? A. Fast convergence B. Less complexity C. Less CPU processing D. Low memory requirements

A. Link-state routing protocols require more CPU processing and memory to compute the routes using the Dijkstra algorithm. They are more complex but converge much faster than distance vector protocols like RIP.

In applying an ACL to a router interface, which traffic is designated as outbound? A. Traffic that is coming from the source IP address into the router B. Traffic that is leaving the router and going toward the destination host C. Traffic that is going from the destination IP address into the router D. Traffic for which the router can find no routing table entry

B

What is the effect of the established parameter in an extended ACL? A. Blocks all incoming traffic from reaching a network B. Allows external traffic into a network only if it is part of an existing connec- tion with an internal host C. Allows external sources to send unsolicited requests for information to source IP addresses in the network D. Allows traffic from a permitted source address to go to any destination outside the network

B

Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, supports manual route summarization, and uses the multicast address 224.0.0.9? A. RIPvl B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. EIGRP

B

ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs?(Choose two.) A. Specifying source addresses for authentication B. Specifying internal hosts for NAT C. Identifying traffic for QoS D. Reorganizing traffic into VLANs E. Filtering VTP packets

B and C

What are two options to consider when configuring a trunk link between two switches? (Choose two.) A. The switchport nonegotiate command must be configured for trunks that use DTP. B. Port security cannot be configured on the trunk interfaces. C. The native VLAN must be the same on both ends of the trunk. D. Different encapsulation types can be configured on both ends of the trunk link. E. Trunk ports can be configured only on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.

B and C. Explanation: Port security is used only on access ports. The native VLAN must be the same on both ends of an 802.1Q trunk.

Which three options correctly associate a layer of the hierarchical design model with the function of that layer? (Choose three.) A. Core - end device connectivity B. Distribution - aggregation and traffic control C. Access - end device connectivity D. Distribution - high speed backbone E. Access - aggregation of traffic F. Core - high speed backbone

B and C. Explanation: The access layer is concerned with end device connectivity. Switches and access points provide connectivity for wired and wireless devices. Distribution layer aggregates connections from access layer switches. This layer can also define Layer 3 routing boundaries and policy-based network connectivity. The core layer is known as the high speed backbone.

Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.) A. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence. B. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules. C. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence. D. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot. E. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS. F. Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.

B and D. Explanation: Read-Only Memory (ROM): Provides permanent storage for bootup instructions, basic diagnostic software, and a limited IOS in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS. Flash: Provides permanent storage for the IOS and other systemrelated files. The IOS is copied from flash into RAM during the bootup process. Flash is nonvolatile and does not lose its contents when power is turned off. 2

Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.) A. They are created in interface configuration mode. B. They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes. C. They automatically become the default gateway of the router. D. They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S. E. They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shut down.

B and D. Explanation: Static routes are manually configured. They define an explicit path between two networking devices. Unlike a dynamic routing protocol, static routes are not automatically updated and must be manually reconfigured if the network topology changes. A static route is identified in the routing table with the code S.

Which two design considerations are best practices for switch VLAN design? (Choose two.) A. Unused ports should be left to the default configuration. B. The native VLAN should be an unused VLAN. C. All unused ports should be configured as a part of the black hole VLAN. D. All unused ports should be configured as a part of the native VLAN. E. A server should always be configured as a protected port. F. The management VLAN should be a VLAN not used by any type of user traffic. G. Disable DTP messages.

B, C, F, and G. Explanation: DTP autonegotiates a trunk and could be a security risk. DTP should be disabled. Unused switch ports should be placed in an unused VLAN known as a black hole VLAN.

Refer to the following configuration. Host 1 is connected to interface Fa0/4 with IP address 192.168.1.22/28. Host 2 is connected to interface Fa0/5 with IP address 192.168.1.33/28. Host 3 is connected to interface F0/6 with IP address 192.168.1.30/28. Select the three statements that describe the success of pinging from one host to another. (Choose three.) Switch(config)# vlan 10 Switch(config-vlan)# name Faculty Switch(config-vlan)# vlan 20 Switch(config-vlan)# name Staff Switch(config-vlan)# interface range fa0/4 , fa0/6 Switch(config-if-range)# switchport mode access Switch(config-if-range)# switchport access vlan 10 Switch(config-if-range)# interface fa0/5 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20 A. Host 1 can ping Host 2. B. Host 1 cannot ping Host 2. C. Host 1 can ping Host 3. D. Host 1 cannot ping Host 3. E. Host 2 can ping Host 3. F. Host 2 cannot ping Host 3.

