Chapter 1 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 18 Lecture Questions, Chapter 17 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 16 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 15 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 14 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 13 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 10 Quiz, Chapter 9 Lecture Quiz, Chapter 20 Lecture Quiz, Chapt...

15. In naming viruses, the family name ends with ________ and genus name ends with _________. a. −viridae, −virus b. −virion, virus c. −virus, −viridae d. -virus, virion

-viridae, −virus

15. A patient at a clinic has tested positive for HIV. Her blood contained 700 µL CD4 T cells and she does not have any apparent illness. Her infection is in which stage? a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

1

8. What is the ID50 median value in humans for Norovirus? a. <1,000 b. 1-10 c. 200-5,000 d. 10-100

1-10

8.A magnification of 10⨯ means that the image appears _____ times the size of the object as viewed with the naked eye. a.1 b.100 c.10 d.1000

10

According to the animation, for approximately how many days is IgG present in the serum?

10 days

10.If a 10⨯ objective lens is selected and the ocular lens is 10⨯, the total magnification would be a.100 b.1,000 c.10,000 d.10

100

5. Also known as the clap, gonorrhea is a common sexually transmitted disease of the reproductive system that is especially prevalent in individuals between the ages of ________________. a. 25 and 39 b. 5 and 10 c. 10 and 15 d. 15 and 24

15 and 24

2. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, using a microscope, was the first to actually describe observations of bacteria, in ______________ a. 1875 b. 1575 c. 1675 d. 1775

1675

6. In what decade did we recognize the modern cell theory? a. 1950s b. 1850s c. 1940s d. 1840s

1850s

3. In what year was observed the separation of chromosomes into daughter cells during meiosis? a. 1920 b. 1866 c. 1902 d. 1899

1902

How is DNA replication semiconservative?

2 double stranded DNA molecules, each consisting of 1 parental strand and 1 daughter strand

15. If a culture starts with 100 cells, how many cells will be present after five generations with no cell death? a. 1600 b. 3200 c. 200 d. 400

3200

2. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the National Institutes of Health (NIH) have established four classification levels, called "biological safety levels" (BSLs). Which one of these levels is the most dangerous? a. 4 b. 3 c. 1 d. 2

4

3. Carbon forms ____ chemical bonds, whereas nitrogen forms _____ , hydrogen forms _____ , and oxygen forms _____ . a. 4, 3, 2, 1 b. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4, 1 d. 4, 3, 1, 2

4,3,1,2

1. The earth is estimated to be ______ billion years old, but for the first 2 billion years, the atmosphere lacked ______________ , without which the earth could not support life as we know it. a. 4.6, oxygen b. 10, carbon c. 2.6, oxygen d. 4.6, hydrogen

4.6, Oxygen

10. Energy from light is captured by pigments and converted into chemical energy that drives carbon fixation and other metabolic processes. The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is absorbed by these organisms is defined as photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). It lies within the visible light spectrum ranging from _______________ nanometers (nm) and extends in the near infrared for some photosynthetic bacteria. a. 700 to 900 b. 300 to 500 c. 400 to 700 d. 100 to 700

400 to 700

8. According to the text, how much of the earth is covered by water? a. 80% b. 70% c. 60% d. 90%

70%

10. One millimeter can be shown as: a. = 0.001 m = 10−3 m b. = 0.01 m = 10−2 m c. = 0.000001 m = 10−6 m d. = 0.000000001 m = 10−9 m

= 0.001 m = 10−3 m

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?

A Jellyfish sting

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?

A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells

Which of the following would be considered a vector?

A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food

If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would most likely be

A phagocyte

The primary immune response involves

A slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline

A reservoir is

A source of microbial contamination

A person with type O blood can donate to individuals with which of the following blood types?

A, B, AB, or O

The valence of an atom represents its

Ability to interact with other atoms

The purpose of light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is to

Absorb light energy and use it for ATP and NADPH synthesis

Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis is true?

Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints.

14. Viruses are_____________ microorganisms, which means they are not composed of cells a. Anucleuar b. Acellular c. Productive d. plentiful

Acellular

When do helper T cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?

After proliferation into a clonal population

Phagocytosis is a process for engulfing large particles. Which feature of antibodies will help to make particles large, therefore enhancing phagocytosis?

Agglutination

1. Which of the following is not a chemical defense with regards to immunity? a. Agranulocytes b. Cytokines c. Antimicrobial peptides d. Plasma protein mediators

Agranulocytes

The organism known as a Lichen is composed of a symbiotic relationship between a Fungi and which two possible organisms?

Algae, Cyanobacteria

Which of the following is a basic process of life? a) Growth b) Reproduction c) Responsiveness d) Metabolism e) All of the above

All of the above

1. All living organisms are classified into three domains of life: a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Eukarya d. All of these

All of these

2. What are some examples of macronutrients? a. Hydrogen b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. All of these

All of these

9.Which of these are examples of light microscopes? a.brightfield microscopes b.all of these are types of light microscopes c.darkfield microscope d.phase-contrast microscopes

All of these are types of light microscopes

Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are commonly called

Allergies

Multiple sclerosis is

An autoimmune disease in which cytotoxic T cells attack the myelin sheath of neurons

The condition is known as microbial antagonism may be defined as

An unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes

This chid has had a moderate reaction to his first bee sting. If he were to be stung again, the signs and symptoms could be severe and life threatening due to restriction of airways. What is this reaction called?

Anaphylaxis, use should use epinephrine

Why are chemotherapeutic agents that work on the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria a good drug choice?

Animal hosts lack peptidoglycan cell walls

An anamnestic response is

Another name for a secondary response

7. Where is Lake Whillans located? a. Antarctica b. Iceland c. Europe d. Arctic

Antarctica

A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component?

Antibodies

9. How are monoclonal antibodies produced? a. Antibody-producing B cells from a mouse are fused with myeloma cells and then the cells are grown in tissue culture. b. They are produced by a mouse's immune system as a natural response to an infection. c. They are produced by the human immune system as a natural response to an infection. d. A mouse is injected with an antigen and then antibodies are harvested from its serum.

Antibody-producing B cells from a mouse are fused with myeloma cells and then the cells are grown in tissue culture.

A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin, and swelling on her arms and legs. She had not been in any parks or wooded areas recently but she had been shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the physician likely to prescribe at this point?

Antihistamines

Which of the following OTC medications would provide the best relief of symptoms?

Antihistamines

What is selective toxicity?

Antimicrobial drugs are chemicals that are intended to have selective toxicity meaning they kill microbial cells but not the host cells

An antimicrobial chemical used on the skin is usually called an

Antiseptic

A pathogen is best described as

Any microorganism that causes disease

Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies, and 4 pairs of jointed legs in the adult stage are

Arachnids

Bacterial endospores

Are a strategy against unfavorable conditions

1.Who was earliest recorded scholar to articulate the theory of spontaneous generation? a.Aedesia b.Aristotle c.Agamemnon d.Acrion

Aristotle

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces _____ immunity.

Artificially active

3. Name the infection caused by the large nematode roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides. a. Strongyloides b. Necator c. Enterobius d. Ascariasis

Ascariasis

Grafting skin from one area of the body to another in order to cover a burn is considered

Autograft

1. ___ cells mature in the bone marrow and are responsible for the production of glycoproteins called antibodies, or immunoglobulins. a. B b. T c. neither of these d. T & B

B

TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate

B cells

______ stimulated with_____ differentiate into _____, which secrete antibodies into the bloodstream.

B cells, antigen, plasma cells

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

6. Which of the following antibacterial drugs does not Inhibit biosynthesis of proteins? a. Tetracyclines b. Macrolides c. Bacitracin d. Aminoglycosides

Bacitracin

Which of the following is the most difficult to inactivate?

Bacterial Endospores

A _____ is a virus that infects bacterial cells.

Bacteriophage

You have an organism that is greenish, photosynthetic, has a cell wall, but it does not have an obvious nucleus. This organism is most likely a

Bacterium

Why is it inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial drugs to treat a cold or the flu?

Because these diseases are caused by viruses

7. This class of organisms require a copious amount of organic nutrients. a. Gammaproteobacteria b. Epsilonproteobacteria c. Betaproteobacteria d. Alphaproteobacteria

Betaproteobacteria

What is the function of the CD8 receptor?

Bind to MHC molecules

9. Viruses that infect plants are considered ______________ parasites, which means that they can establish an infection without killing the host. a. osmotic b. pathogenic c. biotrophic d. hetermorphic

Biotrophic

The complement cascade and its by products contribute to

Both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection

The production of acetic acid in vinegar requires the use of ____

Both yeast and bacteria

A nosocomial disease is a disease acquired

By being in a health care facility

13. Which of these elements is not a micronutrient? a. C b. Ca c. Cu d. Co

C

Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells.

9. Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is best confirmed by analysis of _________ obtained by a lumbar puncture. a. CSF b. CCF c. CGH d. CFS

CSF

15. By definition, carbohydrates contain which elements? a. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen b. carbon and hydrogen c. carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen d. carbon and oxygen

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

3. _______________ ________________ developed a taxonomic system for categorizing organisms into related groups a. Louis Pasteur b. Carolus Linnaeus c. Charles Darwin d. Robert Koch

Carolus Linnaeus

What are two characteristics that distinguish archea from bacteria?

Cell wall composition, they are shaped much differently and are eukaryotic

Which of the following can release histamines?

Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway

Rennin is used in the production of

Cheese

The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is called ____.

Chemotaxis

Fungi and insects both use what nitrogenous polysaccharide as a protective molecule in their outer surfaces?

Chitin

11. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by serovars of a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. b. Haemophilis ducreyi. c. Chlamydia trachomatis. d. Treponema pallidum.

Chlamydia trachomatis

Short, hair-like structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement is called

Cilia

Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

Cockroach transmission of Shigella

When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of <1 meter, it is considered

Contact transmission

Transgenic organisms

Contain genes from other organisms

Potable water is water that

Contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink

Which structure below is associated with the mitochondria of a eukaryotic cell?

