Chapter 1

A child using recurrence would say which of the following? A. "Face dirty" B. "All gone juice" C. "More cookie" D. "Doll mine E. "Bicho pasmado"

"more cookie",

The pitch contour of a vowel shows that the pitch begins at 200 hertz (Hz). If the pitch contour is accurate, the period at the beginning of the vowel will be: A. 0.005 sec. B. 0.05 sec. C. 0.005 Hz D. 0.05 Hz

.005 sec, Frequency and period are in an inverse relationship. Period is a time measurement. If F0 = 200 Hz, the period will be 1/200 = 0.005 sec.

The "typical" speaker of Standard American English would produce the word emancipation as A. /Imɑnsʌpe∫^n/ B. /imɑnsʌpeI∫ən/ C. /imænsəpeI∫ən/ D. /Imʌnsʌpe∫n/ E. /Imænsʌpe∫ən/ F. Boy what the hell boy

/imænsəpeɪʃən/, The "typical" speaker of Standard American English would produce the word "emancipation" as /imænsəpeI∫ən/

If a speaker said, "I just love 'em and leave 'em," the phrase can be transcribed as ("I just hit 'em and quit 'em") A. [liv ʊm] B. [lev] [em] C. [liv ʊhm] D. /liv m1/ E. /lev m/

/liv m1/

In examining a spectrogram of the phrase Say sheep produced by a male speaker, you notice that the lower limit of high-amplitude energy noise for both /s/ and /∫/ is near 2500 hertz (Hz). This MOST LIKELY indicates that: A. /s/ is being produced too far back in the mouth B. /s/ is being produced too far forward in the mouth C. /∫/ is being produced too far back in the mouth D. /∫/ is being produced too far forward in the mouth

/s/ is being produced too far back in the mouth, The cutoff of high-amplitude energy for sibilant fricatives is related to the size of the oral cavity in front of the obstruction. For /s/, the obstruction should be further forward than for /∫/, resulting in a smaller air pocket and a higher cutoff frequency. The /∫/ is expected to have a cutoff frequency around 2500 Hz. If /s/ has a similar cutoff frequency, then /s/ is being produced too far back in the mouth

Brad is a typically developing 15-month-old toddler. How many words would Brad MOST LIKELY have in his expressive lexicon? A. 50 words B. 25 words C. 10 words D. 100 words

10 words, By the time children are 15 months old, their expressive lexicon is around 10 words. By the time they are 19 months old, this expressive lexicon has steadily increased to around 100-300 words.

Two 150 hertz (Hz) sinusoids with a peak amplitude of 2 are added together. The sinusoids are 180˚out of phase. The resulting sound will be a: A. 150 Hz sinusoid with a peak amplitude of 0.0 B. 150 Hz sinusoid with a peak amplitude of 4.0 C. 300 Hz sinusoid with a peak amplitude of 0.0 D. 300 Hz sinusoid with a peak amplitude of 4.0

150 Hz sinusoid with a peak amplitude of 0.0, When sinusoids of the same frequency are added together, the result is always another sinusoid with the same frequency ( in this case, 150 Hz). Amplitudes also add together. Since these sinusoids are 180˚out of phase, when one is at its peak of +2, the other is at -2; therefore, their amplitudes will sum to 0.

During a language evaluation, a child produces the utterance, "The boy pushed the cars." How many free morphemes are there in this child's utterance? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

5, Free or unbound morphemes are those units of meaning that can stand alone in an utterance. In the sentence given, the additional morphemes (-s after car and -ed after push) cannot stand alone.

Following a comprehensive language evaluation, a 2-year-old child has been diagnosed as a "late talker." The characteristic that BEST describes this child is that she does not use at least" A. 25 different expressive vocabulary words B. 30 different expressive vocabulary words C. 45 different expressive vocabulary words D. 50 different expressive vocabulary words

50 different expressive vocabulary words, A child who is classified as a "late talker" is traditionally defined as a child who has not demonstrated the use of 50 different expressive vocabulary words by the time the child has reached 24 months of age. As this child is 2 years old, the child fits the diagnosis of a late talker. If the child demonstrated less than 50 different words, this may be indicative of a language disorder.

If pitch contour for a vowel shows a frequency of 150 hertz (Hz) at the midpoint, the frequency of the fifth harmonic at the same location will be: A. 500 Hz B. 750 Hz C. 1000 Hz D. 1250 Hz

750 Hz, All harmonics are integer multiples of F0. If F0 = 150 Hz, then H5 = 5 x 150 Hz or 750 Hz

Which muscles from the list below are the most involved in adducting the vocal folds? A. Lateral cricoarytenoids and transverse arytenoid B. Digastrics C. Cricothyroids D. Posterior cricoarytenoids E. Sternothyroids

A. lateral cricoarytenoids and transverse arytenoid

Obstruent sounds differ from resonant sounds in that obstruent sounds: A. Always include a quasi-periodic sound source B. Always include an aperiodic sound source C. Are always continuant sounds D. Are always noncontinuant sounds

Always include an aperiodic sound source, Obstruent sounds always involve a narrow constriction or blockage that results in an aperiodic sound source. If the obstruction is a blockage, airflow will be momentarily blocked, and the sound will be a noncontinuant. If the obstruction is a narrow constriction, airflow will never be completely blocked, and the sound will be continuant.

An octave is A. The amount of molecular displacement per unit of time B. The amount of time between cycles C. An indication of interval between two frequencies D. A measure of the magnitude (intensity, strength) of the sound signal E. The unit of measure for frequency; it is the same as the cycle per second

An indication of the interval between two frequencies,

When forming the vowel /u/ in boot, which muscle MOST LIKELY contracts? A. Orbicularis oris B. Levator labii superioris C. Zygomatic major D. Risorius

A. Orbicularis oris, The orbicularis oris muscle is the sphincter-like muscle that surrounds the lips. Contraction of this muscle can lead to the lip-rounding associated with the production of the /u/ phoneme in the word boot. In contrast to this, the levator labii superioris muscle contributes to the elevation and everting of the upper lip. The zygomatic major contracts the corners of the mouth backward by simultaneously lifting and pulling the corners of the mouth sideways. Finally, the risorius muscle retracts the angle of the mouth upon contraction.

If a speaker has difficulty controlling vocal fold vibration it is MOST LIKELY manifested by: A. Voicing throughout the silence for /p/ B. Voicing throughout the silence for /b/ C. Lack of voicing throughout the continuant noise for /f/ D. Lack of voicing throughout the continuant noise for /v/

A. Voicing throughout the silence for /p/ Voicing is expected during the silence for voiced stops but should not be seen during the silence for voiceless stops unless a speaker has difficulty controlling vocal fold vibration. However, voicing may be absent in both voiced and voiceless fricatives even for healthy speakers, since duration provides strong cues to fricative voicing.

The anterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the A. Corpus callosum and basal ganglia B. Corpus striatum C. Caudate nucleus and globus pallidus D. Substantia nigra E. Lateral surface of the cortex

A. corpus callosum and basal ganglia

A person has a vital capacity of 5 liters and exchanges half a liter of air when typically breathing at rest. The person takes the biggest breath possible and inspires 3 liters of air. What is the expiratory reserve volume? A. 1.5 liters B. 2 liters C. 2.5 liters D. 3.5 liters

A. 1.5 Liters A person's vital capacity is made of inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume and tidal volume. In the presented scenario, the patient has a tidal volume of 0.5 liters (the amount of air exchanged passively) and an inspiratory reserve volume (found from the largest inspiration) of 3 liters. The remaining volume needed to reach the vital capacity of 5 liters is 1.5 liters of expiratory reserve volume.

The telencephalon is the area of the brain that includes the cerebral hemispheres, and it receives its blood supply from a variety of different arteries. The artery that supplies most of the medial surfaces of the telencephalon is the: A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Middle cerebral artery C. Posterior artery D. Posterior cerebral artery

A. Anterior cerebral artery The telencephalon includes the cerebral hemispheres, which receive blood from the anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral artery branches off from the internal carotid artery and feeds the cerebral hemispheres, starting in the area of the optic chiasm, which can be found in the medial portions of the hemispheres. In contrast to this, the middle cerebral artery supplies blood to a majority of the lateral cerebral hemispheres. The posterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the posterior cerebral hemispheres, including the occipital lobes. Finally, the anterior spinal artery supplies blood to the anterior spinal cord and posterior cerebellum.

Cranial nerves can include motor functions, sensory functions, or a mix of both. Which of the following cranial nerves (CNs) serve both motor and sensory functions: A. CN V, CN IX, CN X B. CN V, CN XI, CN XII C. CN III, CN IX, CN X D. CN III, CN X, CN XII

A. CN V, CN IX, CN X The cranial nerves that are responsible for both motor movements and sensory information are V (trigeminal), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus). The other cranial nerves are responsible for either sensory information or motor movement, but not both.

The cranial nerve that innervates the larynx and also innervates the levator veli palatini, palatoglossus, and palatopharyngeus muscle is A. Cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve B. Cranial nerve V, the trigeminal nerve C. Cranial nerve XI, the spinal accessory nerve D. Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve E. Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve

A. Cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve, The cranial nerve that innervates the larynx and also innervates the levator veli palatini, palatoglossus, and palatopharyngeus muscles is cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve.

A patient who is experiencing nonfluent aphasia MOST LIKELY has some degree of cortical damage in Broca's area. This brain region is in which lobe? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital

A. Frontal, Broca's area can be found in the frontal lobes of the brain,in the inferior frontal gyrus. Refer to "Neuro-anatomy and Neurophysiology for Speech, Language, and Swallowing" from Chapter 1 of Therapy Ed Review & Study Guide for more information and visualization of this structure.

The primary muscle of the lips is the: A. Orbicularis oris B. Buccinator C. Risorius D. Levator labii superioris E. Zygomatic major

A. Orbicularis oris The primary muscle of the lips is the orbicularis oris

The corpus striatum is composed of three nuclear masses, which are the: A. Globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, and putamen B. Putamen, caudate nucleus, and basal ganglia C. Supramarginal gyrus, angular gyrus, and putamen D. Substantia nigra, angular gyrus, and globus pallidus E. Metencephalon, reticular activating system, and caudate nucleus

A. globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, and putamen

A child says, "Red crayon." This is an example of which type of semantic relations? A. Attribute + entity B. Action + locative C. Agent + action D. Attribute + locative E. Possession + attribute

Attribute + entity

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) has been consulted to perform a comprehensive language evaluation on a young child. Following the evaluation, the SLP determines that the child is functioning at Brown's stage II of morphological development. Which structure would this child MOST LIKELY be producing? A. Auxiliary am B. Auxiliary do C. Auxiliary have D. Auxiliary be

Auxiliary be, At Brown's stage II, children develop copula be, auxiliary be, modals and irregular past tense. Auxiliary am is developed during Brown's stage III, auxiliary do is developed during Brown's stage IV, and auxiliary have is developed during Brown's stage V.

