CH4 - Data Center Design - Q&A, CH3 - Enterprise LAN Design - Q&A, CCDA - Chapter 2, 200-310 Chapter 1 Questions, Final

A Fast Ethernet uplink is running at 80 percent utilization. Business-critical applications are used. What can be used to minimize packet delay and loss? a. Implement QoS with classification and policing in the distribution layer. b. Add additional VLANs so that the business applications are used on PCs on that VLAN. c. Perform packet bit rewrite in the distribution switches. d. Classify users in the access with different priority bits.

A

A large company has a campus core. What is the best practice for the core campus network? a. Use triangles. b. Use squares. c. Use rectangles. d. Use point-to-point mesh.

A

A network has two distribution switches, A and B, connected via a Layer 2 trunk. Distribution A switch is the STP root and distribution B is the active HSRP gateway. Layer 2 links are used to connect access layer switches to both distribution switches. Which statement is true? a. Traffic will transit from the access switches through distribution switch A through the Layer 2 trunk to distribution switch B. b. An STP loop will be created. c. The access switches will not be able to communicate. d. Loop Guard will prevent the loop from being created.

A

What is an advantage of using the updated Layer 2 access layer design over the traditional model? a. There is an increase of uplink bandwidth. b. The updated model adds routing between distribution and access. c. The access layer switch needs to be able to route. d. Layer 3 load balancing is enabled.

A

Which of the following are data center core layer characteristics? (Select all that apply.) a. 10 and 40GE b. High-latency switching c. Distributed forwarding architecture d. Service modules

A and C. Low-latency switching, distributed forwarding architecture, 10 and 40GE, and scalable IP multicast support.

Which are *four* best practices used in the access layer? a. Disable trunking in host ports. b. Limit VLANS to one closet. c. Use PVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches. d. Enable trunking on host ports. e. Use VLAN spanning to speed convergence of STP. f. Use VTP Server mode in hierarchical networks. g. Use VTP Transparent mode in hierarchical networks. h. Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.

A, B, G, H

Which of the following are examples of logical isolation techniques in which network segments share the same physical infrastructure? *(Select all that apply.)* a. VRF b. VLAN c. VSAN d. VSS

A, B, and C. VRFs, VLANs, and VSANs are examples of network virtualization techniques where logical isolation is used.

Which of the following are drivers for the data center core layer? (Select all that apply.) a. Future growth b. 10 and 40 Gigabit Ethernet density c. Services edge d. Administrative domains and policies

A, B, and D. 10 and 40 Gigabit Ethernet density, administrative domains and polices, and future growth are all drivers for the data center core layer.

Which are *three* best practices used in the distribution layer? a. Use HSRP or GLBP. b. Provide fast transport. c. Use Layer 3 routing protocols to the core. d. Use Layer 2 routing protocols to the core. e. Summarize routes to the core layer. f. Summarize routes to the access layer.

A, C, E

Which are environmental characteristics? *(Select three.)* a. Transmission media characteristics b. Application characteristics c. Distribution of network nodes d. Operating system used e. Remote-site connectivity requirements

A, C, and E.

What primary design factors affect the design of a campus network? *(Select three.)* a. Environmental characteristics b. Number of file servers c. Infrastructure devices d. Fiber and UTP characteristics e. Network applications f. Windows, Linux, and mainframe operating systems

A, C, and E. Network applications, infrastructure devices, and environmental characteristics affect network design.

Which Cisco STP Toolkit mechanisms are recommend on user access ports? a. PortFast b. RootGuard c. UplinkFast d. Loop Guard e. BPDU Guard

A, E

Which are *three* best practices used in the core layer? a. Use routing with no Layer 2 loops. b. Limit VLANs to one closet. c. Use HSRP. d. Use GLBP. e. Use Layer 3 switches with fast forwarding. f. Use Layer 3 routing to the core. g. Use two equal-cost paths to every destination network. h. Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.