Cristae

11. Another large, diverse group of phototrophic bacteria compose the phylum_________________ . they get their blue-green color from the chlorophyll contained in their cells. Scientists hypothesize that this group played a critical role in the change of our planet's anoxic atmosphere 1-2 billion years ago to the oxygen-rich environment we have today. a. Borrelia b. Bacteroides c. Cyanobacteria d. Treponema

Cyanobacteria

3. ___________________________ is a parasitic infection caused by the larval form of the pork tapeworm, Taenia solium. When the larvae invade the brain and spinal cord, the condition is referred to as neurocysticercosis. a. Balamuthia b. Trypanosoma c. Cysticercosis d. Toxoplasma

Cysticercosis

Which cells directly attack abnormal cells in the body?

Cytotoxic T cells

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

Cytotoxic T-cells

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.

According to the animation, on what day does IgM first appear?

Day 5

According to the animation, on which day does the production of IgG occur int the secondary response?

Day 5

Pus is comprised of

Dead phagocytes

Which group of bacteria lives in environments similar to those that may have existed on the early Earth?

Deeply branching bacteria

A nurse prepping an area of skin for an injection is an example of

Degerming

Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?

Dendritic cells

Plaque assays are used for

Determining the the density of phage in a culture

11.If less-than-maximal light levels are needed, the amount of light striking the specimen can be easily adjusted by opening or closing a_______________ between the condenser and the specimen. a.Diaphragm b.Illuminator c.Rheostat d.condenser

Diaphragm

In macrophages and dendritic cells, some small parts of the phagocytosed particle are presented to other cells of the immune system. If you were to draw an arrow leading to an "antigen presentation" as described above, from which word would it extend?

Digestion

4. What is the term used to inactivate most microbes on the surface of a fomite by using antimicrobial chemicals or heat? a. Sanitization b. Disinfection c. Antisepsis d. Sterilization

Disinfection

6. What types of microbes live in the intestines? a. A narrow range of bacteria and fungi, especially Bacteroides b. A narrow range of bacteria, especially Firmicutes c. Diverse species of bacteria, archaea, and fungi, especially Bacteroides and Firmicutes bacteria d. Archaea and fungi only

Diverse species of bacteria, archaea, and fungi, especially Bacteroides and Firmicutes bacteria

Sugar and salt act as preservatives by

Drawing water out of food

11. Which type of E. coli infection can be severe with life-threatening consequences such as hemolytic uremic syndrome? a. ETEC b. EPEC c. EHEC d. EIEC

EHEC

6. In a sandwich ______________, the goal is to use antibodies to precisely quantify specific antigen present in a solution, such as antigen from a pathogen, a serum protein, or a hormone from the blood or urine. a. Assay b. ELISA c. Immunochemistry d. Immunoglobulin

ELISA

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?

Each antibody has at least two-antigen binding sites

How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.

1. Until the late 1930s and the advent of the _______________ microscope, no one had seen a virus. Yet treatments for preventing or curing viral infections were used and developed long before that. a. Inverted b. Compound c. Light d. Electron

Electron

Which parts of atoms interact in a chemical reaction?

Electrons

John Snow's research during a London cholera outbreak laid the foundation for which branch of Microbiology?

Epidemiology

The study of occurrence, distribution, and spread of disease is know as

Epidemiology

13. A single antigen molecule may be composed of many individual ________. a. B-cell receptors b. epitopes c. T-cell receptors d. MHC II

Epitopes

13. Which of the following viruses is most widespread in the human population? a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Ebola virus c. hantavirus d. human immunodeficiency virus

Epstein-Barr virus

A single-celled eukaryote that is both photosynthetic and chemoheterotroph is a

Euglenoid

1. The protozoal disease malaria was responsible for 584,000 deaths worldwide (primarily children in Africa) in 2013, according to the World Health Organization. Malaria is a ___________________ microbe a. Eukaryotic b. Bacterial c. Viral

Eukaryotic

Which of the following phagocytic processes occurs last in the sequence?

Exocytosis

6. Helicobacter pylori, the bacteria responsible for peptic ulcers (or stomach ulcers) are painful sores on the stomach lining, is caused by stress. a. false b. sometimes true if combined with spicy foods c. true d. none of these

False

10. Which bacterial structures are important for adherence to surfaces? (Select all that apply.) a. Fimbriae b. Endospores c. cell walls d. flagella

Fimbriae

7.Certain______________ dyes absorb ultraviolet or blue light and then use the energy to emit photons of a different color, giving off light rather than simply vibrating. This a.Fluorescent b.Violet c.Gamma d.cosmic

Fluorescent

2. _____________ _____________ experimental setup consisted of an open container, a container sealed with a cork top, and a container covered in mesh that let in air but not flies. a. Marina Gamba's b. Galileo Galilei's c. Francesco Redi's d. Marc Amelius's

Francesco Redi's

A mushroom produces mature spores and releases them into the environment via the

Fruiting body

4. Which protist is a concern because of its ability to contaminate water supplies and cause diarrheal illness? a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Plasmodium vivax c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Giardia lamblia

Giardia lamblia

8. Which of the following individuals did not contribute to the establishment of cell theory? a. Robert Remak b. Robert Hooke c. Matthias Schleiden d. Girolamo Fracastoro

Girolamo Fracastoro

What does the plasma membrane of a phagocyte attach to on a microorganism?

Glycoproteins

15.Differential staining techniques commonly used in clinical settings include: a.Ectospore staining b.none of these c.Gram staining d.both of these

Gram staining

While molecule triggers apoptosis?

Granzyme

14. Which form of hepatitisvirus can only infect an individual who is already infected with another hepatitisvirus? a. HEV b. HDV c. HBV d. HAV

HDV

Which of the following pairings of Microbe and Disease was disproven by Kochs Postulates?

Haemophilus influenzae and the flu

If the hyphae of a fungus are septate, this means they

Have crosswalls separating the cells

According to the animation, B cells interact directly with

Helper T cells

Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are

Helper T-Cells

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system

In a process called _____, blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood

Hematopoiesis

11. An example of an immortal cell line is the HeLa cell line, which was originally cultivated from tumor cells obtained from ________________ _________________, a patient who died of cervical cancer in 1951. a. Harry Lacks b. Henrietta Lucas c. Henrietta Leeks d. Henrietta Lacks

Henrietta Lacks

Louis Pasteur is considered the Father of Microbiology because of

His experiments with and observations of microbes

What is urticaria?

Hives

9. Which of the following is a correct usage of binomial nomenclature? a. Homo SAPIENS b. Homo sapiens c. homo sapiens d. Homo Sapiens

Homo sapiens

14. Which of the following is a pathogen that could not be identified by the original Koch's postulates? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Salmonella enterica Typhimurium d. Human immunodeficiency virus

Human immunodeficiency virus

Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as _____ infections.

Iatrogenic

Which of the following immunoglobins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

IgE

Which of the following is not considered a hypersensitivity reaction?

Immune system attack on the thyroid gland

5. ____________________________ is the study of blood and blood-forming tissue in relation to the immune response. a. Immunohematology b. Immunocytotology c. Immunoneutrology d. Immunochemotology

Immunohematology

The study of the body's defenses against pathogens is called

Immunology

Where is the majority of ATP generated in most eukaryotic cells?

In the mitochondrial matrix

Fomites are

Inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens

Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving

Increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both

Which of the following is the correct sequence of disease process?

Incubation, Prodromal Period, Illness, Decline, Convalescence

A patient acquires an infection by touching a contaminated door handle. Which best describes the mode of transmission?

Indirect contact transmission

Pasteurs experiments on fermentation laid the foundation for

Industrial microbiology

10. Which of the following is true of HSV-1? a. Infection is generally self-limiting. b. It causes oral thrush in immunocompromised patients. c. It is usually treated with amoxicillin. d. It is a bacterium.

Infection is generally self-limiting.

The process known as _______ brings a variety of physical, chemical and cellular forces together to fight invading microorganisms.

Inflammation

Methicillin is an example of the beta lactam class of drugs that

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Mucous membranes are a part of

Innate defense

The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of what?

Innate immunity

What are the three inputs and two outputs of Photosynthesis?

Input: Sunlight, H2O, CO2 Output: O2, Glucose

First line of defense may be described as

Intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth

Antigen processing and presentation

Is a way for a cell to give information about its activities

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?

It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage

Pure water has a neutral pH because

It dissociates into equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions

5. Which of the following is NOT a way the normal microbiota of the intestine helps to prevent infection? a. It generates large quantities of oxygen that kill anaerobic pathogens. b. It consumes food and occupies space, outcompeting potential pathogens. c. It speeds up the process by which microbes are flushed from the digestive tract. d. It produces acids that lower the pH of the stomach.

It generates large quantities of oxygen that kill anaerobic pathogens.

Which of the following chromosome characteristics would identify it as a Prokaryotic rather than a Eukaryotic?

It is a circular molecule

10. Why was the alga Acetabularia a good model organism for Joachim Hämmerling to use to identify the location of genetic material? a. It self-fertilizes. b. It is a large, asymmetrical, single cell easy to see with the naked eye. c. It lacks a nuclear membrane. d. It makes a protein capsid.

It is a large, asymmetrical, single cell easy to see with the naked eye.

What is the function of the parental DNA in replication?

It serves as the template for DNA replication

Rabies is an example of a zoonosis that is hard to control because

Its reservoir contain both domestic and sylvatic animals

14. Which of these diseases can be prevented with a vaccine for humans? a. West Nile encephalitis b. eastern equine encephalitis c. western equine encephalitis d. Japanese encephalitis

Japanese encephalitis

2. Who was the Austrian monk and botanist that was experimenting with garden peas, demonstrating and documenting basic patterns of inheritance? a. Albrecht Kossel b. Johann Gregor Mendel c. Albert Einstein d. Friedrich Miescher

Johann Gregor Mendel

11. Who conducted studies to track the source of cholera outbreaks in London which ultimately resulted in the first known public health response to an epidemic? a. John Snow b. Louis Pasteur c. Ignaz Semmelweis d. Joseph Lister

John Snow

4. __________________________ was a British physician known as the father of epidemiology for determining the source of the 1854 Broad Street cholera epidemic in London. His work represents an early epidemiological study and it resulted in the first known public health response to an epidemic. a. John Snow b. Jack Snowden c. John Snowden d. Jack Snow

John Snow

7. ___________________ is frequently caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis and, or Pseudomonas aeruginosa, especially among contact lens users, and can lead to blindness. a. Keratitis b. Papillomas c. Acne d. Herpes

Keratitis

7. Who was the first scientist to articulate the endosymbiotic hypothesis? a. Andreas Schimper b. Konstantin Mereschkowski c. Ivan Wallin d. Robert Brown

Konstantin Mereschkowski

Microorganisms of which genus play a significant role in the production of both soy sauce and yogurt?