B, C, and F. Explanation: Hosts within the same VLAN that have the proper IP addressing (they are on the same network) can ping each other. A Layer 3 device such as a router is needed for inter-VLAN communication.

What are three entries that are displayed by the show ip ospf neighbor command? (Choose three.) A. The route metric and neighbor next-hop address B. The router ID of the neighboring routers C. The OSPF state of each interface D. The OSPF process ID used to establish the adjacency E. The OSPF area number shared by the neighbor routers F. The IP address of the neighbor router interface to which this router is directly connected

B, C, and F. Explanation: The route metric and neighbor next-hop address are routing table entries that are displayed by the show ip route command. The show ip ospf neighbor command does not display the OSPF process ID or the OSPF area number.

Which subnet mask would be used for a network that has a maximum of 300 devices? A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.254.0 C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.248.0 E. 255.255.240.0

B. Explanation: A subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 accommodates 254 devices (2A8 = 256 - 2 for the network number and broadcast). A subnet mask of 255.255.254.0 accommodates 510 devices. A subnet mask of 255.255.252.0 handles up to 1022 devices. A subnet mask of 255.255.248.0 supports up to 2046 devices. Finally, a mask of 255.255.240.0 is used for a network that needs up to 4094 addresses.

Use the abbreviated MAC addresses in the MAC address table to determine the correct answer. A PC connected to port Gi0/3 sends data to a PC connected to port Gi0/5. When the switch receives the data, what will the switch do to process the frame? Port MAC address Gi0/3 AA Gi0/7 AB A. Add the destination MAC address to the switch MAC address table. B. Forward the data out all ports except for port Gi0/3. C. Forward the data to port Gi0/3. D. Forward the data out all ports. E. Add both the source and destination MAC addresses to the switch MAC address table.

B. Explanation: Because the source MAC address is already known, the switch then turns to the destination MAC address to determine how to forward the frame. Because the destination MAC address for port 5 is not in the switch MAC address table, the switch sends the frame out all ports except the ingress port (the port through which the frame was received).

What code is used in the routing table to identify routes learned through EIGRP? A. C B. D C. L D. O E. S

B. Explanation: Each route in a routing table has a code that identifies how the route was learned by the router. The code letter D is used to identify routes learned through EIGRP.

A switch that uses MAC addresses to forward frames operates at which layer of the OSI model? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4

B. Explanation: MAC addresses are associated with Ethernet frames and are also known as a Layer 2 address.

What command would be used to determine if all SVIs were "up and up" on a multilayer switch? A. show vlans B. show ip interface brief C. show running-config D. show interface switchport

B. Explanation: The show ip interface brief command is used on either a Layer 2 switch, multilayer switch, or a router to see if an interface (virtual or physical) is "up and up."

Which is a valid summary route for networks 192.168.8.0/22, 192.168.12.0/22, and 192.168.16.0/22? A. 192.168.0.0/18 B. 192.168.0.0/19 C. 192.168.0.0/20 D. 192.168.8.0/21

B. Explanation: The third octet of the network addresses represented in binary are 8 = 00001000 12 = 00001100 16 = 00010000 The common leftmost bits are 000 in all three octets. Thus, the summary route will be 192.168.0.0/19.

Which OSPF wildcard mask would be appropriate to use for the given network prefix? A. /30 and 0.0.0.2 B. /13 and 0.7.255.255 C. /23 and 0.0.2.255 D. /18 and 0.0.64.255

B. Explanation: To calculate wildcard masks, follow these steps: 1. Change the subnet mask into dotted-decimal format. 2 Subtract the resulting mask from 255.255.255.255. 3. The result is the wildcard mask. Example: A mask of /18 equals 255.255.192.0. A mask of 255.255.192.0 sub- tracted from 255.255.255.255 yields a wildcard mask of 0.0.63.255.