A, E, G

Which of the following Cisco Nexus switches support virtual device contexts (VDCs)? a. Cisco Nexus 7000 b. Cisco Nexus 2000 c. Cisco Nexus 5000 d. Cisco Nexus 4000

A. Cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the only switches that support VDCs.

Which of the following is a network adapter that can run at 10GE and support Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)? a. CNA b. VN-Link c. MDS d. NAS

A. Converged network adapters (CNAs) run at 10GE and support FCoE and are available from Emulex and QLogic.

Which of the following data center facility aspects best corresponds with architectural and mechanical specifications? a. Space, load, and power capacity b. PCI, SOX, and HIPPA c. Operating temperature and humidity d. Site access, fire suppression, and security alarms

A. Data center facility aspects such as space, load, power capacity, and cabling are architectural and mechanical specifications.

Which of the following is an example of a peer-to-peer application? a. IP phone call b. Client accessing file server c. Web access d. Using a local server on the same segment

A. IP phone-to-IP phone communication is an example of peer-to-peer communication.

What is the recommended method to connect the distribution switches to the core? a. Redundant triangle links b. Redundant cross-connect links c. Redundant Layer 3 squares d. Redundant Layer 2 links

A. The core and the distribution should be connected using redundant Layer 3 triangular links.

What enables the spanning-tree topology to appear loop-free although multiple redundant paths that are present in the physical topology? a. vPC b. VRF c. Rapid PVST+ d. VDC

A. Virtual Port Channel (vPC) enables the spanning-tree topology to appear loop-free although multiple redundant paths are present in the physical topology.

A company has five floors. It has Layer 2 switches in each floor with servers. It plans to move servers to a new computer room and create a server farm. What should it use? a. Replace all Layer 2 switches with Layer 3 switches. b. Connect the Layer 2 switches to a Layer 3 switch in the computer room. c. Connect the Layer 2 switches to a new Layer 2 switch in the computer room. d. Connect the Layer 2 switches to each other.

B

A network has two distribution switches, A and B, connected via a Layer 2 trunk. Distribution A switch is the HSRP active gateway and STP root. Layer 2 links are used to connect access layer switches to both distribution switches. Which version of spanning tree is recommended? a. PVST+ b. Rapid PVST+ c. MST d. VSS

B

Which requirements drive the use of VLANs in a network? a. Use of non-Cisco equipment b. Separation of broadcast domains and prevention of traffic between departments c. Use of CCTV multicast traffic d. The company budget

B

Cable management is affected by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Alternative cooling technologies b. Number of connections c. Media selection d. Increase in the number of HVAC units

B and C. Cable management is affected by the number of connections and media selection.

What are *two* methods for implementing unified fabric in the data center over 10 Gigabit Ethernet? a. VSS b. FCoE c. iSCSI d. vPC

B and C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) and Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) are two methods for implementing unified fabric in the data center over 10 Gigabit Ethernet.

Why is LAN switching used more than shared LAN technology? *(Select two.)* a. Shared LANs do not consume all available bandwidth. b. Switched LANs offer increased throughput. c. Switched LANs allow two or more ports to communicate simultaneously. d. Switched LANs forward frames to all ports simultaneously.

B, C

What services option provides an effective way to address firewall policy enforcement in a Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switch? a. IPS b. ASA SM c. Nexus 1000V d. VDCs

B. An effective way to address policy enforcement is to use an ASA SM in a Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switch to provide firewall services for the data center.

What network load-balancing option does not work with TCP? a. DNS based b. Anycast based c. Dedicated L4-7 load balancer d. ECMP

B. Anycast based only works reliably for UDP traffic because TCP uses sessions that cannot be maintained while the servers change.