There are several parts of a neuron that are important in the transmission of neural signals throughout the body. Which of the following components is most important for receiving signals from other neurons? A. Soma B. Dendrite C. Axon D. Phospholipid bilayer

B. Dendrite Dendrites are the part of the neuron that are important in receiving action potentials from other neurons. The soma is the term for the cell body of the neuron, whereas the axon is the portion of the neuron that is important for propagation of action potentials to future neurons.

An important structure adjacent to the brainstem that contains the hypothalamus (which controls emotions) and the thalamus (which relays sensory impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex) is called the: A. Mesencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Inferior cerebellar peduncle D. Superior cerebellar peduncle E. Postcentral gyrus

B. Diencephalon An important structure adjacent to the brainstem that contains the hypothalamus (which controls emotions) and the thalamus (which relays sensory impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex) is called the diencephalon.

You have been asked to give a workshop to a group of parents of infants who attend a developmental nursery. The parents are interested in what they can do to communicate more successfully with their infants. Most of the infants are between 1 and 10 months of age. Most of the parents do not have much money or access to toys and objects, but you are told that they do spend plenty of time with their babies. You are asked to speak about what specifically these parents can do to successfully interact with their infants in daily routines such as bathing, dressing, and eating. You will tell these parents which of the following? f.) You're going to say you don't know, if you don't study this set enough A. When your baby starts to cry, let him do so for 5-10 minutes before you respond; this will teach the baby independence and motive him to express himself in words later on (instead of crying) B. Ideally, speak to the baby in utterances (child-directed speech) that are higher pitched and have greater pitch fluctuations than ordinary speech C. Increase the baby's rudimentary turn taking skills by responding to his vocalizations and playing games such as peek-a-boo D. A, B, C E. B, C

B, C, In terms of infant language acquisition, it is best to use child-directed speech (characterized by higher pitch and greater pitch fluctuations). It is also helpfu to increase the baby's rudimentary turn-taking skills.

Inspiration during quiet breathing involves contraction of the diaphragm that: A. Increases the volume of the thoracic cavity and causes pressure in the lungs to increase. B. Increases the volume to thoracic cavity and causes pressure in the lungs to decrease. C. Decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and cause pressure in the lungs to increase. D. Decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and causes pressure in the lungs to decrease.

B. Increases the volume to thoracic cavity and causes pressure in the lungs to decrease, When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls downward toward the abdominal cavity, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity, where the lungs are housed. According to Boyle's law, as volume increases, pressure decreases. Thus, if the volume of the thoracic cavity increases, the pressure in the lungs decreases, which is the main drive behind inspiration.

Following a motor vehicle accident, an individual is experiencing a complete paralysis of the upper and lower extremities. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan reveals damage to the lateral corticospinal tract in the spinal column. The lateral corticospinal tract is: A. An ascending pathway that conveys motor signals that control movement of the arms and legs B. A descending pathway that conveys motor signals that control movement of the arms and legs C. An ascending pathway that conveys motor signals that control movement of all trunk musculature D. A descending pathway that conveys motor signals that control movement of all trunk musculature

B. A descending pathway that conveys motor signals that control movement of the arms and legs The lateral corticospinal tract begins as a descending motor pathway (from the cerebral hemispheres into the spinal column) in the cerebral hemispheres. In the medulla, 85% of the fibers decussate and form the lateral corticospinal tract, which is responsible for control of the upper and lower extremities. The 15% that does not decussate forms the anterior corticospinal tract, which is responsible for motor control of trunk/girdle muscles.

A patient has recently sustained lower motor neuron damage to his/her trigeminal nerve (CN V) and is experiencing difficulty with mastication. Which of the following muscles could be experiencing deficits secondary to the nerve damage? a.) Thyroarytenoid b.) Masseter c.) Hyoglossus D. Buccinator

B. Masseter The masseter muscle is a large muscle that forms a sling around the ramus of the mandible. Upon contraction of this muscle, the jaw is raised to assist with mastication. The other muscles involved in mastication are the temporalis, external pterygoid and medial pterygoid.

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays an important role in neural signals involved in motor movement. Lack of dopamine in the substantia nigra has been associated with disease processes such as Parkinson's disease. Which BEST describes the role of dopamine on basal ganglia circuits? A. Dopamine is excitatory to the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia B. The net result of dopamine release to direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia is a facilitation of movement C. The net result of dopamine release to the direct pathway facilitates movement while release to the indirect pathway inhibits movement D. Dopamine is inhibitory to the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia

B. The net result of dopamine release to direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia is a facilitation of movement, The net result of dopamine release into the basal ganglia control circuits is facilitation of movement, although the effect is different depending on which pathway is activated. Activation of the direct activation pathway assists with excitation of movement, whereas activation of the indirect activation pathway assists with inhibition of movement.

The neurons that transmit information away from the brain are called: A. Afferent neurons B. Efferent neurons C. Primary neurons D. Secondary neurons E. Peripheral neurons

B. efferent neurons

In a narrowband spectrogram, the speech-language pathologist (SLP) can see that harmonic spacing becomes narrower throughout a vowel. When listening to the vowel, the SLP expects to hear that the vowel: A. Is a diphthong that shifts from a low vowel to a high vowel B. Is a diphthong that shifts from a front vowel to a back vowel C. Begins at a lower pitch and ends at a higher pitch D. Begins at a higher pitch and ends at a lower pitch

Begins at a higher pitch and ends at a lower pitch, The spacing between harmonics in the human voice is equal to F0. If harmonic spacing shifts from wider to narrower, the harmonics are getting closer together and F0 is getting lower.

The spectrum of a speaker's voice shows that H1 is 15 dB higher than H2 in amplitude. This MOST LIKELY indicates that the speaker has a: A. Breathy voice B. Modal voice C. Creaky voice D. High harmonic-to-noise ratio (HNR)

Breathy voice, The relative amplitude of H1 and H2 provide an indicator of spectral tilt, which can differentiate voice quality changes between breathy, modal and creaky voice. Breathy voice is distinguished by an H1 that is higher in amplitude than H2. In modal voice, H1 and H2 are approximately equal in amplitude. In creaky voice, H1 is lower in amplitude than H2. HNR is a measure of overall harmonic-to-noise ratio rather than a comparison of H1-H2 amplitude.

A patient presents to an acute care hospital, and imaging has revealed a hemorrhage localized to the left occipital lobe. Which deficit would MOST LIKELY result? A. Broca's aphasia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Ataxic dysarthria

C. Homonymous hemianopia The occipital lobe is the region of the brain that controls vision. Homonymous hemianopia occurs when one-half of a person's visual field is not functioning, secondary to brain damage. In this case, the patient would most likely present with right homonymous hemianopia.

Neurotransmitters are chemicals in the brain that are important in sending neural signals between adjacent neurons. The BEST description of neurotransmitter release is that it: A. Excites neighboring cells B. Excites neighboring cells only if it binds with a receptor and causes a channel opening C. Excites or inhibits neighboring cells if it binds with a receptor and causes a channel opening D. Inhibits neighboring cells

C. Excites or inhibits neighboring cells if it binds with a receptor and causes a channel opening Neurotransmitters are chemicals that are released from neurons that help with neural signal transmission. Neurotransmitters can have one of two functions: excitatory or inhibitory. Excitatory neurotransmitters help continue the propagation of the neural signal, whereas inhibitory neurotransmitters slow or cancel the propagation of the neural signal.

A person experiences weakness on the right side of the face resulting in right facial droop. Initial evaluation suggests cranial nerve damage. If verified, which cranial nerve is MOST LIKELY damaged? A. Trochlear B. Trigeminal C. Facial D. Vagus

C. Facial The facial nerve (CN VII) controls motor innervations to the muscles of facial expression. Damage to the lower motor neurons would cause ipsilateral (same-sided) weakness, which could result in the facial droop this patient is experiencing.

Contraction of the tensor veli palatini and levator veli palatini will NOT occur during the production of which of the following sounds? A. /f/ B. /s/ C. /m/ D. /t/

C. /m/ The tensor veli palatini and levator veli palatini muscles contract to raise the soft palate during speech, in order to block off the nasal cavity. The /m/ is a nasal phoneme, which means that the nasal cavity remains open during phonation. For this reason, the tensor veli palatini and levator veli palatini do not contract during production of /m/.

A person places a hand on a hot surface and experiences the sensation of heat. The feeling of heat is conveyed up to the primary somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe. In order for this information to be received in this cortical area, it must first travel up the spinal column, via the: A. Lateral corticospinal tract B. Anterior corticospinal tract C. Anterolateral system D. Posterior column-lemniscal system

C. Anterolateral system if a person places a hand on a hot stove, this would cause pain and temperature sensation, which would be conveyed through the anterolateral system (pain, temperature, crude touch). The posterior column-medial lemniscus system is responsible for transmission of vibration, pressure and fine touch information. The lateral corticospinal tract and anterior corticospinal tract are both motor tracts, which control limb movement and girdle movement, respectively.

The spinal column is organized with respect to motor/sensory function, as well as upper and lower extremities. Cell bodies of lower motor neurons that control movement of the legs are generally found in: A. The precentral gyrus B. The postcentral gyrus C. The ventral horn of the spinal column D. The dorsal horn of the spinal column

C. The ventral horn of the spinal column The ventral horns of the spinal column house the lower motor neurons responsible for movement, whereas the dorsal horns house neurons responsible for transmission of sensory information. The precentral and postcentral gyri are structures located in the cerebral hemispheres, which house the primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortices.

During the transmission of an action potential, after a neuron has fired there is an absolute refractory period. This is a delay during which a neuron is unable to transmit further action potentials. This delay must expire before that neuron can fire again because: A. Sodium (Na+) ions continue to flow out of the cell after an action potential spike B. Potassium ions (K+) continue to flow out of the cell after an action potential spike C. Voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels are periodically inactivated after opening D. Voltage-gated potassium (K+) channels are periodically inactivated after opening

C. Voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels are periodically inactivated after opening, During the refractory period, the sodium-gated channels are deactivated, so sodium is unable to flow through the neuron's cellular membrane. After a short period, these gates become activated and are able to help with the propagation of an action potential.

