CH 12 PREPU

When providing preconception care to a client, which instruction will the nurse to provide about medications during pregnancy?

"You need to talk with your health care provider about using all prescription, over-the-counter, and herbal medications." Explanation: Medication use is common during pregnancy, with prevalence estimates generally exceeding 65% and increasing over the years. Pregnant women use a wide variety of both prescription and over-the-counter medications for both pregnancy-related conditions and conditions unrelated to pregnancy conditions. Little is known about the effects of taking most medications during pregnancy. It is best for pregnant women to not take any medications during their pregnancy. At the very least, they should be encouraged to discuss with the health care provider their current medications and any herbal remedies they take so that they can learn about any potential risks should they continue to take them during pregnancy. A common concern of many pregnant women involves the use of over-the-counter medications and herbal agents. Many women consider these products benign simply because they are available without a prescription. Although herbal medications are commonly thought of as "natural" alternatives to other medicines, they can be just as potent as some prescription medications. The nurse should encourage pregnant women to check with their health care providers before taking anything.

A woman in early pregnancy is concerned because she is nauseated every morning. Which measure would be best to help relieve this?

Delay breakfast until mid-morning. Explanation: The cause of morning sickness is unknown. Delaying eating until the nausea passes can be helpful. Aspirin is irritating to the stomach and would increase symptoms.

The nurse is assessing a primipara's fundal height at 36 weeks' gestation and notes the fundus is now located at the xiphoid process of the sternum. The client asks if this is normal. Which response to the client would be best?

"At 36 weeks' gestation, the fundus is in the normal expected location." Explanation: The fundus grows to reach the umbilicus at 20 to 22 weeks and the xiphoid process of the sternum at 36 weeks. Therefore, this fundus is in the normal, expected location. After 36 weeks' gestation, lightening occurs and the fundus will drop ~4 cm below the xiphoid process. Once the fundus reaches the xiphoid process, it cannot go higher without severely compromising maternal respiratory efforts.

The nurse will be assisting a client during an amniocentesis. Which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Be certain she is aware of potential complications. Explanation: The client should be aware of the potential complications and risks, and should sign an informed consent. Narcotics are contraindicated for pregnant woman due to side effects. She should maintain bed rest for the remainder of the day, with light housework the following day and a return to normal activities on the third day. It may take 2 or 3 weeks before the test results come back from the laboratory.

A nurse is providing care to a pregnant woman. To promote optimal outcomes, the nurse would engage in which activity? Select all that apply.

Individualized assessment Counseling Teaching Explanation: Nurses contribute to the success of prenatal care through individualized assessment, counseling, and educating. Assistance with social coordination and authoritarian decision making are not associated with successful prenatal care.

A woman is concerned that orgasm will be harmful during pregnancy. Which statement is factual?

Some women experience orgasm intensely during pregnancy. Explanation: Because of pelvic congestion, orgasm may be achieved more readily by pregnant women than nonpregnant women.

When measuring the diagonal conjugate of a woman's pelvis, the distance between which anatomic landmarks would be used?

anterior surface of the sacral prominence and the anterior surface of the symphysis pubis Explanation: The diagonal conjugate measures the distance between the anterior surface of the sacral prominence and the anterior surface of the inferior margin of the symphysis pubis, or the anterior-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet.

What anatomic area should be examined when assessing Montgomery glands (Montgomery tubercles)?

breasts Explanation: Montgomery glands (Montgomery tubercles) are sebaceous glands on the areola of the breasts and are prominent during pregnancy.

The nurse is describing pregnancy danger signs to a pregnant woman who is in her first trimester. Which danger sign might occur at this point in her pregnancy?

excessive vomiting Explanation: Excessive vomiting is a warning sign in the first trimester. Dyspnea, lower abdominal pressures, and swelling of face or extremities may occur late in pregnancy.

The urine of a woman in her second trimester of pregnancy is found to contain glucose. For which condition should she be tested?

gestational diabetes Explanation: Glycosuria (glucose in the urine) may occur normally during pregnancy; however, if it appears in the urine, the client should be sent for a lab test to rule out gestational diabetes. Preeclampsia, anemia, and hypothyroidism are not related to glucose nor to renal function.