What is the purpose of DHCP snooping? A. Ensures devices are configured for automatic IP address assignment B. Prevents unauthorized DHCP servers C. Prevents DHCP messages from going across a trunk D. Prevents DHCP messages from being sent to another network

B. Explanation: When DHCP snooping is configured, switch ports are configured as either a trusted port or an untrusted port. A device connected to a trusted port can send any type of DHCP message into the switch. An untrusted port only allows incoming DHCP requests.

A switch has just been powered on. PC1 connects to port 1; PC2 connects to port 2. If PC1 sends data to PC2, how will the switch process the frame? A. The switch forwards the frame based on the MAC address of PC2. B. The switch adds the MAC address of PC1 (that is received on the ingress port) to the switch MAC address table. C. The switch forwards the frame to all switch ports including ports 1 and 2. D. The switch adds the IP address of PC2 (that is sent through the egress port) to the switch MAC address table.

B. Explanation: When a switch is first powered on, it has no entries in the MAC address table. A switch adds to the MAC address table by examining the Layer 2 header source MAC address. If the MAC address is not already in the switch MAC address table, the switch adds it. The switch forwards the frame based on the destination MAC address found in the Layer 2 header. If the destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table, the switch forwards the data to all ports that have devices attached except for the ingress port through which the switch received the frame.

Which command does the network administrator use to determine whether interVLAN communication is functioning? A. show vlan B. ping C. ipconfig D. show interfaces

B. Explanation: ping tests the connectivity between the source and destination devices.

A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify? A. The route to network 172.16.4.0/24 is directly connected. B. The route source was learned dynamically. C. That is the direct route for packets to that network. D. The route to this network is configured statically on the router.

B. Routing table entries that begin with the letter D are learned dynamically using the EIGRP routing protocol. Static route entries on the routing table are identified with S. Directly connected route entries are denoted by the letter C.

Which set of access control entries would allow all users on the 192.168.10.0/24 network to access a web server that is located at 172.17.80.1, but would not allow them to use Telnet? A. access-list 103 deny tcp host 192.168.10.0 any eq 23 access-list 103 permit tcp host 192.168.10.1 eq 80 B. access-list 103 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1 access-list 103 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq telnet C. access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1 eq 80 access-list 103 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23 D. access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80 access-list 103 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23

C

Match the commands with the correct descriptions. switchport mode trunk switchport mode dynamic desirable switchport nonegotiate switchport mode access A. Configures the port to negotiate a trunk B. Configures the trunk to not send DTP packets C. Configures the port as a permanent 802.1Q trunk D. Disables trunk mode

C A B D

Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two.) A. Extended ACLs use a number range from 1 through 99. B. Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement. C. Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses. D. Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL. E. Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

C and D

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.) A. View a list of commands entered in a previous session. B. Recall up to 15 command lines by default. C. Set the command history buffer size. D. Recall previously entered commands. E. Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

C and D. Explanation: The command history feature is useful because it temporarily stores the list of executed commands to be recalled. By default, command history is enabled and the system captures the last 10 command lines in its history buffer.

Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.) A. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks. B. Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets is sent over static and dynamic routes. C. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network. D. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP. E. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destination exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

C and D. Explanation: When a router has two or more paths to a destination with equal cost metrics, then the router forwards the packets using both paths equally. Only EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.

Consider the configuration. Which two commands are not needed on the switch in order for a remote network administrator to access the switch using SSH? A. Switch(config)# ip domain-name mydomain.com B. Switch(config)#crypto key generate rsa C. Switch(config)# ip ssh version 2 D. Switch(config)#line vty 0 15 E. Switch(config-if)# transport input ssh

C and E. Explanation: SSH version 2 is the default version. The transport input ssh command would not be entered in interface configuration mode, but in line configuration mode (Switch(config-line)#).

Which three options correctly associate the command with the paired behavior? (Choose three.) A. switchport port-security violation protect: Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and a notification is sent. B. switchport port-security violation restrict: Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent. C. switchport port-security violation shutdown: Frames with unknown source addresses result in the port becoming error-disabled, and a notification is sent. D. switchport port-security mac-address sticky: Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running-configuration. E. switchport port-security maximum: Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port.