When a person is producing voiced and voiceless /th/, the muscle that is most involved is the A. Palatopharyngeus B. Sternocleidomastoid C. Genioglossus D. Styloglossus E. Buccinator

C. genioglossus

A child has been brought to an early language learning clinic to receive speech and language intervention. The speech-language pathologist (SLP) has set goals to increase the child's understanding of vocabulary utilizing principles of neighborhood density. Which of the following vocabulary words would be easiest for this child to learn? A. Jump B. Cat C. Five D. Fruit

Cat, Neighborhood density is a lexical representation variable that influences word learning. When words are in a high-density neighborhood, there are several neighbor words that differ by a single phoneme, which aids in word learning. Cat is a high-density neighborhood word, which includes neighbors such as bat, fat, hat, coat, rat, etc. Low-density neighborhood word shave fewer neighbor words and are more difficult for children to learn initially: jump, five, and fruit are all low-density words, and while they would be harder for the child to learn, they would be easier for the child to retrieve after having learned the words.

Chapter 2

Chapter 2

Chapter 3

Chapter 3

Chapter 4

Chapter 4

A difficulty with cross-sectional studies is that A. observations are made of differences between subjects of different ages to generalize about developmental changes that would occur within subjects as they mature. B. observations are made of differences within subject groups of different ages to generalize about developmental changes that would occur between subjects as they mature. C. the same subjects are studied over time, and this is expensive, time consuming, and difficult because subjects might drop out of the study. D. the total age span of children to be studied is divided into several overlapping age spans, and it is difficult to follow subjects from the lower to the upper end of each age span E. the investigator is examining data already on file to answer questions about children in various age groups, and that data might not be reliable.

Correct Answer: A A difficulty with cross-sectional studies is that observations are made of differences between subjects of different ages to generalize about developmental changes that would occur within subjects as they mature.

In Middleton City, a speech-language pathologist has a thriving private practice composed heavily of non-native speakers of English. This clinician, Jason W., works to help his clients increase their intelligibility in English for business purposes. One way that Jason evaluates the success of the accent training he provides for these clients is to rate their overall intelligibility of speech before they start accent training and after 10 weeks of training. He finds that the clients appreciate these "before and after" measures of their progress. After serving a number of accent clients, Jason realizes that a potential problem with his "before and after" intelligibility ratings is that he has become accustomed to the clients' speech as he has gotten to know them; this could be affecting the "after" intelligibility rating. He goes to a local university and selects four speech-pathology graduate students to watch "before and after" videos of his accent clients and independently rate each client's intelligibility. He finds to his dismay that the four students vary greatly in their ratings of the same clients. For example, one student rated Mr. Fong, a Chinese client, as 95% intelligible after 10 weeks of accent training. A second student rated Mr. Fong as only 60% intelligible after 10 weeks of accent training, whereas a third student rated Mr. Fong as 45% intelligible, and so on. In this situation, one could say that A. there is low interjudge reliability B. there is high interjudge reliability C. there is moderate interjudge reliability D. there is low intrajudge reliability E. there is high intrajudge reliability

Correct Answer: A If judges who are measuring the same event markedly disagree with one another, then one can say there is low interjudge reliability

A speech and language researcher has completed treatment tasks selected for a study and is preparing to administer posttest to the study participants. However, this posttest is the same used as the pretest the study participants previously completed. As the study participants have already seen this test, the researcher needs to be aware of the potential threat to which of the following principles? A. Internal validity. B. External validity. C. Reliability. D. Content validity.

Correct Answer: A Internal validity is how well the study is testing or describing what it purports to be testing or describing and is dependent on the methods and procedures used to answer the research questions. As the participants have already seen the posttest material, this may cause their performance to improve more than it actually did. If this were the case, the internal validity would be reduced, as the study would not accurately describe improvement, but would describe the participant's ability to recall pretest materials.

An investigator carries out a study in which the effect of rate of speech upon stuttering during sibling interaction is being investigated.. The investigator gathers conversational samples from children who stutter and their siblings. In the control group, siblings are asked to speak as they normally would at home. In the experimental group, they are asked to speak much more quickly than they would at home. The investigator wishes to measure the effect of rate of siblings' speech upon the amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter. In other words, the investigator is asking if increased rate of sibling speech causes children to stutter more. In the above study, the dependent variable is A. the amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter when the siblings increase their rate of speech B. the rate of speech of the siblings in the experimental group C. the rate of speech of the siblings in the control group D. the combined amount of stuttering done by the children in both the experimental and the control groups E. the amount of stuttering done by children who stutter when siblings speak at a slowed rate

Correct Answer: A The dependent variable is the amount of stuttering done by yhe children who stutter when the siblings increase their rate of speech. The rate of speech of siblings in both groups is the independent variable, which is manipulated by the investigator.

The range in a distribution can be defined as A. the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a distribution B. the middle 50% of scores of a distribution C. the middle 50% of scores in a distribution divided by 2 D. the variance plus the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution E. the lowest and highest 25% of a distribution

Correct Answer: A The range in a distribution can be defined as the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution

A speech scientist is performing a research study on a particular treatment program for childhood language disorders and has decided to utilize effect size as a measure of data outcome. What would be the BEST measure for this scientist to use in the study? A. Cohen's d. B. Chi-square. C. Cochran Q test. D. Analysis of variance (ANOVA).

Correct Answer: A Cohen's d is one of the most common measurements of effect size and would be the most appropriate selection for this scientist. If the scientist was interested in measuring the level of significance between any relationships among nominal variables, chi-square would be the most appropriate selection. The Cochran Q test is a nonparametric procedure used to assess nominal level data from related samples and would not be appropriate for measuring effect size. Finally, the ANOVA would be the most appropriate selection if the scientist was interested in simultaneous comparison of several means.

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is preparing to perform a language assessment on a child who comes from a cultural background with which the SLP is unfamiliar. In order to accurately gauge this child's linguistic skills, the SLP needs to be aware of the potential bias that assessment materials reflect because of the assumption that all cultural populations have the same life experiences. What type of bias is this SLP experiencing with the assessment materials? A. Content. B. Linguistic. C. Material. D. Cultural.

Correct Answer: A Content bias refers to test stimuli, methods or procedures reflecting the assumption that all populations have the same life experiences and have learned similar concepts and vocabulary. If the child from this scenario has not been exposed to the material covered in this test, there may be an inaccurate diagnosis of a language disorder. In contrast to this, linguistic bias is the disparity between the language or dialect used by the examiner, the child, and/or the language or dialect expected in the child's response. Material bias and cultural bias are not forms of bias that are applicable in the evaluation of children from culturally diverse backgrounds.

A 5-year-old child has been referred to you for a language assessment. There is a concern about his expressive language skills, and you decide to gather a language sample to assess expressive morphology and syntax. At one point, when looking at a book, the child points to a book character and says, "Him no eat cookies." This is an example of A. 4 words, 5 morphemes, personal pronoun + 1 negative + 1 verb +1 plural noun B. 4 words, 6 morphemes, modal + 1 negative +1 verb + 1 auxiliary C. 4 words, 4 morphemes, personal pronoun + 1 copula + 1 negative + 1 noun D. 4 words, 5 morphemes, negative + 1 personal pronoun + 1 copula E. 4 words, 5 morphemes, personal pronoun + 1 auxiliary + 1 negative + 1 plural noun

Correct Answer: A If you are conducting a language sample with a 5-year-old and the child says "Him no eat cookies," this is an example of 4 words, 5 morphemes, personal pronoun + 1 negative + 1 verb + 1 plural noun

In order to begin producing two-word combinations, how many words does a toddler need to have in his expressive vocabulary? A. 50 B. 20 C. 100 D. 10 E. 150

Correct Answer: A In order to begin putting two words together, a toddler must have at least 50 words in his expressive vocabulary

A speech scientist is analyzing data collected from a recently completed study. In order to properly analyze the data, she utilizes nonparametric statistical procedures. Which of the following scenarios BEST describes the scientist's data? A. There is not a normal distribution of the data. B. There is a normal distribution of the data. C. There is a small median for the data. D. There is a small mode for the data.

Correct Answer: A Nonparametric statistical procedures are those that are not based on a normal curve model or are not normally distributed. Because the data collected from this speech scientist's study was analyzed using nonparametric statistical procedures, it is safe to say that there is not a normal distribution of the data. In contrast, if there was a normal distribution, the speech scientist would be able to implement the more powerful parametric statistical procedures of data analysis.

A speech and language researcher has demonstrated the benefits of a newly developed treatment method through well-controlled studies that show internal validity, statistical significance and practical significance. This researcher's method demonstrates which of the following principles? A. Treatment efficacy. B. Treatment effectiveness. C. Treatment fidelity. D. Treatment validity.

Correct Answer: A Research that demonstrates treatment efficacy shows the benefits of treatment through well-controlled studies with interval validity, statistical significance and practical significance. When a research study demonstrates all three of these principles, the study demonstrates good treatment efficacy. On the other hand, if research demonstrates clinical improvement when applied in real-life contexts, it demonstrates treatment effectiveness. When an application of a treatment in real-world context matches the controlled conditions of the original study, this demonstrates good treatment fidelity.

Halliday described seven functions of communicative intent that develop between 9 and 18 months of age. You are working in an early intervention program where you must frequently evaluate very young children's language development, especially communicative intent. One day, you are observing a child who has been in the program for slightly over a year. She was brought to the program upon the advice of her pediatrician, who recommended a language stimulation program to increase her expressive language skills. As you observe this child and look for her to express varying communicative intents, she says, "Why doggy bark?" This is an example of which one of Halliday's intents? A. Heuristic B. Instrumental C. Regulatory D. Informative E. Imaginative

Correct Answer: A The heuristic function involves children attempting to have events in their environment explained to them ("Tell me why")

Reliability means that a test or measure A. measures what it purports to measure. B. has scores that are consistent across repeated testing measurement. C. has items that adequately sample the full range of the skill being tested. D. correlates well with an established test of known validity. E. is consistent with theoretical constructs or concepts.

Correct Answer: B Reliability means that a test or measure has scores that are consistent across repeated testing or measurement. The other answers in this item relate to validity, not reliability.