Lactobacillus

8. Not all animal viruses undergo replication by the lytic cycle. There are viruses that are capable of remaining hidden or dormant inside the cell in a process called______________ . a. dormancy b. transcriptase c. persistence d. latency

Latency

The only arthropod vectors that can spend their entire lifetime associated with one host are

Lice

_____ are so sensitive to pollutants, they are used as indicators of environmental conditions.

Lichens

During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?

Log phase

During which phase is bacteria growth at its maximum rate?

Log phase

4. Who definitively refuted the long-disputed theory of spontaneous generation? a. Lazzaro Spallanzani b. Marie Curie c. Louis Pasteur d. Galileo Galilei

Louis Pasteur

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture would that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the would will most likely end up in the

Lymph nodes of the groin

In which intracellular compartment would you expect most of the digestive enzymes involved in pathogen destruction to be found?

Lysosome

Sweat glands produce _____ , which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits present in the wall.

Lysozyme

Based on the animation, T cells recognize the antigen displayed by what protein of the B cell?

MHC

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T cell?

MHC proteins

7. Who proposed that swamps might harbor tiny, disease-causing animals too small to see? a. Marcus Terentius Varro b. Thucydides c. Hippocrates d. Louis Pasteur

Marcus Terentius Varro

Which of the following is a tissue cell which produces leukotrienes and prostaglandins in response to allergen binding?

Mast cell

Which process is represented in the figure above?

Meiosis

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ____ responses.

Memory

Which cells are involved in a secondary response?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called

Metastasis

Parasitic worms are studied in Microbiology because

Microscopic examination is used to diagnose patient samples

10. ______________ are unicellular fungi that are _______________intracellular parasites. a. Ascomycota, obligate b. Ascomycota, falcultative c. Microsporidia, falcutative d. Microsporidia, obligate

Microsporidia, obligate

Recombinant DNA technology can be most accurately defined as the

Modification of the genome of an organism for practical purposes

Which of these foods will spoil the fastest?

Moist foods

13. ____________ have been used to make pharmaceuticals, including penicillin. a. Plants b. Molds c. Bacteria d. Algae

Molds

4. When two species benefit from each other, the symbiosis is called_____________ . a. Amensalism b. Neutralism c. Parasitism d. Mutualism

Mutualism

The_____ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.

Mycelium

12. The genus ____________________ is an important cause of a diverse group of infectious diseases. It is is represented by bacilli covered with a mycolic acid coat. a. Bifidobacterium b. Gardnerella c. Corynebacterium d. Mycobacterium

Mycobacterium

Which bacteria genus below is slow growing, has my colic acids in their cell walls, and is responsible for TB?

Mycobacterium

8. Which species is not associated with NGU? a. Mycoplasma hominis b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Mycoplasma genitalium d. Chlamydia trachomatis

Mycoplasma hominis

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

Naturally acquired active immunity

Babies that are fed formula instead of being breastfed partially lack which of the following types of immunity?

Naturally acquired passive immunity

3. In 1745, John Needham (1713-1781) published a report of his own experiments, in which he briefly boiled broth infused with plant or animal matter, hoping to kill all preexisting microbes. He then sealed the flasks. After a few days, Needham observed that the broth had become cloudy and a single drop contained numerous microscopic creatures. He argued that the new microbes must have arisen spontaneously.What is the likely explanation for this result? a. None of these b. Spontaneous generation c. Needham likely did not boil the broth enough to kill all preexisting microbes. d. All of the existing microbes had been killed

Needham likely did not boil the broth enough to kill all preexisting microbes.

9. A strain of bacteria associated with a bladder infection shows gram-negative rods. What species is most likely to be the causative agent? a. Escherichia coli b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Mycoplasma hominis d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

8. Which of the following organisms causes epidemic meningitis cases at college campuses? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Haemophilus influenzae type b d. Neisseria meningitidis

Neisseria meningitidis

6. Phylum__________________ (the roundworms) is a diverse group containing more than 15,000 species, of which several are important human parasites a. Trichinella b. Dirofilaria c. Nematoda d. Helminths

Nematoda

Which of the following parts of the body is associated with multiple sclerosis?

Nervous tissue

The flu virus mutate fairly frequently. Its adhesive proteins change such theta we have different strains of influenza each year. When a particular flu virus mutates such that its adhesive proteins change, which function of antibodies is disrupted?

Neutralization

2. Plants and animals also rely heavily on prokaryotes for ________________ fixation. a. Hydrogen b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. helium

Nitrogen

Many cyanobacteria carry out both oxygenic photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation, but oxygen inhibits nitrogen fixation. So how do they manage both processes?

Nitrogen fixation is sequestered in specialized cells called heterocysts.

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?

Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus

Put the following groups in order from most inclusive to most specific Ex) Family, phylum, domain, class, kingdom, order, genus, species

None of the above

15. Which cause of viral gastroenteritis commonly causes projectile vomiting a. hepatitisvirus b. Rotavirus c. Noroviruses d. Astroviruses

Noroviruses

5. The classification of prokaryotes was initially based on their shape, staining patterns, and biochemical or physiological differences. We can also use __________________ __________________ to determine their classification. a. cellular membranes b. golgi bodies c. nucleotide sequences d. mitochondrial ribosomes

Nucelotide sequences

Which of the following blood types can be safely transfused to someone with an O blood type?

O

6. What is the name of the class of organisms capable of living in low-nutrient environments such as deep oceanic sediments, glacial ice, or deep undersurface soil? a. Heterotrophs b. None of these c. Homeotrophs d. Oligotrophs

Oligotrophs

Why is nitrogen a growth-limiting nutrient?

Only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis

Viroids are small, circular pieces of RNA that infect

Only plants

3. Who are the closest relatives to Amoebozoas? a. Archaeplastidia b. Rhizaria c. Chromalveolata d. Opisthokonta

Opisthokonta

A chemoheterotroph obtains its carbon from ____ and its energy from ____ sources.

Organic, Redox Reactions

13. When the concentration of solutes is greater on one side of the membrane, water diffuses across the membrane from the side with the lower concentration (more water) to the side with the higher concentration (less water) until the concentrations on both sides become equal. This diffusion of water is called _____________ . a. Membrane b. Potential c. Osmosis d. diffusion

Osmosis

Cell wall damage will make a bacterial cell more susceptible to

Osmotic pressure

Chagas disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?

Parenteral route

What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically?

Penicillin

According to the animation, antibodies interact with which innate defenses?

Phagocytosis and the complement system

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an intracellular pathogen of humans. After being ingested by a macrophage, it prevents formation of the _____ by preventing fusion of the phagosome with the _____.

Phagolysosome, lysosome

10. The __________________ bacteria are a large and diverse category of bacteria that do not represent a taxon but, rather, a group of bacteria that use sunlight as their primary source of energy. a. Oligotrophic b. Phototrophic c. Mesotrophic d. autotrophic

Phototrophic

9. The____________________ are found in aquatic environments, inhabiting freshwater, saltwater, and brackish water. a. Fusobacterium b. Bacteroides c. Leptospira d. Planctomycetes

Planctomycetes

What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?

Plasma cells and memory B cells.

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?

Plasma cells produce antibodies

5. A fluke is classified within which of the following? a. Platyhelminthes b. Nematoda c. Annelida d. Rotifera

Platyhelminthes

Microorganisms characterized by the absence of a nucleus are called

Prokaryotes

12. _________________ cells lack a nucleus. a. Eukaryotic b. Plant c. Animal d. Prokaryotic

Prokayotic

Lysogenic viral DNA integrating into the host cell genome is referred to as a

Prophage

Which of the following organisms would you expect to produce significant amounts of gas while fermenting milk?

Proprionibacterium

14. Ribosomes are structures responsible for ________________ synthesis. a. Carbohydrate b. Lipid c. Protein d. all of these

Protein

From which phrase is the term prions derived?

Proteinaceous Infectious Particles

8. Which of the following was NOT a kingdom in Linnaeus's taxonomy? a. Protist b. Mineral c. Plant d. animal

Protist

12. ________________ are protists that make up the backbone of many food webs by providing nutrients for other organisms a. Protozoa b. Pathogens c. Parotids d. Plants

Protozoa

Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are

Protozoa

In the case of phagocytes, positive chemotaxis involves the use of ____ to move toward the microorganism.

Psuedopodia

Which of the following is a sign of disease?

Pus formation

13. Which of the following does not involve a bacterial exotoxin? a. scarlet fever b. diphtheria c. whooping cough d. Q fever

Q fever

14. What disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii? a. Q fever b. tuberculosis c. walking pneumonia d. diphtheria

Q fever

7. __________________ in various forms, from high-energy radiation to sunlight, can be used to kill microbes or inhibit their growth. a. Sonication b. Radiation c. Sterilization d. Pasteurization

Radiation

7. The use of agglutination tests to identify streptococcal bacteria was developed in the 1920s by: a. Issac Newton b. Galileo Galilei c. Salmonella typhimurium d. Rebecca Lancefield

Rebecca Lancefield

4.The lowest frequency of visible light appears as the color ___________ . a.Blue b.Red c.Violet d.yellow

Red

Why did the skin turn red and swell?

Redness and swelling are due to the release of histamine during degranulation of mast cells and basophils.

5._______________ occurs when a wave bounces off of a material. a.Refraction b.Reflection c.Transmittance d.Absorbance occurs

Reflection

Where can you find these cilia (hair-like) structures on your body?

Respiratory tract

The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as

Responders to invasion

12. Which species of Shigella has a type that produces Shiga toxin? a. S. sonnei b. S. flexneri c. S. boydii d. S. dysenteriae

S. dysenteriae

Multiple mitoses followed by a single Cytokinetic event is known as

Schizogony

7. _____________ glands produce a lipid-rich substance that contains proteins and minerals and protects the skin. a. Sebaceous b. Endocrine c. Sweat d. Mammary

Sebaceous

8. _____________ glands produce a lipid-rich substance that contains proteins and minerals and protects the skin. a. Endocrine b. Sebaceous c. Mammary d. Sweat

Sebaceous

The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skins surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is what?