A nurse is educating a pregnant client about physical changes that can occur in pregnancy. Which conditions are associated with physical changes in pregnancy? Select all that apply.

nasal stuffiness and sinus problems thoracic breathing instead of abdominal breathing swollen and tender gums Explanation: During pregnancy, the respiratory system changes to increase lung volume for the fetus. This change can increase estrogen and cause nasal congestion and sensitive, swollen gums. When the fetus is growing, the thoracic muscles and cartilage relax more, and breathing becomes thoracic as the chest broadens. Persistent cough and Kussmaul respirations are not related to pregnancy.

The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed medication to the pregnant client. Which order should the nurse question?

rubella Explanation: Most vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy and are considered teratogenic, such as rubella. Penicillin and acetaminophen may be taken under provider supervision. Folic acid supplementation should be encouraged.

A pregnant woman at her first prenatal visit asks the nurse if it is safe to have sex during her pregnancy. Which client statement alerts the nurse to the need for further teaching?

"I should substitute intercourse with nonsexual touch to avoid harming the fetus." Explanation: Sexual needs may be met through sexual intercourse with a partner as long as the pregnancy is healthy and there are no other risk factors, such as bleeding or rupture of membranes. Pregnancy is a time of a heightened need for touch, which may be met partially by sexual expression, but which can also be met through nonsexual touch, such as massage, caressing, or holding.

The diagonal conjugate of a pregnant woman's pelvis is measured. Which measurement would the nurse interpret as presenting a potential problem?

12.0 cm Explanation: The diagonal conjugate, usually 12.5 cm or greater, indicates the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet. The diagonal conjugate is the most useful measurement for estimating pelvic size because a misfit with the fetal head occurs if it is too small.

What is the most effective way for a nurse to assess a woman's usual food intake during her pregnancy?

Ask her to describe her intake for the last 24 hours. Explanation: A 24-hour food intake history is the best method to assess food intake in all individuals.

A woman has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Which method would be the most effective way for the nurse to initiate data gathering for a health history?

Conduct an interview in a private room to obtain her health history. Explanation: Health interviewing is always conducted best in a quiet, private setting before examination procedures begin.

The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation who reports enjoying her usual slow, long daily walk. The nurse should point out which recommendation to this client?

Continue this as long as she enjoys it. Explanation: Walking is an excellent exercise during pregnancy because it is low impact and increases venous circulation. Exercise should be maintained as long as it is comfortable, but intensity should not increase over what is normally performed.

The client states that the first day of her last menstrual period is March 23. The nurse is most correct to calculate using Naegele rule that the estimated date of delivery is:

December 30 Explanation: Using Naegele rule, since the first day of the client's last menstrual period is March 23, 7 days are added leading to the 30th. Subtracting 3 months from March is December. Thus, December 30 is the estimated date of delivery.

A client in the first trimester reports having nausea and vomiting, especially in the morning. Which instruction would be most appropriate to help prevent or reduce the client's compliant?

Eat dry crackers or toast before rising. Explanation: The nurse should recommend the client eat dry crackers or toast before rising to prevent nausea and vomiting in the morning. Drinking plenty of fluids at bedtime could cause nocturia. Foods such as cheese should be avoided to prevent constipation. Spicy foods could cause heartburn.

A woman who is 4 months pregnant has pyrosis. Which suggestion would the nurse give her?

Eat small meals and do not lie down after meals. Explanation: Pyrosis, or heartburn, occurs in pregnancy because the uterine pressure against the stomach causes regurgitation into the esophagus. Eating small meals and remaining upright limits the possibility of regurgitation.

A 41-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are anxiously awaiting the results of various blood tests to evaluate the fetus for potential Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and spina bifida. Client education should include which information?

Further testing will be required to confirm any diagnosis. Explanation: Nursing management related to marker screening tests consists primarily of providing education about the tests. Remind the couple that a definitive diagnosis is not made without further tests such as an amniocentesis. The blood tests are not definitive but only strongly suggest the possibility of a defect. For some conditions there are no treatments. The couple may request a second set, but the health care provider will probably suggest proceeding with the more definitive methods to confirm the diagnosis.

