Chapter 19 - Blood - Study Questions
C. 4-6 liters
An adult human contains about _____ of blood. A. 10 quarts. B. 2-3 pints. C. 4-6 liters. D. 2-3 gallons.
increase
An inability of the liver to secrete bile could cause plasma bilirubin levels to:
increase
An increase in plasma levels of EPO would cause RBC count to:
increase
An increase in plasma levels of erythropoietin will cause blood viscosity to:
C. O
An individual who lacks A and B agglutinogens and has both A and B agglutinins has ABO blood type A. A. B. B. C. O. D. AB.
B. hemophilia
An inherited inability to produce clotting factor VIII or IX results in the condition known as: A. erythroblastosis fetalis. B. hemophilia. C. erythropenia. D. leukocytosis.
e. 2.7 L.
Art VanDelay has a blood volume of 5 Liters. 59% of his blood is composed of RBCs. 1% of his blood is composed of WBCs and platelets. How many liters of water does his blood contain? a. 1 L. b. 1.8 L. c. 2 L. d. 2.4 L. e. 2.7 L.
increase
As body temperature increases, the amount of blood flowing to capillaries in the skin will:
decrease
As erythropoiesis continues, the number of organelles in a developing RBC will:
decrease
As erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys decreases, hematocrit will:
decrease
As liver function decreases, the ability of the body to form fibrin would most likely:
decrease
As plasma [thrombin] increases, plasma [fibrinogen] will:
increase
As plasma osmotic pressure decreases, interstitial fluid formation will:
decrease
As the percentage of blood occupied by plasma increases, blood viscosity will:
increase
As the percentage of whole blood occupied by plasma decreases, blood viscosity will:
increase
As the rate of red blood cell destruction increases, plasma [bilirubin] will:
decrease
Aspirin causes the likelihood of platelet activation to:
increase
A blocked bile duct would cause plasma levels of bilirubin to:
decrease
A decline in plasma albumin levels would cause plasma osmotic pressure to:
decrease
A decrease in intrinsic factor production would cause the blood's oxygen carrying capacity to:
increase
A decrease in white blood cell count would cause the likelihood of an infection to:
e. Calcium: Iron.
A deficiency in _________ could cause clotting problems, while a deficiency in ________ could cause anemia. a. Iron: Cobalt. b. Calcium: Ferrenium. c. Copper: Manganese. d. Sodium: Iron. e. Calcium: Iron.
B. increased production of red blood cells
A high reticulocyte count might indicate: A. low levels of hemoglobin in the red blood cells. B. increased production of red blood cells. C. abnormal production of platelets. D. abnormal production of white blood cells.
decrease
A large decrease in RBC count would cause blood viscosity to:
increase
A mismatched transfusion of Type AB blood into an individual with Type O blood would make plasma [bilirubin]:
increase
A reduced ability to produce thrombin would cause the time required for blood clot formation to:
D. spleen
Aged red blood cells are destroyed mainly by macrophages in the _____. A. lungs. B. kidneys. C. thymus. D. spleen.
a. Prothrombin activator - extrinsic - intrinsic.
_______ is produced quickly by the _______ clotting mechanism and slowly by the __________ clotting mechanism. a. Prothrombin activator - extrinsic - intrinsic. b. Prothrombin activator - intrinsic - extrinsic. c. Thrombin - extrinsic - intrinsic. d. Thrombin - intrinsic - extrinsic. e. Plasmin - intrinsic - extrinsic.
decrease
During the vascular spasm phase of hemostasis, the diameter of the affected blood vessel will:
B. dissolution of a clot.
Fibrinolysis refers to: A. formation of an embolus. B. dissolution of a clot. C. rapid mitosis of fibroblasts at the. edges of a damaged vessel. D. breakdown of fibrin to form fibrinogen.
a. Larger than normal.