Which of the following is true about data link layer broadcasts? a. Not controlled by routers b. Not forwarded by routers c. Not forwarded by switches d. Not controlled by VLANs

B. Broadcasts are not forwarded by routers and are controlled by VLANs.

What type of LAN switches are preferred in the campus backbone of an enterprise network? a. Layer 2 switches b. Layer 3 switches c. Layer 3 hubs d. Hubs

B. Layer 3 switches are recommended for the backbone of campus networks.

The summarization of routes is a best practice at which layer? a. Access layer b. Distribution layer c. Core layer d. WAN layer

B. Routes are summarized at the distribution layer.

Which layer of the campus network corresponds to the data center aggregation layer? a. Core layer b. Distribution layer c. Access layer d. Server farm

B. The DC aggregation layer is similar to the campus distribution layer.

A campus network of four buildings is experiencing performance problems. Each building contains 400 to 600 devices, all in one IP subnet. The buildings are connected in a hub-and-spoke configuration back to building 1 using Gigabit Ethernet with multimode fiber. All servers are located in building 1. What do you recommend to improve performance? a. Connect all buildings in a ring topology. b. Implement multiple VLANs in each building. c. Move servers to the buildings. d. Use single-mode fiber to make the Gigabit Ethernet links faster.

B. The building subnets are too large and should be further segmented to reduce the broadcast domain.

Which of the following best describes how "cold" and "hot" aisles should be arranged in the data center? a. Hot and cold aisles facing each other b. Alternating pattern of cold and hot aisles c. Nonalternating pattern of hot and cold aisles d. None of the above

B. The cabinets and racks should be arranged in the data center with an alternating pattern of "cold" and "hot" aisles.

Which data center layer provides advanced application and security services and has a large STP processing load? a. Data center access layer b. Data center aggregation layer c. Data center services layer d. Data center core layer

B. The data center aggregation layer supports advanced application and security services and has a large STP processing load.

What best describes the characteristics of the Cisco data center architecture foundation? a. Bare-metal servers b. Network, compute, storage c. Security, IPS, load balancing d. Email and file sharing

B. The data center foundation transparently provides end users application access through the intelligent use of the network, compute, and storage resources.

Which data center architecture layer involves security, IPS, and load balancing? a. User services b. Data center services c. Data center foundation d. Data Center Interconnect

B. The data center services layer resides above the data center foundation and provides the necessary security firewall and IPS services that protect the applications and critical data in the data center.

Which of the following is a distribution layer best practice? a. Reduce switch peering and routing. b. Use HSRP and summarize routes. c. Disable trunking on host ports and use RPVST+. d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers.

B. The use of HSRP and summarization of routes are best practices in the distribution layer.

Link redundancy and infrastructure services are design considerations for which layers? a. Core layer b. Distribution layer c. Access layer d. All of the above

B. These are design considerations for the distribution layer.

Which are the three Cisco network architectures for the enterprise?

Borderless network, data center/virtualization and collaboration are the three architectures for the enterprise

An application used by some users in a department generates significant amounts of bandwidth. Which is a best design choice? a. Rewrite the application to reduce bandwidth. b. Use Gigabit Ethernet connections for those users. c. Put the application users into a separate broadcast domain. d. Add several switches and divide the users into these switches.

C

Company departments are located across several buildings. These departments use several common servers. Network policy and security are important. Where should servers be placed? a. Within all department buildings, and they should duplicate the common servers in each building. b. Connect the common servers to the campus core. c. Use a server farm. d. Connect the servers to the distribution layer.

C

What is a major requirement if you use a Layer 3 access layer design? a. The distribution switches are configured as a VSS pair. b. The core switches need to support EIGRP. c. The access layer switch needs to be able to route. d. HSRP is configured on the distribution switches.

C

Which network application type is most stringent on the network resources? a. Peer-to-peer b. Client to local server c. Client to server farm d. Client to enterprise edge

C

You want to enable physical device virtualization. Which feature provides that? a. VLAN b. VFR c. VSS d. VPN

C

Which are four best practices used in the distribution layer? a. Disable trunking in host ports. b. Limit VLANs to one closet. c. Use HSRP. d. Use GLBP. e. Use VLAN spanning to speed convergence of STP. f. Use Layer 3 routing to the core. g. Summarize routes. h. Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.