Before beginning the initial prenatal examination, a nurse should instruct a client to complete what procedure before undressing?

clean-catch urine Explanation: The first procedure a nurse should ask the client to do is obtain a clean-catch, midstream urine before undressing. Lab tests can be done after the examination is complete. At the first visit, the fetus is too small to be measured or have an ultrasound performed.

A woman calls the prenatal clinic and says that she thinks she might be in labor. She shares her symptoms over the phone with the nurse and asks what to do. The nurse determines that she is likely in true labor and that she should head to the hospital. Which symptom is an indicator of true labor?

contractions beginning in the back and sweeping forward across the abdomen Explanation: True labor contractions usually begin in the back and sweep forward across the abdomen similar to tightening of a rubber band. They gradually increase in frequency and intensity over a period of hours. Lightening and intermittent backache are preliminary signs of labor but do not indicate true labor. Increase in fetal kick count does not indicate true labor.

A client presents to the health care clinic for her first prenatal checkup. What nutritional supplement should the nurse discuss with the client to prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus?

folic acid Explanation: Pregnant women need to consume 400 mcg of folic acid to help prevent neural tube defects. This can be achieved by eating fruits, vegetables, fortified cereals, or a daily supplement. Routine supplementation of all other vitamins is based solely on needs assessment. Iron supplements are recommended to prevent iron deficient anemia.

By the time a woman is 36 weeks' gestation, where would the nurse expect to find the uterus?

near the bottom of the sternum Explanation: By 20 weeks' gestation, the uterus is at about the umbilicus; by 36 weeks, it nears the bottom of the sternum.

Which client immunization titer is most important to assess and document in the prenatal record of the pregnant woman?

rubella Explanation: Rubella (German measles) is an infection caused by the rubella virus. The virus causes a rash and mild symptoms in children but can be teratogenic to a fetus. A rubella titer determines if the mother is immune to the virus. If the mother is not immune, she will receive a rubella immunization immediately after delivery. Diphtheria and polio are infant vaccines but not as teratogenic to the fetus. Rotavirus is a gastrointestinal virus typically mild in adults.

After teaching the pregnant woman about ways to minimize flatulence and bloating during pregnancy, the nurse understands that which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?

"I'll switch to chewing gum instead of using mints." Explanation: Eating mints can help reduce flatulence; chewing gum increases the amount of air that is swallowed, increasing gas build-up. Increasing fluid intake helps to reduce flatus. Gas-forming foods such as beans, cabbage, and onions should be avoided. Increasing physical exercise, such as walking, aids in reducing flatus.

A client who is in her first trimester is anxious to have an ultrasound at each visit. The nurse explains that it is not necessary and schedules a second ultrasound to be performed when she is about:

18 to 20 weeks' pregnant. Explanation: There are no hard-and-fast rules as to how many ultrasounds a woman should have during her pregnancy; however, the first ultrasound is usually performed during the first trimester to confirm the pregnancy. A second scan may be performed at about 18 to 20 weeks' to look for congenital malformations. A third one may be done at around 34 weeks' to evaluate fetal size and verify placental position.

At the first prenatal visit, the client reports her last menstrual period (LMP) was November 16. The nurse determines the estimated due date to be:

August 23 Explanation: There are several methods to determine the estimated date of birth. Naegele rule can be used, which involves subtracting 3 months and then adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP. Then correct the year by adding 1 where necessary. Another method is to add 7 days and then add 9 months and add 1 to the year where needed. Thus the client reports her LMP was November 16 subtract 3 months (August), add 7 days (23), and adjust the year by adding 1 year. This client's estimated date of birth is August 23, in the following year.

A client in her third month of pregnancy arrives at the health care facility for a regular follow-up visit. The client reports discomfort due to increased urinary frequency. Which instruction should the nurse offer the client to reduce the client's discomfort?

Avoid consumption of caffeinated drinks. Explanation: To reduce the client's urinary frequency, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid consuming caffeinated drinks, since caffeine stimulates voiding patterns. The nurse instructs the client to drink fluids between meals rather than with meals if the client complains of nausea and vomiting. The nurse instructs the client to avoid an empty stomach at all times, to prevent fatigue. The nurse also instructs the client to munch on dry crackers or toast early in the morning before arising if the client experiences nausea and vomiting; this would not help the client experiencing urinary frequency.