If an individual's intact endothelial cells were unable to secrete prostacyclin, his platelet plugs would most likely be: a. Larger than normal. b. Smaller than normal. c. Still normal. d. Composed primarily of leukocytes. e. Both C and D are correct.
increase
If plasmin was activated prior to clot formation, the time it takes for clot formation to occur would:
decrease
If the liver was unable to produce normal quantities of plasma proteins, plasma osmotic pressure would:
c. Production of fibrin.
In a condition known as disseminated intravascular coagulation, bacterial toxins activate thrombin. This would most likely cause: a. Production of prothrombin activator. b. Conversion of thrombin to prothrombin. c. Production of fibrin. d. Production of a platelet plug. e. All of the above.
increase
In response to a decrease in blood oxygen content, plasma levels of erythropoietin would:
increase
In response to a significant increase in altitude, the body's production of erythropoietin will:
increase
In response to damage to the wall of a blood vessel, the level of contraction of that blood vessel's smooth muscle will:
increase
In response to infection, plasma leukocyte count would be expected to:
D. the baby's blood cells hemolyze because anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother cross the placenta
In the condition " hemolytic disease of the newborn ", A. the mother's blood cells hemolyze because the baby's ABO antigens cross the placenta. B. the baby's blood cells hemolyze because the mother's ABO antibodies cross the placenta. C. the mother's blood cells hemolyze because the baby's Rh antigens cross the placenta. D. the baby's blood cells hemolyze because anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother cross the placenta.
a. Hemosiderin.
In the liver, iron can be stored as: a. Hemosiderin. b. Bilirubin. c. Stercobilin. d. Transferrin. e. Albumin.
B. pernicious.
Inadequate absorption of vitamin B12 leads to ________ anemia. A. hemorrhagic. B. pernicious. C. aplastic. D. hemolytic.
increase
Infection with a parasitic fluke would cause the number of granulocytes in the body to:
decrease
Large doses of antibiotics would cause the ability of the body to form thrombin to:
A. phagocytosis.
Neutrophils and macrophages are active in: A. phagocytosis. B. white blood cell formation. C. blood coagulation. D. antibody formation.
b. In a female adult, red blood cells are primarily synthesized in the tibia and fibula
Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. In a female adult, aged red blood cells are destroyed in the spleen. b. In a female adult, red blood cells are primarily synthesized in the tibia and fibula c. In a male child, red blood cells function in oxygen transport. d. Red blood cells that lack hemoglobin are less efficient at O2 transport. e. Red blood cells lack nuclei.
C. erythropoiesis.
The specific process by which red blood cells are formed is called: A. hemopoiesis. B. leukopoiesis. C. erythropoiesis. D. erythropoietin.
D. pluripotent stem cell
The stem cell that differentiates to form all types of blood cells is the A. myeloid stem cell. B. progranulocyte. C. proerythroblast. D. pluripotent stem cell.
decrease
Urokinase is an enzyme that activates plasminogen. Thus, urokinase causes the likelihood of clot formation to:
A. hemostasis.
Vascular spasms and platelet plug formation are steps in: A. hemostasis. B. hemopoiesis. C. agglutination. D. erythropoiesis.
C. AB
What blood type is indicated by C? A. A. B. B. C. AB. D. O.
D. fibrin, thrombin
When a blood vessel is damaged, clot formation includes the conversion of fibrinogen into _____ by the action of the enzyme _____. A. thrombin, prothrombin. B. thrombin, erythropoietin. C. fibrin, prothrombin. D. fibrin, thrombin.
C. eosinophils
Which blood cell type is elevated in a parasitic infection? A. basophils. B. neutrophils. C. eosinophils. D. monocytes.
C. O
Which blood type in theory could be considered the universal donor? A. A. B. B. C. O. D. AB.
C. thrombocytes
Which formed elements of the blood are produced from fragmentation of megakaryocytes? A. lymphocytes. B. monocytes. C. thrombocytes. D. eosinophils.
a. Basophils.
Which of the following WBCs contains granules filled with chemicals involved in the inflammatory process? a. Basophils. b. Lymphocytes. c. Platelets. d. Neutrophils. e. Eosinophils.