A speech and language researcher is designing a research study to determine the effects of time spent in intervention, dosage of intervention and type of feedback on the amount of progress made in children with phonological disorders. Which of the following methods should this research utilize in the study? A. Nonparametric experiment. B. Parametric experiment. C. Within-subjects experiment. D. Between-subjects experiment.

Correct Answer: B A parametric experiment is one that is designed to study the simultaneous effects of more than one independent variable on the dependent variable. In this scenario, the researcher is studying the effect of the independent variables of time in intervention, dosage of intervention and type of feedback on the dependent variable of progress made in intervention. As there are three separate independent variables, a parametric experiment would be the best selection for this researcher.

A researcher is describing the speech of a group of children who have developmental apraxia of speech. She finds that the faster the children speak, the less intelligible they are. The researcher obtains a Pearson r correlational relationship of -.92. One could say that this shows that there is ______ between rate of speech and intelligibility. A. a positive correlational relationship B. a strong negative (or inverse) correlational relationship C. a canonical correlational relationship D. a cause-effect relationship E. virtually no correlational relationship

Correct Answer: B A researcher who finds that the faster the children speak, the less intelligible they are (Pearson r=-.92) has shown that there is a strong negative (or inverse) correlational relationship between speed and intelligibility; high values of one variable (speed) are associated with low variables of the other value (intelligibility).

A type of research involving the effect of independent variables that have occurred in the past and in which the investigator is making a retrospective search for causes of events is called A. a single-subject design research B. ex post facto research C. historical research D. case study research E. survey research

Correct Answer: B A type of research involving the effect of independent variables that have occurred in the past and in which the investigator is making a retrospective search for causes of events is called ex post facto research.

A clinician in private practice is looking to purchase speech and language evaluations. She is interested in tests that will correctly rule out children who do not have speech and language disorders. This clinician should look up information in the evaluation manuals regarding test: A. Sample size. B. Specificity. C. Evidence. D. Sensitivity.

Correct Answer: B Specificity refers to how well a test detects that a condition is not present when it is actually not present. If the clinician wanted to know information about how well evaluations rule out children who do not actually have speech and language disorders, the clinician should refer to the test manuals' sections on test specificity. Contrary to this, test sensitivity refers to how well the test detects a condition that is actually present. Sample size and test evidence would not help this clinician find information about how well the test detects disorders or lack of disorders.

A new test of morphological skills has been published. This test, the Horton-Overman Thematic Morphological Estimate of Student's Skills (HOT MESS), correlates very well with a test of morphological skills that has been in use nationally for the last 15 years. One could say that the HOT MESS has good A. content validity B. concurrent validity C. construct validity D. predictive or criterion validity E. index validity

Correct Answer: B The HOT MESS has a good concurrent validity because it is a new test that correlates well with an established test of known validity.

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) has finished analyzing the data collected during his research study and has found that the p value is 0.04. Due to this level of statistical significance, the SLP may decide to reject which of the following? A. Hypothesis. B. Null hypothesis. C. Means of analysis. D. Conclusion.

Correct Answer: B The null hypothesis is a statement that expresses belief that no change will occur. Because this SLP has found statistical significance (i.e., p <0.05), the SLP is able to demonstrate that some amount of change has occurred. As this is a direct contrast to "no change will occur," the SLP may confidently reject the null hypothesis for his/her research. In contrast, if the SLP did not demonstrate statistical significance, he/she would have to reject the hypothesis, as there truly would be no change made.

You are asked to work with a 3 ½ -year-old child whose language has been somewhat show to develop. Matthew is the youngest of four children, and his parents tell you that this older siblings often talk for him. After assessing Mathew's language, you find that he consistently uses the following morphemes: present progressive -ing, prepositions in and on, and regular plural -s. His parents would like to enroll him for therapy because they want him to go to a local preschool, and they want him to "sound like the other kids and have good grammar." Which of he following morphemes would you begin with when Matthew starts therapy? A. Possessive -s B. Irregular past-tense verbs C. Articles the, a, an D. Contractible auxiliary E. Regular past-tense -ed

Correct Answer: B According to Brown's list of morphemes, irregular past-tense verbs would be next to develop; thus, this would be a good starting point for therapy.

A baby, Jason, is looking at the family cat. His grandma sees him looking at the cat and directs her gaze toward the at, also. She prepares to comment about the cat. Jason's grandma is A. Using presupposition B. Following Jason's line of regard C. Intuiting Jason's thoughts about felines D. Preparing to use a holophrase E. Establishing joint action

Correct Answer: B By seeing the baby look at the cat and then looking at the cat, as well, Jason's grandma is following his line of regard.

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is in the process of starting a study on autism and is selecting proper assessment measures. In order to select the most appropriate test, the SLP should be aware of how well specific tests measure the characteristics of autism. Which of the following best describes the need for an accurate description? A. Criterion validity. B. Content validity. C. Construct validity. D. Internal validity.

Correct Answer: B Content validity refers to how well the test items measure the characteristics or behaviors of interest. As this SLP is interested in assessments for autism, the SLP should be primarily concerned with how well the selected test measurements describe the characteristics of autism. In contrast, criterion validity refers to how well the measure correlates with an outside criterion, and construct validity refers to how well the measure reflects a theoretical construct of the characteristic of interest.

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is interested in starting a research study to determine the effect of a particular treatment approach in alleviating symptoms of voice disorders. However, while the SLP believes that this treatment will be beneficial to persons with voice disorders of varying etiology, he only has access to persons with voice disorders caused by muscle tension dysphonia. If the SLP proceeds with this research study, he needs to be aware of the potential threat to which of the following principles? A. Internal validity B. External validity C. Reliability D. Content validity

Correct Answer: B External validity is the amount of generalizability of results to real-life situations. This SLP needs to be aware of the external validity to those with other etiologies of the voice disorder, as he only has participants with muscle tension dysphonia in his study. His external validity would be strengthened further if he had participants with other etiologies.

A mother comes to you, concerned because her son Jake was born prematurely and had to spend the first few months of his life in a neonatal intensive care unit. Now Jake is 9 months old, and his mother wants to make sure hat his language development is "on target for his age." You go to Jake's home to observe him, and you also ask his mother to give you a detailed description of his communication patterns. As you evaluate Jake's language development you need to remember that one of the following does NOT occur between 8 and 10 months of age in the typically developing child. Which one is it? A. Comprehension of no B. Using the phrase "all gone" to express emerging negation C. Using variegated babbling (e.g., "madamada") D. Uncovering a hidden toy (beginning of object permanence) E. Use of gestural language, such as shaking head no, playing peek-a-boo

Correct Answer: B Most children use "all gone" to express emerging negation between 1 and 2 years of age

Two researchers are analyzing data collected from a recently completed research study. The researchers have found that their measurements are in good agreement, thus demonstrating adequate interobserver agreement. This finding is a good estimate of measurement: A. Accuracy. B. Agreement. C. Precision. D. Consistency.

Correct Answer: D Interobserver agreement is a measurement of how consistent two or more researchers are in making a particular measurement. As the two researchers from this scenario demonstrate good interobserver agreement, it is save to say that they are being consistent in their measurements.

You observe a clinician working with a child who has a language impairment. They are making cookies together, and the clinician is saying things like "Look, the dough goes in the bowl; the spoon is beside the bowl. We will set the bowl on top of the counter, and then make the cookies. We'll put them in the oven, and take them out when they are done." The clinician is working on developing the child's skill in the area of understanding A. indirect requests B. locatives C. pragmatics D. gerunds E. derivational morphemes

Correct Answer: B The clinician is working on increasing the child's skill in using locatives; she is saying and physically demonstrating locatives such as on top, in, beside.

A young child who often says things like "my doggy" or "her ball" is using the relation of A. recurrence B. possession C. location D. denial E. attribution

Correct Answer: B Utterances such as "my doggy" and "her ball" represent relation of possession

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is completing a study to prove that two different treatment approaches provide differing amounts of progress in persons with aphasia. She would like to utilize a strict statistical test in order to prove significance between the amounts of progress. Which of the following would be the BEST method for this SLP to utilize in the data analysis? A. One-tailed test. B. Meta-analysis. C. Two-tailed test. D. Cochran Q test.

Correct Answer: C Because this SLP has developed a nondirectional hypothesis (i.e., there will be differing amounts of progress between the two interventions), she may utilize a two-tailed statistical test. Additionally, two-tailed statistical tests are stricter than one-tailed statistical tests, and most researchers utilize these tests to help prove significance.

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is researching if the amount of time spent undergoing a new treatment under study will make an impact on intelligibility in dysarthric speakers. Specifically, the SLP has one group participating for 30 minutes a day, while another group participates for 60 minutes a day. In order to determine the effect of the differing amounts of time on intelligibility, which means of analysis would be MOST BENEFICIAL to this SLP? A. A Cochran Q test. B. An analysis of variance (ANOVA). C. A t-test. D. A multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

Correct Answer: C In this situation, the independent variable is the time spent in treatment, while the dependent variable is the amount of participant progress made in treatment. A t-test is a means of analysis that can be utilized when there is a single dependent variable. Specifically, an independent t-test would be utilized in this situation because there is a single dependent variable, but a comparison between two different groups (i.e., 30 minutes vs. 60 minutes) needs to be made.

An experimental design involving one or a few subjects and focusing on individual performance would be called a A. case study design B. ex post facto design C. single-subject design D. single-correlational design E. single-subject case study design.

Correct Answer: C Single-subject designs are experimental and may involve one or a few subjects. Case study designs are descriptive.

A clinician in private practice receives many referrals from local public school clinicians. The children being referred are those whose language test scores are too high to legally qualify them for therapy in public schools. The parents of these children want services and are willing and able to pay for them out of pocket. The clinician in private practice often administers the Word Abilities Keystone Evaluation-Upper Portion (WAKE-UP) test to the children who are referred to her. One day, she becomes curious about the "typical score" of the children to whom she administers the WAKE-UP. The clinician takes the WAKE-UP scores of 17 children and lines them up in order from lowest to highest score: 33 33 46 48 51 55 60 69 73 82 85 89 91 93 95 95 95 The clinician concludes that the "typical" or average score on the WAKE-UP is 73. In terms of measures of central tendency the average score calculated by the clinician is the: A. mean B. mode C. median D. standard deviation E. measure of central variability

Correct Answer: C The clinician has just calculated the median score, which is the score in the exact middle of the distribution. An equal number of scores fall above and below it.