Sebum

5. What is the name of a drug that it selectively kills or inhibits the growth of microbial targets while causing minimal or no harm to the host? a. non-premeable toxicity b. permeable toxicity c. non-selective toxicity d. selective toxicity

Selective toxicity

3. Which granule component increases vascular permeability, causes vasodilation and smooth-muscle contraction? a. Heparin b. Leukotriene c. Histamine d. Serotonin

Serotonin

Which of the following statements regarding Virus Taxonomy is true?

Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family

Antigens are

Specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes are foreign

8. This class of bacteria are characterized by their long, spiral-shaped then bodies. a. Spirochetes b. Fusobacteria c. Chlamydia d. Cytophaga

Spirochetes

13. Which species is frequently associated with nosocomial infections transmitted via medical devices inserted into the body? a. Proproniobacterium acnes b. Bacillus anthracis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus epidermidis

10. Which of the following is the most common cause of neonatal meningitis? a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Haemophilus influenzae b c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Neisseria meningitidis

Streptococcus agalactiae

7. What pathogen is the most important contributor to biofilms in plaque? a. Escherichia coli b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium difficile d. Streptococcus mutans

Streptococcus mutans

11. M protein is produced by a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Propionibacterium acnes d. Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following is a common source of antibiotics?

Streptomyces

Symptoms of disease are

Subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel

1. _________________________ , the first synthetic antimicrobial created, served as the foundation for the chemical development of a family of sulfa drugs. a. Antimycobacterial b. Beta-Lactam c. Nitronamide d. Sulfanilamide

Sulfanilaminde

3. Any interaction between different species that are associated with each other within a community is called_______________ . a. Symbiosis b. Mitochondria c. Endocytosis d. bacteriods

Symbiosis

12. Cellular adaptive immunity is carried out by ________. a. T cells b. neutrophils c. bone marrow d. B cells

T cells

Which of the following defense systems would be involved in eliminating virally-infected cells?

T lymphocytes

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as

T-indepenedent antigens

Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?

TCR

Natural killers are activated by

TH1 cells

What branch of science is concerned with the classification of organisms?

Taxonomy

What will happen if an animal raised in an axenic environment is exposed to a pathogenic microbe later in life?

The animal will exhibit a very poor immune response to the pathogen.

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?

The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch

How might a pathogenic bacterium be affected by antibodies?

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.

What does it mean when we say bacteria is resistant to an antibiotic?

The bacterium is neither killed nor inhibited by the antibiotic

An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interoperation of those events?

The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens

If a bacterial cell was placed in a hypotonic solution, what would happen?

The cell would gain water

Opsonization is

The coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis

Which of the following was NOT an aspect of Pasteurs experiments to disprove spontaneous generation?

The flasks were sealed with corks

How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell?

The host cell dies during the lytic stage

Why is the pasta you buy in the store considered a nonperishable food?

The low moisture content prevents microbial growth

9. Frederick Griffith infected mice with a combination of dead R and live S bacterial strains. What was the outcome, and why did it occur? a. The mice will live. Transformation was not required. b. The mice will die. Transformation of genetic material from R to S was required. c. The mice will live. Transformation of genetic material from S to R was required. d. The mice will die. Transformation was not required.

The mice will die. Transformation was not required.

If a microbe were capable of preventing a phagosome from fusing with a lysosome, which of the following would occur?

The microbe would survive inside the phagocyte.

Diapedesis is

The migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

The mucous physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

Which of the following membranes can give rise to a Viral Envelope?

The nuclear membrane, cytoplasmic membrane, and endoplasmic reticulum

Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent?

The penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause

12. In the Ouchterlony assay, we see a sharp precipitin arc form between antigen and antiserum. Why does this arc remain visible for a long time? a. The antibody molecules are too large to diffuse through the agar. b. The antigen molecules are chemically coupled to the gel matrix. c. Methanol, added once the arc forms, denatures the protein and blocks diffusion. d. The precipitin lattice is too large to diffuse through the agar.

The precipitin lattice is too large to diffuse through the agar.

What is apoptosis?

The process of programmed cell death

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?

The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody.

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

Due to the action of tears, potential pathogens of the eyes and its membranes usually end up where?

The stomach

What is a phagolysosome?

The structure that results from the fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome.

Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

The third line of defense

Food microbiology applies to

The use of microorganisms to make food and the control of microbial activity to prevent foodborne illness

15. Which of the following terms is used to describe the time required to kill all of the microbes within a sample at a given temperature? a. thermal death time b. decimal reduction time c. D-value d. thermal death point

Thermal Death Time

15. _______________________ is represented by strictly anaerobic organisms with an optimal growth temperature of 85 °C. a. Euryarchaeota b. Thermoproteus c. Halobacteria d. Methanococci

Thermoproteus

What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?

They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky

Which of the following is true of chemokines?

They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes

First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other?

They are physical barriers against invading pathogens.

What is the role of opsonins?

They create "handles" that make it easier for the pseudopods of phagocytes to attach to the microbe invader.

In the early years of Microbiology, scientists often removed disease material from one patient and introduced it into other individuals in an effort to understand what caused the disease. According to Koch's Postulates, what was the major flaw in their experimental process?

They did not isolate pure cultures of the suspected infectious agent.

Which of the following statements conceding allografts is true?

They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs.

How are prions different from other infectious agents?

They lack nucleic acid

Some human viruses are difficult to study because

They only grow in normal human cells

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T cells?

They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells,

One of the main differences between a Gram + and a Gram - bacterial cell wall is that the peptidoglycan portion of a Gram + cell wall is ____ as compared to a Gram - cell wall.

Thicker

6.Light can change speed when passing through one material to the next. a.This is sometimes true b.This question has no answer c.This is false d.This is true

This is true

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.

Organisms use carbohydrates in all of the following ways EXCEPT

To keep membranes flexible at low temperatures

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?

To repair the damaged tissue

12. ___________ is a major cause of preventable blindness that can be reduced through improved sanitation. a. Cutaneous anthrax b. Trachoma c. Keratitis d. Ophthalmia neonatorum

Trachoma

7. ____________________ occurs when a bacteriophage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another during sequential infections. a. Translation b. Transference c. Transitional d. Transduction

Transduction

10. Herd immunity has nothing to do with an individual's ability to mount an effective immune response, rather, it occurs because there are too few susceptible individuals in a population for the disease to spread effectively. a. True b. False

True

Without the activities of microorganisms, the functioning of Earths ecosystems would cease, true or false?

True

How would you describe this skin reaction to the bee sting? Red and itchy skin.

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

6. A patient may require a blood transfusion because they lack sufficient RBCs (anemia) or because they have experienced significant loss of blood volume through trauma or disease. Although the blood transfusion is given to help the patient, it is essential that the patient receive a transfusion with matching ABO blood type. Which blood type is the universal donor, the donor that can successfully donate blood to any recipient? a. Type O b. Type AB c. Type B d. Type A

Type O

The taxonomic approach to classifying disease is based on the

Type of microbe that causes the disease

Which of the following is a characteristic by which viruses are classified?

Type of nucleic acid

Plague is transmitted through the bites of an infected flea. Which best describes the mode of transmission?

Vector transmission

Lice, mosquitoes, and ticks often serve as _____ by hosting and transmitting pathogenic microbes.

Vectors

A dog develops a diarrheal disease after drinking water from a stream. Which best describes the mode of transmission?

Vehicle transmission

9. Which of the following terms refers to a prokaryotic cell that is spiral shaped? a. Coccus b. Vibrio c. Spirillum d. coccobacilli

Vibrio

13. Which type of bacterium produces an A-B toxin? a. Salmonella b. Vibrio cholera c. Shigella dysenteriae d. ETEC

Vibrio cholera

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to

View microorganisms and record these observations

Which following type of microorganisms did Leeuwenhoek NOT observe?

Virus

6. _________________ are acellular microorganisms that require a host to reproduce. a. Prions b. Pathogens c. Viruses d. Bacteria

Viruses

Which of the following is an example of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

Watery eyes after exposure to animal dander

Which of the following questions largely stimulated research of microorganisms during the Golden Age of Microbiology?

What causes disease and is spontaneous generation possible?

12. Which bacterial pathogen causes plague? a. Yersinia pestis b. Bartonella quintana c. Bacillus moniliformis d. Rickettsia rickettsii

Yersinia pestis

13.Which type of microscope is especially useful for viewing thick structures such as biofilms? a.an atomic force microscope b.a confocal scanning laser microscope c.a transmission electron microscope d.a scanning electron microscopes

a confocal scanning laser microscope

12.Which would be the best choice for viewing internal structures of a living protist such as a Paramecium? a.a brightfield microscope without a stain b.a darkfield microscope c.a transmission electron microscope d.a brightfield microscope with a stain

a darkfield microscope

8. What type of organism causes thrush? a. a fungus b. a virus c. a protozoan d. a bacterium

a fungus

14.What type of microscope uses an annular stop? a.a darkfield microscope b.a scanning electron microscope c.a phase-contrast microscope d.brightfield microscope

a phase-contrast microscope

1. When exposed to an allergen, a person's cells that are hypersensitive will begin to: a. switch from production of IgM to production of IgE b. from production of IgM to production of IgG c. from production of IgM to production of IgA d. from production of IgM to production of IgB

a.switch from production of IgM to production of IgE

15. Which of the following induces a type III hypersensitivity? a. destruction of cells bound by antibodies b. destruction of cells bound by antigens c. accumulation of immune complexes in tissues and small blood vessels d. release of inflammatory molecules from mast cells

accumulation of immune complexes in tissues and small blood vessels

12. Which microbial virulence factor is most important for attachment to host respiratory tissues? a. lipopolysaccharide b. hyaluronidase c. capsules d. adhesins

adhesins

3. An __________________, which is a chemical that provokes a generalized activation of the immune system that stimulates greater antibody production. a. adjuvant b. avidity c. affinity d. adjunct

adjuvant

2. _____________, which can be determined experimentally, is a measure of the binding strength between an antibody's binding site and an epitope, a. all of these b. Avidity c. Specificity d. Affinity

affinity

11. Which of the following best describes the results from Hershey and Chase's experiment using bacterial viruses with 35S-labeled proteins or 32P-labeled DNA that are consistent with protein being the molecule responsible for hereditary? a. After infection with the 32P-labeled viruses and centrifugation, both the pellet and the supernatant would be radioactive. b. After infection with the 35S-labeled viruses and centrifugation, both the pellet and the supernatant would be radioactive. c. After infection with the 32P-labeled viruses and centrifugation, only the pellet would be radioactive. d. After infection with the 35S-labeled viruses and centrifugation, only the pellet would be radioactive.

after infection with the 35S-labeled viruses and centrifugation, only the pellet would be radioactive.