C, D, and E. Explanation: Know the switch port security types and violation modes is important before configuring port security. Port security can be configured using (1) static secure MAC addresses, (2) dynamic secure MAC addresses, and (3) sticky secure MAC addresses. The three violation modes are protect, restrict, and shutdown. Shutdown is the default violation mode.

The network administrator wants to configure an IP address on a Cisco switch. How does the network administrator assign the IP address? A. In privileged EXEC mode B. On the switch interface FastEthernet0/0 C. On the management VLAN D. On the physical interface connected to the router or next-hop device

C. Explanation: A Layer 2 switch is allotted a single Layer 3 logical address in the form of a switch virtual interface (SVI) used for managing the switch.

Which statement is correct about multiarea OSPF? A. OSPF can consolidate a fragmented OSPF area into one large area. B. All routers are in one area called the backbone area (area 0). C. Arranging routers into areas partitions a large autonomous system to lighten the load on routers. D. OSPF multiarea increases the frequency of SPF calculation.

C. Explanation: A company with one large autonomous system (AS) can be divided into smaller areas. When this occurs and the OSPF routing protocol is implemented, the design is called multi-area OSPF. Multi-area OSPF decreases the frequency of the SPF calculation, thus lightening the load on the router. In a single area OSPF design, all the routers are located in area 0 or the backbone area.

What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified? A. Recursive static route B. Directly connected static route C. Fully specified static route D. Floating static route

C. Explanation: A fully specified static route has the next-hop IP address and exit interface specified. A recursive static route has only the next-hop IP address specified. A directly attached static route has only the router exit interface specified. A floating static route has a higher metric than the dynamic routes and serves as a backup route.

Which statement is true concerning configuring static routes using next-hop addresses? A. Routers cannot use more than one static route with a next-hop address. B. When the router identifies that a packet is destined for a route associated with a nexthop address in the routing table, the router requires no further information and can immediately forward the packet. C. Routers configured with the static route using a next-hop address must either have the exit interface listed in the route or have another route with the network of the next hop and an associated exit interface. D. Routes associated with a next-hop address are more efficient than routes going to exit interfaces.

C. Explanation: All routes in the routing table must be resolved to an exit interface in the routing table. If a route has only a next-hop IP address, that next-hop address must eventually be resolved to another route in the routing table that does include an exit interface, such as a directly connected network. Some static routes, such as those with Ethernet exit interfaces, can include both an exit interface and a next-hop IP address.

What is convergence as it relates to network design? A. Implementation of an access-distribution-core layer design model for all sites in a corporation B. A centralized point in the network design where all traffic aggregates before transmission to the destination C. The combining of voice and video with traditional network traffic D. Designing a network in such a way that each tier has a specific function and upgrade path

C. Explanation: Convergence of network services that involve voice, video, and data requires a structured network design so that traffic flow reaches the destination network.

The output of the show ip route command contains the following entry: S 10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2. What value is indicated by the 1 in the [1/0] portion of the output? A. Metric B. Number of hops C. Administrative distance D. Interface ID through which the network can be reached

C. Explanation: In the routing table entry, S 10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2, the numbers inside the bracket indicate the administrative distance and metric, respectively.

Which statement describes a difference or similarity between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? A. OSPFv2 requires the DR/BDR election to occur on multiaccess networks only, whereas OSPv3 requires DR/BDR elections for all network types. B. Both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 use the router configuration network command to advertise networks. C. Both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 use multicast destination addresses for link-state packets. D. OSPFv2 uses a 32-bit router ID and OSPFv3 uses a 128 bit router ID.

C. Explanation: OSPFv2 uses the router configuration network command to advertise networks. OSPFv3 uses the ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id inter- face configuration command. Both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 use a 32 bit router ID. Both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 require the DR/BDR election to occur on multiaccess networks. Neither protocol requires a DR/BDR election for point-to-point networks.