A speech scientist has wrongfully interpreted data collected during a recent study and has claimed that the treatment method leads to participant progress when no progress was actually made. Which of the following BEST describes the scientist's situation? A. A type II error. B. An order effect. C. A type I error. D. A treatment effect.

Correct Answer: C A type I error occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected (i.e., a researcher rejects results showing that no improvement was made). Because this scientist has incorrectly claimed participant improvement, a type I error has been committed. On the other hand, if there was actual participant improvement, but the scientist dismissed this as no improvement, a type II error would have occurred.

You are asked to assess Tina, who has Down syndrome. She is 4 years 10 months old, and her parents tell you that they wish for her to begin kindergarten in the fall (it is July, and school begins in September). You assess Tina's receptive and expressive language skills and find that she has an average MLU of 3.0 and an expressive vocabulary size of 350 words. She sustains a topic of conversation about 20% of the time and overregularizes past-tense inflections. You will tell Tina's parents that A. Tina's overall language skills are very generally within normal limits for her age B. Though Tina's language skills are approximately 6 months delayed for her age, she will be able to participate in a regular kindergarten classroom C. Tina's language skills are generally commensurate with those of a 2- to 3-year-old child, and starting kindergarten in the fall would probably be difficult for her D. Tina's language skills are generally commensurate with those of a 1-year-old, and thus, she needs to be in a preschool setting with very young children E. Tina's skills are not like those of any typically developing child but rather are deviant, and she needs to go to a special school for children with Down syndrome

Correct Answer: C According to language development milestones, Tina's language skills are commensurate with those of a 2- to 3-year old; in kindergarten, she would be learning along with typically developing children who are 5-6 years of age.

A speech scientist has begun a research study, utilizing a between-subjects treatment design. In order to reduce the effect of an extraneous variable, which of the following procedures should the scientist implement? A. Randomly assign participants to a particular treatment condition. B. Establish a reliable baseline performance for each participant. C. Match research participants across treatment groups. D. Randomize the order of treatment conditions for participants.

Correct Answer: C Between-subjects research designs involve comparing two or more groups of subjects. For this type of research design, it is critical that extraneous variables are controlled as much as possible to minimize their effect on the dependent variable. One way that the researcher from this scenario could control extraneous variables is to match participants across groups, either by averages (i.e., average age) or through pairwise matching based on the extraneous variable (i.e., gender, education level, etc.)

Which one of the following Piagetian stage, which include object permanence, corresponds with the emergence of a typically developing child's first word? A. Preoperational B. Formal operations C. Sensorimotor D. Concrete operations E. Sensorimotor concreteness

Correct Answer: C Children usually use their first word between 10 and 14 months of age, which corresponds to the sensorimotor cognitive development stage

A researcher is conducting a study comparing the performance of dyslexic versus nondyslexic participants during oral reading of written words presented rapidly versus slowly. This is an example of: A. Experimental research B. Descriptive research C. Mixed experimental-descriptive research D. Qualitative research

Correct Answer: C For this scenario, it is best to separate out the experimental and descriptive portions of the study. The experimental portion comes from the manipulation of the independent variable (i.e., slow vs. rapid presentations of written words). The descriptive portion occurs because of the comparison between two groups based on subject attributes (i.e., dyslexic vs. nondyslexic readers). Because this study meets both of these conditions, it can be accurately called mixed experimental-descriptive research.

A hospital-based clinician is conducting an experiment with patients with aphasia. She is assessing the efficacy of the new, exciting Newton Aphasia Program (NAP) in increasing her patients' word retrieval skills. The experiment and control groups have been carefully matched on all variables. Halfway through the experiment, the clinician finds that many of the experimental subjects attend church each Sunday and go to Sunday school after church. In Sunday school, there is Bible study and a great deal of discussion. None of the control subjects attends church or Sunday school. At the end of the experiment, the clinician finds that the experimental group of subjects who received the NAP have improved significantly in their word-retrieval skills compared to the control subjects, who have been treated with more traditional word-retrieval therapy techniques. What can the researcher safely conclude from her study? A. The NAP was more successful in helping the experimental patients improve their word-retrieval skills than were the traditional methods in helping patients in the control group improve their word-retrieval skills. B. The NAP was not successful in helping the patients in the experimental group improve their word-retrieval skills; the improvement was due to weekly church and Sunday school attendance. C. The fact that most experimental subjects attended Sunday school and church on a weekly basis was a possible confounding variable in the study, making it impossible to firmly conclude that the NAP alone caused the difference in the performance of the experimental and control groups. D. The NAP was only moderately successful in helping experimental group patients improve their word-retrieval skills. E. Traditional word-retrieval therapy techniques are the most reliable and valid; the clinician should not attempt to use the NAP again.

Correct Answer: C The only thing the researcher can accurately state from the results of this study is that the experimental subjects' weekly attendance at church and Sunday school was a possible confounding variable, making it impossible to firmly conclude that the NAP alone caused the difference in the performance of the experimental and control groups.

A speech and language researcher has completed final analysis on a data set and has discovered a highly homogenous distribution of participant scores. Due to this homogeneity, the researcher is also likely to find a small: A. Mean B. Median C. Standard deviation D. Confidence interval

Correct Answer: C The standard deviation is the average amount that all the scores in a particular distribution will deviate from the mean. When there is more homogeneity of data points in the set, there will be a smaller standard deviation, as there will be less deviation from the median.

A young child who says "down" when a cup of juice spills off of the dinner table is using the relation of: A. action B. possession C. locative action D. attribution E. recurrence

Correct Answer: C When the cup of juice spills off the dinner table and the child says "down," she is using the relation of locative action

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) has begun a research study, utilizing a within-subject experimental design. However, the research participant has demonstrated significant fatigue from beginning to the end of the study. Any potential change in data due to this fatigue is known as a: A. Treatment effect. B. Carryover effect. C. Hawthorne effect. D. Order effect.

Correct Answer: D An order effect is a potential change in data that occurs sometime from the beginning to the end of an experiment. These changes can arise due to factors such as participant fatigue or familiarity with assessment and/or intervention materials. Alternatively, a carryover effect would occur if a first treatment condition affected participant performance on a second treatment condition. Lastly, a Hawthorne effect would occur if a research participant's performance in the study was influenced by their awareness of being in a research study.

In a single-subject design, which of the following statements are true? I. The A phase is the no-treatment or baseline phase II. The B phase is the treatment phase III. The A phase is the treatment phase IV. The B phase is the no-treatment or baseline phase V. There may be anywhere from 1 to 6 subjects A. III B. III, IV, V C. I, II D. I, II, V E. II, V

Correct Answer: D In a single-subject design, the A phase is the no-treatment or baseline phase, the B phase is the treatment phase, and there may be anywhere from 1 to 6 subjects.

A first-grade teacher refers 6-year-old Mandy to you for an assessment. The teacher is concerned because Mandy has difficulty rhyming words and sounding out words. The teacher tells you, "For example, if I say, 'c-u-p—what word is that?' Mandy is unable to say 'cup.'" Mandy also reportedly has problems with remembering what she hears. The teacher tells you, "Sometimes I have to give the children three or four directions, and I have to do it quickly because we have to go somewhere, like an assembly. Mandy is the only one in my class who doesn't remember what I tell the kids to do." Based on this brief description, you suspect that Mandy might have difficulties in which of the following areas? A. Temporal auditory processing B. Divergent semantic production C. Phonological processing D. A, C E. A, B, C

Correct Answer: D Mandy's difficulties with rhyming and sounding out words indicate a problem with phonological processing. Her difficulties with remembering directions probably indicate problems with temporal auditory processing

A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is designing a study to research the effectiveness of a new treatment approach for aphasia, utilizing a time-series treatment design. He wants to be sure that the outcomes are valid, thus he wants to strengthen his treatment design as much as possible. Which of the following could this researcher include to maximize the strength of his study? A. Meta-analysis and systematic reviews. B. Control groups and an analysis of variance (ANOVA) C. Randomization and counterbalancing. D. Multiple alternating treatments and baseline segments.

Correct Answer: D A time-series treatment design is used for studying treatment efficacy. This specific type of design includes repeated baseline measures prior to treatment and includes systematic ongoing measurement of participant performance. The research performed using this type of design may be strengthened by including control subjects, a second baseline segment after treatment has begun, or multiple alternating treatment and baseline segments.

You have been asked to assess the language skills of 6-year-old Jennifer, who has been referred by the classroom teacher. The teacher says that Jennifer "talks in these really short sentences. I don't know if she is just shy, or if there is more going on." The teacher has worked on oral language skills daily with her class. The end of the year is coming soon, and the teacher is concerned about how Jennifer will perform in second grade. You decide to conduct an informal language screening to decide whether you need to formally evaluate Jennifer's expressive language skills. You find that she uses many sentences such as "He has a ball" and "I like Pokémon." She uses few compound or complex sentences. You talk with her parents and find hat this performance is also typical at home. Your next step would be to A. Tell the teacher and parents that Jennifer is within normal limits for her age, and that a formal language evaluation is unnecessary B. Inform the teacher and parents that Jennifer may have autistic-like tendencies and that she needs to be formally evaluated by a team of special educators C. Tell the teacher and parents that you will take a "wait and see" approach. If the second-grade teacher has concerns similar to those of the first-grade teacher, you will follow up with a formal evaluation of Jennifer's language skills D. Tell the teacher and parents that you would like to formally evaluate Jennifer's language skills because at 6 years of age, she should have an average MLU of 6.0-8.0, and her language should approximate the adult model E. Immediately place Jennifer into therapy based upon these screening results, because she clearly has a language delay and you want to begin therapy immediately

Correct Answer: D Based on your screening results, it will be important to conduct a formal, in-depth assessment of Jennifer's language skills. She definitely should be using longer, more complex utterances that approximate the adult model

A 7-year-old girl, Ashton, is referred to you by her second-grade classroom teacher, Mr. Alvarez. Mr. Alvarez says that Ashton "doesn't always get along with her peers" and "doesn't know how to hold a decent conversation." You assess Ashton personally and also observe her on the playground during recess and in the cafeteria at lunchtime. You see that Mr. Alvarez is right. Ashton has difficulty in conversational exchanges with her peers, and they frequently ignore her. You notice that when talking to you, she seems uncomfortable and doesn't say much, even when you use a variety of interesting game and toys. In therapy, your first priority with Ashton will be to: A. Teach her the appropriate use of compound and complex sentences in appropriate contexts B. Teach her the appropriate use of allomorphs when presented with pictures of different people and activities C. Increase her skills in quick incidental learning so that she can expand her vocabulary D. Increase her skills in discourse E. Work on developing her literacy skills so that she will be successful with the second-grade curriculum

Correct Answer: D Based upon your observations and the teacher's report, your first priority in therapy will be to work on Ashton's discourse skills in the give-and-take of conversation

A child has been referred to you for an assessment of his pragmatic skills. The chief complaint of adults and children with whom he interacts is that he frequently gives commands and sounds rude and bossy. His classroom teacher says she is "fed up with his bossiness," and peers do not include him in their games. His father tells you that the boy frequently says things like "Take me to Pizza Palace" and "Get me the Spiderman 3 DVD." The father would like intervention to help his son say things like "I wonder if we could get a Spiderman 3 DVD at the store," instead of giving orders. In therapy, you know you will need to work on the boy's facility with A. passive sentence transformations B. cohesion C. narrative skills D. indirect requests E. didactive monologues

Correct Answer: D The ability to say something like "I wonder if we could get a Spiderman 3 DVD at the store" indicates facility with indirect requests

A group of speech scientists is attempting to determine the treatment efficacy for a previously developed method of intervention for spastic dysarthria. In order to determine an accurate measure of treatment efficacy which of the following measures should this group of scientists utilize? A. Test-retest measures and construct validity. B. Content validity and interobserver agreement. C. Randomization and effect size. D. Meta-analysis and systematic review.