6. Why is size one of the limiting factors to sterilization of an item in an autoclave? a. there are no limiting factors b. air is heavier than steam and sinks to the bottom of the autoclave and must be vented out c. the amount of Nitrogen available in the autoclave d. air is lighter than steam and sinks to the bottom of the autoclave and must be vented out

air is heavier than steam and sinks to the bottom of the autoclave and must be vented out

14. The term microbiota refers to which of the following: a. all microorganisms of the same species b. all microorganisms in a certain region of the human body c. all of the microorganisms involved in a symbiotic relationship d. all microorganisms in a certain geographic region

all microorganisms in a certain region of the human body

1. Which of the following are the five different nucleotide bases composing nucleic acid? a. cytosine b. andenine c. guanine d. thymine e. all of these

all of these

2. To cause an infection in the CNS, pathogens must successfully breach the blood-brain barrier or blood-spinal cord barrier. Which one of these would be a mechanism employed? a. leukocyte facilitated b. all of these c. transcellular d. intercellular

all of these

2. Which of the following are characteristics of Viruses? a. Obligate intracellular parasites with host and cell-type specificity b. Infectious, acellular pathogens c. All of these d. Genome is surrounded by a protein capsid

all of these

4. Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be either localized or systemic. Localized type I hypersensitivity reactions may include: a. hay fever rhinitis b. all of these c. asthma d. hives

all of these

4. Urinary tract infections can cause inflammation of the ______________ . a. kidneys b. urethra c. bladder d. all of these

all of these

3.Electromagnetic radiation (EMR), a type of energy that is all around us can be found in the form of: a.Radio Waves b.X rays c.all of these are types of EMR d.Visible light

all of these are types of EMR

3. The trachea bifurcates into the left and right bronchi as it reaches the lungs. These paths branch repeatedly to form smaller and more extensive networks of tubes, the bronchioles. The terminal bronchioles formed in this tree-like network end in cul-de-sacs called the _______________. a. alveolies b. microglia c. alveoli d. goblets

alveoli

1. An antibody's specificity results from the antigen-binding site formed within the variable regions—regions of the antibody that have unique patterns of _____________________ . a. carbohydrates b. amino acids c. DNA d. proteins

amino acids

15. Which of the following is not found within DNA? a. thymine b. amino acids c. complementary base pairing d. phosphodiester bonds

amino acids

14. Which of the following is a common treatment for type III hypersensitivity reactions? a. anti-inflammatory steroid treatments b. antihistamine treatments c. hyposensitization injections of allergens d. RhoGAM injections

anti-inflammatory steroid treatments

11. Which of the following are the main mediators or initiators of type II hypersensitivity reactions? a. antibodies b. erythrocytes c. mast cells d. histamines

antibodies

13. An immune complex is an aggregate of which of the following? a. antigen molecules b. antibody molecules c. antibody and antigen molecules d. histamine molecules

antibody and antigen molecules

13. Bacteriocins and defensins are types of which of the following? a. cytokines b. antimicrobial peptides c. leukotrienes d. inflammation-eliciting mediators

antimicrobial peptides

11. Which of the following is suitable for use on tissues for microbial control to prevent infection? a. disinfectant b. sterilant c. antiseptic d. water

antisepcitc

9. What is the term used to describe programmed controlled cell death? a. thymocytes b. agglutination c. apoptosis d. anergy

apoptosis

5. Nerve cells form long projections called ________. a. dendrites b. synapses c. axons d. soma

axons

14. A mosquito bites a person who subsequently develops a fever and abdominal rash. What type of transmission would this be? a. mechanical vector transmission b. biological vector transmission c. vehicle transmission d. direct contact transmission

b.biological vector transmission

9. Cattle are allowed to pasture in a field that contains the farmhouse well, and the farmer's family becomes ill with a gastrointestinal pathogen after drinking the water. What type of transmission of infectious agents would this be? a. biological vector transmission b. vehicle transmission c. direct contact transmission d. indirect contact transmission

b.vehicle transmission

13. A virus that infects a bacterium is called a(an) ___________________. a. prion b. eclipse c. bacteriophage d. viron

bacteriophage

15. Mushrooms are a type of which of the following? a. polar tubule b. basidiocarp c. ascus d. conidia

basidiocarp

5. Tinea barbae is located is the a. Feet b. Groin c. Beard d. Scalp

beard

4. A system known as __________________ _________________, is a two word naming system for identifying organisms by genus and specific epithet. For- a. bi nomenclature b. trinomial nomenclature c. binomial nomenclature d. duo nomenclature

binomial nomenclature

1. We are all familiar with the slimy layer on a pond surface or that makes rocks slippery. These are examples of ______________ . a. Viruses b. Biofilms c. Phytoplankton d. Zooplankton

biofilms

6. The third stage of a viral infection is _______________________ of new viral components. a. maturation b. biosynthesis c. attachment d. penetration

biosynthesis

13. How is leprosy primarily transmitted from person to person? a. sexual intercourse b. shaking hands c. contaminated toilet seats d. blowing nose

blowing nose

8. A secondary immunodeficiency can occur as a result an acquired impairment of function of: a. B cells b. both c. beither d. T cells

both

4. A variety of fungi in the order Mucorales cause mucormycosis, a rare fungal disease. Exposure to this disease typically enters the host a. by inhaling seeds b. by inhaling the mature fungus c. by inhaling spores d. by inhaling alveoli

by inhaling spores

12. Which of the following factors can lead to reemergence of a disease? a. Better education on the signs and symptoms of the disease b. A change in disease reporting procedures c. A period of decline in vaccination rates d. A mutation that allows it to infect humans

c.A period of decline in vaccination rates

13. Why are emerging diseases with very few cases the focus of intense scrutiny? a. They occur more in developed countries b. They tend to be more deadly c. They are increasing and therefore not controlled d. They naturally have higher transmission rates

c.They are increasing and therefore not controlled

8. Which is the most common type of biological vector of human disease? a. viruses b. bacteria c. arthropods d. mammals

c.arthropods

6. Which of the following is located in the interstitial spaces within tissues and releases nutrients, immune factors, and oxygen to those tissues? a. arterioles b. lymphatics c. veins d. capillaries

capillaries

4. Bacteria that grow best in a higher concentration of CO2 and a lower concentration of oxygen than present in the atmosphere are called _________________ . a. cathonic b. bacilli c. capnophiles d. catnophiles

capnophiles

6. An aldehyde functional group contains which of the following? a. carbohydrates b. amino acids c. lipids d. proteins

carbohydrates

8. The most abundant biomolecules on earth are ___________________ . a. lipids b. proteins c. carbohydrates d. nucleic acids

carbohydrates

5. Organic molecules must all contain this element: a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen c. Hydrogen d. Carbon

carbon

3. The enzyme _________________ converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen in this reaction, 2H2O2→2H2O+O2 a. maltase b. trypsin c. amalayse d. catalase

catalase

12. Inflammatory molecules are released by mast cells in type I hypersensitivities type II hypersensitivities, however, are characterized by which of the following? a. leukotriene release upon stimulation b. cell lysis (cytotoxicity) c. localized tissue reactions, such as hives d. strong antibody reactions against antigens

cell lysis (cytotoxicity)

5. The English scientist Robert Hooke first used the term "__________" in 1665 to describe the small chambers within cork that he observed under a microscope of his own design. a. Organisms b. Ribosomes c. Cells d. microsomes

cells

14. Koilocytes are characteristic of a. cells infected with all forms of herpesviruses b. cervical cancer cells c. cells infected with herpes simplex virus 2 d. cells infected with human papillomavirus

cells infected with all forms of herpesviruses

2. What works with the periodontal ligament to anchor the tooth in place in the jaw bone? a. enamel b. gingiva c. cementum d. dentin

cementum

9. Fungal cell walls contain___________ , as opposed to the cellulose found in the cell walls of plants and many protists. a. lipids b. chitin c. spores d. carbon

chitin

Prokaryotic 2. Paramecium spp. have hair-like appendages called ____________ for locomotion. a. microglia b. flagella c. cilia d. vacuoles

cillia

1. The circulatory (or cardiovascular) system is a(n) ________________network of organs and vessels that moves blood around the body. a. hemi b. closed c. none of these d. open

closed

10. Staphylococcus aureus is most often associated with being a. catalase-negative. b. gram-negative c. coagulase-positive. d. coagulase-negative.

coagulase-positive.