How does the router-on-a-stick model for inter-VLAN routing differ from traditional routing? A. The router-on-a-stick model uses multiple physical interfaces on the router, each configured with a different Layer 3 address. B. The router-on-a-stick model uses a single physical interface on the router with only the no shutdown command issued. C. The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the router with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface. D. The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the switch with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.

C. Explanation: Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces on the participating router.

Which hierarchical network design goal is to provide a way for the network to always be accessible? A. hierarchical B. modularity C. resiliency D. flexibility

C. Explanation: The hierarchical goal specifies a specific role for each device in the network design. Modularity allows the network to expand in a planned fashion. Flexibility ensures that network resources are available to provide traffic load sharing.

What is the effect of entering the following command on a Fast Ethernet switch port? SWl(config-if)# duplex full A. The connected device communicates in two directions, but only one direction at a time. B. The switch port returns to its default configuration. C. If the device connected to this port is also set for full duplex, the device participates in collision-free communication. D. The efficiency of this configuration is typically rated at 50 to 60 percent. E. The connected device should be configured as half duplex.

C. Explanation: The switch will connect with full duplex when autonegotiating with a peer device. The default configuration for a switch port is auto negotiating.

Which algorithm is used by the OSPF routing process to construct the SPF tree on a router? A. DUAL algorithm B. Bellman-Ford algorithm C. Dijkstra's algorithm D. Path vector protocol

C. OSPF routing process uses Dijkstra's algorithm to construct the SPF tree. DUAL algorithm is used by the EIGRP routing protocol. Bellman-Ford algo- rithm is used by RIP routing protocol. Path vector protocol is the protocol used by BGP.

Which factor directly affects the time to convergence? A. Data link layer protocol used B. Number of hosts C. Size of the network D. Type of applications used

C. The factors that directly affect the time to convergence are the speed of the links, the type of protocol used, and the size of the network. The number of hosts, the applications, and the Layer 2 protocol that is used have no direct impact on the time to reach convergence.

What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? A. Exterior routing protocols are used only by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs. B. Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations. C. Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains. D. Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

D

Match the problem definition with the correct problem description. ___ Native VLAN mismatch ___ Trunk mode mismatch ___ Incorrect VLAN list ___ VLAN subnet conflict A. Both switches are configured to dynamic auto and will not negotiate a link. B. Not all the VLANs needed are allowed to traverse a trunk. C. PCs on the same VLAN are not sharing the same address space. D. The VLAN configured for untagged frames is not the same on two switches connected by a trunk.

D A B C

Which of the following are three characteristics of a static route? (Choose three.) A. Reduces the memory and processing burdens on a router B. Ensures that there is always a path available C. Used to dynamically find the best path to a destination network D. Used for routers that connect to stub networks E. Used for networks with a single route to a destination network F. Reduces configuration time

D and E. Explanation: Configuring a static route does not ensure that the path is always available. If the exit interface or next-hop IP address is in the up state, the static route will be included in the routing table, regardless of whether the destination network is available. Dynamic routing protocols are typically a better option when there are multiple routes to the same destination network. The routing protocol will be able to automatically determine the best path.

Which two layers of the hierarchical network design model are commonly combined into a single layer in a small-to-medium sized network architecture (Choose two.) A. access B. data link C. network D. distribution E. application F. core

D and F. Explanation: The three layers of the hierarchical design model are access, distribution, and core. The two design models are three layer and two layer. The two layer design is also known as a collapsed-core design because the distribution layer and core layer are combined.

What is the purpose of a routing protocol? A. It is used to build and maintain ARP tables. B. It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets. C. It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network. D. It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers. E. It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

D.

A network administrator configures a loopback interface as the OSPF router ID with the IP address of 192.168.1.1/30. What could be the consequence of using this 30-bit mask for the loopback interface? A. Older routers do not recognize the router-id command. B. The interface is not enabled for OSPF. C. OSPF routers must also be configured with a router priority value. D. This loopback interface may be advertised as a reachable network.

D. Explanation: A loopback interface used as an OSPF router ID normally uses a 32-bit mask that creates a host route. This route is not advertised as a route to other routers unless a network statement including this interface is added.