B. formation of prothrombinase.
Which of the following begins the common pathway in clotting? A. release of tissue factor. B. formation of prothrombinase. C. formation of fibrinogen. D. release of thromboplastin.
C. leukemia
Which of the following blood diseases is characterized by the production of large numbers of immature leukocytes? A. anemia. B. leukopenia. C. leukemia. D. polycythemia.
b. Basophil.
Which of the following contains granules filled with histamine and heparin? a. Erythrocyte. b. Basophil. c. Eosinophil. d. Thrombocyte. e. None of the above.
b. Fibrinolysis.
Which of the following events associated with coagulation occurs LAST? a. Clot retraction. b. Fibrinolysis. c. Formation of fibrin. d. Formation of prothrombin activator. e. Formation of thrombin.
D. digestion of nutrient
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood? A. transport of dissolved gases. B. distribution of nutrients. C. restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels. D. digestion of nutrient.
a. Liver.
Which of the following is NOT a site of erythropoiesis in the adult male? a. Liver. b. Proximal epiphysis of the humerus. c. Sternum. d. Ribs. e. Proximal epiphysis of the femur.
b. Transferrin - transports heme within the plasma.
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with its function? a. Albumin - maintains plasma osmotic pressure. b. Transferrin - transports heme within the plasma. c. Hemoglobin - transports oxygen. d. Thrombin - involved in fibrin production. e. Ferritin - storage of iron in the liver.
e. Normal blood pH is basic.
Which of the following is TRUE? a. Blood is an example of a specialized epithelial tissue. b. Neutrophils and eosinophils are not formed elements. c. Water is 3 times as viscous as blood. d. Blood temperature is typically 18°C lower than core body temperature. e. Normal blood pH is basic.
e. 1, 2, and 3.
Which of the following is a function of blood? 1. Gas transport. 2. Hormone transport. 3. Heat transport. a. 1 only. b. 2 only. c. 3 only. d. 2 and 3 only. e. 1, 2, and 3.
e. All of the above.
Which of the following is a function of blood? a. Nutrient transport. b. Heat transport. c. Maintaining body temperature. d. Immunity. e. All of the above.
A. monocyte
Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that leaves the blood and becomes a wandering macrophage? A. monocyte. B. neutrophil. C. eosinophil. D. basophil.
d. 90% water.
Which of the following is characteristic of plasma? a. 5 times as viscous as H2O. b. Scarlet to dark red in color. c. Volume of 5-6 liters in males. d. 90% water. e. All of the above.
e. Normal temperature of blood in degrees Fahrenheit.
Which of the following is the LARGEST? a. Number of nuclei in a red blood cell. b. Normal percentage of WBCs in the blood that are neutrophils. c. Number of iron atoms in one hemoglobin protein. d. Number of pulmonary veins that empty into the left atrium. e. Normal temperature of blood in degrees Fahrenheit.
A. Presence or absence of Rh antigens is genetically determined
Which of the following is true concerning the Rh blood group? A. Presence or absence of Rh antigens is genetically determined. B. People with blood type B are really B negative. C. Being Rh- is associated with sickle-cell disease. D. Rh+ people can give blood to anyone.
d. Lymphocytes.
Which of the following leukocytes exerts the most control over the immune system? . a. Neutrophils. b. Basophils. c. Granulocytes . d. Lymphocytes. e. Monocytes.
d. All of the above.
Which of the following occurs in the red bone marrow? a. Erythropoiesis. b. Leukopoiesis. c. Thrombopoiesis. d. All of the above. e. Only 2 of the above.
c. Transferrin.
Which of the following shuttles iron to the liver? a. Albumin. b. Stercobilin. c. Transferrin. d. Ferritin. e. Hemosiderin.
A. platelets are cytoplasmic fragments containing clotting elements
Which of the following statements describes platelets? A. platelets are cytoplasmic fragments containing clotting elements. B. platelets are fully formed cells with clotting elements. C. platelets are derived from WBCs. D. platelets are derived from RBCs.