Correct Answer: D Treatment efficacy is aimed at demonstrating the benefits of treatment through well-controlled studies with internal validity, statistical significance and practical significance. The strongest evidence of this treatment efficacy comes from meta-analysis (i.e., statistical analysis of accumulated evidence from multiple studies) and systematic reviews (i.e., objective and comprehensive overviews of research focused on a particular clinical issue). The best way for this group of researchers to prove the treatment efficacy for the intervention for spastic dysarthria is to utilize both of these methods.

A group of clinicians wishes to conduct research in a hospital setting. These clinicians work with clients who have voice disorders. Many of the clients are hoarse because they work in noisy settings where they shout a great deal during the workweek. The clinicians devise a rating scale to evaluate the hoarseness of these clients during evaluation sessions. The scale looks like this: 1. Almost no hoarseness 2. Slight hoarseness 3.moderate hoarseness 4.great amount of hoarseness This type of scale would be called a(n) A. ratio scale B. nominal scale C. interval scale D. logarithmic scale E. ordinal scale

Correct Answer: E An ordinal scale of measurement would be represented by numbers that can be arranged according to rank orders or levels, but he intervals between the numerals are unknown and probably not equal

A researcher wishes to assess the efficacy of the new Bloomberg method of training children to say /r/ accurately. He decides to use a single-subject design because he supervises in a university clinic that serves a number of children who have w/r substitutions. The researcher needs to keep several concepts in mind as he begins his research. Which one of the following concepts is false? A. ABAB designs rely upon two conditions: (a) the A phase or no-treatment phase, in which target behaviors are based-rated with no treatment, and (b) the B phase or treatment phase, in which the target behavior is treated. B. In a multiple-baseline-across-subjects design, several subjects are taught a behavior sequentially to show that only treated subjects change, and thus the treatment was effective. C. An example of a multiple-baseline-across-settings design would be teaching a behavior (correct /r/ production) sequentially in different settings to demonstrate that the behavior changed only in a treated setting and thus treatment was effective. D. For this researcher, an advantage of using a single-subject design to evaluate the efficacy of the Bloomberg method of training children to say /r/ accurately is that he can integrate research and clinical service by using the clients he and his students service as subjects in an experiment that attempts to answer a significant clinical question. E. In the ABAB withdrawal design, a target behavior is a base-rated (e.g., /r/ in the A phase), taught to the subject (accurately produced /r/ in the B phase), reduced by teaching its counterpart or an /r/ in the B phase) to show that the treatment was effective.

Correct Answer: E It is not true that in the ABAB withdrawal design, a target behavior is base rated (A phase), taught to the subject (B phase), reduced by teaching its counterpart or an incompatible behavior (A phase), and then taught again (B phase) to show that the treatment was effective. This happens in the ABAB reversal design.

A researcher teaches a new book reading program to caregivers of low-income children and evaluates the language skills of the children 1 year later. The researcher's goal is to evaluate whether there is a relationship between caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills. The researcher finds that there is an r=.10 correlational relationship between caregivers' reported implementation of the program and children's language skills. The researcher can safely conclude that A. there is a strong positive correlation between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills B. there is a strong negative correlation between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills C. there is a moderately significant cause-effect relationship between caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills D. there is mildly significant cause-effect relationship between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills E. there is no significant relationship between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills

Correct Answer: E The researcher can safely conclude that there is no significant relationship between the caregiver's implementation of the program and their children's language skills

You are conducting an assessment with an incoming kindergartener, Jason E., who has difficulty with word endings. Specifically, he tends to omit endings like -est (saying "sad" instead of "saddest"), -ily (saying "angry" instead of "angrily"), etc. He is having difficulty with which specific aspect of language? A. Emergent literacy B. Pragmatics C. Semantics D. Syntax E. Morphology

Correct Answer: E Jason is having difficulty with morphology, because he is deleting bound morphemes from the ends of words.

A fourth-grade child, Alex, has been referred to you for language testing by his teacher. His parents are concerned and upset with the teacher because they feel that Alex needs more help in reading and writing skills than he is receiving. They tell you that the math and science homework assignments are too difficult for him, and they feel that the fourth-grade teacher is making unreasonable demands. You find out that Alex did not attend preschool, and even in kindergarten, the teacher wrote on his first-trimester progress report that he "began school not knowing basic concepts; he didn't talk as much as other children either." You will tell Alex's parents that A. The teacher really is being unreasonable, and that in fourth grade, time should definitely be spent on developing foundational reading and writing skills B. Alex definitely has a language delay and needs therapy C. The teacher is making reasonable demands that are consistent with fourth-grade curriculum standards D. You would like to conduct an assessment of Alex's language skills in a variety of domains to see whether he needs support services in oral and written language E. C, D

Correct Answer: E The teacher is making reasonable demands; in fourth grade, children use reading and writing skills to learn information in content areas such as science and math. It is important for you to evaluate Alex's language skills to see if he needs intervention, because there are several red flags, such as his difficulties that began in kindergarten and his struggles with the fourth-grade curriculum

You are observing a clinician in a private practice setting. He specializes in child language disorders and serves elementary-age children from a variety of local public schools. When you observe this clinician doing therapy, you see that he has a well-structured reward system for each child. Some children receive a fruit loop for each correct response they make; others work to earn stickers and even small toys. This clinician has written down each specific behavior that he wishes to elicit from each child, with a percentage of accuracy attached. For example, an objective for one child reads, "When presented with a picture of two or more objects, Jimmy will label the picture using plural -s 80% of the time." This clinician probably subscribes to which theory of child language development? A. Information processing B. Nativist C. Social interactionist D. Government Binding E. Behaviorist

Correct Answer: E This clinician bases his therapy on the behaviorist theory, which promotes the concept of stimulus, response, and reinforcement of behaviors that are observable and measureable

If a patient has denervation of the trigeminal nerve (CN V), which deficit would MOST LIKELY result? A. Reduced sensation of the trachea B. Reduced salivation from the parotid gland C. Reduced lingual control D. Reduced capacity for mastication

D. Reduced capacity for masticatio CN V, the trigeminal nerve, controls sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation of the teeth, gums and oral mucosa, controls salivary flow from the minor glands, and controls the muscles of mastication and helps with some muscles of laryngeal/hyoid elevation. The most likely presentation of trigeminal nerve lesion would be a deficit with mastication, or chewing.

Which muscles contributes to hyolaryngeal depression? A. Stylohyoid B. Geniohyoid C. Mylohyoid D. Sternohyoid

D. Sternohyoid The muscles most responsible for laryngeal depression are the infrahyoids, which include the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, omohyoid and thyrohyoid. The stylohyoid, geniohyoid and mylohyoid muscles are suprahyoid muscles and contribute to laryngeal elevation.

Most pharyngeal muscles are innervated by cranial nerves A. V, VII B. XI, XII C. X, XI D. IX, X E. VIII, X

D. VII, X Most pharyngeal muscles are innervated by the cranial nerves IX, X

The structure that regulates body posture, equilibrium, and coordinated fine motor movements is the: A. Angular gyrus B. Corticospinal tract C. Circle of Willis D. Cerebellum E. Supramarginal gyrus

D. cerebellum

The laryngopharynx and the oropharynx add resonance to sounds produced by the larynx. The nasopharynx adds noticeable resonance to which sounds? A. k, g, t, d B. r, l, y C. f, sh, s D. m, n, ng E. w, y, r

D. m, n, ng

A person experiencing ataxia. Which central nervous system structure is MOST LIKELY impaired? A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Medulla D. Cerebellum

D. Cerebellum The cerebellum is the structure below the cerebral hemispheres that is highly responsible for coordination of movements. Damage to the cerebellum would result in ataxia, or uncoordinated movement, on the ipsilateral side of the body.

Muscles that contribute to the velopharyngeal closure through tensing or elevating the velum are the A. Tensor veli palatini, levator veli palatini, and salpingopharyngeus B. Stylopharyngeus, salpingopharyngeus, and levator veli palatini C. Levator veli palatini, genioglossus, and salpingopharyngeus D. Palatoglossus, tensor veli palatini, and levator veli palatini E. Tensor veli palatini and levator veli palatini

D. palatoglossus, tensor veli palatini, and levator veli palatini

When producing the voiceless fricative /f/, the muscle that MOST LIKELY contracts is the A. Lateral cricoarytenoid B. Transverse interarytenoid C. Oblique interarytenoid D. Posterior cricoarytenoid

D.Posterior cricoarytenoid As /f/ is a voices phoneme, it is important that the vocal folds are not contracted during production. In order for this to occur, the vocal folds needs to be abducted, invoking contraction of the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, the sole vocal fold abductor. The other muscles listed function as a vocal fold adductors and close the vocal folds for production as voiced phonemes. As /f/ is a voiceless phoneme, it would require no activation in these muscles

A speech and language researcher is performing research to determine the underlying method of child language learning. The researcher has accepted a stance that supports information-processing models of learning. This researcher believes that child language learning is: A. Dependent on strengthening of relationships between co-occurring events B. Dependent on short- and long-term memory stores C. Dependent on the amount of input provided D. Most prevalent in the pre-school age group

Dependent on short- and long-term memory stores, Information-processing models of learning focus on the role played by memory stores. Specifically, short-term and long-term memory play a large role in a child's language-learning ability. In contrast to this, connectionist models focus on strengthening of relationships between frequently co-occurring events, in addition to language forms. While the amount of linguistic input is important in a child's language-learning ability, this is not congruent with an established model of language-learning. Additionally, it is true that children experience language spurts during the pre-school years, but again, this is not part of an established language-learning model.