C, D, F, G

An enterprise network has grown to multiple buildings supporting multiple departments. Clients access servers that are in local and other buildings. The company security assessment has identified policies that need to be applied. What do you recommend? a. Move all departments to a single building to prevent unauthorized access. b. Move all servers to one of the LAN client segments. c. Move all servers to a server farm segment that is separate from client LANs. d. Move all servers to the building distribution switches.

C. Create a server farm that allows the enforcement of security policies.

Which of the following DCI options does not require a service provider to implement? a. VPLS b. MPLS c. Dark Fiber d. VPWS

C. Dark Fiber can be privately owned. VPLS, MPLS, and VPWS require a service provider to implement.

Which network load balancing option maintains TCP state information locally in its state tables? a. DNS based b. Anycast based c. Dedicated L4-7 load balancer d. ECMP

C. Dedicated L4-7 load balancers maintain TCP state information locally in their state tables.

Which of the following is an access layer best practice? a. Reduce switch peering and routing. b. Use HSRP and summarize routes. c. Disable trunking on host ports and use RPVST+. d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers.

C. Disabling trunking on host ports and using RPVST+ are best practices at the access layer.

Which type of cable is the best solution in terms of cost for connecting an access switch to the distribution layer requiring 140 meters? a. UTP b. Copper c. Multimode fiber d. Single-mode fiber

C. Multimode fiber provides a cost-effective solution for that distance. Single-mode fiber is more expensive. UTP cannot go more than 100 meters.

You need to connect a building access switch to the distribution switch. The cable distance is 135 m. What type of cable do you recommend? a. UTP b. Coaxial cable c. Multimode fiber d. Single-mode fiber

C. Multimode fiber provides the necessary connectivity at the required distance. UTP can reach only 100 m. Single-mode fiber is more expensive.

What DCI technology allows one to extend L2 over any IP network? a. VPLS b. MPLS VPN c. OTV d. VPWS

C. Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) is a Nexus/ASR software feature that provides for L2 extension functionality between data centers over any IP network.

What involves the creation of independent logical paths over a shared network infrastructure? a. Access control b. Services edge c. Path isolation d. Device context

C. Path isolation involves the creation of independent logical network paths over a shared network infrastructure.

Which mechanism transitions an access port directly to forwarding state? a. UplinkFast b. RootGuard c. PortFast d. AccessPortFast

C. PortFast bypasses the listening-learning phase for access ports and goes directly to the port-forwarding state.

Which data center architecture layer provides Layer 2/Layer 3 physical port density for servers in the data center? a. Data center core b. Data center aggregation c. Data center access d. Data center distribution

C. The data center access layer provides Layer 2/Layer 3 physical port density for servers in the data center.

Benefits such as port density for server farms, high-performance low-latency Layer 2 switching, and a mix of oversubscription requirements belong to which data center layer? a. Core b. Distribution c. Access d. Aggregation

C. The data center access layer provides benefits such as port density for server farms, high-performance low-latency Layer 2 switching, and a mix of oversubscription requirements.

What is the maximum segment distance for Fast Ethernet over unshielded twisted pair (UTP)? a. 100 feet b. 500 feet c. 100 meters d. 285 feet

C. The maximum distance of 100BASE-T is 100 meters.

Two workstations are located on separate VLANs. They exchange data directly. What type of application is this? a. Client/server b. Client-peer c. Peer-peer d. Client-enterprise

C. This is a peer-peer application.

Which of the following supports network virtualization technology that allows two physical Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switches to act as a single logical virtual switch? a. VN-Link technology b. Unified fabric c. Virtual Switching System (VSS) d. Virtual routing and forwarding (VRF)

C. Virtual Switching System (VSS) is a network virtualization technology that allows two physical Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switches to act as a single logical virtual switch.