A client at 27 weeks' gestation still walks daily but reports "terrible" heartburn at night. Which action should the nurse point out will best address this situation?

Elevate the head of the bed. Explanation: Heartburn is a common problem worsening as the pregnancy progresses. The pregnancy hormones relax the lower esophageal sphincter, resulting in increased heartburn. Elevation of the head of the bed will help prevent the acid from refluxing. Exercise does not negatively impact heartburn and should be continued. The pregnant mother should not take any medication that is not prescribed by her primary care provider. Heartburn is not a medical emergency.

A woman reports that her last menstrual period (LMP) occurred February 1, 2017. Using the Naegele rule, what would be her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

November 8, 2017 Explanation: To determine the due date using Naegele rule, add 7 days to the date of the first day of the LMP, and then subtract 3 months.

The nurse is teaching a pregnant client some nonpharmacologic ways to handle common situations encountered during pregnancy. The nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly chooses which condition that can be minimized if she avoids drinking fluids with her meals?

heartburn Explanation: Filling the stomach with heavy food and fluid can cause overfill and place pressure on the stomach, increasing gastric reflux. Avoid excess fluids with meals and eat small frequent meals to avoid heartburn. Nosebleeds result from increased estrogen. Blood clots can result from sitting still for too long. Constipation can result from increased progesterone.

A woman who is pregnant for the first time has arrived to the labor department thinking she was in labor only to be diagnosed with Braxton Hicks contractions and sent home. Prior to leaving the unit, the woman asks, "How will I know when it is 'true' labor?" Which signs/symptoms should the woman associate with true labor? Select all that apply.

pain in back that wraps across the abdomen and increases in frequency and intensity pink-tinged blood and mucus mixture on underwear sudden gush of clear fluid coming from the vagina Explanation: True labor contractions usually begin in the back and sweep forward across the abdomen similar to the tightening of a rubber band. They gradually increase in frequency and intensity over a period of hours. As the cervix softens and ripens, the mucus plug that filled the cervical canal during pregnancy is expelled. The exposed cervical capillaries seep blood as a result of pressure exerted by the fetus. This blood, mixed with mucus, takes on a pink tinge and is referred to as "show" or "bloody show." Labor may begin with rupture of the membranes, experienced either as a sudden gush or as a scanty, slow seeping of clear fluid from the vagina. Leaking colostrum from the nipples can occur throughout the pregnancy. Occasionally, a woman notices urinary incontinence (involuntary loss of urine on coughing or sneezing) during pregnancy.

During the initial obstetrical clinic visit, the nurse shares with a client that several blood studies will be drawn. What screening is performed for black women because of the ethnically inherited nature of the disease? ×

sickle-cell trait or disease Explanation: A genetic screen is common for ethnically inherited diseases. Black women, for example, may have a blood sample taken to screen for sickle-cell trait or disease. Asian and Mediterranean women may be screened for beta-thalassemia, those with Jewish ancestry may be screened for Tay-Sachs disease, and white women may be tested to see if they are a carrier for cystic fibrosis.

The nurse is completing the initial assessment at the prenatal visit of a pregnant client. Which question should the nurse prioritize when completing the review of systems?

"Have you had any urinary tract infections?" Explanation: It is important to ensure the woman does not have any current infections as they can all contribute to adverse effects in the pregnancy. Any conditions the woman has had in the past may recur or be exacerbated during pregnancy. It is also possible for the woman to currently have a low-grade infection and not be aware of it. A urine culture may be required to ensure the woman does not currently have an infection. UTIs can contribute to premature labor.

A nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client has a 4-year-old child who was delivered at 38 weeks' gestation and tells the nurse that she does have a history of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) within the first trimester. The nurse is correct to document the history as:

G = 3, T = 1, P = 0, A = 1, L = 1 Explanation: The GTPAL stands for Gravida -- number of pregnancies, which is 3 (current, 4-year-old, and miscarriage); Term -- only one pregnancy thus far carried to term; Preterm deliveries -- 0; Abortions (including miscarriages) -- 1; Living children -- 1. Do not be distracted by the twins. That is still one pregnancy.