C. Biliverdin is produced from the breakdown of the non-iron portion of heme.
Which of the following statements is true? A. Iron is stored in the liver as globin. B. The globin portion of hemoglobin is eliminated as urobilinogen. C. Biliverdin is produced from the breakdown of the non-iron portion of heme. D. Red blood cells can live for years before being broken down.
C. 47%
Which of the following would be a normal hematocrit in an adult male? A. 22% B. 36% C. 47% D. 73%
b. Erythrocytes.
Which of the following would be the greatest source of blood viscosity? a. Basophils. b. Erythrocytes. c. Reticulocytes. d. Thrombocytes. e. Lymphocytes.
a. Inability to secrete bile.
Which of the following would cause a rise in plasma bilirubin levels? a. Inability to secrete bile. b. Excessive destruction of white blood cells. c. The presence of vitamin K producing bacteria in the colon. d. Deficiency of EPO.
C. nuclei, granules
White blood cells are identified microscopically by the shape of their ______ and presence or absence of ______ in the cytoplasm. A. cell membrane, mitochondria. B. Golgi bodies, endoplasmic reticulum. C. nuclei, granules. D. mitochondria, hemoglobin.
a. Heme.
Bilirubin is formed from: a. Heme. b. Globin. c. Transferrin. d. Gastroferritin. e. Factor X.
a. I, II, III, and IV.
Blood is involved in: I. Nutrient distribution. II. Transport of nitrogenous wastes. III. Maintaining adequate electrolytes levels in the body . IV. Transport of white blood cells. a. I, II, III, and IV. b. I, II, and III. c. II, III. and IV. d. I, II, and IV. e. I, III, and IV.
A. less than 10 percent.
Blood makes up _____ of the total body mass. A. less than 10 percent. B. about half. C. 70 percent. D. almost all.
D. erythropoietin
Chemotherapy tends to destroy normal marrow cells as well as cancerous cells. Which of the following might be used to stimulate hemopoiesis in a cancer patient? A. histamine. B. albumins. C. intrinsic factor. D. erythropoietin.
B. an embolus
Clotting may occur in an undamaged blood vessel. When that clot breaks loose and circulates through the bloodstream it is called A. an aneurysm. B. an embolus. C. a thrombus. D. a thrombocyte.
decrease
Daily injections of erythropoietin will make the percentage of blood occupied by plasma:
increase
Dehydration would cause the hematocrit to:
increase
During a severe allergic reaction, the number of eosinophils in the body would:
increase
During an infection, the size of the buffy coat will:
D. thrombin
During clotting, prothrombin is activated to form: A. fibrin. B. fibrinogen. C. prothrombin activator. D. thrombin.
decrease
During leukopenia the body's ability to prevent bacterial infection will:
increase
During the body's response to an acute bacterial infection, you would expect the neutrophil count to:
C. gamma globulins
Plasma proteins which act as antibodies and attack foreign proteins are classified as: A. albumins. B. serotonin. C. gamma globulins. D. fibrin.
decrease
Plasmin causes local fibrin levels to:
increase
Pooling of blood causes the likelihood of clot formation to:
decrease
Prostacyclin causes the likelihood of platelet plug formation to:
decrease
The activation of plasminogen will cause the size of a blood clot to:
D. water
The most abundant molecule present in blood plasma is: A. a protein called albumin. B. fibrinogen. C. glucose. D. water.
b. Positive chemotaxis.
The movement of white blood cells towards a chemical known as LPS would be an example of ________________________. a. Diapedesis. b. Positive chemotaxis. c. Amoebeosis . d. Amphoteris.
D. sickle-cell disease
The presence of an abnormal hemoglobin molecule results in the inability of RBCs to maintain their shape when oxygen levels in the blood decrease. This condition is known as A. hemophilia. B. leukemia. C. polycythemia. D. sickle-cell disease.
B. red bone marrow
The primary site of hemopoiesis in adult humans is in the: A. spleen. B. red bone marrow. C. liver. D. thymus.
d. Platelet.
The smallest formed element is the: a. RBC. b. Lymphocyte. c. Macrophage. d. Platelet. e. Hemocytoblast.