Within the unified computing resources, what defines the identity of the server? a. Virtualization b. Unified fabric c. Services profile d. Virtual machines

C. Within the unified computing resources, the service profile defines the identity of the server. The identity contains many items, such as memory, CPU, network cards, and boot image.

Name two ways to reduce multicast traffic in the access layer.

CGMP and IGMP snooping control multicast traffic at Layer 2. The switch and local router exchange CGMP messages. With IGMP snooping, the switch listens to IGMP messages between the host and the router.

What technology can you use to limit multicasts at Layer 2?

CGMP.

The network-management module has tie-ins to which component(s)?

Campus infrastructure, server farm, Enterprise Edge

In the hierarchical network model, which layer is responsible for fast transport?

Core

Users access servers located on a server VLAN and servers located in departmental VLANs. Users are located in the departmental VLAN. What is the expected traffic flow from users to servers? a. Most traffic is local. b. All traffic requires multilayer switching. c. There is no need for multilayer switching. d. Most of the traffic will have to be multilayer switched.

D

Which Cisco IOS feature simplifies spanning tree topology? a. Rapid PVST+ b. MST c. MISTP 802.1W d. VSS

D

What Nexus technology allows for a physical grouping of copper or fiber switch ports that uplinks to a parent switch such as Nexus 5K or 7K? a. ASA SM b. Nexus 1000v c. VSS d. FEX

D. A Fabric Extender (FEX) is a physical grouping of copper or fiber switch ports that uplinks to a parent switch such as Nexus 5K or 7K.

Which of the following are server connectivity methods in the server farm? a. Single NIC b. EtherChannel c. Content switch d. All of the above

D. All are server connectivity options.

Which of the following are threats to the edge distribution? a. IP spoofing b. Network discovery c. Packet-capture devices d. All of the above

D. All are threats to the enterprise edge distribution.

What has enabled applications to no longer be bound to bare-metal hardware resources? a. Unified fabric b. Device virtualization c. Network virtualization d. Server virtualization

D. As a result of server virtualization, many data center applications are no longer bound to bare-metal hardware resources.

What Cisco Nexus switch helps deliver visibility and policy control for virtual machines (VM)? a. Nexus 7000 b. Nexus 4000 c. Nexus 2000 d. Nexus 1000V

D. Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual switch for VMware ESX and ESXi helps deliver visibility and policy control for VMs.

What is an innovative next-generation data center platform that converges computing, network, storage, and virtualization all together into one system? (Select the best answer.) a. Cisco MDS b. Cisco Nexus 7000 c. Cisco Nexus 5000 d. Cisco UCS

D. Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS) is an innovative next-generation data center platform that converges computing, network, storage, and virtualization all together into one system.

Which of the following uses the highest percentage of power within the overall data center power budget? a. Lighting b. Servers and storage c. Network devices d. Data center cooling

D. Data center cooling requires the most power out of the overall power budget, next to servers and storage.

Which of the following is a *DC aggregation* layer best practice? a. Reduce switch peering and routing. b. Use HSRP and summarize routes. c. Disable trunking and use RPVST+. d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers.

D. Load balancers, SSL offloading, firewalls, and intrusion detection devices are deployed in the DC aggregation layer.

Layer 4 security and application services, including server load balancing, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) offloading, firewalling, and intrusion prevention system (IPS) services are provided by the data center ___________ layer. a. Access b. Routed c. Core d. Aggregation

D. The Layer 4 security and application services in the data center aggregation layer include server load balancing, SSL offloading, firewalling, and IPS services.

Virtualization technologies allow a _________ device to share its resources by creating multiple logical copies of itself. a. Software b. Virtual c. Logical d. Physical

D. Virtualization technologies allow a physical device to share its resources by acting as multiple versions of itself.

In the hierarchical network model, at which layer do security filtering, address aggregation, and media translation occur?

Distribution

Which Enterprise Architecture model component interfaces with the service provider (SP)?

