Ch 23: Management of Patients With Chest and Lower Respiratory Tract Disorders

A client has been hospitalized for treatment of acute bacterial pneumonia. Which outcome indicates an improvement in the client's condition? a) The client has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 90 mm Hg or higher. b) The client exhibits bronchial breath sounds over the affected area. c) The client exhibits restlessness and confusion. d) The client has a partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) value of 65 mm Hg or higher.

A

A client who is diagnosed with chronic respiratory failure will have which of the following symptoms? a) Dyspnea b) Hypercapnia c) Hypoxemia d) Ventilatory failure

A

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical floor. Which client is at greatest risk for developing pneumonia? a) A client with a nasogastric tube b) A client who is receiving acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain c) A client who ambulates in the hallway every 4 hours d) A client with a history of smoking two packs of cigarettes per day until quitting 2 years ago

A

A positive Mantoux test indicates that a client: a) has produced an immune response. b) has an active case of tuberculosis. c) will develop full-blown tuberculosis. d) is actively immune to tuberculosis.

A

After 48 hours, a Mantoux test is evaluated. At the site, there is a 10 mm induration. This finding would be considered: a) Significant b) Negative c) Nonreactive d) Not significant

A

For a patient with pleural effusion, what does chest percussion over the involved area reveal? a) Dullness over the involved area b) Absent breath sounds c) Fluid presence d) Friction rub

A

The new client on the unit was admitted with acute respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory failure? a) Sudden onset in client who had normal lung function b) Insidious onset in client who had normal lung function c) Insidious onset in client who had compromised lung function d) Sudden onset in client who had compromised lung function

A

The nurse is assessing a patient who, following an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse assesses for which early, most common sign of ARDS? a) Rapid onset of severe dyspnea b) Cyanosis c) Inspiratory crackles d) Bilateral wheezing

A

The nurse is collaborating with a community group to develop plans to reduce the incidence of lung cancer in the community. Which of the following would be most effective? a) Classes at community centers to teach about smoking cessation strategies b) Advertisements in public places to encourage cigarette smokers to have yearly chest x-rays c) Legislation that requires homes and apartments be checked for asbestos leakage d) Public service announcements on television to promote the use of high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters in homes

A

What is the reason for chest tubes after thoracic surgery? a) Draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary. b) Chest tubes allow air into the pleural space. c) Chest tubes indicate when the lungs have re-expanded by ceasing to bubble. d) Draining secretions and blood while allowing air to remain in the thoracic cavity is necessary.

A

Which of the following should a nurse encourage in patients who are at the risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections? a) Receiving vaccination b) Using prescribed opioids c) Using incentive spirometry d) Mobilizing early

A

You are caring for a client with chronic respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of chronic respiratory failure? a) Progressive loss of lung function associated with chronic disease b) Sudden loss of lung function associated with chronic disease c) Progressive loss of lung function with history of normal lung function d) Sudden loss of lung function with history of normal lung function

A

A 23-year-old male client who has recently started working in a coal mine confides that he is concerned about his long-term health. The nurse instructs the client which of the following ways to prevent occupational lung disease? Select all that apply. a) Do not smoke or quit smoking if currently smoking. b) Wear appropriate protective equipment when around airborne irritants and dusts. c) Schedule an annual lung x-ray to monitor his health. d) Try to find another occupation as soon as possible.

AB

A 73-year-old client is admitted to the pulmonology unit of the hospital. She was admitted with a pleural effusion and was "tapped" to drain the fluid to reduce her mediastinal pressure. How much fluid is typically present between the pleurae, which surround the lungs, to prevent friction rub? a) No fluid normally is present b) 5 - 15 ml c) 15 - 25 ml d) 20 - 30 ml

B

A Class 1 with regards to TB indicates a) disease that is not clinically active. b) exposure and no evidence of infection. c) no exposure and no infection. d) latent infection with no disease.

B

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect? a) Pulmonary embolism b) Pneumothorax c) Heart failure d) Myocardial infarction (MI)

B

A client who has started therapy for drug-resistant tuberculosis demonstrates understanding of tuberculosis transmission when he says: a) "My tuberculosis isn't contagious after I take the medication for 24 hours." b) "I'll stop being contagious when I have a negative acid-fast bacilli test." c) "I'm contagious as long as I have night sweats." d) "I'm clear when my chest X-ray is negative."