These are composed of a ring of connective tissue and muscle extending from the tips of the arytenoid cartilages to the larynx. They separate the laryngeal vestibule from the pharynx and help preserve the airway. A. Ventricular folds B. True vocal folds C. Lamina propia D. Infrahyoids E. Aryepiglottic folds

E. aryepiglottic folds The aryepiglottic folds are a ring of connective tissue and muscle extending from the tips of the arytenoid cartilages to the larynx. They separate the laryngeal vestibule from the pharynx and help preserve the airway.

The structure at the inferior portion of the tongue that connects the tongue with the mandible is called the A. Dorsum B. Root C. Blade D. Tip E. Lingual frenum

E. lingual frenum

Respiration relies on the muscles of inspiration and expiration. The thick, dome-shaped muscle that separates the abdomen form the thorax is called the: A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Levator costarum longis C. Serratus posterior superior D. Pectoralis major E. Diaphragm

E.Diaphragm The thick, dome-shaped muscle that separates the abdomen from the thorax is called the diaphragm.

A child is being seen by a speech-language pathologist (SLP) in an early intervention setting. The child is demonstrating deficits in foundational skills for social use of language, and these have been chosen as intervention targets. For which skills would this child MOST LIKELY have deficits? A. Gestures and vocalizations B. Vegetative sounds such as coughing and burping C. Eye contact, joint attention, and taking turns D. Talking about objects and events

Eye contact, joint attention, and taking turns, Research has demonstrated that these behaviors are important precursors to the development of social communication in young children. In typical development, children who show these aspects of interaction are believed to be advancing in their communicative development. Gestures and vocalizations and naming behaviors are later-developing occurrences and may or may not signal social awareness.

When a speaker is producing a vowel and the vowel is being acoustically analyzed, one can state as a general rule that A. F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue position (variation in the anterior to posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) B. F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F3 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior to posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) C. F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F3 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior to posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) D. F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior to posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) E. F3 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior to posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity)

F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior to posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity)

The speech-language pathologist (SLP) wants to use acoustic measurements of /r/ to document a child's progress in producing the sound. The BEST measurement to make is the amount of movement in: A. F0 B. F1 C. F2 D. F3

F3, Correct articulation of English /r/ results in a clear drop in F3 frequency.

What are three key language milestones that children meet between 18 and 24 months of age? A. Embedding sentences, expanding sentence types, conjoining sentences B. Showing objects, giving objects, pointing to objects C. Fifty-word vocabulary size, word spurt, combining words D. Increase in verb vocabulary, mastery of copula and auxiliary morphemes, phonological awareness skills

Fifty-word vocabulary size, word spurt, combining words, It is well documented that young children at around 18 months of age show a period of rapid growth in vocabulary and making two-word combinations. The other choices in this answer are either seen much earlier (showing objects) or later in development.

Compared to voiced stops, word-initial voiceless stops in English are expected to have a: A. Shorter voice onset time (VOT) B. Longer VOT C. More compact spectrum D. More diffuse spectrum

Longer VOT, VOT duration distinguishes voiced and voiceless stops, with voiceless stops having longer VOTs, especially in word-initial position. A compact vs. diffuse spectrum distinguishes stop place of articulation, with bilabial stops having diffuse falling spectra, alveolar stops having diffuse rising spectra and velar stops having compact spectra.

In order to accurately measure voice onset time (VOT) in a series of stop consonants, the speech-language pathologist (SLP) should work from: A. Shorter VOT B. Longer VOT C. More compact spectrum D. More diffuse spectrum E. You got this ugly hoe

Longer VOT, VOT is a time measurement. Time measurements should be made from broadband spectrograms or waveforms. Narrowband spectrograms have poor time resolution and should never be used for time measurements. Amplitude spectra have no time axis.

The pitch contour for a vowel shows several abrupt changes that the speech-language pathologist (SLP) suspects may be inaccurate. The best way to objectively document accuracy or inaccuracy of the pitch contour is to: A. Listen to the vowel to see if abrupt changes in pitch can be detected. B. Look at the waveform to see if it shows abrupt changes in pitch. C. Look at the amplitude spectrum to see if the harmonics show abrupt changes in spacing. D. Look at the narrowband spectrogram to see if the harmonic contours show abrupt changes.

Look at the narrowband spectrogram to see if the harmonic contours show abrupt changes, A pitch contour should follow the same contour as the sound's harmonics. Harmonic contours are visible in a narrowband spectrogram. Listening to a vowel provides useful information, but not objective documentation. Pitch changes are more difficult to see in a waveform. Since an amplitude spectrum has no time access, it does not show pitch over time.

Tongue position is related to F1 frequency in that, when the tongue is: A. Low in the mouth, F1 is low B. Low in the mouth, F1 is high C. At the front of the mouth, F1 is low D. At the front of the mouth, F1 is high

Low in the mouth, F1 is high, Tongue position determines the size of the pharynx and oral cavity. The pharynx is larger than the oral cavity and is therefore associated with F1. Tongue height is most strongly associated with pharynx size: When the tongue is pulled up toward the roof of the mouth, the air cavity in the pharynx is large and F1 is low; when the tongue is low in the mouth it occupies most of the space in the pharynx, leaving a small air pocket and resulting in a high F1.

The speech-language pathologist (SLP) is examining a spectrogram and waveform for the initial sounds in a child's production of the word spaghetti. The waveform begins with a silence followed by a transient noise. In the spectrogram, the transient noise is followed by formants, then by high-amplitude, high-frequency continuant noise. When listening to the word, the SLP expects to hear that the child: A. Produced the initial part of the word normally B. Metathesized /s/ and /p/ C. Produced /s/ as /f/ D. Produced /p/ as /m/

Metathesized /s/ and /p/, A silence followed by a transient noise indicated a stop manner of articulation; therefore, the word begins with a stop. Formants indicate a resonant sound such as a vowel. Continuant noise is a characteristic of fricatives, and a high-amplitude, high-frequency continuant noise is characteristic of /s/. Therefore, the sequence in the child's production is stop-vowel-/s/, while the expected sequence is /s/-stop-vowel. If /s/ were produced as /f/, then the friction noise would be low amplitude with no high-frequency peak. If /p/ were produced as /m/, then there would be no silence or transient noise.

Zach's parent speaks to him with exaggerated speech, short utterances and heightened inflections. They are showing: A. Motherese B. Bootstrapping C. Word-learning biases D. Frequent exposure to television

Motherese, Motherese refers to the universally observed style of adjusting speech patterns in interacting with very young children. In contrast to this, bootstrapping refers to use of language to infer the meaning of unknown vocabulary words. Finally, word-learning biases help children determine what referent is being labeled during early word learning.

The center of gravity for a sibilant fricative is expected to be: A. Higher than its skewness B. Lower than its skewness C. At the center of the spectrum D. Off-center in the spectrum

Off- center in the spectrum, Center of gravity for sibilant fricatives is expected to be off-center, whereas for nonsibilant fricatives, it should be at or near the center of the spectrum

A male child is brought to a speech and language clinic by his parents, who have told the speech-language pathologist (SLP) that the child refers to all round items as ball. This production includes describing words such as moon, circle, and orange. Which of the following best describes this child's productions? a.) The speech therapist is like oh no no no, don't even think about it girl, we're not saying ball A. Undergeneralization errors B. Phonological errors C. Overgeneralization errors D. Morphological errors

Overgeneralization errors, Overgeneralization errors are a type of semantic error in which a child thinks a word's meaning may be more broadly applied to other words. In this case, the child believes the meaning of the word ball can be applied to other round items. In contrast, undergeneralization errors are a different type of semantic error, in which the child believes a word's meaning is restricted to only a specific exemplar, such as dog for only their family dog. Phonological errors are a type of speech sound error and are not a type of language disorder. Finally, a morphological error would include errors in morphemes (i.e., application of the incorrect morpheme to reflect pluralization)

Charlie is a 3-year-old boy who is having trouble communicating with others. At school he has a habit of interrupting and seems rude. His mother says his speech is clear, but he has trouble getting to the point of his message, making his intentions hard to understand. Which of the following BEST describes the language area at which he is having the most problems? A. Morphology B. Semantics C. Gestural D. Pragmatics

Pragmatics, Charlie's behaviors indicate difficulty using the social rules of communication, rather than trouble with the grammar (syntax) or meaning (semantic) levels of language. There was no description of gesturing in this question.

Jake is a typically developing 13-month-old toddler, and is demonstrating several common forms of communicative intention for his age group. Which type of communicative intention would Jake MOST LIKELY NOT demonstrate? A. Requesting action B. Requesting permission C. Repeating D. Practicing

Requesting permission, Requesting permission is a form of communicative intent often expressed by preschoolers. As Jake has not reached preschool age, it is unlikely that he would be demonstrating this from of communicative intention. However, as he is a typically developing toddler, he would most likely demonstrate the communicative intentions of requesting an action, repeating, and practicing.

Samantha is a 20-month-old toddler who has not met several of her early word-learning milestones. She demonstrates a small vocabulary and does not make two-word combinations. Using this information, which of the following BEST describes Samantha? A. She demonstrates an early language disorder B. She demonstrates an early language difference C. She is a typically developing toddler D. She demonstrates an early language delay

She demonstrates an early language delay, Toddlers who do not meet early word-learning milestones in a timely manner, such as Samantha from this scenario, are referred to as late talkers. While most outgrow their early language delay, some will demonstrate language deficits that persist into preschool language disorders. Language differences refer to differing, but appropriate use of language. As Samantha has not reached several milestones, she is not a typically developing toddler.

Matthew is a 12-month-old boy whose pediatrician has referred him for assessment by the lumpy space princess (LSP) speech-language pathologist (SLP). The physician's referral message indicates that he is delayed in communication for his age. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY behavior expected in children around 12 months? A. Single words or pointing B. Combinations of two words C. Grammatically complete sentences with minor phonological errors D. Vegetative sounds such as coughing, burping, and some vocalizations

Single words or pointing, Children are usually using single words or doing some pointing by about 12 months of age. Grammar emerges later in development. Vegetative sounds are nonlinguistic, and vocalizing comes much earlier in development.