Enterprise edge

What device filters broadcasts? a. Layer 3 switch b. Hub c. Layer 2 switch d. Router e. a and c f. a and d g. a, c, and d

F. Routers and Layer 3 switches are Layer 3 devices that control and filter network broadcasts.

True or false: Layer 2 switches control network broadcasts.

False. Layer 2 switches limit only the collision domain.

True or false: You can configure both CGMP and IGMP snooping in mixed Cisco switch and non-Cisco router environments.

False. You can configure the CGMP only if both the router and switch are Cisco devices. IGMP snooping can be configured in mixed environments.

What device limits the collision domain? a. Layer 2 switch b. Hub c. Layer 3 switch d. Router e. a and c f. c and d g. a, c, and d

G. Every port of a Layer 2 switch, Layer 3 switch, or LAN port on a router is a collision domain.

Which of the following is/are method(s) of workstation-to-router redundancy in the access layer?

HSRP, VRRP

What are two VLAN methods you can use to carry marking CoS on frames?

ISL and IEEE 802.1p/Q are two methods for CoS. ISL was created by Cisco and uses an external tag that contains 3 bits for marking. IEEE 802.1p specifies 3 bits for marking that is carried in the internal tag of IEEE 802.1Q. The IEEE 802.1p specification is not included in the IEEE 802.1D-1998 standard.

What are two methods to mark frames to provide CoS?

Inter-Switch Link (ISL) and IEEE 802.1p/802.1Q.

Network resiliency and control occur in which layer of the borderless network architecture?

Network resiliency and control occur in the borderless network service layer

Presence occurs in which collaboration architecture layer?

Presence occurs under Collaboration Services

Which of the following is an SP edge module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model?

Public Switched Telephone Network Service (PSTN)

Which technology forces affect decisions for the enterprise network?

Removal of borders, virtualization, and growth of applications are technology forces

Which PBM process provides dedicated resources to troubleshoot issues within the network?

Solution Support provides dedicated resources to troubleshoot issues within the network.

True or false: Packet marking is also called coloring.

True.

True or false: Usually, the distribution and core layers are collapsed in medium-size networks.

True.

True or false: IP phones and LAN switches can reassign a frame's CoS bits.

True. IP phones reclassify incoming frames from the PC. Switches can accept or reclassify incoming frames.

True or false: Layer 3 switches bound Layer 2 collision and broadcast domains.

True. Layer 3 switches and routers control both the collision and broadcast domains.

Match each enterprise campus component with its description. i. Campus infrastructure ii. Server farm iii. Edge distribution a. Consists of backbone, building-distribution, and building-access modules b. Connects the campus backbone to the enterprise edge c. Provides redundancy access to the servers

i = A, ii = C, iii = B.

Match each application type with its description. i. Peer to peer ii. Client-local server iii. Client/server farm iv. Client-enterprise edge a. Server on the same segment b. IM c. Web access d. Client accesses database server

i = B, ii = A, iii = D, iv = C

Match each transmission medium with its upper-limit distance. i. UTP ii. Wireless iii. Single-mode fiber iv. Multimode fiber a. 2 km b. 100 m c. 90 km d. 500 m

i = B, ii = D, iii = C, iv = A

Match each LAN medium with its original physical specification. i. Fast Ethernet ii. Gigabit Ethernet iii. WLAN iv. Token Ring v. 10 Gigabit Ethernet a. IEEE 802.3ab b. IEEE 802.11b c. IEEE 802.3u d. IEEE 802.3ae e. IEEE 802.5

i = C, ii = A, iii = B, iv = E, v = D.

Match each LAN device type with its description. i. Hub ii. Bridge iii. Switch iv. Layer 3 switch v. Router a. Legacy device that connects two data link layer segments b. Network layer device that forwards packets to serial interfaces connected to the WAN c. High-speed device that forwards frames between two or more data link layer segments d. High-speed device that bounds data link layer broadcast domains e. Device that amplifies the signal between connected segments

i = E, ii = A, iii = C, iv = D, v = B