B

A client who underwent surgery 12 hours ago has difficulty breathing. He has petechiae over his chest and complains of acute chest pain. What action should the nurse take first? a) Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning. b) Initiate oxygen therapy. c) Administer a heparin bolus and begin an infusion at 500 units/hour. d) Administer analgesics as ordered.

B

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder? a) Traumatic pneumothorax b) Tension pneumothorax c) Cardiac tamponade d) Simple pneumothorax

B

A nurse assesses arterial blood gas results for a patient in acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following results are consistent with this disorder? a) pH 7.35, PaCO2 48 mm Hg b) pH 7.28, PaO2 50 mm Hg c) pH 7.46, PaO2 80 mm Hg d) pH 7.36, PaCO2 32 mm Hg

B

A nurse is caring for a patient after a thoracentesis. Which of the following signs if noted in the patient should be reported to the physician immediately? a) "Patient has subcutaneous emphysema around needle insertion site." b) "Patient is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain." c) "Patient is drowsy and complains of headache." d) "Patient has an oxygen saturation level of 93%."

B

A nurse is reviewing a client's X-ray. The X-ray shows an endotracheal (ET) tube placed 3/4? (2 cm) above the carina and reveals nodular lesions and patchy infiltrates in the upper lobe. Which interpretation of the X-ray is accurate? a) The X-ray is inconclusive. b) A disease process is present. c) The ET tube must be pulled back. d) The ET tube must be advanced.

B

A nurse recognizes that a client with tuberculosis needs further teaching when the client states: a) "I'll have to take these medications for 9 to 12 months." b) "The people I have contact with at work should be checked regularly." c) "I'll need to have scheduled laboratory tests while I'm on the medication." d) "It won't be necessary for the people I work with to take medication."

B

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment? a) Daily oral doses of isoniazid (Nydrazid) and rifampin (Rifadin) for 6 months to 2 years b) Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year c) Isolation until 24 hours after antitubercular therapy begins d) Nothing, until signs of active disease arise

B

A recent immigrant is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement with this client? a) Client teaching about the cause of TB b) Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact c) Client teaching about the importance of TB testing d) Reviewing the risk factors for TB

B

After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against tuberculosis. The client's daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy? a) 1 to 3 weeks b) 6 to 12 months c) 2 to 4 months d) 3 to 5 days

B

An elderly client is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Upset and tearful, he asks the nurse how long he must be separated from his family. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this client? a) Social isolation b) Deficient knowledge (disease process and treatment regimen) c) Impaired social interaction d) Anxiety

B

Arterial blood gas analysis would reveal which of the following related to acute respiratory failure? a) pH 7.35 b) pH 7.28 c) PaCO 32 mm Hg d) PaO 80 mm Hg

B

On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax? a) Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax b) Absence of breath sounds in the right thorax c) Bilateral pleural friction rub d) Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles

B

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-year-old near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication? a) Atelectasis b) Acute respiratory distress syndrome c) Metabolic alkalosis d) Respiratory acidosis

B

The client, with a lower respiratory airway infection, is presenting with the following symptoms: fever, chills, dry hacking cough, and wheezing. Which nursing diagnosis best supports the assessment by the nurse? a) Risk for Infection b) Ineffective Airway Clearance c) Ineffective Breathing Pattern d) Impaired Gas Exchange

B

The nurse identifies which finding to be most consistent prior to the onset of acute respiratory distress? a) Chronic lung disease b) Normal lung function c) Loss of lung function d) Slow onset of symptoms

B

The nurse is interpreting blood gases for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which set of blood gas values indicates respiratory acidosis? a) pH 7.47, PaCO2 28, HCO3 30 b) pH 7.25, PaCO2 48, HCO3 24 c) pH 7.87, PaCO2 38, HCO3 28 d) pH 7.49, PaCO2 34, HCO3 25

B

When caring for a client with acute respiratory failure, the nurse should expect to focus on resolving which set of problems? a) Hyperventilation, hypertension, and hypocapnia b) Hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia c) Hypotension, hyperoxemia, and hypercapnia d) Hyperoxemia, hypocapnia, and hyperventilation

B

Which of the following is a key characteristic of pleurisy? a) Blood-tinged secretions b) Pain c) Dyspnea d) Anxiety

B

While caring for a client with a chest tube, which nursing assessment would alert the nurse to a possible complication? a) Bloody drainage is seemed in the collection chamber. b) Crackling is heard when skin around tube is touched. c) Skin around tube is pink. d) Absence of bloody drainage in the anterior/upper tube

B

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute tracheobronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. Which of the following responses from the nurse would be most accurate? a) Drug ingestion b) Chemical irritation c) Direct lung damage d) Aspiration