Why would a summarized static route be configured on a router? A. To reduce the number of public IP addresses required by an organization B. To provide a better route than a particular routing protocol C. To provide a default gateway for a router that connects to an ISP D. To reduce the size of the routing table E. To reduce the size of the routing protocol update to a neighboring router

D. Explanation: A summary route represents multiple networks. A summarized static route does not necessarily provide a better route than a routing protocol does. A default static route would provide a default gateway for a router that is connected to an ISP. Routing protocol updates may not necessarily be reduced in if static route routes are also used.

When would auto-MDIX be best to use? A. When a switch connects to a router B. When a switch connects to another switch C. When any device connects to an access layer switch D. When the cable type is unknown

D. Explanation: Auto-MDIX is not supported on every Cisco device, but if supported, this feature will allow the interface to automatically detect the required connection type (straight-through or crossover) and configure the port appropriately.

The OSPF Hello timer has been set to 15 seconds on a router in a point-to-point network. By default, what is the dead interval on this router? A. 15 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 45 seconds D. 60 seconds

D. Explanation: By default, the dead interval is calculated as 4 times the Hello interval.

Switch S1 and Switch S2 are both configured with ports in the Faculty, Students, Voice, Guest, Printing, and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many subnets are needed to address the VLANs? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. 8 F. 12 G. 24

D. Explanation: Each VLAN needs its own network number. A VLAN is simply a virtual network. Each VLAN ID is a separate virtual network.

A network technician is configuring a router to support inter-VLAN routing. After entering interface G0/0 configuration mode, the network administrator attempts to enter the command encapsulation dot1q 10. The router refuses to accept this command. What could account for this failure? A. Router port G0/0 is not physically connected to the switch. B. VLAN0001 has been renamed. C. R1 interface G0/0 was configured for subinterface operation. D. This command can be configured only on router subinterfaces. E. Interface G0/0 on the switch is shut down.

D. Explanation: G0/0 is a physical interface, and the command given is configured only on subinterfaces.

At which OSPF state are neighbor routers converged and can exchange routing updates? A. Two-Way B. ExStart C. Exchange D. Full

D. Explanation: OSPF neighbors that reach the Full state are converged and can exchange routing information.

When implementing router-on-a-stick, what is necessary for establishing communication between VLANs? A. Multiple switch ports to connect to a single router interface B. Native VLAN IP address that is configured on the router physical interface C. All trunk ports configured in access mode D. Router subinterfaces

D. Explanation: Router-on-a-stick only requires a single trunk port with a native VLAN assigned to one subinterface.

Why should a default gateway be assigned to a switch? A. So that there can be remote connectivity to the switch via such programs as Telnet and ping B. So that frames can be sent through the switch to the router C. So that frames generated from workstations and destined for remote networks can pass to a higher level D. So that other networks can be accessed from the command prompt of the switch

D. Explanation: The default gateway provides a means for the administrator of the switch (from the switch command prompt) to access networks not directly connected to the switch. It also allows for remote connectivity from a different network because when connected, the return packets from the switch can be sent to the remote network device. Answer A would be possible from devices on the same network.

Which option correctly associates the Layer 2 security attack with the description? A. MAC address flooding: Broadcast requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses. B. DHCP starvation: Using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain information about a switch. C. CDP attack: The attacker fills the switch MAC address table with invalid MAC addresses. D. Telnet attack: Using brute force password attacks to gain access to a switch.

D. Explanation: The description in A goes with DHCP starvation, in B goes with CDP attack, in C goes with MAC address flooding.

A network administrator enters the following command into Routerl: ip route 192.168.0. 0 255.255.255.0 S 0 / 1 / 0 . Routerl then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet? A. Drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table B. Looks up the MAC address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame C. Performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface before forwarding the packet D. Encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface

D. Explanation: The router will encapsulate the packet for the WAN link and then forward the packet out the S0/1/0 interface. The packet will not be dropped because the destination is in the routing table. The MAC address lookup will not be the next item to do to process the packet. A recursive lookup will not be required as the exit interface is identified in the route statement.