12. Which method did Morgan and colleagues use to show that hereditary information was carried on chromosomes? a. transformation of nonpathogenic bacteria to pathogenic bacteria b. correlations between microscopic observations of chromosomal movement and the characteristics of offspring c. mutations resulting in distinct defects in metabolic enzymatic pathways d. statistical predictions of the outcomes of crosses using true-breeding parents

correlations between microscopic observations of chromosomal movement and the characteristics of offspring

5. With a few exceptions, RNA viruses that infect animal cells replicate in the_______________ . a. mitochondria b. cytoplasm c. nucleus d. ribosomes

cytoplasm

13. In which phase would you expect to observe the most endospores in a Bacillus cell culture? a. log, lag, and death phases would all have roughly the same number of endospores. b. log phase c. lag phase d. death phase

death phase

12. Folded proteins that are fully functional in their normal biological role are said to possess a native structure. When a protein loses its three-dimensional shape, it may no longer be functional. These unfolded proteins are _________________ . a. full b. unnatured c. renatured d. denatured

denatured

13. According to Beadle and Tatum's "one gene-one enzyme" hypothesis, which of the following enzymes will eliminate the transformation of hereditary material from pathogenic bacteria to nonpathogenic bacteria? a. ribonucleases b. proteinases c. carbohydrate-degrading enzymes d. deoxyribonucleases

deoxyribonucleases

1. The respiratory system can be conceptually divided into upper and lower regions at the point of the _____________________, the structure that seals off the lower respiratory system from the _____________________ during swallowing. a. epiglottis, larynx b. sphincter, larynx c. sphincter, pharynx d. epiglottis, pharynx

depiglottis, pharynx

2. What is the affix that refers to the skin? a. -osis b. -lysis c. -itis d. -derma

derma

2. Some microbes are able to live on the surface of the skin, and some of these can be shed with dead skin cells in the process of ________________________, which is the shedding and peeling of skin that occurs as a normal process but that may be accelerated when infection is present. a. desquamation b. desalination c. deapoptosis d. decellularization

desquamation

7. Which of the following antibacterial drugs does not cell wall biosynthesis? a. cephalosporins b. penicillins c. diarylquinoline d. carbapenems

diarylquinoline

12. When a population of _________________ becomes particularly dense, a red tide (a type of harmful algal bloom) can occur. a. viruses b. bacteria c. microglia d. dinoflagellates

dinoflagellates

1. The meningeal layer closest to the bones of the skull is called the __________________________ . a. arachnoid mater b. dura mater c. pia mater d. cerebrospinal fluid

dura matter

14. Which of the following is the name for molecules whose structures are nonsuperimposable mirror images? a. enantiomers b. polymers c. structural isomers d. monomers

enantiomers

4. What term refers to an inflammation of brain tissues? a. meningoencephalitis b. encephalitis c. meningitis d. sinusitis

encephalitis

10. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by body lice? a. murine typhus b. bubonic plague c. tularemia d. epidemic typhus

epidemic typhus

10. Which of the following constantly sheds dead cells along with any microbes that may be attached to those cells? a. mucous membrane b. hypodermis c. epidermis d. dermis

epidermis

11. The ___________ separates the upper and lower respiratory tract. a. larynx b. epiglottis c. bronchi d. palatine tonsil

epiglottis

2. The _______________________ is a coiled tube that collects sperm from the testes and passes it on to the vas deferens. The a. ovary b. prostate c. cervix d. epididymis

epydidymis

3. Inflammation of the __________________________________ , called salpingitis, is the most serious form of Pelvic inflammatory disease. a. vas deferens b. fallopian tubes c. labium minora d. urinary bladder

fallopian tubes

10. The formation of ________ is a positive result in the VDRL test. a. flocculant b. coagulation c. precipitin d. a bright pink color

flocculant

2.You place a specimen under the microscope and notice that parts of the specimen begin to emit light immediately. These materials can be described as _____________. a.Phosphorescent b.Transparent c.Opaque d.fluorescent

fluorescent

10. A blanket from a child with chickenpox is likely to be contaminated with the virus that causes chickenpox (Varicella-zoster virus). What is the blanket called? a. fomite b. vector c. pathogen d. host

fomite

12. Which of the following best describes a microbial control protocol that inhibits the growth of molds and yeast? a. bactericidal b. fungicidal c. bacteriostatic d. fungistatic

fungistatic

11. What disease is most associated with Clostridium perfringens? a. rat bite fever b. endocarditis c. gas gangrene d. osteomyelitis

gas gangrene

4. The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome is called its _________________ . a. genotype b. phenotype c. homologous d. heterozygous

genotype

15. Which of the following is not a type of β-lactam antimicrobial? a. glycopeptides b. cephalosporins c. penicillins d. monobactams

glycopeptides

4. The naked atadenovirus uses spikes made of _________________ from its capsid to bind to host cells. a. carbohydrates b. none of these c. lipids d. glycoproteins

glycoproteins

9. What type of cells produce the mucus for the mucous membranes? a. macrophages b. ciliated epithelial cells c. goblet cells d. phagocytes

goblet cells

14. Which of these viruses is spread through mouse urine or feces? a. Epstein-Barr b. cytomegalovirus c. human immunodeficiency virus d. hantavirus

hantavirus

15. Which of these viruses can spread to the eye to cause a form of keratitis? a. human papillomavirus b. herpes simplex virus 1 c. circoviruses d. parvovirus 19

herpes simplex virus 1

13. Genital herpes is most commonly caused by a. herpes simplex virus 2. b. herpes simplex virus 1. c. cytomegalovirus. d. varicella-zoster virus.

herpes simplex virus 1.

5. The length of a chromosome greatly exceeds the length of the cell, so a chromosome needs to be packaged into a very small space to fit within the cell. The DNA wraps itself around a particular molecule known as ________________ . a. gene b. histone c. diploid d. nucleus

histone

14. Plasmids are typically transferred among members of a bacterial community by ________ gene transfer. a. horizontal b. bilateral c. interchangeable d. vertical

horizontal

14. Warts are caused by a. herpes simplex virus. b. parvovirus B19. c. adenoviruses. d. human papillomavirus.

human papillomaviurs

11. What is the name given to bacteria that can break down ("eat") crude oil? a. hydrocarbonoclastic b. heliocarbonoclastic c. hemoclastic d. hydrocarbon

hydrocarbonoclastic

10. The long hydrocarbon chain, fatty acids are ________________ or nonpolar. a. osmotic b. hydrophilic c. glycolic d. hydrophobic

hydrophobic

8. Most multicellular fungal bodies, commonly called molds, are made up of filaments called _____________ . a. hyphae b. mycelium c. septate d. thallus

hyphae

15. The antibody screening test that is done along with pretransfusion blood typing is used to ensure that the recipient a. is not making antibodies against antigens outside the ABO or Rh systems. b. actually does have the blood type stated in the online chart. c. is not immunocompromised. d. does not have a previously undetected bacterial or viral infection.

is not making antibodies against antigens outside the ABO or Rh systems.

4. Molecules with the same atomic makeup but different structural arrangement of atoms are called ________________ . a. isomers b. allosterics c. organics d. consomers

isomers

1. The _________________ carry out the urinary system's primary functions of filtering the blood and maintaining water and electrolyte balance. a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Kidneys d. Lungs

kidneys

15. Which of these diseases does NOT require the introduction of foreign nucleic acid? a. rabies b. St. Louis encephalitis c. polio d. kuru

kuru

8. Which of the following is not directly connected to the nasopharynx? a. oropharynx b. lacrimal glands c. middle ear d. nasal cavity

lacrimal glands

14. When using antisera to characterize bacteria, we will often link the antibodies to ________ to better visualize the agglutination. a. white blood cells b. latex beads c. red blood cells d. other bacteria

latex beads

13. A _______________ is a combination of two organisms, a green alga or cyanobacterium and fungus, living in a symbiotic relationship a. bacteria b. lichen c. symbiosis d. algae

lichen

1.Which of the following has the highest energy? a.light with a short wavelength b.light with a long wavelength c.light with an intermediate wavelength d.It is impossible to tell from the information given.

light with a short wavelength

12. Which of the following can NOT be prevented with a vaccine? a. tetanus b. meningococcal meningitis c. pneumococcal meningitis d. listeriosis

listeriosis

14. During which phase would penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, be most effective? a. log phase b. lag phase c. stationary phase d. death phase

log phase

7. Cancer involves a __________ of the ability of cells to control their cell cycle, the stages each eukaryotic cell goes through as it grows and then divides. a. gain b. both of these c. neither of these d. loss

loss

8. Which of the following is where are most microbes filtered out of the fluids that accumulate in the body tissues? a. pericardium b. spleen c. lymph nodes d. blood capillaries

lymph nodes

7. Which of these conditions results in the formation of a bubo? a. vasculitis b. ischemia c. lymphadenitis d. lymphangitis

lymphadenitis

3. Which is the term that refers to the smooth spots of discoloration on the skin? a. macules b. papules c. carbuncle d. pyoderma

macules

3. Despite more than a century of intense research and clinical advancements, ________________ remains one of the most important infectious diseases in the world today with approximately _______________ million cases worldwide, a. malaria, 310 b. malaria, 210 c. toxoplasmosis, 510 d. toxoplasmosis, 310

malaria, 210

9. Which of the following is the type of cell largely responsible for type I hypersensitivity responses? a. erythrocyte b. mast cell c. T lymphocyte d. antibody

mast cell

14. The envelope of a virus is derived from the host's a. membrane structures b. genome c. nucleic acids d. cytoplasm

membrane structures

7. What is the intermediary between DNA and its protein products? a. transfer RNA (tRNA) b. intermediate RNA (iRNA) c. messenger RNA (mRNA) d. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

messanger RNA (mRNA)

15. Which oral medication is recommended as an initial topical treatment for genital yeast infections? a. fluconazole b. acyclovir c. penicillin d. miconazole

miconazole

5. Fluorescence-labeled antibodies against Streptococcus pyogenes (group A strep) can be used to obtain a diagnosis of strep throat from a throat swab and the results can be obtained within: a. hours b. minutes c. weeks d. days

minutes

9. The simplest carbohydrates are called ____________________ , or simple sugars. a. monosaccharides b. disaccharides c. trisaccharides d. lipids

monosaccharides

1. The human digestive system, or the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, begins with the ____________ and ends with the anus. a. Mouth b. small intestine c. esophagus d. teeth

mouth

3. Viruses formed from only a nucleic acid and capsid are called ___________ viruses. a. prion b. naked c. enveloped d. bacteriophage

naked

Organize the following metric units from smallest to largest

nanometer, micrometer, millimeter, centimeter, meter

2. The spectrum of activity of an antibacterial drug relates to diversity of targeted bacteria. A _____________ -spectrum antimicrobial targets only specific subsets of bacterial pathogens. a. excise b. narrow c. inclusive d. broad

narrow

8. In April 1953, Watson and Crick published their model of the DNA double helix in what journal? a. Science b. Scientific American c. Nature d. Journal of the American Medical Association

nature

14. A nonsegmented worm is found during a routine colonoscopy of an individual who reported having abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting. This worm is likely which of the following? a. fluke b. annelid c. trematode d. nematode

nematode

6. Chemicals called ________ are stored in neurons and released when the cell is stimulated by a signal. a. cytokines b. chemokines c. neurotransmitters d. toxins

neurotransmitters

5. Most bacteria are ______________ , meaning they grow optimally at a pH within one or two pH units of the neutral pH of 7. a. neutrophiles b. alkaliphiles c. acidophiles d. hydrophiles

neutrophiles

15. Eukaryotic cells possess a _____________, which is surrounded by a complex nuclear membrane that houses the ___________ . a. mitochondria, prokaryotes b. nucleus, DNA c. DNA, nucleus d. microglia, mitochondria

nucleus, DNA

11. Generally, the approximate number of amino acids is designated: _________________ are formed by joining up to approximately 20 amino acids, whereas polypeptides are synthesized from up to approximately _______ amino acids. a. oligopeptides, 20 b. monopeptides, 50 c. oligopeptides, 50 d. bipeptide, 20

oligopeptides, 50

2. The lymphatic system is an ___________ system with the fluid moving in one direction from the extremities toward two drainage points into veins just above the heart. a. hemi b. closed c. None of these d. open

open

2. Which of these regions are part of the pharynx (select all that are true)? a. Oropharynx b. Maxilopharynx c. Nasopharynx d. Laryngopharynx

oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

What prevents fermented foods from spoiling?