B

You are caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. What is a cardinal sign of lung cancer? a) Pain on inspiration b) Mucopurulent sputum c) Obvious trauma d) Shortness of breath

B

A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing between acute respiratory distress syndrome and acute respiratory failure? a) Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) b) pH c) Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) d) Bicarbonate (HCO3-)

C

A client is admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should include which intervention in the care plan? a) Keeping the door to the client's room open to observe the client b) Instructing the client to wear a mask at all times c) Putting on an individually fitted mask when entering the client's room d) Wearing a gown and gloves when providing direct care

C

A client is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following nursing assessment is significant in diagnosing this client with flail chest? a) Clubbing of fingers and toes b) Respiratory acidosis c) Paradoxical chest movement d) Chest pain on inspiration

C

A mechanically ventilated patient is receiving a combination of atracurium (Tracrium) and an opioid analgesic morphine. The nurse monitors the patient for which potential complication? a) Pulmonary hypertension b) Cor pulmonale c) Venous thromboemboli d) Pneumothorax

C

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with pneumonia, has a history of falls, and has skin lesions resulting from scratching. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be: a) Risk for falls. b) Ineffective breathing pattern. c) Ineffective airway clearance. d) Impaired tissue integrity.

C

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with empyema. Which of the following interventions does a nurse implement for patients with empyema? a) Institute droplet precautions. b) Do not allow visitors with respiratory infection. c) Encourage breathing exercises. d) Place suspected patients together.

C

A physician stated to the nurse that the patient has fluid noted in the pleural space and will need a thoracentesis. The nurse would expect that the physician will document this fluid as which of the following? a) Pneumothorax b) Hemothorax c) Pleural effusion d) Consolidation

C

A victim has sustained a blunt force trauma to the chest. A pulmonary contusion is suspected. Which of the following clinical manifestations correlate with a moderate pulmonary contusion? a) Respiratory alkalosis b) Productive cough c) Blood-tinged sputum d) Bradypnea

C

Resistance to one of the first-line antituberculotic agents in people who have not had previous treatment is a) tertiary drug resistance. b) secondary drug resistance. c) primary drug resistance. d) multidrug resistance.

C

The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. Which is the best response by the nurse? a) "Chest tube will allow air to be restored to the lung." b) "Chest tubes provide a route for medication instillation to the lung." c) "The tube will drain air from the space around the lung." d) "The tube will drain secretions from the lung."

C

The nurse knows the mortality rate is high in lung cancer clients due to which factor? a) Increased exposure to industrial pollutants b) Increase in women smokers c) Few early symptoms d) Increased incidence among the elderly

C

Which of the following techniques does a nurse suggest to a patient with pleurisy while teaching about splinting the chest wall? a) Use a prescribed analgesic b) Use a heat or cold application c) Turn onto the affected side d) Avoid using a pillow while splinting

C

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder? a) "There are fibrous cysts in the lungs." b) "Early treatment can stop the progression of the disease." c) "The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." d) "Allergic reactions cause inflammation in the lungs."

C

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute bronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. What may induce acute bronchitis? a) Aspiration b) Direct lung damage c) Chemical irritation d) Drug ingestion

C

You are an occupational health nurse in a large ceramic manufacturing company. How would you intervene to prevent occupational lung disease in the employees of the company? a) Provide employees with smoking cessation materials. b) Insist on adequate breaks for each employee. c) Fit all employees with protective masks. d) Give workshops on disease prevention.

C

You are assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli. What finding indicates possible deep vein thrombosis? a) Negative Homan's sign b) Pain in the feet c) Pain in the calf d) Inability to dorsiflex

C

You are caring for a client status post lung resection. When assessing your client you find that the bubbling in the water-seal chamber for the chest tubes is more than you expected. What should you check when bubbling in the water-seal chamber is excessive? a) See if the chest tube is clogged. b) See if the wall suction unit has malfunctioned. c) See if there are leaks in the system. d) See if a kink has developed in the tubing.

C

You are caring for a client who has been diagnosed with viral pneumonia. You are making a plan of care for this client. What nursing interventions would you put into the plan of care for a client with pneumonia? a) Place client on bed rest. b) Offer nutritious snacks 2 times a day. c) Encourage increased fluid intake. d) Give antibiotics as ordered.