A 28-year-old client who has just conceived arrives at a health care facility for her first prenatal visit to undergo a physical examination. Which intervention should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the physical examination?

Instruct the client to empty her bladder. Explanation: When preparing the client for a physical examination, the nurse should instruct the client to empty her bladder; the nurse should then collect the urine sample so that it can be sent for laboratory tests to detect possibilities of a urinary tract infection. The client need not lie down, take deep breaths, or have the family present; however, it is important for the nurse to ensure that the client feels comfortable.

A pregnant client has come to a clinic for a pelvic examination. What assessments should a nurse perform when examining external genitalia?

any infection due to hematomas, varicosities, and inflammation Explanation: While examining external genitalia, the nurse should assess for any infection due to hematomas, varicosities, inflammation, lesions, and discharge. The nurse assesses for a long, smooth, thick, and closed cervix when examining the internal genitalia. Other assessments when examining the internal genitalia include assessing for bluish coloration of cervix and vaginal mucosa and conducting a rectal examination to assess for lesions, masses, prolapse, or hemorrhoids.

Encouraging routine prenatal visits is an important function for nurses to ensure the clients avoid complications or difficulties throughout the pregnancy and birth. The nurse would prepare to screen clients for gestational diabetes at which time during the pregnancy?

between 24 and 28 weeks' gestation Explanation: Screening for gestational diabetes is best done between 24 and 28 weeks' gestation, unless screening is warranted in the first trimester for high-risk reasons. If the initial screening is elevated, then further testing should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis.

The nurse is assessing a client at 30 weeks' gestation who reports increased constipation. Which suggestion should the nurse prioritize for this client?

increasing fluid intake Explanation: Increasing fluid content by drinking at least 8 glasses of noncaffeinated beverages helps relieve constipation in both pregnant and nonpregnant women. Reducing an iron supplement could lead to anemia; mineral oil can reduce absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. The client should add foods rich in fiber, which would include grains, vegetables, and fruits (instead of meat).

An adolescent at 8 weeks' gestation is at her first prenatal visit. During the health history interview, the nurse asks the client, "Are you afraid of anyone?" What is the nurse assessing with this question?

intimate partner violence Explanation: Pregnant women, especially adolescents, are at increased risk for intimate partner violence. The nurse needs to ask enough questions to be certain that the woman is not experiencing physical, sexual, or emotional intimate partnership violence.

A pregnant woman experiences frequent leg cramps. Which measure would the nurse include in her teaching plan to provide her with relief?

extending her knee and dorsiflexing her foot Explanation: Dorsiflexing the foot with the knee extended is an effective method for relieving cramps in the calf muscle, the most frequently affected muscle.

A nurse is conducting a class geared toward changes in early pregnancy and self-care items like perineal hygiene. A woman shares that she douches at least once a day since she has "so much discharge" from her vagina. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?

"During pregnancy, you should not douche because it can cause fluid to enter the cervix resulting in an infection." Explanation: Even if vaginal discharge seems excessive, douching is contraindicated because the force of the irrigating fluid could cause the solution to enter the cervix, leading to a uterine infection. In addition, douching alters the pH of the vagina, leading to an increased risk of vaginal bacterial growth. Stating that douching will keep the client clean does not provide the client with the information she needs. Boiling water for a douche will not prevent development of infection. The nurse is capable of responding to the client directly without referring the client to the health care provider.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 months pregnant. Which instruction is the nurse most likely to give her?

Rest on the left side for at least 1 hour in the morning and afternoon. Explanation: During the last months of pregnancy, the nurse should instruct the woman to rest on her left side for at least 1 hour in the morning and afternoon. This position relieves fetal pressure on the renal veins, helps the kidneys excrete fluid, and increases flow of oxygenated blood to the fetus. The body's oil and sweat glands are more active than usual during pregnancy. Thus, a daily warm bath or shower is important, rather than a hot bath, which may produce hyperthermia. Nipple exercises and stimulation should not be done, especially in the third trimester, when they can cause uterine contractions and premature labor. Lanolin ointment may damage the areola and nipple. It has not been shown to be effective in preventing sore and cracked nipples. Lanolin is also a common allergen and may contain insecticide residuals such as DDT.