pH

15. In which stage of pertussis is the characteristic whooping sound made? a. convalescence b. paroxysmal c. prodromal d. catarrhal

paroxysmal

10. Which of these correctly orders the structures through which air passes during inhalation? a. pharynx → trachea → larynx → bronchi b. larynx → pharynx → bronchi → trachea c. larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi d. pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi

pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi

11. Some algae, the seaweeds, are macroscopic and may be confused with _________________ . a. animals b. plants c. animals d. bacteria

plants

4. Trichinosis (trichenellosis) develops following consumption of food that contains Trichinella spiralis. species. These microscopic nematode worms are most commonly transmitted in what type of meat? a. pork b. turkey c. beef d. chicken

pork

15. MHC I molecules present a. processed foreign antigens from proteasomes. b. T cell antigens. c. antibodies. d. processed self-antigens from phagolysosome.

processed foreign antigens from proteasomes

14. Which class of molecules is the most antigenic? a. polysaccharides b. carbohydrates c. lipids d. proteins

proteins

4. Also called American trypanosomiasis, Chagas disease is a zoonosis classified as a neglected tropical disease (NTD). It is caused by the flagellated ______________________ Trypanosoma cruzi. a. bacteria b. protozoan c. viruses d. protists

protozoan

4. What is the term used for describing a lesion that resembles a cyst but with a less defined boundary? a. purulent b. wheal c. pseudocyst d. folliculitis

pseudocyst

8. ____________________ are microorganisms that can grow at 0 °C and below, have an optimum growth temperature close to 15 °C. a. Halophiles b. Mesophiles c. Psychrophiles d. Thermophiles

psychrophiles

9. careless use and overuse of artificial fertilizers (which provide nitrogen and phosphorus to the plants) have been demonstrated to have significant negative impacts on aquatic ecosystems by allowing what to be produced? What type of organism is this? a. viral particles, algae b. red tides, algae c. microglial cells, bacteria d. red tides, bacteria

red tides, algea

13. The decimal reduction time refers to the amount of time it takes to which of the following? a. reduce a microbial population by 0.1% b. reduce a microbial population by 90% c. reduce a microbial population by 10% d. completely eliminate a microbial population

reduce a microbial population by 90%

9. Which of the following diseases is caused by a spirochete? a. rheumatic fever b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. relapsing fever d. tularemia

relapsing fever

6. RNA is typically single stranded and is made of ____________________ that are linked by phosphodiester bonds. a. ribonucleotides b. replications c. ribosomes d. rheostats

ribonucleotides

4. Test _______________________ is the probability of getting a positive test result when the patient is indeed infected. a. sensitivity b. culture c. specificity d. infectability

sensativity

10. Type I hypersensitivities require which of the following initial priming events to occur? a. secondary immune response b. degranulation c. cellular trauma d. sensitization

sensitization

2. Preformed components that are released from granules are: a. immunoglobulin b. serotonin c. histamine d. bradykinin

serotonin, histamine, and bradykinin

13. We use antisera to distinguish between various ________ within a species of bacteria. a. isotypes b. subspecies c. serovars d. lines

serovars

1. The __________ serve(s) as an important barrier to microbial invasion. Not only is it (are they) a physical barrier to penetration of deeper tissues by potential pathogens, but it (they) also provides an inhospitable environment for the growth of many pathogens. a. Skin b. Pilli c. mucous membranes d. eyes

skin

6. Whereas cutaneous mycoses are superficial, subcutaneous mycoses can spread from the ____________ to deeper tissues. a. skin b. scalp c. muscle d. groin

skin

14. Which of the following methods brings about cell lysis due to cavitation induced by rapid localized pressure changes? a. sonication b. microwaving c. ultraviolet radiation d. gamma irradiation

sonnication

8. For many uses in the laboratory, polyclonal antibodies work well, but for some types of assays, they lack sufficient ________ because they cross-react with inappropriate antigens. a. specificity b. reactivity c. accuracy d. sensitivity

specitifity

12. The component(s) of a virus that is(are) extended from the envelope for attachment is(are) the: a. spikes b. capsomeres c. nucleic acid d. viral whiskers

spikes

11. What sign or symptom would NOT be associated with infant botulism? a. weak cry b. stiff neck c. limp body d. difficulty suckling

stiff neck

10. Treponemal and non-treponemal serological testing can be used to test for a. vaginosis. b. chlamydia. c. gonorrhea. d. syphilis.

syphilis

11. The titer of a virus neutralization test is the highest dilution of patient serum a. in which there is no detectable viral protein. b. that completely blocks plaque formation. c. in which there is no detectable viral DNA. d. that reduces plaque formation by at least 50%.

that reduces plaque formation by at least 50%.

7. The central nervous system is made up of a. the sensory organs and spinal cord. b. the brain and spinal column. c. sensory organs and muscles. d. the brain and muscles.

the brain and spinal column.

9. Which layer of skin contains living cells, is vascularized, and lies directly above the hypodermis? a. the stratum corneum b. the epidermis c. the dermis d. the conjunctiva

the dermis

9. In mumps, what glands swell to produce the disease's characteristic appearance a. the submandibular glands b. the gastric glands c. the parotid glands d. the sublingual glands

the parotid glands

12. The latent stage of syphilis, which may last for years, can occur between a. the secondary and tertiary stages. b. the primary and secondary stages. c. initial infection and the primary stage. d. any of the three stages.

the secondary and tertiary stages.

6. When it first leaves the kidney, urine flows through a. the urinary bladder. b. the urethra. c. the glomeruli. d. the ureter.

the ureter

7. What part of the male urogenital tract is shared by the urinary and reproductive systems? a. the seminal vesicles b. the vas deferens c. the prostate gland d. the urethra

the urethra

2. We can easily observe different requirements for molecular oxygen (since not all organisms need oxygen in order to flourish) by growing bacteria in ___________________ tube cultures. a. thalydamide b. thioglycolate c. thymine d. DNA

thioglycolate

12. Which of the following methods would be used to measure the concentration of bacterial contamination in processed peanut butter? a. total plate count b. turbidity measurement c. direct counting of bacteria on a calibrated slide under the microscope d. dry weight measurement

total plate count

13. The term prokaryotes refers to which of the following? a. multicellular organisms b. very small organisms c. unicellular organisms that have no nucleus d. cells that resemble animal cells more than plant cells

unicellular organisms that have no nucleus

5. Which term refers to an inflammation of the blood vessels? a. endocarditis b. vasculitis c. pericarditis d. lymphangitis

vasculitis

7. The life cycle of Schistosoma spp. includes several species of water snails, which serve as secondary hosts. The parasite is transmitted to humans through contact with contaminated water and takes up residence in the _____________ of the ______________ system. a. veins, digestive b. muscles, respiratory c. muscles, digestive d. veins, respiratory

veins, digestive

5. The common cold is a generic term for a variety of mild ______________ infections of the nasal cavity. a. fungal b. bacterial c. prion d. viral

viral

6. Commonly known as the flu, influenza is a common __________________ disease of the lower respiratory system caused by an orthomyxovirus. Influenza is pervasive worldwide and causes 3,000-50,000 deaths each year in the United States. a. fungal b. bacterial c. viral d. prion

viral

10. Unlike bacteria, many of which can be grown on an artificial nutrient medium, ___________ require a living __________ cell for replication. a. animals, endoparasitic b. viruses, endoparasitic c. viruses, host d. plants, ectoparasitic

virus, host

7. In a dehydration synthesis reaction, two molecules of glucose can be linked together to form maltose. In the process, a ________________ molecule is formed. a. fructose b. water c. agronium d. carbon

water

4. Certain infectious diseases are not transmitted between humans directly but can be transmitted from animals to humans. Such a disease is called __________________ disease. a. zoonotic b. communicable c. iatrogenic d. contagious

zoonotic

7. An emerging infectious disease is either new to the human population or has shown an increase in prevalence in the previous _______ years. a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10

20

9. The Association of Official Agricultural Chemists International (AOAC), a nonprofit group that establishes many protocol standards, has determined that a minimum of _____________ replicates must show no microbial growth in such a test to achieve a passing result, and the results must be repeatable from different batches of disinfectant and when performed on different days. Disinfectant manufacturers perform use-dilution tests to validate the efficacy claims for their products, as designated by the EPA. a. 29 of 30 b. 59 of 60 c. 39 of 40 d. 49 of 50

59 to 60

5. _________________ are plant like organisms that can be either unicellular or multicellular, and derive energy via photosynthesis.- a. Eukaryote b. Archaea c. Protozoa d. Algae

Algae

8. ____________________ were first synthesized in the 20th century and are cationic molecules known for their antiseptic properties. a. Alcohols b. Surfactants c. Phenolics d. Bisbiguanides

Bisbiguanides

5. _______ is a monomer that is the most abundant antibody in human blood, accounting for about 80% of total serum antibody. a. IgM b. IgG c. IgE d. IgA

IgG

6. Which is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgE d. IgM

IgG

7. Which class of antibodies assembles into a pentamer with five monomers of IgM bound together by a protein structure called the J chain and weighs the most? a. IgA b. IgB c. IgM d. IgE

IgM

8. Agglutination or aggregation involves the cross-linking of pathogens by antibodies to create large aggregates. When multiple IgG antibodies are involved, large aggregates can develop. these aggregates are easier for the kidneys and spleen to filter from the blood and easier for phagocytes to ingest for destruction. Which is the most efficient antibody for agglutination? a. IgM b. IgE c. IgA d. IgG

IgM

15. ______________ is the study of fungi. a. Immunology b. Parasitology c. Virology d. Mycology

Mycology

11. Bacteria are prokaryotic because their genetic material (DNA) is not housed within a true_____________ . a. Ribosome b. Golgi c. Cell d. nucleus

Nucleus

1. Which of the following foods is NOT made by fermentation? .a. Beer b. Bread c. Cheese d. orange juice

ORANGE JUICE

6. Which one of these are not one of Koch's Postulates? a. The suspected pathogen cannot be isolated and grown in pure culture. b. The suspected pathogen must be found in every case of disease and not be found in healthy individuals. c. A healthy test subject infected with the suspected pathogen must develop the same signs and symptoms of disease as seen in postulate 1. d. The pathogen must be re-isolated from the new host and must be identical to the pathogen from postulate 2.