C

A 65-year-old client who works construction, and has been demolishing an older building,is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. The nurse is aware that his lung inflammation is most likely caused by exposure to which of the following? a) Silica b) Coal dust c) Pollen d) Asbestos

D

A 67-year-old female client is being discharged postoperative following pelvic surgery. The patient care instructions to prevent the development of a pulmonary embolus would include which of the following? a) Consume majority of fluid intake prior to bed. b) Wear tight-fitting clothing. c) Begin estrogen replacement. d) Tense and relax muscles in lower extremities.

D

A client asks a nurse a question about the Mantoux test for tuberculosis. The nurse should base her response on the fact that the: a) area of redness is measured in 3 days and determines whether tuberculosis is present. b) test stimulates a reddened response in some clients and requires a second test in 3 months. c) presence of a wheal at the injection site in 2 days indicates active tuberculosis. d) skin test doesn't differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection.

D

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is taking medication for the treatment of TB. The nurse should instruct the client that he will be safe from infecting others approximately how long after initiation of the chemotherapy regimen? a) Within 48 hours after initiation of bacteriocidal drugs b) Results vary with each client, so it is difficult to predict c) After completion of 6 months of bacteriocidal drugs d) Two to 3 weeks after initiation of bacteriocidal drugs

D

A client hospitalized with pneumonia has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include when planning this client's care? A) Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees B) Turning the client every 2 hours C) Maintaining a cool room temperature D) Encouraging increased fluid intake

D

A client who works construction and has been demolishing an older building is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. This lung inflammation is most likely caused by exposure to: A) pollen. B) silica. C) coal dust. D) asbestos.

D

A client, who is at risk for pneumonia, has been ordered influenza vaccine. Which statement from the nurse best explains the rationale for this vaccine? a) "Getting the flu can complicate pneumonia." b) "Influenza vaccine will prevent typical pneumonias." c) "Influenza is the major cause of death in the United States." d) "Viruses, like influenza, are the most common cause of pneumonia."

D

A nurse is administering a purified protein derivative (PPD) test to a client. Which statement concerning PPD testing is true? a) A negative reaction always excludes the diagnosis of TB. b) The PPD can be read within 12 hours after the injection. c) A positive reaction indicates that the client has active tuberculosis (TB). d) A positive reaction indicates that the client has been exposed to the disease.

D

A nurse is assessing a client who comes to the clinic for care. Which findings in this client suggest bacterial pneumonia? a) Sore throat and abdominal pain b) Nonproductive cough and normal temperature c) Hemoptysis and dysuria d) Dyspnea and wheezing

D

A nurse is caring for a client with chest trauma. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority? a) Decreased cardiac output b) Anxiety c) Ineffective tissue perfusion (cardiopulmonary) d) Impaired gas exchange

D

A nurse reading a chart notes that the patient had a Mantoux skin test result with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result? a) Uncertain b) Positive c) Borderline d) Negative

D

During discharge teaching, a nurse is instructing a client about pneumonia. The client demonstrates his understanding of relapse when he states that he must: a) follow up with the physician in 2 weeks. b) turn and reposition himself every 2 hours. c) maintain fluid intake of 40 oz (1,200 ml) per day. d) continue to take antibiotics for the entire 10 days.

D

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the patient understands the information if the patient correctly states which of the following early signs of exacerbation? a) Fever b) Headache c) Weight loss d) Shortness of breath

D

The nursing instructor is discussing pulmonary arterial hypertension with the nursing students. What would the instructor describe as the pathophysiology of secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension? a) Bronchial thickening causes increased resistance and pressure in the pulmonary vascular bed. b) Chronic lung disease causes scaring in the bronchioles raising pressure in the pulmonary vascular bed. c) Left-sided heart failure causes increased resistance and pressure in the pulmonary vascular bed. d) Alveolar destruction causes increased resistance and pressure in the pulmonary vascular bed.

D

The nursing instructor is talking with the junior class of nursing students about lung cancer. What would be the best rationale the instructor could give for the difficulty of early diagnosis of lung cancer? a) Symptoms are often minimized by clients. b) There are no early symptoms of lung cancer. c) Symptoms often mimic other infectious diseases. d) Symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established.

D

The patient with a chest tube is being transported to X-ray. Which complication may occur if the chest tube is clamped during transportation? a) Flail chest b) Cardiac tamponade c) Pulmonary contusion d) Tension pneumothorax

D

Which action should the nurse take first in caring for a client during an acute asthma attack? A) Send for STAT chest x-ray. B) Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess pulse oximetry in 10 minutes. C) Obtain arterial blood gases. D) Administer bronchodilator as ordered.