What is the difference between an access port and a trunk port? A. A trunk port belongs to a single VLAN; an access port provides access for multiple VLANs between switches. B. An access port can have a native VLAN, but a trunk port cannot. C. An access port can have only one device attached. D. Multiple VLANs traverse a trunk port, but an access port can belong to a single VLAN.

D. Explanation: The whole purpose of a trunk port is to "carry" multiple VLANs across a single link. Ports placed in access mode can only belong to one VLAN. Two devices can attach to an access port such as an IP phone that connects to a PC and a switch. Trunk ports have a native (untagged) VLAN.

A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router: R1(config)# router ospf 11 R1(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 What does the number 11 represent? A. The autonomous system number to which R1 belongs B. The area number where R1 is located C. The cost of the link to R1 D. The OSPF process ID on R1 E. The administrative distance that is manually assigned to R1

D. Explanation: There is no autonomous system number to configure on OSPF. The area number is located at the end of the network statement. The cost of a link can be modified in the interface configuration mode. The process ID is local to the router.

During the process of encapsulation, how does the PC determine if the packet is destined for a host on a remote network? A. By checking the ARP cache for the destination host MAC address B. By querying the DNS server for the information of the destination host C. By sending a broadcast to the local LAN segment to see if there is any response D. By performing the AND operation on the destination IP address and its own subnet mask

D. Explanation: When a PC needs to encapsulate a frame to send a data packet, it first performs an AND operation with its own IP and subnet mask, which yields the network address. Then it performs another AND operation using the destination IP and the same subnet mask. By comparing the two AND operations results, the PC knows if the destination is on the local LAN or on a remote network.

Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, bounded and triggered updates, and uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.10? A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. EIGRP

D. RIPv1 uses broadcast, not multicast. RIPv2 uses the multicast address 224.0.0.9.

What is the purpose of classifying Cisco IP routing table entries as ultimate route, level 1 route, level 1 parent route, and level 2 child routes? A. To enable the implementation of dynamic routing protocols B. To explain the operation of the routing table as a flat database C. To enable Cisco routers to implement both IPv4 and IPv6 routing D. To explain the operation of the hierarchical structure of the routing table

D. The Cisco IP routing table is not a flat database. It has a hierarchical structure that is used to expedite the lookup process when locating routes and forwarding packets. The terms ultimate route, level 1 route, level 1 parent route, and level 2 child routes describe the operation and the hierarchical nature of the routing table contents.

Which command is used to activate an IPv6 ACL named ENG_ACL on an interface so that the router filters traffic prior to accessing the routing table? A. access-group ipv6_ENG_ACL in B. access-group ipv6_ENG_ACL out C. ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL in D. ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL out E. ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL in F. ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL out

E

The _________________ protocol is an industry standard for trunking.

IEEE 802.1Q

With each listed characteristic on the right, indicate in the blank on the left whether it reflects a normal range VLAN, an extended range VLAN, or VLAN 1. Use N for normal range VLAN, E for extended range VLAN, and 1 for VLAN 1. ____ 1-1005 ____ 1006-4094 ____ Stored in vlan.dat ____ Default management VLAN ____ Default native VLAN ____ All ports are a member of by default ____ Stored in running configuration file

N E N 1 1 1 E

How many physical interfaces are required to perform inter-VLAN routing with each method indicated? Legacy inter-VLAN routing: __________ Router-on-a-stick: _________ Multilayer switching: _________

one physical port per VLAN one physical interface (but multiple subinterfaces) none Explanation: A company could implement routing between VLANs on just a multilayer switch. The switch would have devices connected to a physical interface, but these interfaces do not require any configuration to support inter- VLAN routing.

Classify each item as either router-on-a-stick, Layer 3 switch routing, or both. subinterfaces ____ all VLANs share a single cable ____ multiple SVIs ____ faster ____ trunk mode switch port connection ____ an IP address per VLAN ____ routed port

router-on-a-stick router-on-a-stick Layer 3 switch routing Layer 3 switch routing router on-a-stick both Layer 3 switch routing Explanation: A Layer 3 switch routed port is commonly used when Layer 3 switching is used to route between VLANs. The router-on-a-stick model involves setting up a trunk port on the switch and using subinterfaces on the router.