A supralaryngeal vocal tract (SLVT) is a broadly turned filter. This means that: A. The SLVT has an infinite number of resonant frequencies. B. As the shape of the SLVT changes, the resonant frequencies also change. C. Sinusoids will resonate if they are near a resonant frequency. D. Sound output dies away immediately when the sound source stops.

Sinusoids will resonate if they are near a resonant frequency, A broadly turned filter is one in which a sinusoid's frequency does not have to exactly equal the frequency of a filter peak in order to resonate. Frequencies that are near the filter peak will also resonate. When the resonant frequencies of a filter are changeable, it is called a variable filter. When sound output dies away immediately, it is called a heavily damped filter.

Julian Barrios Serrano is a typically developing 4-year-old preschooler. Which of the following structures would MOST LIKELY be in his language repertoire? A. Suggesting intention, emerging mastery of copula to be, identifies the first sound in a word B. Predominantly nouns, calling and requesting action intentions, ritual request gestures C. Spurts in word learning, combining two to three words, deletion of possessive -s D. Combining single words with pointing, 50 words in his expressive vocabulary, words composed of open syllables

Suggesting intention, emerging mastery of copula to be, identifies the first sound in a word A typical 4-year-old child usually exhibits more sophisticated pragmatic, metalinguistic and grammatical forms. The other items in this question all occur earlier in development.

An example of a sentence using an embedded form would be which of the following? A. I saw the squirrel climbing the tree B. The girl ate a cookie, three crackers, and some fruit C. Mom and Dad are going to the store to buy some groceries D. Because he was on time, they were happy with him E. The boy who got a haircut looks nice

The boy who got a haircut looks nice, Embedding refers to adding or rearranging elements within sentences; in this example, the phrase "who got a haircut" makes the sentence one that uses an embedded form.

A child is brought into a speech and language clinic for a language evaluation. After performing the evaluation, the speech-language pathologist (SLP) reveals the following utterance: "look doggy," "more cookie," "no bed," and "mommy good." Which of the following statements BEST describes this child's speech sample? A. The child is producing babbling B. The child is producing narratives C. The child is producing simple sentences D. The child is producing telegraphic speech

The child is producing telegraphic speech, Telegraphic speech is characterized by content word combinations that often contain a pivot word or phrase. As this child is producing two-word utterances that contain content words, they are demonstrating telegraphic speech. In contrast, babbling is an early from of communication consisting of consonant-vowel (CV) syllables, such as "bababa" Narratives include decontextualized monologues that convey a story, personal recount or retelling of a book or movie. Finally, simple sentences are a characteristic of Brown's stages II and III and include some from of grammatical structure, such as "I am walking"

Nasal consonants have a low-frequency nasal formant because the nasal cavity acts as: A. A side cavity, resulting in a zero between F1 and F2 B. A side cavity, resulting in a low-frequency F1 C. The largest resonating cavity, resulting in a zero between F1 and F2 D. The largest resonating cavity, resulting in a low-frequency F1

The largest resonating cavity, resulting in a low-frequency F1, In nasal consonants, the oral cavity acts as a side cavity (i.e., a resonating cavity with no direct connection to the outer air). The nasal cavity is the largest of the three resonating cavities in the supralaryngeal vocal tract (the pharynx, oral cavity, and nasal cavity) so it has the lowest resonating frequency. Since air resonates in the nasal cavity during nasal consonants, F1 is at its lowest for nasal sounds

An audiologist has recently completed a full audiometric evaluation on a patient with complaints of hearing loss with the following pure-tone average of 78 dB hearing loss (HL) in the right ear and 23 dB HL in the left ear. Which of the following statements BEST describes this patient? A. The patient demonstrates a severe right hearing loss and a minimal left hearing loss B. The patient demonstrates a profound right hearing loss and a mild left hearing loss C. The patient demonstrates a moderately severe right hearing loss and normal left hearing D. The patient demonstrates a severe right hearing loss and a mild left hearing loss

The patient demonstrates a severe right hearing loss and a minimal left hearing loss, When discussing range of hearing loss 71-90 dB HL would be classified as a severe hearing loss, and 16-25 dB HL would be classified as minimal hearing loss. As this patient fits these diagnostic markers, the patient would be diagnosed with severe right hearing loss and a minimal left hearing loss.

What would the speech-language pathologist (SLP) expect to observe if comparing amplitude spectra for a sinusoid and a periodic complex sound? A. The sinusoid has evenly spaced lines, whereas the periodic complex sound has irregularly spaced lines. B. The sinusoid has irregularly spaced lines, whereas the periodic complex sound has evenly spaced lines. C. The sinusoid has only one line, whereas the complex periodic sound has more than one line. D. The sinusoid has lines that are all the same amplitude, whereas the complex periodic sound has lines of different amplitudes

The sinusoid has only one line, whereas the complex periodic sound has more than one line, A sinusoid contains only one frequency. It therefore has only a single line on a spectrum. A complex sound contains multiple frequencies and therefore has more than one line. Since this is a complex periodic sound, the lines are evenly spaced.

Broad phonemic transcription involves A. The use of IPA symbols to transcribe phonemes by enclosing them within slash marks (e.g., /f/) B. The use of diacritical marks to transcribe phonemes by enclosing them within slash marks (e.g., /f/) C. The transcription of allophones by placing them within brackets (e.g., [f]). D. The transcription of allophones by the use of diacritical marks. E. The use of orthographic symbols to transcribe phonemes by enclosing them within slash marks (e.g., /r/)

The use of IPA symbols to transcribe phonemes by encolsing them within slash marks (/f/), Broad phonemic transcription involves use of IPA symbols to transcribe phonemes by enclosing the within slash marks

The frequency of a periodic sound increased by 100 hertz. What effect would this change in frequency have on the wavelength of the sound? A. There would be no change in wavelength B. There would be an increase in wavelength C. There would be a decrease in wavelength D. There would be a dampening of the sound

There would be a decrease in wavelength, Wavelength is the distance travelled by a sound during a single period. This measure has an inverse relationship with frequency. This means that higher frequency sounds would have a shorter wavelength. Therefore, if the frequency of a sound was increased, its wavelength would decrease accordingly.

A semivowel that can be categorized as a voiced bilabial glide that is +anterior and +continuant is the A. /j/ B. /w/ C. /∫/ D. /r/ E. /h/

W, The /w/ sound is a semivowel that can be categorized as a voiced bilabial glide that is +anterior and +continuant.

A sinusoidal wave is a sound wave A. With horizonal and vertical symmetry B. With one peak and one valley C. With a single frequency D. That is a result of simple harmonic motion E. All of the above

With horizonal and vertical symmetry-With one peak and one valley- With a single frequency- That is a result of simple harmonic motion, A sinusoidal wave is a sound wave with horizontal and vertical symmetry. It contains one peak or crest, and one valley, or trough. It contains a single frequency and is the result of simple harmonic motion.

When two or more sounds of differing frequencies are combined, the result is a A. Complex tone; the vibrations that make up this complex tone may be said to be periodic or aperiodic B. Complex tone; the vibrations are always periodic, where waves repeat themselves at regular intervals C. Pure tone, where the vibrations are usually periodic D. Pure tone, where the vibrations are always periodic E. Complex tone; the vibrations are usually aperiodic, where the vibratory patterns are random and the next pattern cannot be predicted from the previous pattern

complex tone whose vibrations may be periodic or aperiodic, When two or more sounds of differing frequencies are combined, the result is a complex tone; the vibrations that make up this complex tone may be said to be periodic or aperiodic

In a periodic complex sound, tones that occur over the fundamental frequency and can be characterized as whole-number multiples of the fundamental frequency are called A. Complex sinusoidal wave forms B. Autocorrelational periodic wave forms C. Multiple bandwidths D. Tonal configuration forms E. harmonics

harmonics

The /r/ and /l/ sounds may both be categorized as A. rhotics B. glides C. laterals D. liquids E. retroflexes

liquids, The /r/ and /l/ sounds may both be categorized as liquids

The two properties of a medium that affect sound transmission are A. Amplitude and intensity B. Mass and elasticity C. Compression and rarefaction D. Pressure and force E. Elasticity and compression

mass and elasticity

The back-and-forth movement of air molecules because of a vibrating object is referred to as F. Freaky A. oscillation B. amplitude C. velocity D. displacement E. rarefaction

oscillation

At what age do a variety of word classes and sentence types emerge? A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Preschool D. School age

preschool, It is during the preschool years that more complex language is noted. Prior to this time, children express language through babbling, which give way to first words. Children then build their expressive lexicon, and begin expressing language through simple sentences before reaching complex language structures.

The lowest frequency of a periodic wave is also known as A. The fundamental frequency or second harmonic B. The fundamental frequency or first harmonic C. The formant frequency or first harmonic D. The first octave or the fundamental frequency E. The second octave or the first harmonic

the fundamental frequency or first harmonic

The term coarticulation refers to A. Speech sounds being modified due to the influence of adjacent sounds to the point that there are perceptible changes in sounds B. The extent to which vocal tract configurations change shape during the production of consonants and vowels in running speech C. Vocal punctuation, or a combination of suprasegmentals, such as intonation and pausing D. The influence of various syllables upon one another when a client recites a phonetically balanced list of words E. The influence of one phoneme upon another in production and perception wherein two different articulators move simultaneously to produce two different speech sounds

the influence of one phoneme upon another in production and perception, wherein two different articulators move simultaneously to produce two different speech sounds, Coarticulation is specifically defined as the influence of one phoneme upon another production and perception, wherein two different articulators move simultaneously to produce two different speech sounds.

A natural frequency is a frequency A. With which a source of sound vibrates naturally B. That is unrelated to the mass and stiffness of the vibrating body C. That is the center frequency of a formant D. That refers to the simple harmonic motion E. That is the lowest frequency of a periodic wave

with which a source of sound vibrates naturally, A natural frequency is a frequency with which a source of sound vibrates naturally and that is affected by the mass and stiffness of the vibrating body

Phonotactic probability, neighborhood density and semantic representation influence what aspect of language use and learning? A. Morphemes B. Phonemes C. Word intentions D. Words

words, The characteristics described are all factors for word production as opposed to syllable forms of individual sounds or social rules.