D

Which of the following interventions does a nurse implement for patients with empyema? a) Institute droplet precautions b) Do not allow visitors with respiratory infections c) Place suspected patients together d) Encourage breathing exercises

D

Which of the following is a true statement regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? a) Constipation usually develops b) It is spread by fecal contamination c) Hypothermia will occur d) It is the most contagious during the second week of illness

D

Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and women? a) Large cell carcinoma b) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Small cell carcinoma d) Adenocarcinoma

D

Which type of pneumonia has the highest incidence in AIDS patients and patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer? a) Fungal b) Streptococcal c) TB d) Pneumocystis

D

Which vitamin is usually administered with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy? a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B6

D

You are an ICU nurse caring for a client who was admitted with a diagnosis of smoke inhalation. You know that this client is at increased risk for which of the following? a) Bronchitis b) Lung cancer c) Tracheobronchitis d) Acute respiratory distress syndrome

D

A client admitted to the facility for treatment for tuberculosis receives instructions about the disease. Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further instruction? a) "I'll stay in isolation for 6 weeks." b) "This disease may come back later if I am under stress." c) "I'll have to take the medication for up to a year." d) "I'll always have a positive test for tuberculosis."

a) "I'll stay in isolation for 6 weeks." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll be in isolation for 6 weeks. The client needs to be in isolation for 2 weeks, not 6, while taking the tuberculosis drugs. After 2 weeks of antitubercular therapy, the client is no longer considered contagious. The client needs to receive the drugs for 9 months to a year. He'll be positive when tested and if he's sick or under some stress he could have a relapse of the disease. pg.587

A client admitted with pneumonia has a history of lung cancer and heart failure. A nurse caring for this client recognizes that he should maintain adequate fluid intake to keep secretions thin for ease in expectoration. The amount of fluid intake this client should maintain is: a) 1.4 L. b) unspecified. c) 2 L. d) 3 L.

a) 1.4 L. Explanation: Clients need to keep their secretions thin by drinking 2 to 3 L of clear liquids per day. In clients with heart failure, fluid intake shouldn't exceed 1.5 L daily. pg.582

Approximately what percentage of people who are initially infected with TB develop active disease? a) 10% b) 40% c) 20% d) 30%

a) 10% Explanation: Approximately 10% of people who are initially infected develop active disease. The other percentages are inaccurate. pg.587

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Apply a compression dressing to the area. b) Record the observation. c) Measure the patient's pulse oximetry. d) Report the finding to the physician immediately.

a) Apply a compression dressing to the area. Explanation: Subcutaneous emphysema is a typical postoperative finding in the patient after chest surgery. During surgery the air within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure. Subcutaneous emphysema is absorbed by the body spontaneously after the underlying leak is treated or halted. pg.616

You are an occupational nurse completing routine assessments on the employees where you work. What might be revealed by a chest radiograph for a client with occupational lung diseases? a) Fibrotic changes in lungs b) Hemorrhage c) Damage to surrounding tissues d) Lung contusion

a) Fibrotic changes in lungs Explanation: For a client with occupational lung diseases, a chest radiograph may reveal fibrotic changes in the lungs. Hemorrhage, lung contusion, and damage to surrounding tissues are possibly caused by trauma due to chest injuries. pg.606

What are the conditions that make up Virchow's triad? Select all that apply. a) Hypocoagulability b) Disruption of the vessel lining c) Edema d) Hypercoagulability e) Venostasis

a) Hypercoagulability b) Disruption of the vessel lining e) Venostasis Explanation: Three conditions, referred to as Virchow's triad, predispose a person to clot formation: venostasis, disruption of the vessel lining, and hypercoagulability. Edema plays no part in Virchow's triad. pg.846

The nursing instructor is teaching students about the types of lung cancer. Which type of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and can arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma b) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Bronchoalveolar carcinoma d) Adenocarcinoma

a) Large cell carcinoma Explanation: Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. Bronchoalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow growing. Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located. pg.606

You've been invited to speak to the Hospital Guild of the hospital where you practice nursing. You've been asked to address "Communicable Diseases of Winter" and are speaking to a large group of volunteer women, most of whom are older than 60 years. What practices should you encourage in these women, who are at the risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections? Select all that apply. a) Receiving vaccinations b) Techniques for incentive spirometry c) Hand antisepsis d) Using prescribed opioids

a) Receiving vaccinations c) Hand antisepsis b) Techniques for incentive spirometry Explanation: A powerful weapon against the spread of communicable disease is effective and frequent handwashing. Teaching the Guild members the proper method and times to wash their hands go a long way in disease prevention. The pneumococcal vaccine provides specific prevention against pneumococcal pneumonia and other infections caused by S. pneumoniae. pg.571