The suspected pathogen cannot be isolated and grown in pure culture

9. Which of the following best describes the innate nonspecific immune system? a. a generalized and nonspecific set of defenses against a class or group of pathogens b. a targeted and highly specific response to a single pathogen or molecule c. a set of barrier mechanisms that adapts to specific pathogens after repeated exposure d. the production of antibody molecules against pathogens

a generalized and nonspecific set of defenses against a class or group of pathogens

4. What areas of the body are lined with mucous membranes? a. all of these b. digestive tract c. mouth d. nose

all of these

5. What is the term used to describe a disease that is present at or before birth? a. Congenital b. Neoplastic c. Degenerative d. Inherited

congenital

13. A communicable disease that can be easily transmitted from person to person is which type of disease? a. acute b. iatrogenic c. nosocomial d. contagious

contagious

12. Which of the following serve as chemical signals between cells and stimulate a wide range of nonspecific defenses? a. antimicrobial peptides b. cytokines c. complement proteins d. antibodies

cytokines

6. Florence Nightingale's work is another example of an early _____________________study. Her analysis of the data she collected was published in 1858. In this book, she presented monthly frequency data on causes of death in a wedge chart histogram. a. scientific b. protocol c. data-driven d. epidemiological

d. epidemiological

3. The main national public health agency in the United States is the ________________________________, an agency of the Department of Health and Human Services. a. Centers for Disease Control and Proactive (CDC) b. Control for Disease Centers and Prevention (CDC) c. Centers for Disease Continuum and Prevention (CDC) d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

d.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

11. Which of the following would NOT be considered a reemerging disease? a. Malaria b. Drug-resistant tuberculosis c. Drug-resistant gonorrhea d. West Nile virus fever(encephalitis)

d.West Nile virus fever (encephalitis)

2. Diseases that are seen only occasionally, and usually without geographic concentration, are called________________ diseases. a. endemic b. epidemic c. pandemic d. sporadic

d.sporadic

2. One reason the three-dimensional complexity of antigens is so important is that antibodies and T cells do not recognize and interact with an entire antigen but with smaller exposed regions on the surface of antigens called _____________ . A single antigen may possess several different types of these. a. proteins b. ecotopes c. haptens d. epitopes

epitopes

15. Which of the following choices lists the steps of pathogenesis in the correct order? a. exposure, adhesion, invasion, infection b. adhesion, exposure, infection, invasion c. invasion, infection, adhesion, exposure d. disease, infection, exposure, invasion

exposure, adhesion, invasion, infection

9. Which of the following would be a sign of an infection? a. muscle aches b. nausea c. fever d. headache

fever

1. To prevent the spread of human disease, it is necessary to control the growth and abundance of microbes in or on various items frequently used by humans. Inanimate items, such as doorknobs, toys, or towels, which may harbor microbes and aid in disease transmission, are called _______________ . a. viruses b. pathogens c. fomites d. formatites

fomites

10. Which of the following is an example of a noncommunicable infectious disease? a. infection with a respiratory virus b. skin infection acquired from a dog bite c. infection acquired from the stick of a contaminated needle d. food poisoning due to a preformed bacterial toxin in food

food poisoning due to a preformed bacterial toxin in food

3. Antibodies (also called immunoglobulins) are glycoproteins that are present in both the blood and tissue fluids. The basic structure of an antibody monomer consists of _______ protein chains held together by disulfide bonds. a. four b. six c. eight d. three

four

4. The two 'arms' of the Y-shaped antibody molecule are known as the Fab region, which means: a. factor of antibody binding b. fragment of antigen binding c. fragment of antibody binding d. factor of antigen binding

fragment of antigen binding

3. Rose gardener's disease can occur when the __________________ Sporothrix schenkii breaches the skin through small cuts, such as might be inflicted by thorns. (credit a. virus b. alga c. bacteria d. fungus

fungus

3. Metal cans of food contaminated with C. botulinum will bulge due to the microbe's production of ___________ . a. gases b. proteins c. carbohydrates d. lipids

gases

11. During an oral surgery, the surgeon nicked the patient's gum with a sharp instrument. This allowed Streptococcus, a bacterium normally present in the mouth, to gain access to the blood. As a result, the patient developed bacterial endocarditis (an infection of the heart). Which type of disease is this? a. nosocomial b. iatrogenic c. zoonotic d. vectors

iatrogenic

3. Diseases that are contracted as the result of a medical procedure are known as ______________ diseases a. iatrogenic b. contagious c. intragenic d. infectious

iatrogenic

1. A(n) _____________________ is the successful colonization of a host by a microorganism. a. Infection b. Antibody c. Symptom d. Sign

infection

2. The topmost layer of skin, the epidermis, consists of cells that are packed with ________________ .. These dead cells remain as a tightly connected, dense layer of protein-filled cell husks on the surface of the skin. a. vessels b. microglia c. glands d. keratin

keratin

15. Identify the complement activation pathway that is triggered by the binding of an acute-phase protein to a pathogen. a. alternate b. lectin c. cathelicidin d. classical

lectin

11. Which of the following combinations would most likely contribute to the development of a superinfection? a. short-term use of broad-spectrum antimicrobials b. short-term use of narrow-spectrum antimicrobials c. long-term use of broad-spectrum antimicrobials d. long-term use of narrow-spectrum antimicrobials

long-term use of broad-spectrum antimicrobials

5. The thermal death point (TDP) of a microorganism is the __________________ temperature at which all microbes are killed in a ______ -minute exposure. a. highest, 20 b. lowest, 10 c. lowest, 20 d. highest, 30

lowest, 10

1. The state of being diseased is called __________________. a. death b. all of these c. morbidity d. mortality

morbidity

4. Some drugs are dose dependent, meaning they are ___________ effective when administered in large doses to provide high levels for a short time at the site of infection. a. less b. not c. more d. always

more

10. Which of the following types of medical items requires sterilization? a. blood pressure cuffs b. bed linens c. respiratory masks d. needles

needles

12. Which of the following routes of administration would be appropriate and convenient for home administration of an antimicrobial to treat a systemic infection? a. topical b. intravenous c. parenteral d. oral

oral

15. In the United States, public health authorities may only quarantine patients for certain diseases, such as cholera, diphtheria, infectious tuberculosis, and strains of influenza capable of causing a(n) ________________. a. warfare b. pandemic c. vector d. isolate

pandemic

7. One of the cell types discussed in the inflammation section can be described as _________________ which are cells whose main function is to seek, ingest, and kill pathogens. a. phagocytes b. monocytes c. microcytes d. cytokines

phagocytes

8. Once pathogen recognition and attachment occurs, the pathogen is engulfed in a vesicle and brought into the internal compartment of the phagocyte in a process called ____________________ . a. phagocilitosis b. phagomytosis c. phagocytosis d. phagosome

phagocytosis

11. Antibodies are produced by ________. a. Group of answer choices b. bone marrow c. plasma cells d. T cells e. Macrophages

plasma cells

5. With infectious diseases, an example of a ________________ source spread is a single contaminated potato salad at a group picnic. a. point b. propogated c. intermittent d. continuous

point

12. Which period is the stage of disease during which the patient begins to present general signs and symptoms? a. prodromal b. incubation c. illness d. convalescence

prodromal

14. Which of the following chemical mediators is secreted onto the surface of the skin? a. cerumen b. prostaglandin c. gastric acid d. sebum

sebum

14. Which of the following terms refers to the ability of an antimicrobial drug to harm the target microbe without harming the host? a. therapeutic level b. spectrum of activity c. selective toxicity d. mode of action

selective toxicity

9. A scientist discovers that a soil bacterium he has been studying produces an antimicrobial that kills gram-negative bacteria. She isolates and purifies the antimicrobial compound, then chemically converts a chemical side chain to a hydroxyl group. When she tests the antimicrobial properties of this new version, she finds that this antimicrobial drug can now also kill gram-positive bacteria. The new antimicrobial drug with broad-spectrum activity is considered to be which of the following? a. resistant b. semisynthetic c. natural d. synthetic

semisynthetic

5. Epithelial cells lining the upper parts of the respiratory tract are called ciliated epithelial cells because they have hair-like appendages known as cilia. Movement of the cilia propels debris-laden mucus out and away from the lungs. The expelled mucus is then (choose all -if any- that apply) a. sneezed out b. coughed up c. none of these d. destroyed in the stomach

sneezed out, coughed up, and destroyed in the stomach

10. Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is synthetic? a. sulfanilamide b. penicillin c. neomycin d. actinomycin

sulfanilamide

3. What is the name given to a secondary infection in a patient having a preexisting infection? a. superinfection b. extrainfection c. biinfection d. suprainfection

superinfection

11. Which of the following uses a particularly dense suite of tight junctions to prevent microbes from entering the underlying tissue? a. the urethra b. the epidermis c. the blood-brain barrier d. the mucociliary escalator

the blood-brain barrier

13. Which clinical situation would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug? a. empiric therapy of pneumonia while waiting for culture results b. treatment of a polymicrobic mixed infection in the intestine c. prophylaxis against infection after a surgical procedure d. treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified Streptococcus pyogenes

treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified Streptococcus pyogenes

6. Immediately following an injury, _______________________ of blood vessels will occur to minimize blood loss. The a. vasoconstriction b. vasocontraction c. xenodilation d. vasodilation

vasocontrscition

7. The ability of a microbial agent to cause disease is called pathogenicity, and the degree to which an organism is pathogenic is called _________________ . a. phenotypic b. pathogenicity c. microglia d. virulence

virulence