A client admitted with multiple traumatic injuries receives massive fluid resuscitation. Later, the physician suspects that the client has aspirated stomach contents. The nurse knows that this client is at highest risk for: a) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). b) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). c) bronchial asthma. d) renal failure.

a) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Explanation: A client who receives massive fluid resuscitation or blood transfusions or who aspirates stomach contents is at highest risk for ARDS, which is associated with catastrophic events, such as multiple trauma, bacteremia, pneumonia, near drowning, and smoke inhalation. COPD refers to a group of chronic diseases, including bronchial asthma, characterized by recurring airflow obstruction in the lungs. Although renal failure may occur in a client with multiple trauma (depending on the organs involved), this client's history points to an assault on the respiratory system secondary to aspiration of stomach contents and massive fluid resuscitation. pg.596

A client with unresolved hemothorax is febrile, with chills and sweating. He has a nonproductive cough and chest pain. His chest tube drainage is turbid. A possible explanation for these findings is: a) empyema. b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. c) infected chest tube wound site. d) lobar pneumonia.

a) empyema. Explanation: Any condition that produces fluid accumulation or sequestration of fluid with infective properties can lead to empyema, an accumulation of pus in a body cavity, especially the pleural space, as a result of bacterial infection. An infected chest tube site, lobar pneumonia, and P. carinii pneumonia can lead to fever, chills, and sweating associated with infection. However, in this case, turbid drainage indicates that empyema has developed. Pneumonia typically causes a productive cough. An infected chest tube wound would cause redness and pain at the site, not turbid drainage. pg.594

A nurse is preparing instructions for a patient with a lung abscess regarding dietary recommendations. Which of the following statements would be included in the plan of care? a) "You must consume a diet low in calories, such as skim milk, fresh fruits, and vegetables." b) "You must consume a diet rich in protein, such as chicken, fish, and beans." c) "You must consume a diet high in carbohydrates, such as bread, potatoes, and pasta." d) "You must consume a diet low in fat by limiting dairy products and concentrated sweets."

b) "You must consume a diet rich in protein, such as chicken, fish, and beans." Explanation: For a patient with a lung abscess the nurse encourages a diet that is high in protein and calories to ensure proper nutritional intake. A carbohydrate-dense diet or diets with limited fats are not advisable for a patient with a lung abscess. pg.592

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound and is now presenting dyspnea, tachypnea, and sucking noise heard on inspiration and expiration. The nurse should care for the wound in which manner? a) Apply vented dressing. b) Apply airtight dressing. c) Apply direct pressure to the wound. d) Clean the wound and leave open to the air.

b) Apply airtight dressing. Explanation: The client has developed a pneumothorax, and the best action is to prevent further deflation of the affected lung by placing an airtight dressing over the wound. A vented dressing would be used in a tension pneumothorax, but because air is heard moving in and out, a tension pneumothorax is not indicated. Applying direct pressure is required if active bleeding is noted. pg.613

The nurse is obtaining data from a client with a respiratory disorder. Which information would be considered a part of the functional assessment and assist in the diagnosis of an occupational lung disease? a) Cough and dyspnea b) Black-streaked sputum c) Tenacious secretions d) Barrel chest

b) Black-streaked sputum Explanation: A functional assessment provides data on the lifestyle, living environment, and work environment of the client, which can contribute to lung disorders. A black-tinged sputum is suggestive of prolonged exposure to coal dust. Cough, dyspnea, and tenacious secretions are vague respiratory symptoms that are not specific to occupational lung disease. The presence of barrel chest is indicative of trapped oxygen in the lungs over a prolonged period of time. pg.606

A victim of a motor vehicle accident has been brought to the emergency room. The patient is exhibiting paradoxical chest expansion and respiratory distress. Which of the following chest disorders should be suspected? a) Cardiac tamponade b) Flail chest c) Simple pneumothorax d) Pulmonary contusion

b) Flail chest Explanation: When a flail chest exists, during inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. On expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceed atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the patient's ability to exhale. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac. A pulmonary contusion is damage to the lung tissues resulting in hemorrhage and localized edema. A simple pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. pg.611

A patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is restless and has a low oxygen saturation level. If the patient's condition does not improve and the oxygen saturation level continues to decrease what procedure will the nurse expect to assist with in order to assist the patient to breathe easier? a) Administer a large dose of furosemide (Lasix) IVP stat b) Intubate the patient and control breathing with mechanical ventilation c) Schedule the patient for pulmonary surgery d) Increase oxygen administration

b) Intubate the patient and control breathing with mechanical ventilation Explanation: A patient with ARDS may need mechanical ventilation to assist with breathing while the underlying cause of the pulmonary edema can be corrected. The other options are not appropriate. pg.597

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Measure the patient's pulse oximetry b) Record the observation c) Report the finding to the physician immediately d) Apply a compression dressing to the area

b) Record the observation Explanation: Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure. Subcutaneous emphysema is a typical postoperative finding in the patient after chest surgery. Subcutaneous emphysema is absorbed by the body spontaneously after the underlying leak is treated or halted. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes. pg.614

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) bruising. b) redness and induration. c) drainage. d) tissue sloughing.

b) redness and induration. Explanation: The injection site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. Drainage at the injection site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. Sloughing of tissue at the injection site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. pg.588

What dietary recommendations should a nurse provide a patient with a lung abscess? a) A diet low in calories b) A carbohydrate-dense diet c) A diet rich in protein d) A diet with limited fat

c) A diet rich in protein Explanation: For a patient with pleural effusion, a diet rich in protein and calories is pivotal. A carbohydrate-dense diet or diets with limited fat are not advisable for a patient with lung abscess. pg.591

Which of the following community-acquired pneumonias demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall? a) Viral pneumonia b) Mycoplasmata pneumonia c) Legionnaires' disease d) Streptococcal (pneumococcal) pneumonia

c) Legionnaires' disease Explanation: Legionnaires' disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias. Streptococcal pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in winter months. Mycoplasmal pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in fall and early winter. Viral pneumonia demonstrates the greatest incidence during winter months. pg.574

A patient suspected of developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is experiencing anxiety and agitation due to increasing hypoxemia and dyspnea. A nurse would implement which of the following interventions to improve oxygenation and provide comfort for the patient? a) Assist the patient up to a chair b) Force fluids for the next 24 hours c) Position the patient in the prone position d) Administer small doses of pancuronium (Pavulon)

c) Position the patient in the prone position Explanation: The patient is extremely anxious and agitated because of the increasing hypoxemia and dyspnea. It is important to reduce the patient's anxiety because anxiety increases oxygen expenditure. Oxygenation in patients with ARDS is sometimes improved in the prone position. Rest is essential to limit oxygen consumption and reduce oxygen needs. pg.597

Which of the following terms refers to lung tissue that has become more solid in nature due to a collapse of alveoli or an infectious process? a) Bronchiectasis b) Empyema c) Atelectasis d) Consolidation

d) Consolidation Explanation: Consolidation occurs during an infectious process such as pneumonia. Atelectasis refers to the collapse or airless condition of the alveoli caused by hypoventilation, obstruction to the airways, or compression. Bronchiectasis refers to the chronic dilation of a bronchi or bronchi in which the dilated airway becomes saccular and a medium for chronic infection. Empyema refers to accumulation of purulent material in the pleural space. pg.578

A client with lung cancer develops pleural effusion. During chest auscultation, which breath sound should the nurse expect to hear? a) Crackles b) Wheezes c) Rhonchi d) Decreased breath sounds

d) Decreased breath sounds Explanation: In pleural effusion, fluid accumulates in the pleural space, impairing transmission of normal breath sounds. Because of the acoustic mismatch, breath sounds are diminished. Crackles commonly accompany atelectasis, interstitial fibrosis, and left-sided heart failure. Rhonchi suggest secretions in the large airways. Wheezes result from narrowed airways, such as in asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and bronchitis. pg.593

An emergency room nurse is assessing a patient who is complaining of dyspnea. Which of these signs would indicate the presence of a pleural effusion? a) Mottling of the skin upon inspection b) Resonance upon percussion c) Wheezing upon auscultation d) Decreased chest wall excursion upon palpation

d) Decreased chest wall excursion upon palpation Explanation: Symptoms of pleural effusion are shortness of breath, pain, assumption of a position that decreases pain, absent breath sounds, decreased fremitus, a dull, flat sound on percussion, and decreased chest wall excursion. The nurse may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography (CT) scan show fluid in the involved area. pg.593

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a) Activity intolerance b) Impaired oral mucous membranes c) Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements d) Impaired gas exchange

d) Impaired gas exchange Explanation: Although all of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a client with AIDS, Impaired gas exchange is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with P. carinii pneumonia. Airway, breathing, and circulation take top priority for any client. pg.582

Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Bronchoalveolar carcinoma b) Adenocarcinoma c) Squamous cell carcinoma d) Large cell carcinoma

d) Large cell carcinoma Explanation: Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. Bronchoalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow growing. Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located. pg.605

A 62-year-old female client arrives at the office complaining of dyspnea and fatigue. She tells the nurse that she's had a persistent productive cough for the last few months, which she attributes to a bout with the flu. The nurse suspects that this client may have which of the following? a) Pleurisy b) Lung abscess c) Pleural effusion d) Lung cancer

d) Lung cancer Explanation: Early diagnosis of cancer of the lung is difficult because symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established. The sputum is examined for malignant cells. Chest x-rays may or may not show a tumor. With pleurisy, the client's respirations become shallow secondary to excruciating pain. The client may have a dry cough, fatigue easily, and experience dyspnea. Fever, pain, and dyspnea are the most common symptoms of pleural effusion. Signs and symptoms of lung abscess include chills, fever, weight loss, chest pain, and a productive cough. pg.607

A 29-year-old client presents to the ED complaining of dyspnea on exertion and overall weakness. Her pulmonary arterial pressure is 40/15 mm Hg. These symptoms indicate that the client may have which of the following conditions? a) Atelectasis b) Restrictive lung disease c) Asthma d) Pulmonary arterial hypertension

d) Pulmonary arterial hypertension pg.599

Influenza, an annual epidemic in the U.S., creates a significant increase in hospitalizations and an increase in the death rates of pneumonia and cardiovascular disease. Besides death, what is the most serious complication of influenza? a) Tracheobronchitis b) Viral pneumonia c) Cardiovascular disease d) Staphylococcal pneumonia

d) Staphylococcal pneumonia Explanation: Complications include tracheobronchitis, bacterial pneumonia, and cardiovascular disease. Staphylococcal pneumonia is the most serious complication. Although tracheobronchitis is a complication of the flu, it is not the most serious one. Although cardiovascular disease is a complication of the flu, it is not the most serious one. Bacterial, not viral, pneumonia is a possible complication of the flu, although not its most serious one. pg.577

A patient involved in a motor vehicle crash suffered a blunt injury to the chest wall and was brought to the emergency department. The nurse assesses the patient for which clinical manifestation that would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax? a) Bloody, productive cough b) Diminished breath sounds c) Decreased respiratory rate d) Sucking sound at the site of injury

d) Sucking sound at the site of injury Explanation: Open pneumothorax is one form of traumatic pneumothorax. It occurs when a wound in the chest wall is large enough to allow air to pass freely in and out of the thoracic cavity with each attempted respiration. Because the rush of air through the wound in the chest wall produces a sucking sound, such injuries are termed sucking chest wounds pg.614

A 68-year-old male client who underwent thoracic surgery to remove a lung tumor had a chest tube placed anteriorly. The nurse knows that the surgical team places this catheter: a) To administer IV medication b) To ventilate the client c) To remove fluid from the lungs d) To remove air from the pleural space

d) To remove air from the pleural space Explanation: After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand. A catheter placed in the pleural space provides a drainage route through a closed or underwater-seal drainage system to remove air. Sometimes two chest catheters are placed following thoracic surgery—one anteriorly and one posteriorly. The anterior catheter removes air; the posterior catheter removes fluid. Chest tubes are placed to remove anteriorly air from the pleural space following thoracic surgery. The anesthesiologist ventilates the client during surgery. Postsurgery, a chest tube is placed anteriorly to remove air from the pleural space. pg.527

Which of the following comfort techniques does a nurse teach to a patient with pleurisy to assist with splinting the chest wall? a) Elevate the head of the bed b) Use a prescribed analgesic c) Use a heat application d) Turn onto the affected side

d) Turn onto the affected side Explanation: The nurse teaches the patient to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side in order to reduce the stretching of the pleurae and decrease pain. pg.593

Following thoracic surgery, the care plan for a client at risk for impaired gas exchange would include which of the following? Select all that apply. a) Elevate head of bed 30°-40° as tolerated. b) Reinforce preoperative breathing exercises. c) Administer pain medications. d) Maintain accurate record of intravenous intake. e) Monitor vital signs frequently.

e) Monitor vital signs frequently. b) Reinforce preoperative breathing exercises. a) Elevate head of bed 30°-40° as tolerated. Explanation: Nursing management for a client with the goal of maintaining optimal gas exchange includes assessing vital signs frequently, reinforcing preoperative instructions about deep breathing, coughing, and incentive spirometry, and elevating the head of the bed as tolerated. pg.528